Previous Year Paper

AFCAT 26 Aug 2022 (Shift 2) Memory Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2022

100 questions120 minutes
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Full Test (100 questions)

Question 1

Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

72 : 120 :: 84 : 140 :: 153 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    255

  2. BOption (b)

    250

  3. COption (c)

    260

  4. DOption (d)

    257

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

255

Why this answer is correct

Logic:  Second Number = (First Number /3) x 5

In **72 : 120 **→

(72/3) x 5 = 24 x 5 = 120

In 84 : 140 →

(84/3) x 5 = 28 x 5 = 140

Similarly:

In 153 :   →

(153/3) = 51x 5 = 255

Here, 153 : 255 is the correct pair as per the logic.

Hence, the correct answer is "255".

Question 2

Smita rode her scooty Northwards, then turned left and then again rode to her left 4 km. She found herself exactly 2 km West of her starting point. How far did she ride Northward initially?

  1. AOption (a)

    2 km

  2. BOption (b)

    4 km

  3. COption (c)

    5 km

  4. DOption (d)

    6 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4 km

Why this answer is correct

We have drawn the figure according to the information given in the question,

(Let the turning points as shown in the figure)

Sunita started from A and her journey ends at B.

Initial Northward Journey AC = BD = 4 km

Hence, 4 km is the correct answer.

Question 3

Discover the relationship between first two numbers and complete the second pair of numbers by using the same relationship:  

336 ∶ 720 ∶∶ 1320 ∶      ?

  1. AOption (a)

    2730

  2. BOption (b)

    990

  3. COption (c)

    1716

  4. DOption (d)

    2184

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2184

Why this answer is correct

Given: 336 ∶ 720 ∶∶ 1320 ∶      ?     

The logic follows here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "2184".

Question 4

Direction: Which of the following answer figures will complete the pattern of the question figure?

Question Figure:

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    ×

    duplicate options found. English Question 1 options 1,2

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The given figure is:

The figure that completes the given figure is:  

 

Hence, the correct answer is Option (1).

Question 5

Jumble the given jumbled words in a meaningful order and then select the odd one out.

  1. AOption (a)

    ATTAHBAYRA

  2. BOption (b)

    INGA

  3. COption (c)

    INIHOR

  4. DOption (d)

    ARAKSAHB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

INGA

Why this answer is correct

After Unjumbled the jumbled words:

Option (1):

ATTAHBAYRA → ARYABHATTA → Indian Satellite.

Option (2):

INGA → AGNI → Indian Missile

Option (3):

INIHOR → ROHINI → Indian Satellite.

Option (4):

ARAKSAHB→ BHASKARA → Indian Satellite.

All except the AGNI are Indian satellites.

Whereas,

AGNI is a Indian Missile.

Hence, the correct answer is "AGNI".

Question 6

In a certain code language, "OBSCURE" is written as "NARBTQD". How will "AYUSH" be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    ZXTHG

  2. BOption (b)

    ZXTRH

  3. COption (c)

    ZXTRG

  4. DOption (d)

    YXTRG

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ZXTRG

Why this answer is correct

Table shows the positional value of letters.

The logic followed here is:

'OBSUCRE' is codded as 'NARBTQD'.

  

Similarly,

'AYUSH' is codded as 'ZXTRG'.

  

Hence, the correct answer is "option (3)".

Question 7

Jumble the given jumbled words in a meaningful order and then select the odd one out.

  1. AOption (a)

    GLINESH

  2. BOption (b)

    MGENRA

  3. COption (c)

    TNLIAIA 

  4. DOption (d)

    SYHIORT

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

SYHIORT

Why this answer is correct

After rearranging the jumbled words in their natural sequence:

Option (1):

GLINESH → ENGLISH → Language

Option (2):

MGENRA → GERMAN → Language

Option (3):

TNLIAIA → ITALIAN → Language

Option (4):

SYHIORT → HISTORY 

All except HISTORY, are Languages.

Hence, the correct answer is "SYHIORT".

Question 8

Choose the option which is related to the fourth word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word.

Straw : Nest : : ?  : Thread

  1. AOption (a)

    Nylon

  2. BOption (b)

    Cotton

  3. COption (c)

    Fiber

  4. DOption (d)

    Cloth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cotton

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

'Nest' is created from "Straw".

Similarly,

'Thread' is created from "Cotton".

Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)".

Question 9

A man walks 7 km in west direction and then turns to his right and walks 7 km and then turns to his left and walks 5 km. Finally turns to his left and walks 7 km. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point?

  1. AOption (a)

    12 km, south

  2. BOption (b)

    12 km, west

  3. COption (c)

    21 km, East

  4. DOption (d)

    7 km, North

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12 km, west

Why this answer is correct

The distance and direction diagram is according to the given data:

Here, O is the starting point and D is the endpoint and the distance between O and D is 12 km.

The direction of D from O is West.

Here, the distance and the direction of D from O is 12 km in the west.

Hence, Option(2) is the answer.

Question 10

In a certain code language, 'PRIYANKA' is written as ‘KIRBZMPZ'. How will 'FUNCTION' be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    UFNXGRLM

  2. BOption (b)

    UFMXHRLM

  3. COption (c)

    UFMXGRLM

  4. DOption (d)

    UFMYGRLM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

UFMXGRLM

Why this answer is correct

Table shows the positional value of letters.

The logic followed here is: 

Letters are coded as their reverse or opposite letters.

'PRIYANKA' is codded as ‘KIRBZMPZ'.

  

'FUNCTION' is codded as 'UFMXGRLM'.

  

Hence, the correct answer is "option (3)".

Additional Information

Question 11

If ‘A’ means 6, ‘B’ means ‘3’ and ‘÷’ means ‘×’, select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following equation.

A ÷ 2 - ? + B = 1

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    17

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

14

Why this answer is correct

Decoding the information, 

SignAB÷
Means63×

Given:

A ÷ 2 - ? + B = 1

Let the “?” is replace with “Z”

After replacing the signs from left to right and using the BODMAS rule,

=> 6 × 2 - Z + 3 = 1

=> 12 – Z + 3 = 1

=> 15 - Z = 1

=> Z = 15 – 1

=> Z = 14

Hence, “14” is the correct answer.

Question 12

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions.

The numbers in the different sections indicate the number of person who are director, actor and singer. Find the difference between the number of singers who are directors but not actors and the actors who are singers but not directors. 

  

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4

Why this answer is correct

The shaded part represents the number of singers who are director but not actor.

The shaded part represent the number of actor who are singer but not director.

Difference between the number of singer who are director but not actor and the actor who are singer but not director = 7 - 3 = 4

Hence, the correct answer is "option (4)".

Question 13

In the given diagram, circle represent yellow color ball, triangle represent red color ball and rectangle represent blue color ball. Find the ratio of blue color ball which are not red to yellow color ball which are not red and blue.

  1. AOption (a)

    16 : 12

  2. BOption (b)

    16 : 9

  3. COption (c)

    1 : 1

  4. DOption (d)

    4 : 9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

16 : 9

Why this answer is correct

According to the statement:

Blue color balls who are not red = 12 + 4 = 16

Yellow color balls who are not red and blue = 9

Ratio of blue color balls who are not red and yellow color balls who are not red and blue = 16 : 9 

Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)".

Question 14

If P denotes 'Addition’, Q denotes 'Subtraction’, R denotes ‘Multiplication’ and S denotes ‘Division’, then which of the statements given below is/are correct.

Statement I: 42 S 21 P 64 Q 6 R 2 = 50

Statement II: 42 P 4 R 2 Q 3 S 1 = 47

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only Statement II

  3. COption (c)

    Both Statement I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only Statement II

Why this answer is correct

Statement I : 42 S 21 P 64 Q 6 R 2 = 50

After applying the codded symbols

42 ÷ 21 + 64 - 6 × 2 = 50

⇒ 42 ÷ 21 + 64 - 6 × 2 = 50

⇒ 2 + 64 - 6 × 2 = 50

⇒ 2 + 64 - 12 = 50

⇒ 66 - 12 = 50

⇒ 54 ≠ 50

Statement II: 42 P 4 R 2 Q 3 S 1 = 47

After applying the codded symbols

42 + 4 × 2 - 3 ÷ 1 = 47

⇒ 42 + 4 × 2 - 3 ÷ 1 = 47

⇒ 42 + 4 × 2 - 3 = 47

⇒ 42 + 8 - 3 = 47

⇒ 50 - 3 = 47

⇒ 47 = 47

Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)".

Question 15

Select the figure that will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following figure series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is :-

Figure 1 to figure 2 → The fourth line is rotated 1800 and moves one step upward the same repeats for third and second line, and first line is removed and new fourth line added.

Figure 2 to figure 3 → The fourth line is rotated 1800 and moves one step upward the same repeats for third and second line, and first line is removed and new fourth line added.

This process repeats until figure 6 as shown below.

Thus, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 16

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

The logic followed here is: 

  1. The last symbol comes in the front, in each figure. Every other element moves one step towards the right.
  2. All the other symbols (except the one that comes in front) are rotated 180° in each step.

Therefore, in the answer figure, the arrow with a triangular head should come in front and all the other symbols should be rotated 180°.

Thus, the final series is as follows,

Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.

Question 17

Direction: From among the figures marked (a), (b), (c) and (d), select the figure which satisfies the same conditions as the placement of the dots as in figure (x).

Problem Figure:

Answer Figure:

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    d

  4. DOption (d)

    c

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

Hint

If exact figure is not shown in options, mark the most appropriate option present.

On observing the given figures carefully, we get:

In the question figure (X),

  1. One dot is in the common area of the rectangle and triangle.
  2. One dot is in the common area of the triangle and circle.
  3. One dot is in the common area of the square and triangle.

Figure (A) → All the required conditions are fulfilled as shown below:

Figure (B) → Common area of only triangle and square isn't present.

Figure (C) → Common area of the circle and triangle isn't present.

Figure (D) → Common area of the rectangle and triangle isn't present.

Hence, the correct answer is "Figure (A)".

 

We should not think of the exact shape and size of the figures in these questions.

Just resemblance will work like if an Equilateral triangle is given in the question figure, any shape of a triangle in the answer figure will work, be it right triangle or scalene triangle.

Question 18

From amongst the figures (A), (B), (C) and (D), select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in question figure.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

In the question figure, one of the dots lies in the common region of triangle and diamond only, and the second dot lies in the region common to arrow, rectangle, and triangle. Only figure (A) consists of these types of regions.

In figure (B), rectangle and arrow do not share any common area.

In figure (C), triangle and arrow do not share any common area.

In figure (D), triangle and diamond do not share any common area.

Hence, only figure (A) has all the types of figures required.

Hence, “A” is the correct answer.

Question 19

From amongst the figures (A), (B), (C) and (D), select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in question figure.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C

Why this answer is correct

In question figure, one of the dots lies in the region common to circle and rectangle only, and the second dot lies in the region common to all the figures. Only figure (C) consists of these types of regions.

In the figure (A) and (B), hexagon and rectangle are not sharing any common region.

In figure (D), hexagon and rectangle are not sharing any common region with heart.

Hence, only figure (C) has all the types of figures required.

Hence, “C” is the correct answer.

Question 20

Find the missing alphabet.

  1. AOption (a)

    T

  2. BOption (b)

    A

  3. COption (c)

    Z

  4. DOption (d)

    X

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

X

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

The logic followed here is: sum of the positional values, as shown below:

D + G → 4 + 7 = 11,

P + L → 16 + 12 = 28

J +  M → 10 + 13 = 23

Similarly, 

? + H → ? + 8 = 32

? = 32 - 8

? = 24

We know that 24 is the positional value of X.

⇒ ? = X

Hence, X is the correct answer.

Question 21

Choose the most appropriate answer.

Introducing Alka to guest, Brijesh said, “Her father is my maternal Uncle’s father”. How is Alka related to Brijesh?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uncle

  2. BOption (b)

    Mother

  3. COption (c)

    Sister

  4. DOption (d)

    Niece

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mother

Why this answer is correct

By using the symbol in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree.

 As a maternal uncle of Brijesh is Alka's brother and Alka's father is also the father of Brijesh's maternal uncle. Here Alka is the mother of Brijesh.

Hence the correct answer is Mother.

Question 22

Garima is the wife of Kanika's brother. Kanika is the daughter of Kishore, who is the husband of Sujata. Piyush is the son of Sujata's only son Aman. How is Aman related to Kishore?

  1. AOption (a)

    Son

  2. BOption (b)

    Son's son

  3. COption (c)

    Daughter's husband

  4. DOption (d)

    Brother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Son

Why this answer is correct

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols,

Given:

  1. Garima is the wife of Kanika's brother.

 

  1. Kanika is the daughter of Kishore, who is the husband of Sujata.

  2. Piyush is the son of Sujata's only son Aman.

  • Sujata's only son means Garima is the wife of Aman.

Hence, Aman is the "Son" of Kishore.

Question 23

Which of the following options can replace the question mark (?) correctly?

  1. AOption (a)

    66

  2. BOption (b)

    82

  3. COption (c)

    45

  4. DOption (d)

    75

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

45

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

1) 

⇒ 32 + 22 

⇒ 9 + 4 

⇒ 13

2) 

⇒ 92 + 12

⇒ 81 + 1

⇒ 82

Similarly,

3) 

⇒ 62 + 32

⇒ 36 + 9

⇒ 45

Hence, the correct answer is 45.

Question 24

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the following question figure?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

Hence, the figure given in option 2) will complete the pattern.

Question 25

Select the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between the following set of classes.

Factory, Product and Machinery

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given relation is a shown below :

Machinery and Product are the parts of Factory.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (4)".

Question 26

X can complete work at the same time in Y and Z together can do it. If X and Y together can finish it in 10 days and Z alone in 15 days, then Y alone can do it in how many days?

  1. AOption (a)

    70 days

  2. BOption (b)

    40 days

  3. COption (c)

    60 days

  4. DOption (d)

    50 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

60 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

X can complete work at the same time in Y and Z together

X and Y together can finish it in 10 days and

Z alone in 15 days

Calculation:

Let one day's work of X, Y, and Z be 1/x,1/y & 1/z  

According to the question, Z alone can finish the work in 15 days

1/z = 1/15             -----(1)

The efficiency of X =  Efficiency of (Y + Z)

1/x  = 1/y + 1/z    

⇒ 1/x = 1/y + 1/15         [From equation (1)]

⇒ 1/x - 1/y = 1/15    -----(2)

X and Y together can finish it in 10 days

1/x + 1/y = 1/10     -----(3)

Doing equation (3) - (2)

⇒ 2/y = 1/10 – 1/15

⇒ 2/y = (3 - 2)/30 = 1/30

⇒ y = 60 days

∴ Y alone can complete it in 60 days.

Question 27

The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 7 : 8. If the percentage increase in the number of boys and girls be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio?

  1. AOption (a)

    23 : 21

  2. BOption (b)

    21 : 22

  3. COption (c)

    22 : 21

  4. DOption (d)

    22 : 23

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

21 : 22

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Original Ratio = 7 : 8

Increase: Boys = 20%, Girls = 10%

New Ratio = (7 × 120) : (8 × 110)

New Ratio = 84 : 88

Simplified New Ratio = 21 : 22

∴ The correct option is B.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of boys to girls = 7 : 8. Increase in boys = 20%, Increase in girls = 10%.

Boys (7 units) +20%

Girls (8 units) +10%

New Ratio = 7(120%) : 8(110%) = 84 : 88 = 21 : 22

Let the original number of boys = 700x and girls = 800x.

⇒ Number of boys after 20% increase = 700x + 20% of 700x

⇒ New Boys = 700x + (20/100) × 700x = 700x + 140x = 840x

⇒ Number of girls after 10% increase = 800x + 10% of 800x

⇒ New Girls = 800x + (10/100) × 800x = 800x + 80x = 880x

⇒ New Ratio = New Boys : New Girls = 840x : 880x

⇒ New Ratio = 84 : 88

⇒ New Ratio = 21 : 22

∴ The correct option is B.

Additional Information

Percentage Increase Formula

To increase a value by x%, multiply the original value by (100 + x)/100.

Ratio Multiplier Method

When components of a ratio a : b are changed by factors m and n, the new ratio becomes (a × m) : (b × n).

Simplification of Ratio

A ratio remains unchanged if both terms are multiplied or divided by the same non-zero number.

Question 28

A jar full of whisky contains 40% of alcohol. A part of this whisky is replaced by another containing 19% alcohol and now the percentage of alcohol was found to be 26%. The quantity of whisky replaced is 

  1. AOption (a)

    23\frac{2}{3}

  2. BOption (b)

    25\frac{2}{5}

  3. COption (c)

    35\frac{3}{5}

  4. DOption (d)

    13\frac{1}{3}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

23\frac{2}{3}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Percentage of alcohol in a whisky jar = 40%

Percentage of alcohol in another whisky jar = 19%

Percentage of alcohol after mixing the contents of two jars = 26%

Calculation:

By Alligation Method

∴ Ratio of the contents of jar-1 and jar-2 = 1 : 2 

⇒ The quantity of whisky replaced was 2/3 of the whole mixture.

Alternate MethodConcept: Use the concept of mixture and alligation.

Calculation:

Difference in concentration between initial whisky and final mixture  = 40 - 26 = 14

Difference in concentration between replacement whisky and final mixture = 26 - 19 = 7

Ratio of the parts replaced to the remaining part:

Ratio = Difference with replacement whisky / Difference with original whisky

⇒ 14 / 7 = 2 / 1

The quantity of whisky replaced is 2 parts out of (2 + 1) = 3 parts in total.

 ∴  2/3 of the jar was replaced.

Question 29

If the number 481A673 is completely divisible by 9, what is the smallest whole number in place of A?

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Divisblity rule of 9: if the sum of digits of the number is divisible by 9, then the number itself is divisible by 9

Calculation:

We have 481A673

If the number is divisible by 9 then

4 + 8 + 1  + 6 + 7 + 3 = multiple of 9

⇒ 29 + A = multiple of 9

If A = 7, sum become 36 which is divisible by 9.

∴ Smallest whole number is 7.

Question 30

In a certain office, 1/3 of the workers are women, 1/2 of the women are married and 1/3 of the married women have children. If 3/4 of the men are married and 2/3 of the married men have children, what part of workers are without children?

  1. AOption (a)

    1118\frac{11}{18}

  2. BOption (b)

    711\frac{7}{11}

  3. COption (c)

    111\frac{1}{11}

  4. DOption (d)

    518\frac{5}{18}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1118\frac{11}{18}

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Total women = 1/3

Married women = 1/2 of 1/3 = 1/6

Women who have a child = 1/3 of married women

⇒ Women who has child = 1/3 of 1/6 = 1/18

Total men = 2/3       (∵ 1/3 are women)

Married man = 3/4 of the total man

⇒ Married man = 3/4 of 2/3 = 1/2

Man who has a child = 2/3 of a married man

⇒ Men who has child = 2/3 of 1/2 = 1/3

Men + Women (​​​​having child) = 1/18 + 1/3 = 7/18

Part that don't have child = 1 - 7/18 = 11/18

∴ 11/18 workers don't have children.

Question 31

If the simple interest on a sum of money for 2 yr at 5% per annum is Rs. 50, what is the compound interest on the same at the same rate and for the same time?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 51.25

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 52

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 54.25

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 60

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 51.25

Why this answer is correct

Given :

S.I on money for 2 year at 5% = Rs. 50

Formula used :

S.I. = P × R × T / 100 

Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)n

C.I = A - P

Where,

P = principal, R= Rate, T= Time

Calculation : 

We know that

S.I. = P × R × T / 100 

50 = P × 5 × 2 /100 

⇒ P = 500

Again, in compound interest, the amount

⇒ A = 500(1 + 5/100)2 

⇒ A = 500 (1 + .05)2

⇒ A = Rs. 551.25 

Hence, compound interest

C.I = 551.25 - 500 = Rs. 51.25

∴ Compound Interest = Rs. 51.25

Question 32

Ravi & Raghav complete a certain work in 25 days. If both started working together & Ravi left after 15 days, then Raghav do the remaining work in 20 days. How many days Raghav will take to complete the same work alone?  

  1. AOption (a)

    40 days

  2. BOption (b)

    50 days

  3. COption (c)

    45 days

  4. DOption (d)

    55 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

50 days

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Combined work of Ravi and Raghav for 10 days (25 − 15) is done by Raghav alone in 20 days.

Efficiency Ratio (Ravi + Raghav) : Raghav = 20 : 10 = 2 : 1.

Total Work = Combined Efficiency × Total Days = 2 × 25 = 50 units.

Time taken by Raghav alone = Total Work ÷ Raghav efficiency = 50 ÷ 1 = 50 days.

∴ The correct answer is 50 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by (Ravi + Raghav) = 25 days.

Work done together = 15 days.

Remaining work done by Raghav = 20 days.

Formula Used:

Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Let the efficiency of Ravi be 'a' and Raghav be 'b'.

⇒ Total Work = 25 × (a + b)

⇒ Work done in 15 days = 15 × (a + b)

⇒ Remaining Work = 25(a + b) − 15(a + b) = 10(a + b)

⇒ According to the question, 10(a + b) = 20 × b

⇒ 10a + 10b = 20b

⇒ 10a = 10b ⇒ a = b (Efficiencies are equal)

⇒ Total Work = 25 × (b + b) = 50b

⇒ Time taken by Raghav alone = 50b ÷ b = 50 days.

∴ The correct answer is 50 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a work. If the ratio of efficiencies of A and B is x : y, then the ratio of time taken is y : x.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the actual work done by each individual, which is equivalent to the ratio of their efficiencies if they work for the same duration.

Combined Work Formula

If A takes 'x' days and B takes 'y' days, together they take (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days to complete the work.

Question 33

Find the approximate value 'k' in 234.01 × k/12.99 − 29.9% of 499.9 = 810.01 ÷ 26.98?

  1. AOption (a)

    25

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    30

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10

Why this answer is correct

Given:

234.01 × k/12.99 − 29.9% of 499.9 = 810.01 ÷ 26.98

Concept used:

To find the approximate value of the expression we can round off the decimal values to the nearest integers to make our calculation easier.

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

234.01 × k/12.99 − 29.9% of 499.9 = 810.01 ÷ 26.98

⇒ 234 × k/13 - 30% of 500 = 810 ÷ 27

⇒ 234 × k/13 - 30 × 5 = 810 ÷ 27

⇒ 18 × k - 150 = 30

⇒ k = 180/18 = 10

∴ The approximate value of k = 10.

Question 34

The two numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 7. If the L.C.M of two numbers is 147, then find the H.C.F of the two numbers.

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    21

  3. COption (c)

    49

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

If the ratio of two numbers is a : b and they are co-prime, then:

H.C.F = L.C.M ÷ (a × b)

H.C.F = 147 ÷ (3 × 7)

H.C.F = 147 ÷ 21 = 7

∴ The correct answer is 7.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of two numbers = 3 : 7

L.C.M of the two numbers = 147

Concept Used:

If two numbers are in the ratio a : b, their L.C.M = a × b × H.C.F.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the numbers be 3x and 7x, where x is the common factor (H.C.F).

⇒ L.C.M of 3x and 7x = 3 × 7 × x = 21x

⇒ Given L.C.M = 147

⇒ 21x = 147

⇒ x = 147 ÷ 21

⇒ x = 7

⇒ Therefore, the H.C.F of the two numbers is 7.

∴ The correct answer is 7.

Additional Information

Product Rule

For any two numbers, the product of the numbers is always equal to the product of their H.C.F and L.C.M (Product = H.C.F × L.C.M).

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are considered co-prime if their H.C.F is 1. The terms of a simplified fraction or ratio are always mutually co-prime.

H.C.F and L.C.M Divisibility

The H.C.F of two or more numbers is always an exact divisor of their corresponding L.C.M.

Question 35

The difference between two selling prices of a T-shirt with profits of 4% and 5% respectively is Rs. 6. Find C.P. of the T-shirt.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs 300 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs 200

  3. COption (c)

    Rs 600 

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs 500 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs 600 

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick5% of C.P - 4% of C.P = 6

⇒ 1 % of C.P = 6

⇒ 100 % of CP = 600

∴ Cost of T-shirt is 600 Rs.

Alternate Method

Formula used:

S.P. = C.P (1 + P%/100)

Calculation:

Using the above formula,

SP1 = CP(1 + 4/100)

⇒ SP1 = (26/25)C.P      -----(1)

SP2 = (1 + 5/100)

⇒  SP2 = (21/20)C.P      -----(2)

According to the question, 

SP2 - SP1 = 6

⇒ (21/20 - 26/25)C.P = 6

⇒ (105 - 104)C.P / 100 = 6

⇒ CP = 600 Rs.

∴ Cost of T-shirt is 600 Rs.

Question 36

Ravi purchases 90 pens and sells 40 pens at a gain of 10% and 50 pens at a gain of 20%. Had he sold all of them at a uniform profit of 15% he would have got Rs. 40 less. Find the cost price of each pen?

  1. AOption (a)

    70 Rs

  2. BOption (b)

    80 Rs

  3. COption (c)

    90 Rs

  4. DOption (d)

    100 Rs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

80 Rs

Why this answer is correct

Formula used:

S.P = C.P (1 + P%/100)

Calculation:

Let cost of each pen be ₹ x

Cost of 90 pen = ₹90 x

SP of 40 pens at 10% gain = 40x + 4x = 44x

SP of 50 pens at 20% gain = 50x + 10x = 60x

Total SP = 44x + 60 x = 104x

If uniform profit of 15% was made, then 

SP = 90x + 15% of 90 x

SP = 90 x + 13.5 x = 103.5 x

According to problem,

104 x - 103.5 x = 40

⇒ 0.5 x = 40

⇒ x = 80

∴ CP of each pen is Rs 80.

Question 37

A tailor has 37.5 meters of cloth and has to cut 8 pieces in one meter. Accordingly how many pieces will be made in the whole cloth?

  1. AOption (a)

    320

  2. BOption (b)

    360

  3. COption (c)

    400

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

None of these

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length of cloth = 37.5 meters 

1 meter  = 8 pieces

Calculation:

1 meter = 8 pieces 

Then, pieces in 37.5 meters cloth  = 37.5 × 8 = 300

∴ 300 pieces will be made in the whole cloth

Question 38

At what time between 7 to 8 O'clock will the hands of a clock points coincide with each other?

  1. AOption (a)

    3821138\frac{2}{11} minutes past 8

  2. BOption (b)

    3281132\frac{8}{11} minutes past 7

  3. COption (c)

    3821138\frac{2}{11} minutes past 7

  4. DOption (d)

    1123811\frac{2}{38} minutes past 7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3821138\frac{2}{11} minutes past 7

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

The angle between the hour hand and minutes hand

θ = (30H - 11 M/2)

Calculation:

H = 7 and angle = 0°

When minute & hour hands coincide, then θ = 0

⇒ 0 = 30 × 7 - 11 M/2

⇒ 0 = 210 - 11 M/2

⇒ 210 = 11 M/2

⇒ 420 = 11 M

⇒ M = 42011\frac{420}{11}

⇒ M = 3821138\frac{2}{11} Minutes

∴  The correct answer is 3821138\frac{2}{11} minutes past 7.

Question 39

A 3 m wide path runs outside and around a rectangular park of length 125 m and breadth 65 m. If cost of flooring is 10 rs/m2, find the total cost of flooring the path.

  1. AOption (a)

    1275 Rs

  2. BOption (b)

    11760 Rs

  3. COption (c)

    12750 Rs

  4. DOption (d)

    1176 Rs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

11760 Rs

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Lenght = 125 m, breadth = 65 m

Cost of flooring = 10 rs/m2

Formula used:

Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth

Calculation:

Area of park = Length × Breadth

⇒ Area of park = 125 m × 65 m

⇒ Area of park = 8125 m2

Length of rectangle including path = 125 + 3 + 3 = 131 m

Breadth of rectangle including path = 65 + 3 + 3 = 71 m

Area of the park including the path

= 131 m × 71 m = 9301 m2

Area of the path = Area of the park including path - Area of the park

⇒ A = 9301 m2 - 8125 m2

⇒ A = 1176 m2

Hence, total cost of flooring @ 10 Rs/m2

⇒ 1176 × 10 = 11760 Rs.

∴ Total cost of flooring the path is 11760 Rs.

Question 40

If Rs. 76 is divided into 7 : 5 : 3 : 4, then the smallest part is :

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 11

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 16

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 15

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

None of the above

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Sum of ratio units = 7 + 5 + 3 + 4 = 19 units.

Total value → 19 units = ₹76.

Value of 1 unit = 76 ÷ 19 = ₹4.

Smallest part ratio = 3 units.

Smallest part value = 3 × ₹4 = ₹12.

∴ The correct answer is ₹12.

Alternate Method

Given: Total Amount = ₹76, Ratio = 7 : 5 : 3 : 4

Formula: Value of a part = (Ratio of part ÷ Sum of ratios) × Total Amount

Ratio 7 Ratio 5 Ratio 3 Ratio 4 (Smallest)

Total = ₹76 (Sum of 19 units)

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 7 + 5 + 3 + 4 = 19

⇒ Smallest part corresponds to the ratio 3.

⇒ Smallest part = (3 ÷ 19) × 76

⇒ Smallest part = 3 × 4

⇒ Smallest part = ₹12

∴ The correct answer is ₹12.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion

A ratio compares two or more quantities. When dividing a total value X into parts with ratio a : b : c, the parts are [a/(a+b+c)]×X, [b/(a+b+c)]×X, and [c/(a+b+c)]×X respectively.

Compounded Ratio

For two ratios a : b and c : d, the compounded ratio is (a × c) : (b × d).

Duplicate and Sub-duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of a : b is a2 : b2, while the sub-duplicate ratio is √a : √b.

Question 41

The diameter of the driving wheel of a bus is 140 cm. How many revolutions per minute must the wheel make in order to keep a speed of 66 km/hr.

  1. AOption (a)

    250

  2. BOption (b)

    2500

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    200

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

250

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The diameter of the driving wheel = 140 cm

Speed of a bus = 66 km/hr

Concept used:

Circumference of a circle = 2πr

Number of revolutions of a wheel (N) = D/d

Where, D = Total distance traveled by wheel

d = Distance traveled by the wheel in 1 revolution

Calculation:

Distance travelled by bus in 1 hour = 66 km = 66000 meter

Distance traveled by bus in 1 minute = (66000)/60 = 1100 m

Distance traveled by a wheel in 1 revolution = Circumference  = 2πr

Put 2r = 140 cm & 1 m = 100 cm, π=22/7 

Therefore, 

Distance traveled by a wheel in 1 revolution = (22/7) × (140/100) 

Distance traveled by a wheel in 1 revolution = 4.40 m

Now, using the above formula

⇒ N × 4.4 = 1100

⇒ N = 250 

∴ The number of revolutions per minute is 250.

Question 42

A number whose fifth part increased by 4 is equal to its fourth part reduced by 10. Find the number.

  1. AOption (a)

    210

  2. BOption (b)

    280

  3. COption (c)

    260

  4. DOption (d)

    230

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

280

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Let the required number be N.

According to the question, 

N5+4=N4−10\frac{N}{5}+4 = \frac{N}{4}-10

⇒ N4−N5=14\frac{N}{4} - \frac{N}{5} = 14

⇒ 5N−4N20=14\frac{5N-4N}{20} = 14 

⇒ N = 280

∴ The required number is 280

Question 43

Distance between A & B is 887 Km. Amit goes to B with speed 75 Km/hr and return with the speed 45 Km/hr. The average speed of Amit is

  1. AOption (a)

    55 km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    60 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    56.25 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

56.25 km/hr

Why this answer is correct

Formula used:

Average Speed = 2ab/(a + b)

  • Applicable when one travels at speed a for half the distance and speed b for the other half of the distance.
  • In this case, the average speed is the harmonic mean of the two speeds. On similar lines, you can modify this formula for one-third distance.

 

Calculation:

As Amit cover the same distance in both ways, hence 

Using the above concept

Average speed = 2×75×4575+45\frac{2 \times 75 \times 45}{75+45}

∴ Average speed = 56.25 km/hr 

Additional Information

  1. Average Speed = (a + b)/2
  • Applicable when one travels at speed a for half the time and speed b for another half of the time.
  • In this case, the average speed is the arithmetic mean of the two speeds.
  1. Average Speed = 3abc/(ab + bc + ca)
  • Applicable when one travels at speed a for one-third of the distance, at speed b for another one-third of the distance and speed c for rest of the one-third of the distance.

Question 44

The 2 unbiased dice are rolled together, then find the probability that the sum of the numbers appearing is a prime number.

  1. AOption (a)

    5365\over36

  2. BOption (b)

    5125\over12

  3. COption (c)

    121\over2

  4. DOption (d)

    7367\over36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5125\over12

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

The probability of any event to occur = The required number of casesTotal number of cases possible\rm \text{The required number of cases}\over\text{Total number of cases possible}

Calculation:

The total number of cases possible are = 6 × 6 = 36

The sum of the numbers that appear in the 2 dice are ∈ [2, 12]

The prime numbers in that interval are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11

2 ⇒ (1, 1)

3 ⇒ (2, 1) and (1, 2)

5 ⇒ (1, 4), (4, 1), (2, 3) and (3, 2)

7 ⇒ (1, 6), (6, 1), (2, 5), (5, 2), (3, 4) and (4, 3)

11 ⇒ (5, 6) and (6, 5)

Total cases required = 15

∴ The probability of the required cases (P) = 153615\over36 

P = 512\boldsymbol{5\over12}

Question 45

A train 100 meter long meets a man going in opposite direction at 5 km/h and passes him in 7157 \frac{1} 5 seconds. The speed of the train is

  1. AOption (a)

    40 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    45 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    36 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    52 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

45 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Relative Speed:

If two objects are moving with speeds X  and Y, then,

1. Moving in the opposite direction:

Relative speed = X + Y

2. Moving in the same direction: 

Relative speed = X - Y

Formula used: 

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculation:

Let x km/hr be the speed of the train.

Relative speed = (x + 5) × (5/18) m/sec

As per the question,

⇒ 100(x+5)×518=365\frac{{100}}{{\left( {x + 5} \right) \times \frac{5}{{18}}}} = \frac{{36}}{5}

⇒ 1800=365(5x+25)1800 = \frac{{36}}{5}\left( {5x + 25} \right)

⇒ 5x = 225

⇒ x = 45 km/hr

∴  Speed of the train is 45 km/hr

Question 46

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

She persisted / to doing / what she wanted / despite opposition.

  1. AOption (a)

    to doing

  2. BOption (b)

    what she wanted

  3. COption (c)

    She persisted

  4. DOption (d)

    despite opposition

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

to doing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '​to doing'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'in doing' should be used instead of 'to doing'.
  • In the given sentence 'persisted' is followed by the preposition 'in'. It is an example of a fixed preposition.
  • It means 'to continue doing something even though other people say that you are wrong or that you cannot do it'. [(लोगों द्वारा निरुत्‍साहित किए जाने के बावजूद) किसी कार्य को निरंतर करते रहना]
  • Example: If you persist in making so much noise, I shall call the police.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: She persisted in doing what she wanted despite opposition.

Question 47

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

He allowed / his son to drive /  but he warn him /  of the danger.

  1. AOption (a)

    He allowed

  2. BOption (b)

    his son to drive

  3. COption (c)

    but he warn him

  4. DOption (d)

    of the danger

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

but he warn him

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is 'but he warn him'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'but he warned him' should be used instead of 'but he warn him'.
  • The given sentence is in the simple past tense.
  • Hence, the use of 'warn' in the second clause is grammatically incorrect.
  • It should be changed into 'warned'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: He allowed his son to drive but he warned him of the danger.

Question 48

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

The unseasonal rain/ caused a lot of damage/ to the crops.

  1. AOption (a)

    The unseasonal rain

  2. BOption (b)

    to the crops

  3. COption (c)

    No error

  4. DOption (d)

    caused a lot of damage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

No error

Why this answer is correct

​The correct answer is 'No error'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically correct.
  • Here, everything is correctly used.
  • 'A lot of' means a large number or amount of (things, people, etc.)
  • Example: A lot of people feel that way.
  • ​Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

​Correct Sentence: The unseasonal rain caused a lot of damage to the crops.

Question 49

Fill in the blanks with the idioms /phrases out of the given options.

I am prepared to meet you ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    halfway

  2. BOption (b)

    middle way

  3. COption (c)

    no way

  4. DOption (d)

    final way

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

halfway

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'halfway

Key Points

  • The meaning of the phrase 'Half-way' is 'Halfway means in the middle of a place or between two points, at an equal distance from each of them.'
  • Let's see an example-
  • He was halfway up the ladder.
<br>

So the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 'halfway'

Question 50

Directions

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate choice-

Drunk drivers are a ______ to everyone.

  1. AOption (a)

    citadel

  2. BOption (b)

    menace

  3. COption (c)

    parry

  4. DOption (d)

    etch

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

menace

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Menace"

Key Points

  • Let's see the meanings of the given words-
  • Citadel- A fortress protecting or dominating a city.
  • Menace- A threat or danger.
  • Parry- to defend yourself by turning or pushing aside
  • Etch- Engrave by coating it with a protective layer.
  • Hence, according to the meaning of the given words, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 51

Directions

In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and each sentence is followed by four options. Select the most appropriate option to fill the blank space.

It is obvious that the interface is highly _______ and three-dimensional.

  1. AOption (a)

    convoluted

  2. BOption (b)

    flaccid

  3. COption (c)

    obviated

  4. DOption (d)

    forlorn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

convoluted

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Convoluted"

Key Points

  • Let's see the meanings of the given words-
  • Convoluted- Extremely complex
  • Flaccid- Soft and limp.
  • Obviated- Remove or prevent; avoid.
  • Forlorn- Pitifully sad or lonely.
  • In the given blank, we need a verb in the passive voice hence according to the meaning the correct verb should be 'Convoluted' i.e. option 1.

Question 52

Directions

Choose the correct word/phrase that best completes the sentence.**

Would you slow down a bit, please? I can't _______ you.

  1. AOption (a)

    put up with 

  2. BOption (b)

    keep up with

  3. COption (c)

    make up to

  4. DOption (d)

    hold on to

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

keep up with

Why this answer is correct

The correct phrase to complete the sentence is 'keep up with'.

Key Points

  • The phrase 'keep up with' means 'To remain near someone or something by moving as fast as them or it.​'
  • Example, 
  • I was surprised that I managed to keep up with Janet on our run.
  • In the given sentence, a person is requesting someone to slow down so that he or she can actually reach nearby, moving as fast as that person.
  • Therefore, according to the explanation and examples that are given above, 'keep up with' is the most appropriate phrase to fill in the blank.

Complete Sentence: Would you slow down a bit, please? I can't keep up with you. 

 

Additional Information

  • Let us learn the meanings of other phrases given in the options:
  • put up with: to tolerate
  • make up to: attempt to win the favour of someone by being pleasant.
  • hold on to: to keep something or someone that is important or useful

Question 53

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To have the same breath

  1. AOption (a)

    In the same statement

  2. BOption (b)

    Make good progress

  3. COption (c)

    Have high hopes

  4. DOption (d)

    Making a big fuss over a small thing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

In the same statement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "in the same statement."

Key Points

  • The meaning of the given idiom "To have the same breath" is "in the same statement."
  • Let's see an example-
  • You say he treats you badly but in the same breath, you tell me how much you love him!

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 54

Directions

Fill in the blanks with the idioms /phrases out of the given options.

This is ________ the rest of his conduct.

  1. AOption (a)

    in touch with

  2. BOption (b)

    to live with

  3. COption (c)

    of a piece with

  4. DOption (d)

    a becoming

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

in touch with

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'in touch with'

Key Points

  • The meaning of the phrase 'in touch with' is 'seeing someone or communicating with someone regularly'
  • Let's see an example-
  • We stay in close touch with the New York office.
<br>

So the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. 'in touch with'

Question 55

Directions

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If there is no error, select ‘No error’.

It seem inevitable / now that she will / find out what happened.

  1. AOption (a)

    find out what happened.

  2. BOption (b)

    now that she will

  3. COption (c)

    No error

  4. DOption (d)

    It seem inevitable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It seem inevitable

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is "It seem inevitable"

Key Points

  • In option 4, the usage of 'seem' is incorrect instead of this use "seems"
  • According to grammar, whenever the singular subject is used then, we need to use a singular verb.
  • In the given sentence, 'It' is a dummy subject that acts as a singular hence, we need to use a singular verb.
  • Let's see an example-
  • It feels strange to have finally won .

So the correct sentence is- It seems inevitable now that she will find out what happened .

Question 56

Directions

Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.

Loyal, reliable, and hard-working.

  1. AOption (a)

    Stalwart

  2. BOption (b)

    Stammer

  3. COption (c)

    Stampede

  4. DOption (d)

    Stanchion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Stalwart

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Stalwart'

Key Points

  • Let's see the meanings of the given words-
  • Stalwart- loyal, reliable, and hard-working.
  • Stammer- speak with sudden involuntary pauses and a tendency to repeat the initial letters of words.
  • Stampede- a sudden panicked rush of a number of horses, cattle, or other animals.
  • Stanchion- an upright bar, post, or frame forming a support or barrier.
  • Hence, according to the meaning of the words, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 57

Directions

Choose the word that can substitute the given sentence.

Able to be understood; comprehensible.

  1. AOption (a)

    intelligible

  2. BOption (b)

    intemperate

  3. COption (c)

    Intarsia

  4. DOption (d)

    Intaglio

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

intelligible

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'intelligible'

Key Points

  • Let's see the meanings of the given words-
  • Intelligible- able to be understood; comprehensible.
  • Intemperate- having or showing a lack of self-control; immoderate.
  • Intarsia- an elaborate form of marquetry using inlays in wood
  • intaglio- a design incised or engraved into a material.
  • Hence, according to the meaning of the correct answer is Option 1.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it.

Sphinx, a mythological creature with a lion’s body and a human head, is an important image in Egyptian and Greek art and legend. The earliest and most famous example in art is the colossal recumbent Great Sphinx at Giza, Egypt, dating from the reign of King Khafre (4th king of the 4th dynasty). This is known to be a portrait statue of the king, and the sphinx continued as a royal portrait type through most of Egyptian history. Arabs, however, know the Great Sphinx of Giza by the name of Abu al-Hawl, or “Father of Terror.” Through Egyptian influence, the sphinx became known in Asia, but its meaning there is uncertain. The sphinx did not occur in Mesopotamia until about 1500 BCE when it was clearly imported from the Levant. In appearance, the Asian sphinx differed from its Egyptian model most noticeably in the addition of wings to the leonine body, a feature that continued through its subsequent history in Asia and the Greek world.

Question 58

Which of the following is known as the "Father of Terror"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arabs

  2. BOption (b)

    Egyptian

  3. COption (c)

    The Great Sphinx

  4. DOption (d)

    The Greek

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The Great Sphinx

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "The Great Sphinx".

Key Points

  • When you read the 3rd line of the passage you can see the following sentence:
  • ​Arabs, however, know the Great Sphinx of Giza by the name of Abu al-Hawl, or “Father of Terror.”
  • This sentence shows that the Great Sphinx of Giza, Abu al-Hawl and Father of Terror are the same.

Hinglish

  • जब आप passage के तीसरे लाइन को पढ़ेंगे तो आपको यह sentence मिलेगा-
  • ​Arabs, however, know the Great Sphinx of Giza by the name of Abu al-Hawl, or “Father of Terror.”
  • यह सेंटेंस बताता है की Great Sphinx of Giza, Abu al-Hawl और  Father of Terror सभी एक ही है।

Question 59

It can be inferred from the passage that the Asian sphinx  __________________. (Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options)

  1. AOption (a)

    has wings as comparison to the original Egyptian sphinx

  2. BOption (b)

    has no similarity

  3. COption (c)

    doesn't have subsequent history in the Greek world.

  4. DOption (d)

    has the figure of a tormented woman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

has wings as comparison to the original Egyptian sphinx

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "has wings as comparison to the original Egyptian sphinx".

Key Points

  • Look at the last sentence of the passage in the second last line:
  • In appearance, the Asian sphinx differed from its Egyptian model most noticeably in the addition of wings to the leonine body, a feature that continued through its subsequent history in Asia and the Greek world.
  • This sentence tells about the addition of wings in the Egyptian model.
  • Hence, we can conclude that the"has wings as comparison to the original Egyptian sphinx" is the correct option.

Hinglish

  • पैसेज के नीचे तरफ से दूसरी लाइन का लास्ट सेंटेंस को देखें- 
  • In appearance, the Asian sphinx differed from its Egyptian model most noticeably in the addition of wings to the leonine body, a feature that continued through its subsequent history in Asia and the Greek world.
  • यह सेंटेंस हमें Egyptian model.में addition of wings के बारे में बताता है।
  • इसलिए सही उत्तर है "has wings as comparison to the original Egyptian sphinx".

Question 60

the sphinx became known in Asia_____________. (Choose the most appropriate answer from the given options)

  1. AOption (a)

    and has no resemblance with the original sphinx.

  2. BOption (b)

    because of the Arabs.

  3. COption (c)

    with the help of Egyptian influence.

  4. DOption (d)

    as a “Father of Terror.”

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

with the help of Egyptian influence.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "with the help of Egyptian influence".

Key Points

  • When you read the 3rd line in the passage, you will see the following sentence:
  • Through Egyptian influence, the sphinx became known in Asia.
  • Hence, "with the help of Egyptian influence" is the correct answer.

Hinglish

  • जब आप passage के तीसरे लाइन को पढ़ेंगे तो आपको यह sentence मिलेगा-
  • ​Through Egyptian influence, the sphinx became known in Asia.
  • इसलिए "with the help of Egyptian influence" सही उतर है ​

Question 61

Directions

The following question, consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence that is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

Reproductive cloning involves _____________ and then grows as two identical embryos.

P: the implantation of a cloned embryo into a real or an artificial uterus.

Q: The embryo develops into a fetus that is then carried to term.

R: Reproductive cloning experiments were performed for more than 40 years through the process of embryo splitting,

S: in which a single early-stage two-cell embryo is manually divided into two individual cells

  1. AOption (a)

    SRQP

  2. BOption (b)

    PQRS

  3. COption (c)

    QPRS

  4. DOption (d)

    RPQS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

PQRS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "PQRS".

Key Points

  • The sentence starts with "Reproductive cloning involves" so there is something that is involved in some process.
  • The first sentence will be "the implantation of a cloned embryo into a real or an artificial uterus" because it introduces the implantation of an embryo.
  • The next sentence will be "The embryo develops into a fetus that is then carried to term." because it describes the evolution of the embryo.
  • The next sentence must be "Reproductive cloning experiments were performed for more than 40 years through the process of embryo splitting," because it tells us about the further splitting of the embryo.
  • The last sentence will be "in which a single early-stage two-cell embryo is manually divided into two individual cells" as this sentence clarify the process of embryo splitting which leads to two identical embryos as stated in the last part of the question.

Question 62

Directions

The following question, consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence which is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

Magic and religion played a large part ____________ all the tricks of the magician.

P: accompanied by incantations, dancing, grimaces, and

Q: Administration of a vegetable drug or remedy by mouth was

R: early human society. 

S:  in the medicine of prehistoric or

  1. AOption (a)

    SRQP

  2. BOption (b)

    RSPQ

  3. COption (c)

    QPRS

  4. DOption (d)

    PQRS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

SRQP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "SRQP".

Key Points

  • The question sentence before the blank is ending in part. Part is generally followed by a preposition:
  • Elena takes part in the programme.
  • Various parts of a car.
  • S starts with a preposition so that will be the 1st sentence.
  • In sentence S, we saw conjunction or, which means the next word will be similar to prehistoric, that is early human.
  • ​So the next sentence will be "early human society"
  • "Administration of a vegetable drug or remedy by mouth was" must be the next sentence because the other remaining sentence "accompanied by incantations, dancing, grimaces, and" needs a subject and that subject must be Administration of a vegetable drug or remedy.
  • Hence the correct answer will be "SRQP"

Question 63

Directions

The following question, consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence which is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.**

Murray then portrayed ___________  American Idol in Rock the Kasbah (2015).

P: on her country’s version of 

Q: a young Afghan singer to stardom

R: a music manager who guides 

S: the musical competition program

  1. AOption (a)

    RQPS

  2. BOption (b)

    RPQS

  3. COption (c)

    SPQR

  4. DOption (d)

    PQRS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

RQPS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "RQPS"

Key Points

  • The first sentence must be  "a music manager who guides" because it tells us what Murray portrayed.
  • The first sentence ends with guides which means there is someone**(a noun)** who needs to be guided and that will be any man or woman:
  • a young Afghan singer is a noun so our next sentence will be "a your Afghan singer to stardom"
  • The last portion of the question is American Idol in Rock the Kasbah(2015) which is a name of a music program so it must be preceded by "the musical competition program".
  • Hence, the correct answer will be "RQPS".

Read the following passage:

Globalization is the word used to describe the growing interdependence of the world’s economies, cultures, and populations, brought about (X)_ cross-border trade in goods and services, technology, and flows of investment, people, and information. Countries have built economic partnerships to facilitate these movements over many centuries. But the term (Y)_ popularity after the Cold War in the early 1990s, as these cooperative arrangements (Z)_ modern everyday life.

Question 64

Select the most appropriate word from the options against (X)_ .

  1. AOption (a)

    by

  2. BOption (b)

    with 

  3. COption (c)

    on

  4. DOption (d)

    for

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

by

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "by".

Key Points

  • Bring about is a phrasal verb that means to cause something to happen. Look at this example:​
  • Alisa is working utterly hard to bring about changes in her life.
  • ​In the above passage, it is written brought about by in the place of bring about because it's in passive voice.
  • Brought about is written just before the blank space which must be followed by "by".
  • Hence, "by" is the right answer

Hinglish

  • Bring about एक phrasal verb  है जिसका मतलब होता है किसी घटना को घटित करना। 
  • Example:  Alisa is working utterly hard to bring about changes in her life.
  • ऊपर वाले passage में bring के जगह brought लिखा है क्योंकि वह pasive voice में है।
  • Brought about के बाद blank है मतलब ब्लेंक में by आना चाहिए।
  • इसलिए "by" सही उत्तर है।

Question 65

Select the most appropriate word from the options against __(Y)____.

  1. AOption (a)

    gained

  2. BOption (b)

    lost

  3. COption (c)

    resultant

  4. DOption (d)

    cause

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

gained

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "gained".

Key Points

  • We can see the word term before the blank popularity after the blank:
  • We have to use a verb after the noun so we can't insert "resultant" in the blank.
  • The term globalisation can't cause popularity, it can either gain or lose popularity.
  • The passage talks about all the positive impacts of globalization so it must have gained popularity.
  • Hence, we can conclude that gained will be the right option.

Question 66

Select the most appropriate word from the options against __(Z)____.

  1. AOption (a)

    demolished

  2. BOption (b)

    neglected

  3. COption (c)

    shaped

  4. DOption (d)

    dismantled

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

shaped

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Shaped".

Key Points

  • It is clear that some cooperative arrangements are impacting modern everyday life.
  • Also, the 1st sentence tells about globalisation and its impact.
  • The passage also tells us about the evolution of goods and services, technology, and flows of investment, people, and information.
  • Clearly, these things can't demolish, dismantle or neglect modern everyday life.
  • Hence, we can conclude that "Shaped" is the correct answer.

Question 67

In the following question, out of the given alternatives, choose the best one which expresses the meaning of the given word. 

Conduit

  1. AOption (a)

    Duct

  2. BOption (b)

    Closure

  3. COption (c)

    Colossal

  4. DOption (d)

    Refusal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Duct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Duct"

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meanings of the marked option and the word in the question:
  • Duct- a tube or channel from which something can pass. Look at the image:
  • A conduit is also a tube.
  • Let's look at the meanings of the other given options:
  • Closure- an act of closing something.
  • Colossal- extremely large
  • Refusal- an act of refusing, denying
  • Hence from all the given options, the Duct is the appropriate option.​

Additional Information

  • Let's look at synonyms of the given word:
  • Channel, pipe, tube
  • Let's look at a sentence for more clarity.
  • The water flows through the duct.

Question 68

In the following question, out of the given alternatives, choose the best one which expresses the meaning of the given word. 

Reprimand

  1. AOption (a)

    Rebuke

  2. BOption (b)

    Praise

  3. COption (c)

    Compliment

  4. DOption (d)

    Commend

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rebuke

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Rebuke"

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
  • Rebuke- to scold someone.
  • Reprimand is a synonym for Rebuke.
  • Let's look at the meanings of other options:
  • Praise- to admire
  • Compliment- to admire in a polite way
  • commend- to admire officially
  • Hence, from the given options, Rebuke is the right choice.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the synonyms and antonyms of Reprimand:

  • | Synonyms | Antonyms | | --- | --- | | Rebuke, Reproof, admonishment | Praise, applaud, compliment |

Important Points The rest of the options, other than rebuke are antonyms.

Question 69

In the following question, out of the given alternatives, choose the best one which expresses the meaning of the given word. 

Prejudice

  1. AOption (a)

    Tolerance

  2. BOption (b)

    Bias

  3. COption (c)

    Admiration

  4. DOption (d)

    Approval

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bias

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Bias".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option and the word in the question:
  • Bias- an inclination or preconceived opinion for or against one person or group.
  • Prejudice- preconceived opinion about someone or something.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the rest of the options:
  • Tolerance- the ability to tolerate something.
  • Admiration- appreciation.
  • Approval- to approve something or someone.
  • Hence, from the given options, we can conclude that Bias is the correct answer.

Additional Information

Synonyms and Antonyms of Prejudice:​

SynonymsAntonyms
preconception, preconceivedunbiased, neutral

Question 70

In the following question, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word. 

Haughty

  1. AOption (a)

    Proud

  2. BOption (b)

    Arrogant

  3. COption (c)

    Snobbish

  4. DOption (d)

    Modest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Modest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Modest".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option and the given word.
  • Modest- not bragging or showing off one's abilities.
  • Haughty- the feeling of arrogantly superior, not modest.
  • Look at the meaning of other options:
  • Proud- showing a high opinion of oneself.
  • Snobbish- a feeling of superiority.
  • Arrogant- showing excessively high importance of oneself.
  • Hence, Modest is the right choice.

Additional Information

  • Synonyms and Antonyms of haughty:
SynonymsAntonyms
Proud, arrogant, conceitedmodest, humble

Important Points

  • The rest of the options are synonyms of Haughty.

Question 71

In the following question, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word. 

Crafty

  1. AOption (a)

    Cunning

  2. BOption (b)

    Guileful

  3. COption (c)

    Honest

  4. DOption (d)

    Sly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Honest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Honest"

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the word in the question:
  • Crafty- cunning, clever in a deceitful way, dishonest.
  • Honest is the opposite of dishonest.
  • Let's look at the other options:
  • Guile, skilful and cunning are the synonyms of crafty.
  • Hence, Honest is the right answer.

Important Points

  • Synonyms and Antonyms of Crafty: 
  • | Synonyms | Antonyms | | --- | --- | | cunning, guileful, artful | candid, frank, direct |

Question 72

The given idiom is followed by four meanings. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom.

Jaundiced eye

  1. AOption (a)

    A task or activity that has no hope of success

  2. BOption (b)

    in a negative or uncharitable light

  3. COption (c)

    To praise someone

  4. DOption (d)

    In high spirits

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

in a negative or uncharitable light

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "in a negative or uncharitable light".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom "Jaundiced eye":
  • ​It means to look upon something with prejudice, in a negative way. (किसी चीज़ को पूर्वाग्रह से देखना, एक नकारात्मक तरीके से)
  • The marked option "in a negative or uncharitable light" is similar to the meaning of Jaundiced eye
  • Hence, in a negative or uncharitable light is the right answer.

Question 73

Find the best one-word substitution for the below description.

A short amusing or interesting story about a real incident or person.

  1. AOption (a)

    Palindrome

  2. BOption (b)

    Ecstatic

  3. COption (c)

    Anecdote

  4. DOption (d)

    Emeritus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Anecdote

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Anecdote"

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the marked option:
  • Anecdote- it's a one-word substitution that means a short amusing or interesting story about a real incident or person.
  • Let's look at the other options:
  • Palindrome- a word, phrase, or sequence that reads the same backward as forwards, for example, madam.
  • Ecstatic- expressing great happiness.
  • Emeritus- a retired college professor or minister.
  • Hence, we can conclude that Anecdote is the right answer.

Additional Information

  • Some similar words: 
  • ​Fable- a short story that features animals.
  • Parable- a simple story used to illustrate a moral or spiritual lesson.

Question 74

In the following question, there is a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed by four other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best expresses the relationship like the original pair.

Eye : Myopia:: Teeth :

  1. AOption (a)

    Pyorrhea

  2. BOption (b)

    Rickets

  3. COption (c)

    Scurvy

  4. DOption (d)

    alzheimer 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pyorrhea

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Pyorrhea".

Key Points 

  • Let's understand the logic in the question:
  • The question states about Myopia, which is a disease related to Eye.
  • We have a blank after teeth so we have to select a disease related to teeth.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the marked option:
  • Pyorrhea- an inflammation of the tissue around the teeth.
  • We can say that Pyorrhea is related to teeth.
  • Let's look at the other options:
  • Rickets- a disease which causes softening of bones in children due to lack of Vitamin D.
  • Scury- a disease which causes bleeding of gums due to lack of Vitamin C.
  • Alzheimer- a neurologic disorder or disease that causes the brain to shrink.

Additional Information

  • Diseases related to body parts:
  • | Diseases | related body parts | | --- | --- | | Jaundice | liver | | Polio | legs | | Goitre | Thyroid gland |

Question 75

In the following question, there is a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed by four other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best expresses the relationship like the original pair.

Tiger : Forest :: Otter :

  1. AOption (a)

    Water

  2. BOption (b)

    Land

  3. COption (c)

    Air

  4. DOption (d)

    Alien

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Water

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Water"

Key Points

  • This question is based on logical reasoning, let's have a look:
  • Tiger is a land animal that lives in a forest.
  • Otter is a sea creature that lives in water.
  • Hence, we can conclude that Water is the right answer.

Additional Information

  • Here is an image of an otter:

.

Question 76

The motto of the Indian Coast Guard is?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sam no Varunah

  2. BOption (b)

    Duty Unto Death

  3. COption (c)

    Vayam Rakshamah

  4. DOption (d)

    Service, Security and Brotherhood

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Vayam Rakshamah

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vayam Rakshamah.

  • The motto of the Indian Coast Guard is Vayam Rakshamah.

Key Points

  • Indian Coast Guard
  • It is an Armed Force, Search and Rescue and Maritime Law Enforcement agency under the Ministry of Defence.
  • The Director-General of Indian Coast Guard: Rakesh Pal
  • Indian Coast Guard Headquarters is in New Delhi.
  • It was established in August 1978 by the Coast Guard Act, 1978 as an independent Armed force of India.
  • The motto of the Indian Coast Guard is Vayam Rakshamah which means We Protect.
  • It Indian Coast Guard was inaugurated by then Prime Minister Morarji Desai.
  • The concept of forming ICG came into being after the 1971 war.
  • The blueprint for a multidimensional Coast Guard was conceived by the visionary Rustamji Committee.
  • It has jurisdiction over the territorial waters of India including contiguous zone and Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
  • It is responsible for marine environment protection in maritime zones of India and is coordinating authority for response to oil spills in Indian waters.

Additional Information

  • Sam no Varunah is the motto of Indian Navy.
  • Duty Unto Death is the motto of the Border Security Force.
  • Service, Security and Brotherhood is the motto of Sashastra Seema Bal.

Question 77

Who appoints the Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission?

  1. AOption (a)

    The President of India

  2. BOption (b)

    The Governor of State

  3. COption (c)

    The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

  4. DOption (d)

    A Committee of Prime Minister, Home minister and the Leader of opposition

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Governor of State

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Governor of State.

Key Points

  • Article 315 to 323 mentions the powers of the State Public Service Commission, the appointment of members and dismissal, etc. under Part XIV of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the State.
  • The Chairman and members of the Joint Public Service Commission are appointed by the President of India.
  • The Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President of India.
  • Chairman and a member of the State Public Service Commission give his resignation to the Governor of the State.

Important Points

  • The President, in the case of the Union Commission or a Joint Commission, and the Governor in the case of a State Commission, may suspend from office the Chairman or any other member of the Commission in respect of the case of misbehavior until the President has passed orders on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court on such reference.
  • The President may by order remove from office the Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission if the Chairman or such other member, as the case may be,
  • Is adjudged an insolvent.
  • Engages during his term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.
  • Is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office because of the infirmity of mind or body.
  • The Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission shall only be removed from his office by order of the President on the ground of misbehavior after the Supreme Court, on a reference being made to it by the President, has, on inquiry held following the procedure prescribed in that behalf under Article 145, reported that the Chairman or such other member, as the case may be, ought on any such ground to be removed.
  • If the Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission is or becomes in any way concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or the Government of a State or participates in any way in the profit thereof or any benefit or emolument arising therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common with the other members of an incorporated company, he shall be deemed to be guilty of misbehavior.

Source:- https://upsc.gov.in/about-us/constitutional-provisions/article-316-appointment-and-term-office-members

Question 78

The viceroy who got assassinated in Andaman Nicobar was

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Hardinge

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Northbrook

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Mayo

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Minto

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lord Mayo

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is Option 3 i.e Lord Mayo.

Key Points

Governor-General / ViceroyEvents or Achievements
Lord Mayo (1869-1872)- He served as viceroy of India - Introduced financial decentralization - Organized the Statistical Survey of India - Established the department of agriculture and commerce. - Only viceroy to be killed in jail
Lord Hardinge (1910-1916)- He served as Viceroy of India. - Annulment of the partition of Bengal (1911) took place during his tenure. - Transfer of capital from Calcutta to Delhi (1911) - The BHU act of 1915 was passed and by which Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya established the Banaras Hindu University.
Lord Minto (1905-1910)- He served as viceroy of India - Swadeshi movement (1905) - Foundation of Muslim league (1906) - Surat split (1907) - Minto Morley reforms (1909) - Newspapers act 1908 - He was known as Father of Communal Electorate in India. - Alipore Bomb Case 1908 - Indian Council Act of 1909
Lord Northbrook (1872-76)- He served as Viceroy of India - Kuka Movement of Punjab took rebellious turn during his tenure

Question 79

In which river valley of India are the largest deposits of Gondwana coal found?

  1. AOption (a)

    Damodar river valley

  2. BOption (b)

    Narmada river valley

  3. COption (c)

    Cauvery river valley

  4. DOption (d)

    Mahanadi river valley

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Damodar river valley

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Damodar river valley

Key Points 

  • The most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in Damodar Valley.
  • About 80 per cent of the coal deposits in India are of a bituminous type and is of non-coking grade.
  • They lie in the Jharkhand Bengal coal belt and the important coalfields in this region are Raniganj, Jharia, Bokaro, Giridih, and Karanpura.
  • The other river valleys associated with coal are the Godavari, Mahanadi, and Son.
  • The Raniganj coalfield is the oldest coal mine in India. It was first mined in 1774.
  • Gondwana rocks (Chhota Nagpur Plateau) are the richest mineral deposits in India.
  • Coal is found in sedimentary rocks beneath rock surface and is often called “Black Gold”.

Additional Information

Narmada river valley:

  • It is the largest flowing river in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
  • This river flows through Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat states of India.
  • It is also known as the "Life Line of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat" due to its huge contribution to the two states in many ways.

Cauvery river valley:

  • Cauvery is an easterly flowing river of the Peninsular India that runs across three of the southern Indian states i.e. Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and a Union Territory of Puducherry.
  • The fourth largest river in the southern region.
  • The rocks in the entire basin are predominantly metamorphic and igneous.
  • The hydropower potential of the basin has been assessed as 1359 MW at 60% load factor.

Mahanadi river valley:

  • Mahanadi Coalfields Limited was carved out of South Eastern Coalfields Limited in 1992 with its headquarters at Sambalpur.
  • Ib Valley Coalfield is located in the Jharsuguda district in the Indian state of Odisha, in the valley of the Ib River, a tributary of the Mahanadi. ′
  • This coalfield forms part of the large Gondwana basin that extends across several districts in adjoining Chhattisgarh.

Question 80

What was the theme of World Environment Day 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only One Earth

  2. BOption (b)

    Ecosystem Restoration

  3. COption (c)

    Time for Nature

  4. DOption (d)

    Air pollution 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only One Earth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only One Earth.

Key Points

  • World Environment Day:
  • World environment day is celebrated for encouraging awareness and action for the protection of the environment.
  • It is celebrated on 5th June every year.
  • First held in 1974.
  • The theme of first-world environment day was "only one earth".
  • The theme for World Environment Day 2022 is Only One Earth.
  • The host country is Sweden.

Additional Information

  • Ecosystem Restoration is the theme of World Environment Day 2021.
  • Time for Nature is the theme of World Environment Day 2020.
  • Air pollution is the theme of World Environment Day 2019.

Important Points

  • List of Some important days in June 2022:​
DaysEvents
1st June- World Milk Day - Global Parents Day
4th JuneInternational Day of Innocent Children Victims of Aggression
5th JuneWorld Environment Day
7th JuneWorld Food Safety Day
12th JuneWorld Day Against Child Labour
14th JuneWorld Blood Donor Day
17th JuneWorld Day to Combat Desertification and Drought
20th JuneWorld Refugee Day
21st June- World Hydrography Day - International Yoga Day - World Music day

Question 81

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    Castling - Chess

  2. BOption (b)

    Twiddle - Table Tennis

  3. COption (c)

    Regatta - Billiards

  4. DOption (d)

    Chukka - Polo

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Regatta - Billiards

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Castling:

  • This term is related to Chess. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
  • Castling involves the king and the rook swapping positions.
  • The king moves two spaces from the starting position to the left or right, and the rook moves to next to it on the other side.
  • This offers your king more safety.

Twiddle:

  • This term is related to Table Tennis. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • It means Turning of the paddle, used for confusing opponents on which side of the paddle is being used.
  • Not as deceptive now due to the two-colour law, namely black on one side and bright red on the other side. Usually utilized with a combination bat.

Chukka:

  • This term is related to Polo. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
  • Polo is a physical game, and players are permitted to ride off another in order to spoil a shot or take the player out of the game.
  • Chukka is a period of time played.

Regatta:

  • The regatta is nothing but a boat race. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
  • Any race with boats, be it rowing boats, motorboats, paddleboards, etc is termed as Regatta.
  • The Admiral's Cup Sailing Regatta is a trophy associated with Regatta sport.

Question 82

With reference to the ‘Kisan Credit Cards scheme’, consider the following statements:

I. The scheme was introduced in 1998 for providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system.

II. Kisan Credit Card can be used for the purchase of combine harvesters, tractors, and mini trucks.

III. The scheme comes with an ATM-enabled RuPay debit card.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    I and II only

  3. COption (c)

    II and III only

  4. DOption (d)

    I and III only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I and III only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

In News

  • Recently, the Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying reviewed the progress in the issuance of Kisan Credit Cards to poor farmers from the Animal Husbandry, Dairying & Fisheries Sector with Banks & Regional Rural Banks.

Key Points

Kisan Credit Cards:

  • The scheme was introduced in 1998 for providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The scheme was further extended for the investment credit requirement of farmers viz. allied and non-farm activities in the year 2004.
  • In Budget-2018-19, the government announced the extension of the facility of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) to fisheries and animal husbandry farmers to help them to meet their working capital needs.
  • Implementing Agencies:
  • Commercial Banks
  • Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
  • Small Finance Banks
  • Cooperatives
  • The scheme comes with an ATM-enabled RuPay debit card with facilities for one-time documentation, built-in cost escalation in the limit, and any number of drawers within the limit.  Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Besides ensuring saturation, banks will also be taking steps to link Aadhaar immediately as no interest subvention will be given if the Aadhaar numbers are not seeded to KCC accounts.
  • The Kisan Credit Card scheme aims at providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system under a single window with a flexible and simplified procedure for the farmers for their cultivation and other needs as indicated below:
  • To meet the short-term credit requirements for the cultivation of crops
  • Post-harvest expenses; Produce marketing loan
  • Consumption requirements of farmer household
  • Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture.
  • Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities.
  • Hence, KCC cannot be used for the purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Question 83

Uranium 235 is best used for which of the following? 

  1. AOption (a)

    To find the age of the rocks

  2. BOption (b)

    In the treatment of cancer

  3. COption (c)

    In the decomposition of dead animals

  4. DOption (d)

    To measure the depth of the ocean

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To find the age of the rocks

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rocks.

Key Points

Uranium 235:

  • Uranium is a weakly radioactive element with an atomic number 92 and the symbol U in the periodic table.
  • The isotope U-235 is essential since it can be split readily and yield a lot of energy under certain conditions. Therefore it is known as ‘fissile’ and uses the expression ‘nuclear fission.’
  • Uranium fission is made efficient by nuclear engineers. To increase the proportion of U-235, the engineers either gasify the element to differentiate the isotopes.
  • Using uranium-238 and uranium-235, which have a half-life of 704 million years, scientists were able to determine the age of minerals found on Earth, the Moon and inside meteorites to help us estimate that Earth formed 4.54 billion years ago.
  • Geologists use the radiometric dating of uranium and the isotopes of other radioactive elements, combined with observations of fossils and sediment layers, to chart the course of Earth’s natural history and the evolution of life.

Important Points

  • Uranium is the most widely used fuel by nuclear power plants for nuclear fission.
  • The Nuclear power plant uses Uranium-235 as fuel because its atoms are easily split apart.
  • Cobalt therapy involves using gamma rays from the radioisotope cobalt-60 to treat conditions such as cancer.
  • Cobalt-60 was widely used in external beam radiotherapy machines in the 1950s, which produced a beam of gamma rays directly targeting the patient's body to kill tumour tissue.

Question 84

Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?

  1. AOption (a)

    Visible rays

  2. BOption (b)

    Gamma rays

  3. COption (c)

    Infrared rays

  4. DOption (d)

    X-rays

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gamma rays

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gamma Rays.

Key Points

  • Gamma rays have the shortest wavelength and highest frequency (energy) in the electromagnetic spectrum.
  • They are electromagnetic waves with wavelengths in the range of 10-12m and frequencies around 1020- 1024 Hz.
  • They have a high penetrating power.
  • They are a result of decaying radioactive material and can also be found in outer space.
  • They are used in medical applications for sterilisation of equipment and cancer treatment.

Additional Information

  • Other radiations in the Electromagnetic spectrum are:

Question 85

Who has authored a new biography of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose titled 'Bose: The Untold Story of An Inconvenient Nationalist'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anuj Dhar

  2. BOption (b)

    Bishnu Dey

  3. COption (c)

    Chandrachur Ghose

  4. DOption (d)

    Ramesh Shil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Chandrachur Ghose

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chandrachur Ghose.

Key Points

  • A new biography of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose titled 'Bose: The Untold Story of An Inconvenient Nationalist' is all set to release in February 2022.
  • The biography is authored by the researcher and founder of 'Mission Netaji' Chandrachur Ghose.
  • It will be published by Penguin Random House India under its Viking imprint.

Additional Information

  • Some recently released books:​​
BooksAuthors
Gajapati: A king without a kingdomAshok Bal
India's Ancient Legacy of WellnessRekha Chaudhari
Gandhitopi GovernorYarlagadda Lakshmi Prasad
Public Service EthicsPrabhat Kumar
Cooking to Save Your LifeAbhijit Banerjee
Resolved: Uniting Nations in a Divided WorldBan Ki-moon
Nehru: The Debates that Defined IndiaTripurdaman Singh and Adeel Hussain
The Cinema of Satyajit RayBhaskar Chattopadhyay

Question 86

Washington DC is situated on the bank of which of the following River?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hudson

  2. BOption (b)

    Potomac

  3. COption (c)

    Mississippi

  4. DOption (d)

    Colorado

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Potomac

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Potomac.

Key Points

  • Washington DC, the U.S. capital, is located on the banks of the Potomac River, bordering the states of Maryland and Virginia.
  • Washington D.C. is famous for the neoclassical monuments and buildings.
  • Potomac River:-
  • Potomac River is found within the Mid-Atlantic region of the United States and flows from the Potomac Highlands into the Chesapeake Bay.
  • The rive is approximately 405 miles (652 km) long, with a drainage area of about 14,700 square miles.
  • It is the wildest river in the world that flows through a heavily populated area.

Additional Information

  • Mississippi River:
  • The river flows through the United States.
  • Second-longest river on the North American continent.
  • It has the world's fourth-largest drainage basin.
  • Hudson River:
  • The river flows through the United States.
  • The river is named after English sea explorer Henry Hudson.
  • Colorado River:
  • Hoover and Boulder Dam are the main dams on the Colorado River.
  • The imperial valley of the Colorado River is an important region for cotton cultivation.
  • The outflow of the Colorado River is the Gulf of California.
  • Tributaries: Little Colorado
  • Source: Grand Country
  • Its drainage basin covers 246000 square miles.

Question 87

There are total __________ hymns in Rig Veda

  1. AOption (a)

    1028

  2. BOption (b)

    1208

  3. COption (c)

    1017

  4. DOption (d)

    1020

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1028

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1028.

Key Points

  • There are total 1028 hymns in Rig Veda.
  • Rig Veda is the oldest Veda.
  • It is one of the four canonical sacred texts of Hinduism known as the Vedas.
  • The text is a collection of 1,028 hymns and 10,600 verses, organized into ten books called mandals.
  • It is a part of four Vedas namely Rig Veda, Sama Veda, Yajur Veda, Atharvana Veda.
  • Samaveda consists of many hymns that are taken from Rig Veda and are related to Music.
  • It is also called the book of melodies.
Rig VedaBook of Hymns of Praise
Yajur VedaBook of Scarifies
Atharvana VedaBook of Magical Charms

Question 88

With which country does India conduct a joint military exercise named “Exercise SAMPRITI”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indonesia

  2. BOption (b)

    Bangladesh

  3. COption (c)

    Sri Lanka

  4. DOption (d)

    Nepal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bangladesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

  • Exercise SAMPRITI is a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh which is hosted alternately by both countries.
  • The ninth edition of India-Bangladesh joint military exercise SAMPRITI. The exercise commenced at Umroi, Meghalaya.
  • The purpose of this exercise is to strengthen and broaden the interoperability and cooperation between the Indian and Bangladeshi armies.
  • Another objective of this exercise is to strengthen and expand the aspects of mutual cooperation between both armies.

Additional Information

Some of the important Indian bilateral army exercises are as below:

Exercise NameParticipant Nations
SampritiIndia & Bangladesh
Mitra ShaktiIndia & Sri Lanka
Maitree ExerciseIndia & Thailand
Vajra PraharIndia & US
Yudh AbhyasIndia & US
Nomadic ElephantIndia & Mongolia
Garuda ShaktiIndia & Indonesia
Shakti ExerciseIndia & France
Dharma GuardianIndia & Japan
Surya KiranIndia & Nepal
Hand in Hand ExerciseIndia & China

Question 89

Which transport tactical lifter capable of carrying payload more than 50 tons is also used in various operations by Indian Air Force?

  1. AOption (a)

    C-17

  2. BOption (b)

    C-130J

  3. COption (c)

    IL-76

  4. DOption (d)

    Mirage 2000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

C-17

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is C-17.

Key Points

Boeing C-17 Globemaster:

  • IAF’s C-17s played a crucial role in transporting soldiers and military equipment to eastern Ladakh last year when the border row with China was at its peak.
  • The US-origin heavy lifter was also at the centre of IAF’s efforts for Covid-19 relief last year.
  • The C-17 fleet made a remarkable contribution to the fight against the Covid-19 pandemic last year by transporting much-needed empty cryogenic oxygen containers from foreign countries and domestic locations to filling stations across India to speed up the distribution of oxygen to hospitals.
  • IAF operates a fleet of 11 C-17 transport planes, bought from the United States in a government-to-government deal worth around $4.5 billion.
  • IAF deployed several C-17 aircraft as part of Operation Ganga which aimed to evacuate the Indian students from Ukraine.
  • The C-17 can take off from a 7,000ft airstrip with 72.5 tons of payload, fly 4,481km and land on a small, unprepared runway measuring less than 3,000ft.
  • The four-engine plane can deliver three infantry combat vehicles or the main battle tank or a heavy-lift chopper to forward bases in a single deployment.
  • It can airdrop 102 paratroopers and equipment.

Additional Information

C-130J

  • Indian Air Force (IAF) currently operates 12 C-130J Super Hercules aircraft, the first of which was ordered in 2007.
  • The Indian Air Force carried out the highest landing of a C-130J in 2013, which is 34.37-metre-long with a wingspan of 40.41 metres.

Mirage 2000:

  • ​The Dassault Mirage 2000 is a French multirole, single-engine fourth-generation fighter jet manufactured by Dassault Aviation.
  • India inked the deal with France in 1980 and the jet is one of the IAF’s strategic aircraft.

IL-76:

  • IL-76 is a medium-range military transport aircraft.
  • The missions of the aircraft are paratroopers drop, and the carriage of troop forces and combat material with crews and armaments, including medium-sized battle tanks, cargo airlifting for troop forces and transport for disaster relief operations.

Question 90

Match List I with the correct options of List II.

List I (Academy)List II (located at)
A. National Defence Academy1. Pune
B. Indian Coast Guard Academy2. Dundigal
C. Officers Training Academy3. Chennai
D. Indian Air Force Academy4. Mangaluru

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

  2. BOption (b)

    A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

  3. COption (c)

    A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

  4. DOption (d)

    A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2.

Key Points

National Defence Academy:

  • The National Defence Academy is an iconic institution and hallmark of global excellence in the sphere of military education.
  • It is situated in Khadakwasla, Pune, Maharashtra.
  • It is the first tri-service academy in the world.

Indian Coast Guard Academy:

  • The Indian Coast Guard Academy will be a military training institute for Indian Coast Guard personnel, which is currently under construction in Mangalore, Karnataka.
  • Indian Coast Guard personnel were historically trained at the Indian Naval Academy (INA).
  • Following the 2008 Mumbai attacks, the Indian government initiated a program to triple its coast guard's force, assets and infrastructure.

Officers Training Academy:

  • The Officers Training Academy (OTA) is a training establishment of the Indian Army that trains officers for the Short Service Commission (SSC).
  • It is located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.

Indian Air Force Academy:

  • Air Force Academy (AFA), the premier Training centre of the Indian Air Force, is the cradle of training for pilots, ground duty and technical officers of IAF.
  • It is located in Dindigul, Telangana.
  • This academy represents the culmination and fruition of a long-felt need to have training for officers of all branches in a single institution.

Question 91

In which language were most Buddhist texts written? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Sanskrit 

  2. BOption (b)

    Magadhi

  3. COption (c)

    Prakrit 

  4. DOption (d)

    Pali

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pali

Why this answer is correct

​The correct answer is Pali.

Key Points

  • India is the birthplace of Buddhism and most of the texts were initially written in Pali.
  • It is an Indo-Aryan language that was used to preserve the Buddhist canon of the Theravada Buddhist tradition, which is regarded as the oldest complete collection of Buddhist texts surviving in an Indian language.

Additional Information

Buddhist CouncilHeld onHeld UnderPresided byLocation
First483 BCKing AjatshatruMahakasyapaRajgriha
Second383 BCKing KalasokaSabakamiVaishali
Third250 BCKing AsokaMoggliputta TissaPatliputra
Fourth72 ADKushan King KanishkaVasumitraKashmir
Fifth1871King MindonJagarabhivamsa, Narindhabhidhaja and SumangalasamiMandalay (Mayanmar)
Sixth1954Burmese governmentU NuYangon (Mayanmar)

Question 92

Who wrote the lyrics of the song ‘Aye Mere Watan Ke Logon’ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Manoj Kumar

  2. BOption (b)

    Pradeep

  3. COption (c)

    Shailendra

  4. DOption (d)

    Raghupati Sahay ‘ Firaq’

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Pradeep

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pradeep.

Key Points

  • Aye Mere Watan Ke Logo 
  • It is a patriotic song written in Hindi by Kavi Pradeep, composed by C. Ramchandra, and sung by singer Lata Mangeshkar. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • The song commemorates Indian soldiers who died during the Sino-Indian War in 1962.
  • The song was first performed live two months after the war by Mangeshkar on Republic Day (26 January) 1963 at the National Stadium in New Delhi in the presence of President Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan and Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • Kavi Pradeep
  • He was born Ramchandra Narayanji Dwivedi.
  • He was an Indian poet and songwriter who is best known for his patriotic song Aye Mere Watan Ke Logo written as a tribute to the soldiers who had died defending the country during the Sino-Indian War.

Additional Information

  • Manoj Kumar
  • He is an Indian actor and director in Bollywood.
  • He is remembered for his versatile performances in films like Hariyali Aur Raasta, Woh Kaun Thi?, Himalay Ki God Mein, Do Badan, Upkar, Patthar Ke Sanam, Neel Kamal, Purab Aur Paschim, Beimaan, Roti Kapda Aur Makaan, Dus Numbri, Shor, Sanyasi and Kranti.
  • Shailendra
  • He was a popular Indian Hindi-Urdu Poet, lyricist, and Film producer.
  • Noted for his association with the filmmaker Raj Kapoor, singer Mukesh, and the composers Shankar-Jaikishan, he wrote lyrics for several successful Hindi film songs in the 1950s and the 1960s.
  • Raghupati Sahay
  • Better known under his pen name Firaq Gorakhpuri, was a writer, critic, and, according to one commentator, one of the most noted contemporary Urdu poets from India.
  • He established himself among peers including Muhammad Iqbal, Yagana Changezi, Jigar Moradabadi, and Josh Malihabadi.

Question 93

The Kumbh fair has been included in the UNESCO list of intangible cultural heritage in which year?

  1. AOption (a)

    2015

  2. BOption (b)

    2017

  3. COption (c)

    2016

  4. DOption (d)

    2019

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2017

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2017.

  • The Kumbh fair has been included in the UNESCO list of intangible cultural heritage in 2017.

Key Points

  • The Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage under UNESCO has inscribed 'Kumbh Mela' on the Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity during its 12th session held at Jeju, South Korea from 4-9 December 2017.

Important Points

  • Kumbh Mela is a mass Hindu pilgrimage of faith in which Hindus gather to bath in a sacred river.
  • It is the world’s largest religious gathering.
  • It is started on the day of Makar Sankranti.
  • It is celebrated for nearly 2 to 3 months.
  • It is held every third year at four places by rotation.
  • The places are:-
  • Prayagraj, Nasik, Ujjain and Haridwar.
  • The Kumbh Mela is held at each of these four places every 12 years.
  • As it is held in four different cities in India, it involves different social and cultural activities, making this a culturally diverse festival.
  • Knowledge and skills related to the tradition are transmitted through ancient religious manuscripts, oral traditions, historical travelogues, and texts produced by eminent historians.
  • The teacher-student relationship of the sadhus in the ashrams and akhadas remains the most important method of imparting and safeguarding knowledge and skills relating to Kumbh Mela.

Question 94

Who among the following has written 'The Springing Tiger'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Abdulrazak Gurnah

  2. BOption (b)

    Louise Glück

  3. COption (c)

    Col Hugh Toye

  4. DOption (d)

    Peter Handke

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Col Hugh Toye

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Col Hugh Toye.

Key Points

The Springing Tiger:

  • The Springing Tiger is a historical account of the Indian National Army published in 1959 by Col Hugh Toye.
  • Toye worked as an intelligence officer in World War II in Burma and was tasked with interrogating captured soldiers of the INA.
  • The book describes in detail the formation of the INA under the auspices of the F Kikan of Japanese intelligence through the collapse and subsequent revival of the army under Subhas Chandra Bose, its role in the Battles of Imphal and Kohima and the subsequent collapse in the face of Allied Burmese offensive before ending with the alleged death of Subhas Chandra Bose.
  • The book was published in London by Cassell Publishers and is considered one of the first Sympathetic Western accounts of the army.
  • The author vividly describes the life, philosophy, idealism, nationalism and political astuteness of Subhash Chandra Bose.

Additional Information

Abdulrazak Gurnah:

  • Tanzanian novelist Abdulrazak Gurnah won the 2021 Nobel Prize for his compassionate literary works on colonialism and refugees.
  • Abdulrazak Gurnah was born in 1948 and grew up on the island of Zanzibar in the Indian Ocean but arrived in England as a refugee at the end of the 1960s.

Louise Glück:

  • The 2020 Nobel Prize for Literature has been awarded to American poet Louise Glück.
  • She won the Pulitzer Prize in 1993 for her collection The Wild Iris and the National Book Award for her latest collection, Faithful and Virtuous Night, in 2014.

Peter Handke:

  • Author Peter Handke has conferred the Nobel Literature Prize in 2019.
  • He has been a controversial figure as he supported the Serbs during the 1990s Yugoslav war.
  • He was charged in 2001 with the Bosnian Genocide.

Question 95

Cartagena protocol is related to which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ozone depletion

  2. BOption (b)

    Biological Diversity

  3. COption (c)

    Sustainable Development

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Biological Diversity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Biological Diversity.

Explanation:

  • The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international treaty governing the movements of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology from one country to another.
  • It was adopted on 29 January 2000 as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity and entered into force on 11 September 2003.
  • It establishes an advance informed agreement (AIA) procedure for ensuring that countries are provided with the information necessary to make informed decisions before agreeing to the import of such organisms into their territory.
  • The Protocol contains a reference to a precautionary approach and reaffirms the precaution language in Principle 15 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development.
  • The Protocol also establishes a Biosafety Clearing-House to facilitate the exchange of information on living modified organisms and to assist countries in the implementation of the Protocol.

Biodiversity: The term “biodiversity” refers to the variety of living organisms. Biodiversity brings together the different species and forms of life (animal, plant, entomological, and other) and their variability, that is to say, their dynamics of evolution in their ecosystems.

Traditionally, there are three levels of biodiversity:

  • Genetic diversity,
  • Species diversity,
  • Ecosystem diversity.

About other options:

  • Ozone Depletion
  • It is a gradual thinning of Earth’s ozone layer in the upper atmosphere caused by the release of chemical compounds containing gaseous chlorine or bromine from industry and other human activities.
  • The thinning is most pronounced in the polar regions, especially over Antarctica.
  • Ozone depletion is a major environmental problem because it increases the amount of ultraviolet (UV) radiation that reaches Earth’s surface, which increases the rate of skin cancer, eye cataracts, and genetic and immune system damage.
  • Sustainable Development​
  • Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present, without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
  • The concept of sustainable development can be interpreted in many different ways, but at its core is an approach to development that looks to balance different, and often competing, needs against an awareness of the environmental, social, and economic limitations we face as a society.

Question 96

Apart from India and China, Myanmar also shares a border with

  1. AOption (a)

    Vietnam and Cambodia

  2. BOption (b)

    Malaysia and Indonesia

  3. COption (c)

    Singapore and Philippines

  4. DOption (d)

    Laos and Thailand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Laos and Thailand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Laos and Thailand.

Key Points

Myanmar:

  • Myanmar is situated in Southeast Asia
  • The country is bordered by China to the north and northeast, Laos to the east, Thailand to the southeast, the Andaman Sea and Bay of Bengal to the south and southwest, Bangladesh to the west, and India to the northwest.
  • Highest Peak: Mount Hkakabo
  • Longest River: Irrawaddy (Ayeyarwady)
  • India and Myanmar have traditionally had much in common, with cultural, historical, ethnic, and religious ties, in addition to sharing a long geographical land border and maritime boundary in the Bay of Bengal.
  • Myanmar is geopolitically significant to India as it stands at the centre of the India-Southeast Asia geography.
  • Myanmar is the only Southeast Asian country that shares a land border with northeastern India.

Question 97

In October 2021, which of the following has become the 11th Maharatna central public sector enterprise (CPSE)?

  1. AOption (a)

    NTPC Limited

  2. BOption (b)

    ​Power Finance Corp. Ltd

  3. COption (c)

    NBCC India Limited

  4. DOption (d)

    Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

​Power Finance Corp. Ltd

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​Power Finance Corp. Ltd.

Key Points

  • Power Finance Corp. Ltd (PFC) has become the 11th Maharatna central public sector enterprise (CPSE).
  • PFC can now invest up to ₹5,000 crores, or 15% of its net worth, in a single project after its Maharatna status.
  • Incorporated in 1986, PFC is the largest infrastructure finance company, exclusively dedicated to power sector under the administrative control of the Ministry of Power.

Additional Information

  • ​The other 10 Maharatna CPSEs at present are:
  • Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
  • Bharat Petroleum Corp. Ltd.
  • Coal India Ltd.
  • GAIL (India) Ltd.
  • Hindustan Petroleum Corp. Ltd
  • Indian Oil Corp. Ltd.
  • NTPC Ltd.
  • Oil & Natural Gas Corp. Ltd.
  • Power Grid Corp. of India Ltd.
  • Steel Authority of India Ltd.
  • There are 14 Navratna and 73 Miniratna CPSEs.

Question 98

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R).

Assertion (A): Mangroves are very specialised forest ecosystems of tropical and subtropical regions bordering certain sea coasts.

Reason (R): They stabilise the shoreline and act as bulwarks against encroachments by sea.

Choose the most appropriate answer.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    A is true but R is false

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false but R is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Mangroves:

  • A Mangrove is a small tree or shrub that grows along coastlines, taking root in salty sediments, often underwater.
  • Mangroves are found only along sheltered coastlines within tropical or subtropical latitudes because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures.
  • They share the unique capability of growing within reach of the tides in salty soil.
  • Mangroves are forest ecosystems where vegetation tolerates relatively high water salinity. Hence, (A) is true.
  • Ecologically mangroves are important in maintaining and building the soil, as a reservoir for the tertiary assimilation of waste.
  • They provide protection against cyclones.
  • They play a significant role in promoting land accretion, fixation of mud banks, dissipation of winds, and tidal and wave energy.
  • Mangrove forests stabilize the coastline, reducing erosion from storm surges, currents, waves, and tides. Hence, (R) is a true and correct explanation of (A).
  • Mangroves improve water quality by absorbing nutrients from runoff that might otherwise cause harmful algal blooms offshore.
  • Mangroves make up less than 2% of marine environments but account for 10-15% of carbon burial.
  • The mangrove ecosystem also supports an incredible diversity of creatures including some species unique to mangrove forests.

Question 99

Which force is deployed at India, Nepal and Bhutan Border?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sashastra Seema Bal

  2. BOption (b)

    Central Industrial Security Force

  3. COption (c)

    National Security Guard

  4. DOption (d)

    Indo-Tibetan Border Police

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sashastra Seema Bal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sashastra Seema Bal.

Key Points

  • Sashastra Seema Bal is a border guarding force of India deployed along its border with Nepal and Bhutan.
  • It is one of the five Central Armed Police Forces under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • The force was originally set up under the name Special Service Bureau in 1963 in the aftermath of the Sino-Indian War to strengthen India's border areas against enemy operations.
  • ​Sashastra Seema Bal:
  • Founded: 1963
  • Headquarters: New Delhi
  • Motto: Service, Security and Brotherhood​.

Additional Information 

  • ​A 1988-batch IPS officer, Sujoy Lal Thaosen, on 1 June 2022, took charge as the director-general (DG) of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).
  • Serving as a Special DG in the BSF till now, Thaosen (58) is the 21st head of the SSB.
  • Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) guards Indian frontiers with Nepal and Bhutan.

Important Points

  • The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) Force was raised on 24 October, 1962.
  • At present, the ITBP guards 3,488 km long India-China borders ranging from the Karakoram Pass in Ladakh to Jachep La in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Apart from this, the Force also has important roles in many internal security duties and operations against Left Wing Extremism in the state of Chhattisgarh.

Question 100

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947.
  2. The Constituent assembly rectified India's membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.
  3. The Constituent assembly adopted the national anthem and National song on January 24, 1950.

Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3

Key Points

  • Working of Constituent Assembly:
  • Making of the constitution.
  • Enacting of ordinary law.
  • Other functions performed.
  • Other functions Performed by Constituent Assembly:
  • Adoption of National Flag: July,22, 1947.
  • Rectification to Commonwealth: May, 1949.
  • Adoption of National Anthem and National Song: January,24, 1950.
  • Elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first president of India: January,24,1950. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are Correct.

Additional Information

  • Working of Constituent Assembly: Total 11 sessions over 2 years 11 months and 18 days.

100 questions in the full paper