AFCAT 01/2023 Memory Based Paper 25 Feb 2023 (Previous Year Paper)

Option 1 is correct, i.e. Sardar Patel.

Vallabhbhai Patel:

• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel presided over the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931.
• He is known as the Iron Man of India.
• Mahatma Gandhi gave the title of Sardar to Vallabhbhai Patel.
• He is also known as the Bismark of India because he had played a major role in uniting India.
• He is also related to Bardoli Satyagraha.

Additional Information

Abul Kalam Azad:

• He was India's first education Minister and an independence movement leader.
• He was awarded Bharat Ratna in the year 1992 posthumously.
• He argued that those who selected the awardees should not be the recipients themselves.

Subhas Chandra Bose:

• Subhas Chandra Bose started the greeting of ‘Jai Hind’.
• The Forward Bloc of the Indian National Congress was formed on June 22, 1939, by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose,  who had resigned from the presidency of the Indian National Congress on 29 April after being outmanoeuvred by Mohandas K. Gandhi.
• Subhash Chandra Bose and Sardul Singh Kavishar were the party's first president and vice-president respectively.
• It held its first conference in Nagpur from June 20-22,  1940 where it demanded complete independence to Indian.
• It had its own newspaper called Forward Bloc.

Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi:

• Mahatma Gandhi, by name of Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi, (born October 2, 1869, Porbandar, India—died January 30, 1948, Delhi)
• He was a lawyer, politician, social activist, and writer who became the leader of the nationalist movement against the British rule of India.

The correct answer is Baldev Singh.

Key Points

• The first Defence Minister of independent India was Baldev Singh.
• Baldev Singh was an Indian Sikh political leader, he was an Indian independence movement leader and the first Defence Minister of India.
• Moreover, he represented the Punjabi Sikh community in the processes of negotiations that resulted in the independence of India, as well as the Partition of India in 1947.
• After independence, Baldev Singh was chosen to become the first Minister of Defence, hence becoming the "First Sikh Defence Minister" of any country in the world, and served in this post during the first Kashmir war between India and Pakistan.
• He is addressed often with the title of Sardar, which in Punjabi and Hindi means leader or chief.

Additional Information

• Kailash Nath Katju was a prominent politician in India.
• He was the Governor of Orissa and West Bengal, the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh, the Union Home Minister and the Union Defence Minister.
• Vengalil Krishnan Krishna Menon was an Indian academic, politician, and non-career diplomat.
• He was described by some as the second most powerful man in India, after Pandit Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India.
• Yashwantrao Balwantrao Chavan was an Indian politician.
• He served as the last Chief Minister of Bombay State and the first of Maharashtra after the latter was created by the division of Bombay State.

The correct answer is Panama Canal.

Key Points

• Panama Canal is called the "Gateway to the Pacific".
• The Panama Canal is a shortcut between the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean.
• Using the Panama Canal enables shipping to avoid the longer and stormy passage around Cape Horn (the southern tip of South America).

Additional Information

• Suez Canal:
• It is a sea-level waterway in Egypt, connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez.
• Bering Sea:
• It​ is a marginal sea of the Northern Pacific Ocean.
• It forms, along with the Bering Strait, the divide between the two largest landmasses on Earth: Eurasia and The Americas.
• Gulf of Alaska:
• It is a broad inlet of the North Pacific on the south coast of Alaska, the U.S. Bounded by the Alaska Peninsula and Kodiak Island (west) and Cape Spencer (east).

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. West Bengal.

• Chhattisgarh is a state of central India.
• On 1 November 2000, this state was carved out of Madhya Pradesh.
• Its capital is Raipur.
• This state is bounded by the Indian states of Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand to the north and northeast, Odisha (Orissa) to the east, Telangana (formerly part of Andhra Pradesh) to the south, and Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh to the west.

The correct answer is Kylian Mbappe.

Key Points

• Kylian Mbappe has scored maximum number of goals in the FIFA World Cup 2022. At the end of the world cup 2022, he had 8 goals.
• Kylian Mbappe won the Golden Boot thanks to a hat-trick in the final of FIFA World Cup 2022 in Qatar, but ended up on the losing side.
• Mbappe and Lionel Messi were both on five goals going into the tournament finale between Argentina and France.

Additional Information 

• Lionel Messi was awarded the ​Golden Ball Award. At the end of the world cup 2022, he had 7 goals and 3 assists.
• Lionel Messi also became the first man to win two Golden Ball Awards as he had bagged the honour in 2014 when Argentina lost the final to Germany.
• Enzo Fernandez was awarded the Young Player Award.
• Emi Martinez was awarded the Golden Glove Award.
• The 2022 FIFA World Cup: 
• It took place in Qatar.
• It was the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world.
• It was the second World Cup held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.
• The tournament was won by Argentina.
• ​Argentina defeated France by 4-2.

The correct answer is Wrestling.

Key Points

• Vinesh Phogat
• Vinesh Phogat is an Indian wrestler who comes from a successful family of wrestlers, with her cousins Geeta Phogat and Babita Kumari, being international wrestlers and Commonwealth Games medalists as well.
• She became the first Indian woman wrestler to win Gold in both Commonwealth and Asian games.

Additional Information

• India women's wrestler Vinesh Phogat won her second gold medal in two weeks as she defeated Canada's Diana Weicker 4-0 in the final of the Matteo Pellicone Ranking Series event in Rome and reclaimed the top rank in her category.
• Vinesh Phogat defeated world number seven Vanesa Kaladzinskaya of Belarus in the finals on 28 February 2021.
• As of February 2021, Vinesh is the only Indian woman wrestler to qualify for the Tokyo Olympics for the 53 kg category.

The correct answer is Kyiv.

Key Points

• Kyiv is the capital of Ukraine.
• ​Currency: hryvnia
• President: Volodymyr Zelenskyy.

Additional Information

• Bucharest is the capital of Romania.
• Currency: Romanian leu.
• Minsk is the capital of Belarus.
• Currency: Belarusian ruble.
• Republic of Moldova:
• Its capital is Chișinău.
• Currency: Moldovan leu

The correct answer is 1(B), 2(C), 3(D), 4(A).

Key Points

Tholu Bommalata

• It is a shadow puppet from Andhra Pradesh which has a rich and strong tradition.
• The puppets are large in size to cast a shadow.
• They have a jointed waist, shoulders, elbows, and knees.
• They are coloured on both sides and throw coloured shadows on the screen.
• The classical music of the region is used.
• The theme of the puppet plays is drawn from the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and Puranas.

Kalasutri Bahulya

• Kalasutri Bahulya puppet dance has its roots in the state of Maharashtra, India.
• This traditional art form is characterized by the skillful manipulation of string puppets, creating a captivating dance performance.
• Accompanied by the melodious tones of traditional Maharashtrian musical instruments such as the tabla, harmonium, and occasionally the shehnai, the dance unfolds against a rhythmic backdrop.

Kathputli

• The traditional marionettes of Rajasthan are known as Kathputli.
• Kathputli is a string puppet.
• Kathputli is a join of two Rajasthani language words Kath meaning wood and Putli meaning a doll.

Putul Nach

• Folk Puppetry in West Bengal is called Putul Naach.
• Putul is a word that describes both a doll and a puppet in Bengali while Naach means Dance.

The correct answer is Junko Taibei.

Key Points 

• The first woman to climb Mount Everest was Junko Taibei.
• Junko Taibei
• Junko Tabei preferred to be known as the 36th person to climb Everest.
• The first to climb the Seven Summits called for more than just remarkable skill and fitness.
• Tabei faced virulent mid-20th century sexism, defying cultural expectations for women, who, at the time, and especially in her home country of Japan.
• Regardless, she fell in love with climbing at ten years old on a class trip to Japan’s Mounts Asahi and Chausu.
• She began climbing in earnest with a mountain climbing club while she pursued a degree in literature and education at Showa Women’s University.
• Most often, she was the only woman on climbing trips and at club meetings.

Additional Information Arunima Sinha:

• India's Arunima Sinha became the world's first female amputee to climb Mount Everest in 2013.
• The 30-year-old has now become the first female amputee to climb Mount Vinson, the highest peak in Antarctica.
• Apart from Everest, Arunima has also scaled Mount Kilimanjaro in Africa, Elbrus in Europe, Kosciuszko in Australia, Aconcagua in Argentina, and Carstensz Pyramid (Puncak Jaya) in Indonesia before this.

The correct answer is 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a.

Key Points

• | Column 1 | Column 2 | | --- | --- | | 1. Keladevi | d. Rajasthan | | 2. Pench | c. Madhya Pradesh | | 3. Udaypur | b. Bihar | | 4. Cotigao | a. Goa |

• Hence option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

• Keoladeo National Park
• Keoladeo National Park is located in Rajasthan.
• Keoladeo Ghana National Park was formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary.
• Over 350 species of birds are known to be resident.
• It is also a major tourist centre with scores of ornithologists arriving here in the hibernal season.
• It is also a World Heritage Site.
• Pench national park
• Pench national park is also located in the state of Madhya Pradesh and derives its name from the river Pench flowing through it.
• It was initially a wildlife sanctuary and was declared as a national park in 1992.
• Royal Bengal tiger, wild boar, sloth bear, Indian leopard, fox, striped hyena, monkey, gaur, barking deer, four-horned antelope are the key fauna.
• Both Kanha and Pench National Park are considered to be an inspiration for the ‘Jungle Book’ by Rudyard Kipling.
• Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary
• Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary located in the West Champaran district of Bihar state.
• It was established in 1978 and covers an area of 8.74 sq km.
• The wildlife sanctuary is predominantly wetland, located on an oxbow lake in the floodplain of the Gandaki River.
• It is home to a variety of water birds, both resident and migratory.
• Cotigao Wildlife Sanctuary​
• The Cotigao Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Canacona Taluka, South Goa district, of Goa, India, established in 1968.
• There is an eco-tourism complex at the entrance of the sanctuary that houses a nature interpretation centre, cottages, toilets, library, reception area, rescue centre, canteen, children's park, and forest ranger office.

The correct answer is both 1 and 2.

Key Points

• The Security Council held its first session on 17 January 1946.
• It is headquartered in New York City.
• When the UN Security Council was first established in 1945, there were 11 members in total: 5 permanent and 6 non-permanent.
• In 1965, the number of non-permanent members was increased from 6 to 10, making the Council 15 members in total. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Council is composed of 15 Members at present:
• Five permanent members: China, France, Russian Federation, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
• Ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The United Nations Charter established six main organs of the United Nations, including the Security Council.
• It gives primary responsibility for maintaining international peace and security to the Security Council, which may meet whenever peace is threatened.
• According to the Charter, the United Nations has four purposes:
• To maintain international peace and security
• To develop friendly relations among nations
• To cooperate in solving international problems and in promoting respect for human rights
• To be a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

• The Committee for Draft National Education Policy was headed by Dr. K. Kasturirangan. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Committee was constituted by the Ministry of Human Resource Development in June 2017.
• The NEP 2020 is the first new education policy to be introduced in India in the 21^st century, the last having been implemented in 1986, 34 years ago. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Important Points

• Key features of NEP:
• The NEP 2020 aims at making “India a global knowledge superpower”.
• Universalisation of education from preschool to secondary level with 100% Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by 2030.
• To bring 2 crores out of school children back into the mainstream through an open schooling system.
• The current 10 + 2 system to be replaced by a new 5 + 3 + 3 + 4 curricular structure corresponding to ages 3-8, 8-11, 11-14, and 14-18 years respectively.
• It will bring the uncovered age group of 3-6 years under the school curriculum, which has been recognized globally as the crucial stage for the development of mental faculties of a child.
• It will also have 12 years of schooling with three years of Anganwadi/ pre-schooling.

The correct answer is the National Payments Corporation of India.

• ​​Taking the first step towards having a digital currency in the country, PM Modi will launch an electronic voucher-based digital payment system “e-RUPI”.
• The platform, which has been developed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the National Health Authority, will be a person-specific and purpose-specific payments system

Key Points

• e-RUPI:
• e-RUPI is a cashless and contactless digital payments medium, which will be delivered to the mobile phones of beneficiaries in form of an SMS string or a QR code.
• This will essentially be like a prepaid gift voucher that will be redeemable at specific accepting centres without any credit or debit card, a mobile app or internet banking.
• e-RUPI will connect the sponsors of the services with the beneficiaries and service providers in a digital manner without any physical interface.

Important Points

• significance of e-RUPI
• The government is already working on developing a central bank digital currency and the launch of e-RUPI could potentially highlight the gaps in digital payments infrastructure that will be necessary for the success of the future digital currency.
• In effect, e-RUPI is still backed by the existing Indian rupee as the underlying asset and the specificity of its purpose makes it different to a virtual currency and puts it closer to a voucher-based payment system.
• Also, the ubiquitousness of e-RUPI in the future will depend on the end-use cases.
• On the other hand, central bank digital currency or CBDC — digital currencies issued by a central bank that generally take on a digital form of the nation’s existing fiat currency

Tungsten is used to make filaments. This is because of the following properties:

• It has a very high melting point.
• It is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
• Due to high resistivity, it does not burn at room temperature and the bulb glows at high temperatures.
• It does not oxidize in presence of a vacuum.

Explanation:

• Ozone is a protective layer that envelopes the earth's atmosphere.
• Ozone is an allotrope of oxygen.
• It is also represented and identified by the chemical formula O3.
• It is composed of three oxygen atoms.
• Ozone is responsible for shielding the earth from the harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation emitted by the sun.
• The structure of ozone is

The correct answer is O3.

Important Points

Additional Information

• Ozone is formed in the atmosphere by the combination of atomic oxygen with an oxygen molecule.
• Dissociation of an oxygen molecule in presence of sunlight,

​$O_{2}+h\nu \rightarrow 2O$

• Combination of atomic oxygen and oxygen molecule,

 $O_{2}+O \rightarrow O_{3}$

• Ozone can also be synthesized in a laboratory by using the electric discharge method.

The correct answer is Fred W. Wolf.

Key Points

• In 1913, American Fred W. Wolf invented the first home electric refrigerator, which featured a refrigeration unit on top of an icebox.

Additional Information

Attributing the invention of the fridge to a single person isn't quite accurate, as it was a result of numerous contributions over time. Here's a breakdown of key figures and milestones:

Early Concepts (18th & 19th centuries):

• 1748: Scottish physician William Cullen demonstrated the cooling effect of evaporating a liquid, laying the foundation for future developments.
• 1805: American inventor Oliver Evans designed a blueprint for a refrigeration machine but never built it.
• 1834: American Jacob Perkins built the first practical vapor-compression refrigeration system based on Evans' design.
• 1851: American physician John Gorrie patented a compressed air refrigerator for cooling his yellow fever patients.
• 1876: German engineer Carl von Linde patented a process for liquefying gas, crucial for modern refrigeration technology.

Emergence of Commercial and Domestic Refrigeration (late 19th & early 20th centuries):

• 1850: Alexander Twining developed the first practical commercial refrigeration machine.
• 1899: American Albert T. Marshall secured the first patent for a domestic refrigerator, though still large and expensive.
• 1913: American Fred W. Wolf invented the first home electric refrigerator, with the unit mounted on top of an icebox.
• 1918: William C. Durant introduced the first mass-produced domestic refrigerator with a self-contained compressor.
• 1922: Swedish students Baltzar von Platen and Carl Munters invented the absorption refrigerator, later commercialized by Electrolux.

Correct Answer Pune

Key Points:

• Dr. Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of State for Science and Technology launched India's first indigenous hydrogen fuel cell bus developed by KPIT CSIR on 21 August 2022 in Pune.
• Hydrogen vision is critical for India to ensure self-reliant and accessible clean energy, meet climate change goals and create new entrepreneurs and jobs.
• Green hydrogen is an excellent clean energy vector that enables deep decarbonization of even the most difficult emissions from the refining industry, fertilizer industry, steel industry, cement industry, and the heavy commercial transport sector.
• The uniqueness of the process developed by CSIR-NCL is an innovative downstream process technology, which makes this indigenous technology competitive with global benchmarks. The process is ready for technology transfer and further co-development on a commercial scale.

Additional Information

• Inaugurated Bisphenol-A Pilot Plant at CSIR-NCL.
• These pilot plants have successfully demonstrated the innovative process technologies developed by NCL under CSIR's COVID-19 Mission Program and Bulk Chemicals Mission Programme.
• Bisphenol-A (BPA) is an important feedstock for the production of epoxy resins, polycarbonates, and other engineering plastics.
• The global market for Bisphenol-A is projected to reach 7.1 million tonnes by 2027, growing at a CAGR of 2 percent in the analysis period 2020-2027.
• Today a total estimated annual demand of 135,000 tonnes is imported into India.
• CSIR-NCL's technology will enable import substitution of this vital raw material and aid India's Atmanirbhar initiative.

The correct answer is 'Abdel Fattah Al Sisi'.

Key Points

• President of Egypt, Abdel Fattah Al Sisi will be the Chief Guest at Republic Day celebrations on 26 January 2023.
• He has been serving as the sixth president of Egypt since 2014.
• Both India and Egypt are celebrating the 75th anniversary of the establishment of diplomatic relations this year.
• Egypt has been invited as a ‘Guest Country’ during India’s Presidency of G-20 in 2022-23.

Additional Information

• Egypt, officially the Arab Republic of Egypt, is a transcontinental country spanning the northeast corner of Africa and southwest corner of Asia via a land bridge formed by the Sinai Peninsula.
• Cairo is the capital and largest city of Egypt.
• Prime Minister of Egypt: Moustafa Madbouly
• Current of Egypt: Egyptian Pound (EGP)

The correct answer is ​Theatre and a Culture of Peace.

Key Points

• World Theatre Day is celebrated on 27 March every year.
• The theme for World Theatre Day 2022 is "Theatre and a Culture of Peace."
• World Theatre Day was first celebrated by the International Theatre Institute (ITI) in the year 1961, on 27 March.

Important Points

• The Day provides opportunities for theatrical communities to promote their work on a large scale so that governments recognise and support the worth and importance of dance in all of its forms.
• Every year, a renowned figure in theatre or a person of exceptional heart and soul from another sector is asked to express their thoughts on theatre and international harmony.

The correct answer is Svante Pääbo.

Key Points 

• The Nobel Prize in Medicine or Physiology for 2022 was awarded to Svante Pääbo.
• He was recognized for his groundbreaking discoveries concerning the genomes of extinct hominins and human evolution.

Additional Information 

• Nobel Prize winners 2022

Nobel Prize winners 2023:

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Exercise SIMBEX:

• The Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX) is an annual exercise conducted by the Indian Navy and Republic of Singapore Navy (RSN) since 1994.
• It aims to enhance interoperability and mutual understanding between the two navies, as well as develop skills in various maritime operations.
• The exercise typically consists of a harbor phase for planning and interaction, and a sea phase for live drills.
• SIMBEX is considered the longest uninterrupted naval exercise India has with any other country, and it reflects the close strategic partnership between India and Singapore.

Exercise INDRA:

• The INDRA series of exercises began in 2003 and was conducted as a bilateral naval exercise alternately between India and Russia.
• However, the first joint Tri-Services Exercise was conducted in 2017.
• Exercise INDRA-21 will further strengthen mutual confidence and interoperability between the Indian & Russian Armies and enable sharing of best practices between the contingents of both countries.

Exercise SURYAKIRAN:

• Surya Kiran is a bilateral military exercise conducted annually between the Indian Army and the Nepal Army.
• It began in 2011, aiming to strengthen military cooperation and interoperability between the two nations.
• The exercise is held alternately in India and Nepal, showcasing different terrains and challenges.
• The 17th edition of Surya Kiran was held in Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand, India, from November 24 to December 7, 2023.

Exercise GARUDA SHAKTI:

• Garuda Shakti is a bilateral exercise between the special forces of the armies of India and Indonesia.
• This joint military exercise is a part of India and Indonesia's defence cooperation.
• The bilateral military exercise between India and Indonesia started in 2012.

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

• Russia has recently test-fired the cruise missile named Tsrikon on the birthday of Vladimir Putin.
• It is hypersonic missile with Mach number 9.
• It is capable of hitting both ground and sea targets within a range of 1000km.

Additional Information

• Russia:
• Russia the largest country in the world is located in both Asian and European continents.
• It capital Moscow is located in the European part of the country.
• Though 75% area of Russia is part of Asia and its 75% population lives in the European part of Russia.
• It came into existence after the disintegration of former USSR in 1991.
• Vladimir Putin is the incumbent President and Mikhail Mishustin the Prime Minister of Russia.
• It is separated from the North American Continent by Bering Strait.

The correct answer is ISRO.

Key PointsVikas Engine (ISRO):

• Developed by: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
• Named after: Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, founder of Indian space program
• Purpose: Propulsion system for launch vehicles like PSLV and GSLV
• Propellants: UDMH (fuel) & N2O4 (oxidizer)

Additional Information

Benefits:

• Precise control and maneuverability
• Versatility and reliability
• Continuous improvement and adaptability

Significance:

• Workhorse for ISRO's launch vehicles
• Crucial role in India's space endeavors
• Contributes to successful satellite launches and missions

The correct answer is Brazil.

Key Points

• The Embraer EMB 135BJ Legacy 650 is a twin-engine, medium-range business jet derived from the successful ERJ 135 regional airliner of Brazil.
• The Legacy 650 can comfortably seat up to 14 passengers in a variety of configurations, making it ideal for small to medium-sized groups.
• With a maximum range of 3,900 nautical miles (7,220 kilometers), the Legacy 650 can connect major business centers around the world with ease.
• The Legacy 650 is known for its reliability and low operating costs, making it a popular choice for corporate flight departments.
• It is also certified for single-pilot operation, which further reduces operating costs and increases flexibility.
• The Legacy 650 has been continuously improved since its introduction, with the latest model, the Legacy 650E, offering even better performance and efficiency.
• As of October 2023, over 500 Legacy 650 and Legacy 650E jets are in operation worldwide.

The correct answer is Dr Samir V Kamat.

Key Points

• Distinguished Scientist Dr Samir V Kamat has been appointed as the new chairman of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
• Kamat will succeed Dr G. Satheesh Reddy who has been appointed as Scientific Adviser to Defence Minister.
• Earlier, Dr Kamat was Director General of Naval Systems & Materials at DRDO since July 2017.

Additional Information

• The Defence Research and Development Organisation is the premier agency under the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India.
• It is charged with the military's research and development in India.
• DRDO:
• Founded: 1958
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• Motto: "Strength's Origin is in Science"

Given:

A basket containing 13 apples and 13 oranges

Formula Used:

ⁿC_r = n! / r! ×(n! - r!) 

P(A) = No. of favourable outcomes/ Total no. of outcomes 

Calculation:

Total fruits (outcomes) = 13 apples + 13 oranges = 26 

Probability of taking two fruits = ¹³C₂ + 13C2

⇒ 2 × ¹³C₂ 

⇒ 2 × {(13!)/ 2! × (13 - 2)!}

⇒ 2 × {(13!)/ 2! × (11)!}

⇒ 2 × {13 ×12 (11!)/ 2! × (11)!} 

⇒ 2 × (13 ×12/2) = 156

Total outcomes = ²⁶C₂ = 325

P(A) = 156/325 = 12/25

∴ Probability of taking two fruits and both being the same is 12/25.

Shortcut Trick

Area of a path constructed inside a rectangle is given by: Area = 2w(L + B − 2w)

Where L = 20 m, B = 15 m, w = 1 m

⇒ Area = 2 × 1 × (20 + 15 − 2 × 1)

⇒ Area = 2 × (35 − 2)

⇒ Area = 2 × 33 = 66 m²

∴ The correct answer is 66 m².

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the outer park (L) = 20 m

Breadth of the outer park (B) = 15 m

Width of the inner path (w) = 1 m

Formula Used:

Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth

Area of inner path = Area of outer rectangle − Area of inner rectangle

Calculations:

⇒ Area of outer rectangular park = 20 × 15 = 300 m²

Since the path of 1 m width is made inside, the dimensions of the inner rectangle will decrease by 2 m (1 m from each side).

⇒ Inner length (l) = 20 − (2 × 1) = 18 m

⇒ Inner breadth (b) = 15 − (2 × 1) = 13 m

⇒ Area of inner rectangle = 18 × 13 = 234 m²

⇒ Area of path = 300 − 234 = 66 m²

∴ The correct answer is 66 m².

Additional Information

Path Inside a Rectangle

When a path of width w is constructed inside a rectangular park of length L and breadth B, Area of path = 2w(L + B − 2w).

Path Outside a Rectangle

When a path of width w is constructed outside a rectangular park of length L and breadth B, Area of path = 2w(L + B + 2w).

Cross Path Inside a Rectangle

When two mutually perpendicular paths of width w cross each other centrally inside a rectangle, Area of path = w(L + B − w).

Given:

The average weight of A, B, and C = 45 kg

The average weight of A and B = 40 kg

The average weight of B and C = 43 kg

Calculation:

According to question,

Total weight of A, B, and C

A + B + C = 45 × 3 = 135 kg       ----(1)

Total weight of A and B

A + B = 2 × 40 = 80 kg                -----(2)

Total weight of B and C

B + C = 2 × 43 = 86 kg               -----(3)

On adding equation (2) & (3)

⇒ A + 2B + C = 80 + 86

⇒ (A + B + C) + B = 166

From quation (1)

⇒ 135 + B = 166

⇒ B = 166 - 135 = 31 kg

∴ Correct answer is 31 kg.

Given:

Read 1st day = $\frac{5}{9}$

Read 2nd day = $\frac{4}{5}$ of remaining

Remaining pages = 40

Formula used:

Total pages = Total units × Value of 1 unit

Calculation:

Let total units = 9 × 5 = 45 units

1st day read = $\frac{5}{9} \times 45$ = 25 units

Remaining after 1st day = 45 - 25 = 20 units

2nd day read = $\frac{4}{5} \times 20$ = 16 units

Final remaining = 20 - 16 = 4 units

⇒ 4 units = 40

⇒ 1 unit = $\frac{40}{4}$ = 10

⇒ Total pages = 45 units = 45 × 10 = 450

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Mixture of acid and water = 840 ml

Ratio of acid and water = 4 : 3

Calculation:

Let acid be 4a and water 3a

4a + 3a = 840

⇒ 7a = 840

⇒ a = 120 ml

Acid = 120 × 4 = 480 ml

Water = 120 × 3 = 360 ml

Let b amount of water be added to make ratio 1 : 1

480/(360 + b) = 1/1

⇒ 480 = 360 + b

⇒ b = 120 ml

∴ The correct answer is 120 ml

Shortcut Trick

Let the middle-sized piece be 1 unit. Then the longest piece is 3 units.

The shortest piece is 3 units − 23.

Total: 3 units + 1 unit + 3 units − 23 = 40 cm

7 units = 63 ⇒ 1 unit = 9 cm

Shortest piece = 3(9) − 23 = 4 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 4 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total length of the string = 40 cm

Longest piece (L) = 3 × Middle piece (M)

Shortest piece (S) = Longest piece (L) − 23

Let the middle-sized piece be x cm.

⇒ Longest piece (L) = 3x

⇒ Shortest piece (S) = 3x − 23

⇒ L + M + S = 40

⇒ 3x + x + (3x − 23) = 40

⇒ 7x − 23 = 40

⇒ 7x = 63

⇒ x = 9 cm

⇒ Shortest piece = 3(9) − 23 = 27 − 23 = 4 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 4 cm.

Additional Information

Linear Equations in One Variable

These problems involve representing unknown quantities using a single variable (like x) and forming an equation based on the given constraints.

Part-to-Whole Relationship

In cutting problems, the sum of all individual segments must exactly equal the total original length: ∑ Parts = Total.

Ratio Application

If one piece is 'n' times another, the relationship is expressed as a ratio (e.g., L:M = 3:1), which simplifies the variable assignment.

Given:

(Gold + Silver) : (Diamond + Silver) : (Gold + Diamond) = 47 : 27 : 17

Calculation:

Let,

(Gold + Silver) : (Diamond + Silver) : ( Diamond + Gold) = k

Gold + Silver = 47k

⇒ Silver = 47k - Gold     ---(1)

Diamond + Silver = 27k    ---(2)

Gold + Diamond = 17k

⇒ Diamond = 17k - Gold     ---(3)

Substituting equation (1) in equation (2),

⇒ Diamond + 47k - Gold = 27k

⇒ Gold - Diamond = 20k     ---(4)

Substituting equation (3) in equation (4),

⇒ Gold - (17k - Gold) = 20k

⇒ Gold - 17k + Gold = 20k

⇒ 2Gold = 20k + 17k

⇒ Gold = 37k/2

Now,

Part of gold = Gold/(Gold + Diamond + Silver)

⇒ (37k/2) ÷ (37k/2 + 27k)

⇒ (37k/2) ÷ (37k + 54k)/2

⇒ 37k/2 ÷ 91k/2

⇒ 37k/2 × 2/91k

⇒ 37/91

∴ The part of gold is 37/91.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Profit to Loss is given as 2 : 1.

Total difference between selling prices = 840 − 600 = 240.

Divide the difference in the ratio (2 + 1) = 3 units.

3 units = 240 ⇒ 1 unit (Loss) = 80.

Cost Price = SP at loss + Loss = 600 + 80 = 680.

∴ The correct answer is ₹680.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price₁ (Profit) = ₹840

Selling Price₂ (Loss) = ₹600

Condition: Profit = 2 × Loss

Let the Loss incurred be x.

Then, the Profit earned = 2x.

Using the formula for Cost Price (CP):

⇒ CP = Selling Price₂ + Loss = 600 + x

⇒ CP = Selling Price₁ − Profit = 840 − 2x

Equating the two expressions for CP:

⇒ 600 + x = 840 − 2x

⇒ x + 2x = 840 − 600

⇒ 3x = 240

⇒ x = 240 ÷ 3 = 80

Substituting the value of x back to find CP:

⇒ CP = 600 + 80 = 680

∴ The correct answer is ₹680.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when SP > CP (Profit = SP − CP). Loss occurs when CP > SP (Loss = CP − SP).

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount.

Profit/Loss Percentage

Percentage is always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise. % = (Profit or Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Given:

The ratio of boys and girls when 10 girls left = 2 : 1

The ratio of boys and girls when 20 boys left = 4 : 3

Calculation:

Let there be x boys and y girls present

Then, x/(y - 10) = 2/1

⇒ x = 2y - 20     -----(1)

Now, (x - 20)/(y - 10) = 4 : 3

⇒ 3x - 60 = 4y - 40

⇒ 3x = 4y - 40 + 60

⇒ 3x = 4y + 20     -----(2)

Put the value of x from equation(1) in equation(2)

⇒ 3(2y - 20) = 4y + 20

⇒ 6y - 60 = 4y + 20

⇒ 6y - 4y = 20 + 60

⇒ 2y = 80

⇒ y = 40

Now, x = 2y - 20

⇒ x = 2 × 40 - 20

⇒ x = 80 - 20 = 60

Now, The sum of boys and girls = 40 + 60 = 100

∴ The sum of boys and girls is 100.

Given:

Time taken by Abhijit and Saurav together = 15 days

Time taken by Piyush and Saurav together = 20 days

Time taken by Abhijit and Piyush together = 10 days

Formula used:

Total work = Time taken × Efficiency

Calculation:

Let the total work be LCM of 15, 20, and 10 = 60 units

 Efficiency                                                  Total Work            

60/15 = 4 units/day       Abhijit + Saurav 

60/20 = 3 units/day       Piyush + Saurav                     60 unit

60/10 = 6 units/day        Abhijit + Piyush

⇒ 2(Abhijit + Saurav + Piyush) = 4 + 3 + 6

⇒ Abhijit + Saurav + Piyush = 13/2 = 6.5 units/day

Now, 

Efficiency of Piyush = 6.5 - Efficiency of (Abhijit + Saurav)

Efficiency of Piyush = 6.5 - 4 = 2.5 units

Now, time taken by Piyush to complete work alone

⇒ 60/2.5 = 600/25 = 24 days

∴ Piyush will complete the work alone in 24 days.

Formula used:

Ø = (30)H - (11/2)M  OR = (11/2)M - (30)H

Where:

H = Hour

M = Minute

Ø = The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand.

Given time → 4.20

H = 4

M = 20

Ø = (30)H - (11/2)M

Ø = (30 × 4) - (11/2)(20) 

Ø = 120 - 110 = 10º

Ø = 10º

Here, the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand is 10º.

Hence, the correct answer is "10º".

Given:

Length of minute hand = Radius of the circular path, (r) = 7 cm

Distance to be covered = 11 cm

Concept Used:

Circumference of a circle = 2πr

One full revolution of the minute hand = 60 minutes

Calculation:

Total circular path covered by the minute hand in 60 minutes = 2πr

⇒ 2 × 3.1415 × 7 = 43.96 cm

Proportion of the total time taken to cover 11 cm = (11/43.96) × 60 = 15 minutes

∴ The minute hand will take 15 minutes to cover a distance of 11 cm.

Given:

Gain 20% on the selling price of 7.20/kg

Formula Used:

SP = {100/(100 + P%)} × CP,

Where,

SP is selling price,

CP is cost price,

P% is profit percent.

Calculation:

SP of a mixture = 7.20/kg

CP of a mixture = 100/120 × 7.20

⇒ CP of a mixture = Rs. 6/kg

Now by using allegation,

Now the ratio = 0.6 : 2

⇒ 8/kg : 5.40/kg = 3 : 10

According to the question,

⇒ 10 = 36kg

⇒ 1 = 3.6 kg

Now, 3 = 3 × 3.6 = 10.8 kg

∴ Total quantity of Rs. 8/kg is 10.8kg.

Given:

Rate = 12%

Due to a calculation error, an interest of 6 months is added to the principal

Formula Used:

SI = PRT/100

Where, P = Principal, R = Rate, T = Time(in years)

Calculation:

Let the principal be ₹100 and time be 1 year

⇒ SI = (100 × 12 × 1)/100 = ₹12

⇒ SI for 6 months = 12/2 = ₹6

According to the question

New Principal = 100 + 6 = ₹106

⇒ SI = (106 × 12 × 1)/100 = ₹12.72

Effective Rate of Interest where principal is ₹100, SI is ₹12.72 for 1 year

⇒ Effective Rate = (12.72 × 100)/100 = 12.72%

∴ The effective rate of interest is 12.72%.

Given:

If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 400% and the denominator is increased by 500%. Then,

Calculation:

Let the fraction be = x/y

400% = 400/100 = 4

500% = 500/100 = 5

The numerator (x) increased by 400% and denominator (y) increased by 500%,

∴ After increment,   x → x + 4x = 5x   and

y → y + 5y =  6y

New fraction = 5x/6y = 20/27

⇒ x/y = 8/9

Hence, the correct answer is "8/9".

Alternate MethodGiven:

1. After the increase, the fraction becomes 20/27.
2. The numerator increased by 400%.
3. The denominator increased by 500%.

Concept used:

Let the original fraction be a/b

After the increase, the fraction becomes 5a/6b5�6�5�6�

(due to 400% increase in the numerator and 500% increase in the denominator).

Calculation:

According to the concept,

After the increase, the fraction becomes 5a/6b, which is equal to 20/27.

⇒ 5a/6b = 20/27

⇒ 5a × 27 = 6b × 20

⇒ 135a = 120b

⇒ a = 120/135b

⇒ a = 8/9b

∴ The original fraction is 8/9.

Given:

One puncture can flatten the tire in 9 minutes, and the second puncture can flatten the tire in 18 minutes

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculation:

Let the total capacity of the tire be 18 units (LCM of 9 and 18)

⇒ Efficiency of 1st puncture = 18/9 = 2 units/min

⇒ Efficiency of 1st puncture = 18/18 = 1 unit/min

Combined efficiency of both punctures = 2 + 1 = 3 units

Time required to flatten the tire by two punctures

⇒ 18/3 = 6 minutes

∴ Both punctures can flatten the tire in 6 minutes.

Shortcut Trick

Let the Cost Price (CP) of A = 100x.

CP of B = 100x × 1.20 = 120x (Since A sells at 20% profit).

CP of C = 120x × 1.10 = 132x (Since B sells at 10% profit).

CP of D = 132x + 16 (Since C sells at ₹16 profit).

Difference (D's CP − A's CP) = 132x + 16 − 100x = 32x + 16 = 500 ⇒ 32x = 484 ⇒ x = 121 ÷ 8.

Amount B paid to A = CP of B = 120x = 120 × (121 ÷ 8) = ₹1815.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1815.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit percentage when A sells to B = 20%

Profit percentage when B sells to C = 10%

Profit amount when C sells to D = ₹16

Difference between D's CP and A's CP = ₹500

A: 100x

B: 120x

C: 132x

D: 132x+16

+20%

+10%

+₹16

Difference = D's CP − A's CP = ₹500

Calculations:

Let the cost price (CP) of A be 100x.

⇒ CP of B = 100x × 1.20 = 120x

⇒ CP of C = 120x × 1.10 = 132x

⇒ CP of D = CP of C + Profit of C

⇒ CP of D = 132x + 16

According to the problem, D's CP − A's CP = 500

⇒ (132x + 16) − 100x = 500

⇒ 32x + 16 = 500

⇒ 32x = 484

⇒ x = 484 ÷ 32 = 121 ÷ 8

We need to find the amount B paid to A, which is the exact cost price of B.

⇒ Amount paid by B = 120x

⇒ Amount paid by B = 120 × (121 ÷ 8)

⇒ Amount paid by B = 15 × 121 = ₹1815

∴ The correct answer is ₹1815.

Additional Information

Successive Profit/Loss

When an article is sold successively from one person to another, the final cost price is calculated using a chain of continuous multipliers. For sequential profits P₁% and P₂%, Final CP = Initial CP × (1 + P₁/100) × (1 + P₂/100).

Cost Price (CP) & Selling Price (SP) Chain

The amount paid to acquire an item is its Cost Price. In a chain of transactions, the Selling Price of the previous seller automatically becomes the Cost Price of the new buyer.

Unitary Variable Method

By assuming a base value like 100x instead of a plain variable, percentage growth calculations remain integers or simple terms, and the exact real-world value is retrieved efficiently by equating final expressions to numerical values given in the question.

Given: 

Total votes = 7500.

Invalid votes = 5% of total votes.

A's votes = 20% of valid votes.

B's votes = 100% more than A.

D's votes = 40% less than B.

Concept used:

The concept of percentages and total sum is used here.

Calculation:

Invalid votes = 5% of 7500 = 375.

Valid votes = Total votes - Invalid votes

⇒ 7500 - 375 = 7125.

Votes for A

⇒ 20% of 7125 = 1425.

Votes for B = 100% more than A = 1425 × 2 = 2850.

Votes for D = 40% less than B = 60% of 2850 = 1710.

Votes for C = Total valid votes - (Votes for A+ B+ D)

⇒ 7125 - (1425 + 2850 + 1710) = 1140.

∴ Candidate C received 1140 votes.

Given:

Principal = Rs 3200

Rate of interest = 10% per annum

Amount = Rs 3362

Concept used:

Amount = P × [1 + (r/100)]^t

But here, the amount is calculated quarterly. Then the amount obtained will be:

Amount = P × [1 + r/(n × 100)]^nt

Where n is the number of terms, here n = 4.

Calculation:

3362 = 3200 × [1 + 10/(4 × 100]^4t

⇒ 3362/3200 = (41/40)^4t

⇒ 1681/1600 = (41/40)4t 

⇒ (41/40)² = (41/40)^4t

On comparing powers,

⇒ 2 = 4t 

⇒ t = 1/2 

∴ The time period is 1/2 year.

Shortcut Trick

Perimeter of square = Total cost ÷ Rate = 10080 ÷ 20 = 504 m

Side of outer square = 504 ÷ 4 = 126 m

Area of inside path = 4 × width × (side − width)

Area of path = 4 × 3 × (126 − 3) = 12 × 123 = 1476 m²

Cost of paving = 1476 × 50 = 73800

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 73800.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost of fencing = Rs. 10080

Rate of fencing = Rs. 20 per metre

Width of pavement = 3 m

Rate of laying the pavement = Rs. 50 per sq metre

Formula Used:

Perimeter of square = 4 × Side

Area of square = Side²

Calculations:

⇒ Total cost of fencing = Perimeter × Rate of fencing

⇒ 10080 = Perimeter × 20

⇒ Perimeter = 10080 ÷ 20 = 504 m

⇒ Side of the outer square field = Perimeter ÷ 4 = 504 ÷ 4 = 126 m

⇒ Area of the outer square field = 126 × 126 = 15876 m²

⇒ Since a 3-metre-wide pavement is built inside along all four sides, the side of the inner square field = 126 − (2 × 3) = 126 − 6 = 120 m

⇒ Area of the inner square field = 120 × 120 = 14400 m²

⇒ Area of the pavement = Area of outer square − Area of inner square

⇒ Area of the pavement = 15876 − 14400 = 1476 m²

⇒ Cost of laying the pavement = Area of pavement × Rate per sq metre

⇒ Cost of laying the pavement = 1476 × 50 = Rs. 73800

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 73800.

Additional Information

Area of Path Inside a Square

When a path of width w is constructed inside a square boundary of side a, Area = 4w(a − w).

Area of Path Outside a Square

When a path of width w is constructed outside a square boundary of side a, Area = 4w(a + w).

Area of Cross Paths

When two mutually perpendicular paths of width w cross in the middle of a rectangle of length l and breadth b, Area = w(l + b − w).

The logic is:

Number of letters in given word + 1 = code in number.

Number of letters in MACE = 4 and 4 + 1 = 5

Number of letters in MASTER = 6 and 6 + 1 = 7

Similarly, Number of letters in SOLUTION = 8 and 8 + 1 = 9

Hence, ‘9’ is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:-

Hence, the correct answer is "235".

The logic follows here is:

All Brothers are Male.

Some Male and Brother can be Doctor.

Hence, the correct answer is "option (4)".

Preparing the family tree by using the following symbol:

As per the given information:

Here, Jeet is the nephew of the man.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

The logic is:

24 : 60 → 3³ – 3 : 4³– 4 → 27 – 3 : 64 – 4 → 24 : 60

Similarly,

210 : ? → 6³ – 6 : 7³– 7 → 216 – 6 : 343 – 7 → 210 : 336

=> ? = 336

Hence, ‘336’ is the correct answer.

The logic follows here:

(1st number × 3) + 1 = 2nd number.

Now check all the options:

Option (1): 8 ∶ 25 → (8 × 3) + 1 = 24 + 1 = 25 = 2nd number

Option (2): 18 ∶ 73  → (18 × 3) + 1 = 54 + 1 = 55 ≠ 2nd number

Option (3): 22 ∶ 67 → (22 × 3) + 1 = 66 + 1 = 67 = 2nd number

Option (4): 15 ∶ 46 → (15 × 3) + 1 = 45 + 1 = 46 = 2nd number

Hence, "Option (2)" is different from others.

Given jumbled word,

Let us verify the options :

Option 1) :

3 6 1 7 8 4 2 5 → Which is Not meaningful word.

Option 2) :

6 2 7 3 5 1 4 8 → Which is Not meaningful word.

Option 3) :

6 3 8 1 7 4 2 5 → FORECAST Which is a meaningful word.

Meaning of the word "FORECAST" ⇒ "to calculate or predict usually as a result of study and analysis of available pertinent data"

Option 4) :

4 6 2 5 8 1 7 3 → Which is Not meaningful word.

Thus, the correct answer is "6 3 8 1 7 4 2 5".

Logic: Positional values of the given alphabets are written diagonally. And positional value of the middle alphabet is written as it is.

The code for "BLACK" is written as follows,

Similarly, the code for the "WHITE" will be written as;

So, the required code for "WHITE" is "5209823".

Logic:

When one comes into contact with fever, he visits a doctor, who diagnoses first to understand which type of disease it can be, and on the basis of his diagnosis, he prescribes medicines.

Thus, the correct arrangement is,

(b) Fever

(a) Doctor

(d) Diagnose

(c) Prescribe

(e) Medicine

Here, the meaningful order is 'b, a, d, c, e' as per logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Calculation:

Given:

1^st January 2013 was Wednesday

In a year number of week = 52

Odd day = 1

So we have to count one day more than,

1^st January 2014 will be Thursday.

Now,

2^nd January 2014 will be Friday.

Important Points

Odd days

Those days are more than a complete week for a certain interval.

Days

Given Series: 1, 4, 3, 9, 5, 16, 7, 25, 9, 36, 11, ?

The logic behind the series:

The series consists of two alternate series:

1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11 are consecutive odd numbers starting from 1.

4, 9, 16, 25, 36 are square of consecutive even numbers starting from 2.

2² = 4

3² = 9

4² = 16

5² = 25

6^{2 =} 36

7^{2 =} 49

Hence, the next term will be 49.

1) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3, 6

2) 6, 1, 3, 2, 5, 4

3) 1, 3, 4, 6, 5, 2

4) 4, 3, 6, 2, 1, 5

'INFORM' is a meaningful English word.

Hence, '1, 3, 4, 6, 5, 2' is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is as follows:

Logic: Christmas & Holi both are the festivals.

Some persons may celebrate Christmas, some may celebrate Holi & some of them may celebrate both.

Hence the correct answer is "Festival, Person celebrate Christmas, Person celebrate Holi".

Taking dice positions 5 as common,

Moving clockwise from the Common number 1,

Pair of opposite numbers:

1 - 4

3 - 6

5 - 2

So, the opposite number to 1 is 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "4".

According to given conditions,

Distance of the man from his starting point = $\sqrt {{3^2} + {4^2}}$ km

= $\sqrt {9 + 16}$ km

= $\sqrt {25}$ km

= 5 km

So, the man is 5 km far from his starting point.

Hence, ‘5 kms’ is the correct answer.

1. Pune is bigger than Jhansi.

Pune > Jhansi

2. Sitapur is bigger than Chittor.

Sitapur > Chittor

3. Raigarh is not as big as Jhansi, but is bigger than Sitapur.

Jhansi > Raigarh > Sitapur

From all the statements, we get:

Pune > Jhansi > Raigarh > Sitapur > Chittor

Clearly, Chittor is the smallest.

Hence, 'Chittor' is the correct answer.

Given: (Left) & X Y # F K & 3 T & * 8 W ¥ % ^ D U G $ϵ ϕ$ 5 S @ J (Right)

Numbers immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a consonant:

The pattern should be:- Symbol - Number - Consonant

Now,

(Left) & X Y # F K & 3 T & *** 8 W** ¥ % ^ D U G $ ϵ ϕ $ 5 S @ J (Right)

Thus there are 3 such numbers that are immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a consonant.

The pairs are: & 3 T,  * 8 W,  $ 5 S

Hence, the correct answer is 'option 1'.

Given equation: 7 × 3 - 98 ÷ 14 + 5 = 31

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) 5 and 3

Given: 7 × 3 - 98 ÷ 14 + 5 = 31

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 7 × 5 - 98 ÷ 14 + 3 = 31

⇒ 7 × 5 - 7 + 3 = 31

⇒ 35 - 7 + 3 = 31

⇒ 38 - 7 = 31

⇒ 31 = 31

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 2) 31 and 7

Given: 7 × 3 - 98 ÷ 14 + 5 = 31

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 31 × 3 - 98 ÷ 14 + 5 = 7

⇒ 31 × 3 - 7 + 5 = 7

⇒ 93 - 7 + 5 = 7

⇒ 98 - 7 = 7

⇒ 91 ≠ 7

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) 3 and 14

Given: 7 × 3 - 98 ÷ 14 + 5 = 31

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 7 × 14 - 98 ÷ 3 + 5 = 31

⇒ 7 × 14 - 32.66 + 5 = 31

⇒ 98 - 32.66 + 5 = 31

⇒ 103 - 32.66 = 31

⇒ 70.34 ≠ 31

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) 7 and 98

Given: 7 × 3 - 98 ÷ 14 + 5 = 31

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 98 × 3 - 7 ÷ 14 + 5 = 31

⇒ 98 × 3 - 0.5 + 5 = 31

⇒ 294 - 0.5 + 5 = 31

⇒ 299 - 0.5 = 31

⇒ 298.5 ≠ 31

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Table show alphabet serial number –

The pattern followed is,

All follow the same pattern, except ‘LNO’.

Hence, “LNO” is the odd one.

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,

Given:

1. G and H are married couple.

2. H is daughter-in-law of L.

3. I is G's brother.

4. J is the only son of I.

5. T is sister of J.

Hence, T is the "Daughter" of I.

Given:

Jai is to the immediate right of Arya

Ravi is between Arya and Deepak

Gaurav is not between Jai and Shiva.

The final arrangement will look like:

Therefore, Jai's position will be to the immediate left of Bhanu.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows

Conclusion:

I. Some earphone is live. → False ( It is possible but not definite).

II. Some digital is earphones. → True ( As we can see from Venn diagram).

Hence,  Only II follows.

The logic followed here is:

For, 'LEAF' is written as ‘EZDK’,

For, ‘PLANT’ is written as ’SMZKO',

Similarly, for 'FLOWER'

So, 'FLOWER' will be written as 'QDVNKE'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

On observing the given figures carefully, we get:

In the question figure,

1. One dot is in the common area of the conical shape and square.
2. One dot is in the common area of the conical shape, ellipse, and triangle.
3. One dot is in the common area of the triangle and square.

Figure (A) → Common area of the conical shape, ellipse, and triangle isn't present.

Figure (B) → Common area of the conical shape, ellipse, and triangle isn't present.

Figure (C) → All the required conditions are fulfilled as shown below:

Figure (D) → Common area of the conical shape, ellipse, and triangle isn't present.

Hence, the correct answer is "Figure (C)".

We should not think of the exact shape and size of the figures in these questions.

Just resemblance will work like if an Equilateral triangle is given in the question figure, any shape of a triangle in the answer figure will work, be it right triangle or scalene triangle.

Given equation: 2 - 8 ÷ 4 = 6 × 3 + 18 .

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) × and -

Given: 2 - 8 ÷ 4 = 6 × 3 + 18 

After interchanging the symbols, we get;

⇒ 2 × 8 ÷ 4 = 6 - 3 + 18 

⇒ 2 × 2 = 24 - 3 

⇒ 4 ≠ 21

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) = and +

Given: 2 - 8 ÷ 4 = 6 × 3 + 18  

After interchanging the symbols we get;

⇒ 2 - 8 ÷ 4 + 6 × 3 = 18 

⇒ 2 - 2 + 6 × 3 = 18 

⇒ 2 - 2 + 18 = 18 

⇒ 20 - 2 = 18 

⇒ 18 = 18

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 3) × and +

Given: 2 - 8 ÷ 4 = 6 × 3 + 18 

After interchanging the symbols we get;

⇒ 2 - 8 ÷ 4 = 6 + 3 × 18 

⇒ 2 - 2 = 6 + 54 

⇒ 0 ≠ 60

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) + and -

Given: 2 - 8 ÷ 4 = 6 × 3 + 18 

After interchanging the symbols we get;

⇒ 2 + 8 ÷ 4 = 6 × 3 - 18 

⇒ 2 + 2 = 18 - 18  

⇒ 4 ≠ 0

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is 'Juicy'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate synonym of the given word 'Succulent' is 'Juicy'.
• Succulent: (used about fruit, vegetables, and meat) containing a lot of juice and tasting very good. [(फल, सब्ज़़ियाँ और गोश्‍त) रस से भरपूर और बहुत स्‍वादिष्‍ट; रसीला]
• Example: The meal ends with a succulent dessert and cocktails.
• Juicy: contains a lot of juice. (रस से भरा हुआ; रसदार, रसीला)
• Example: juicy oranges...
  

Correct Answer: Juicy.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the meaning of other words:
• Coarse: consisting of large pieces; rough, not smooth. (मोटे ढेलों वाला; खुरदुरा)
• Foul: that smells or tastes disgusting. (बदबूदार, ख़राब गंध या स्‍वाद वाला)
• Decent: being of an acceptable standard; satisfactory. (शालीन; उचित, उपयुक्त)

The correct answer is 'Judicious'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate synonym of the given word 'Sagacious' is 'Judicious'.
• Sagacious: having or showing good judgment and understanding. (सही निर्णय क्षमता या समझ वाला; बुद्धिमान, दूरदर्शी, विवेकशील)
• Example: The army had appeared a hard master when it ent its strength to a wise and sagacious rule.
• Judicious: (used about a decision or an action) sensible and carefully considered; showing good judgement. [(निर्णय या कार्रवाई) बुद्धिमत्तापूर्ण और सुविचारित; विवेकपूर्ण विवेक-सम्‍मत]
• Example: We should listen to the judicious opinion of that old man.
  

Correct Answer: Judicious.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the meaning of other words:
• Delicious: having a very pleasant taste or smell. (स्‍वादिष्‍ट या सुगंधित)
• Precious: of great value (usually because it is rare or difficult to find). [क़ीमती, बहुमूल्‍य (सामान्‍यतः दुर्लभ होने के कारण)]
• Malicious: intended to harm or upset other people. (अन्य लोगों को नुकसान पहुंचाने या परेशान करने का इरादा)

The correct synonym is Respected.

• The word Dignified means to confer dignity or honour upon. (सम्मान या सम्मान प्रदान करने के लिए)
• Example: That organic farm helped him in living a dignified life.
• ​The synonyms of the word Dignified are- exalted, glorified, magnified, respected, etc. We can say that the word 'Respected' is the same in meaning.
• The word Respected means- to regard highly; to think much of.
• Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
• ​Let us look at the meanings of the given options:
  

The antonyms of the given word are- detracted, disparaged, minimized, etc.

The correct answer is 'Smooth'.

Key Points

• The most appropriate antonym of the given word 'Rough' is 'Smooth'.
• Rough: not smooth, soft, or level. [खुरदरा (चिकना, कोमल या समतल नहीं)]
• Example: rough ground...
• Smooth: having a completely flat surface with no lumps or holes or rough areas. [चिकना (पूरी तरह से समतल सतह वाला, जिसमें न कोई गूमड़ या गाँठ हो न कोई छेद न खुरदरापन)]
• Example: smooth skin...
  

Correct Answer: Smooth.

Additional Information

• Let's look at the meaning of other words:
• Coarse: consisting of large pieces; rough, not smooth. (मोटे ढेलों वाला; खुरदुरा)
• Thick: (used about something solid) having a large distance between its opposite sides; not thin. [(ठोस वस्‍तु) मोटी या मोटा; पतला या बारीक से विपरीत]
• Crude: simple and basic, without much detail, skill, etc. (सरल और बुनियादी; अपरिष्‍कृत)

The correct answer is 'Disfigure'.

Key Points

• To embellish something means to make it more attractive or beautiful by adding decorations or details.
• For example:
• She embellished her story with some colorful exaggerations.
• He embellished the plain dress with some sequins and beads.
• An antonym for embellish is a word that means the opposite, i.e., to make something less attractive or beautiful by damaging or spoiling its appearance. One such word is disfigure.
• For example:
• The fire disfigured his face beyond recognition.
• She disfigured the painting with a knife.
• Hence, the correct answer will be Option D.

Additional Information

• Option A is wrong because perish means to die or decay, which is not the opposite of embellish.
• Option B is wrong because disarm means to take away someone’s weapons or to make someone less hostile or suspicious, which is also not the opposite of embellish.
• Option C is wrong because adorn means the same as embellish, i.e., to decorate or enhance something.

The correct answer is "Reality"

Key Points

• Let's take a look at the given words:
• "Delusion" means a false belief or opinion about something or someone, often based on a mental disorder or misunderstanding.
• Example: His delusion that he was a famous actor was shattered when he realized he was just an extra in the movie.
• "Reality" means the state of things as they actually exist, rather than how they may appear or might be imagined.
• Example: The reality of the situation is that we cannot afford to buy a new car.
• "Fallacy" means a mistaken belief or idea, often based on incorrect reasoning or logic.
• Example: The fallacy that all politicians are corrupt is not necessarily true.
• "Phantasm" means an illusion or ghostly apparition.
• Example: The ghostly phantasm appeared in the old castle at night.
• "Illusion" means a false impression or idea, often based on a sensory perception.
• Example: The illusion of the water appearing to be still was shattered when a fish jumped.
• From the above meanings and examples, we can conclude that the most appropriate antonym for "Delusion" is "Reality".

Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.

Hinglish

• "Delusion" का अर्थ किसी चीज़ या किसी व्यक्ति के बारे में गलत विश्वास या राय है, जो अक्सर मानसिक विकार या गलतफहमी पर आधारित होता है।
• "Reality" का अर्थ है चीजों की स्थिति, जैसा कि वे वास्तव में मौजूद हैं, न कि वे कैसे दिखाई दे सकती हैं या कल्पना की जा सकती हैं।
• "Fallacy" का अर्थ एक गलत विश्वास या विचार है, जो अक्सर गलत तर्क पर आधारित होता है।
• "Phantasm" का अर्थ है एक भ्रम या भूतिया आभास।
• "Illusion" का अर्थ एक गलत धारणा या विचार है, जो अक्सर एक संवेदी धारणा पर आधारित होता है।

The correct answer is "a person who overestimates her/his importance."

Key Points

• An idiom is a phrase or expression that typically presents a figurative, non-literal meaning attached to the phrase; but some phrases become figurative idioms while retaining the literal meaning of the phrase.
• "A fly on the wheel" means someone who thinks they are more powerful than they really are. 
• Example: That guy's a total fly on the wheel, always acting like he gets all this stuff done on his own without the help of an entire team.
• Overestimate means to think that something is or will be greater, more extreme, or more important than it really is.

From the above explanation, it is clear that a person who overestimates his/her importance is said to be a fly on the wheel.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is Naturally at ease.

• Let us try to explore the given options:

• 'Low birth' is when a baby is born weighing less than 5 pounds, 8 ounces. Some babies with low birthweight are healthy, even though they’re small. But being low birth weight can cause serious health problems for some babies.

• 'The place of one's birth" or birthplace is the place where a person was born. This place is often used in legal documents, together with name and date of birth, to uniquely identify a person.

• 'Cesarean' delivery (C-section) is a surgical procedure used to deliver a baby through incisions in the abdomen and uterus. "Cesarean birth" is when a baby is born through a surgical procedure.

• Hence, "Naturally at ease" is the meaning of "To the manner born." (जन्म के तरीके के लिए)

• For example:

• He is quick to note that his accent is not to the manner born.

• In the first film, Mia discovered she was to the manner born.

• "To the manner born" comes from Shakespeare's Hamlet: "though I am native here And to the manner born", 1603.

• The correct expression is "to the manner born" and not "to the manor born".
• There is a tendency to use the mistaken form 'manor', suggesting noble origins, rather than Shakespeare’s original word, manner.

The correct answer is Follow a trend.

Key Points

• The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom is follow a trend.
• Jump on the bandwagon: join others in doing or supporting something fashionable or likely to be successful.
• Example: scientists and doctors alike have jumped on the bandwagon.
• Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Therefore, the correct answer is follow a trend.

'To drive up the wall ' means to make someone very angry.Thus, option 3 is the most suitable answer.

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. altruist.

Meanings of the given words are-

• Egoist means a person working for self-interest.
• Unselfish means willing to put the needs or wishes of others before one's own.
• Altruist means showing a disinterested and selfless concern for the well-being of others.
• Welfarist means someone who supports welfare.

Clearly, 'altruist' is the correct word.

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e Pragmatic.

  Explanation

Let's take a look at the table below:

Mnemonic trick

Clearly, Pragmatic best expresses the above-mentioned phrase.

The correct solution is option 4 i.e. irritable.

Explanation

• Context of the sentence: After reading the given sentence carefully, we know that the teen is easily annoyed as it doesn’t take much to rile her up/annoy her.
• Let’s look at the meaning of the words given below:
• Lovely means very beautiful or attractive.
• Alluring means powerfully and mysteriously attractive or fascinating; seductive.
• Ravishing means delightful; entrancing.
• Irritable means having or showing a tendency to be easily annoyed.
  

From the above explanations, we find that irritable is the only word which will fit the context of the sentence.

Correct sentence: Since she’s already irritable, it doesn’t take much to rile up the moody teen.

The correct solution is option 2 i.e. ambush.

Explanation

• Context of the sentence: After reading the given sentence carefully, we know that the police took the kidnapper by surprise and shot him when he left the house.
• Let’s look at the meaning of the words given below:
• Anger means a strong feeling of annoyance, displeasure, or hostility.
• Ambush means a surprise attack by people lying in wait in a concealed position.
• Disgust means a feeling of revulsion or strong disapproval aroused by something unpleasant or offensive.
• Aversion means a strong dislike or disinclination.

From the above explanations, we find that ambush is the only word which will fit the context of the sentence.

Correct sentence: The police waited in ambush for the kidnapper to leave his house, whereupon they shot him in the leg.

The correct answer is 'proven'.

Key Points

• A verb denotes an action or a state.
• There are certain verbs which have two different past participle forms. Out of these two forms, one functions as a verb and the other as an adjective.
• Example:

• In the given sentence, the word to be filled should be an adjective.
• So, 'proven' is the appropriate word.

Correct sentence: It is a proven fact that diamond is the hardest material.

Additional Information

• Prove (Verb): to establish the existence, truth or validity.
• Example: It has been proved that he is the murderer.
• Proven (Adjective): verified or authenticated.
• Example: The worker has proven efficiency.

The correct answer is 'QSRP.'

Key Points

• While arranging the parts of the sentence given in options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.
• The sentence should start with the subject Q, "Project group."
• Q must be followed by S as it is providing an indirect object to the sentence with the help of the phrase "from our department."
• P must be the last part as it is providing a conclusion to the sentence by talking about "displaying their final project."
• ​​Correct sentence: Our project group received criticism from our department when they displayed their final project.

Additional Information    

• Before rearranging parts of the sentence, it is very important to read them carefully.
• It is very important to analyse the use of a determiner and conjunction in such cases.
• This confusion can be eradicated by practising more and more questions of Sentence Jumbles.

Hinglish   

• विकल्पों में दिए गए वाक्य के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
• वाक्य की शुरुआत subject Q से होनी चाहिए,  "Project group"।
• Q के बाद S होना चाहिए क्योंकि यह phrase "from our department" की मदद से वाक्य को एक अप्रत्यक्ष वस्तु प्रदान कर रहा है।
• P अंतिम भाग होना चाहिए क्योंकि यह "displaying their final project" के बारे में बात करके वाक्य का निष्कर्ष प्रदान कर रहा है।