Previous Year Paper

AFCAT 01/2023 Memory Based Paper 26 Feb 2023 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2023

100 questions120 minutes
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Full Test (100 questions)

Question 1

Who was the Viceroy of India when the Quit India Movement started in 1942?

  1. AOption (a)

    Linlithgow

  2. BOption (b)

    Wilington

  3. COption (c)

    Wavell

  4. DOption (d)

    Minto

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Linlithgow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Linlithgow.

Important Points

  • Lord Linlithgow (1936 – 1944) was the viceroy of India during Quit India Movement in 1942.
  • Lord Linlithgow was Viceroy of India from 1936 to 1944 and this eight years period was the longest reign as Viceroy of India.
  • During this period, parts of the Government of India Act 1935 came into force in 1937.
  • On 8 August 1942 at the All-India Congress Committee (AICC) session in Bombay, M K Gandhi launched the 'Quit India' movement, during World War II.
  • The Quit India movement (“Bharat Chhodo Andolan”) is also known as the India August Movement (August Kranti).
  • This was a civil disobedience movement in response to Mohandas Gandhi’s call for Satyagraha.
  • The first time Indian Tricolor was hoisted when Aruna Asaf Ali hoisted the Indian Tricolour in the Gowalia Tank Maidan proudly.
  • In a speech entitled, "Do or Die (Karo ya Maro)," given on by Mahatma Gandhi.
  • In 1944, Gandhi continued his resistance and went on a 21-day fast.

Additional Information

Willingdon- Lord Willingdon served as 22nd Viceroy and Governor-General of India from 18 April 1931 to 18 April 1936. - Important events of this period include Second and Third Round Table Conferences, relaunching of Civil Disobedience Movement, Communal Award by Ramsay MacDonald (1932), Poona Pact (1932), Government of India Act 1935, and Separation of Burma from India.
Wavell- Lord Wavell was the 23rd Viceroy of India from 1 October 1943 to 21 February 1947. - The most important events during his tenure were the Great Famine of Bengal (1943), Rajagopalachari Formula (1944), Simla conference (1945), Conclusion of WW-II with the surrender of Japan, Cabinet Mission (1946), Direct Action Day (1946), Interim Government under Nehru.
Minto- Lord Minto served as Governor-General and Viceroy of India from 1905 to 1910. - Major events that happened during his regime included the Explosive Substances Act, Surat Split (1907), Foundation of the Indian Muslim League (1906), Indian Council Act of 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms), the establishment of the Indian Home Rule Society in England by Shyamji Verma, the Magistrate of Nasik and Ahmadabad Bomb case (1909).

Question 2

In which year was the English Education Act introduced to make English the medium of instruction for higher education and to stop the promotion of oriental institutions?

  1. AOption (a)

    1835

  2. BOption (b)

    1830

  3. COption (c)

    1854

  4. DOption (d)

    1833

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1835

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1835.

Key Points

  • The Education Act was introduced in the year 1835.
  • Lord William Bentinck, then Governor-General of the British East India Company, decided in 1835 to reallocate funds needed by the British Parliament to spend on education and literature in India, and the Act of the council of India gave effect to his decision.
  • They had previously provided very minimal support for traditional Muslim and Hindu education, as well as the dissemination of literature in India's then-traditional languages of learning (Sanskrit and Persian); they were to assist establishments that taught a western curriculum using English as the medium of instruction going forward.
  • Macaulay believed in the supremacy of western learning.
  • He held the view that English should be the only medium of education in India.
  • This was making English the language of the nation, it was no more the native language of its foreign rulers.

Important Points

  • The English Education Act of 1835 has three distinct features:
  • English should be used as a medium of instruction in higher education.
  • To stop promoting oriental schools like the Calcutta Madrasa and the Benaras Sanskrit College.
  • Incorporate English textbooks into the school curriculum.

Question 3

Match the following:

(A) Strait of Gibraltor(i) Between Indonesia & Malaysia
(B) Strait of Malacco(ii) Between Gulf of Persia and Gulf of Oman
(C) Strait of Bering(iii) Between Africa and Europe
(D) Strait of Hormuz(iv) Between Asia and North America
  1. AOption (a)

    (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)

  4. DOption (d)

    (A) - (iv), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii).

Key Points

  • The Strait of Gibraltar, also known as the Straits of Gibraltar, is a narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and separates the Iberian Peninsula in Europe from Morocco in Africa.
  • The two continents are separated by 13 kilometers (8.1 miles; 7.0 nautical miles) of the ocean at the Strait's narrowest point between Point Marroquí in Spain and Point Cires in Morocco.
  • The seabed of the Strait is composed of synorogenic Betic-Rif clayey flysch covered by Pliocene and/or Quaternary calcareous sediments, sourced from thriving cold-water coral communities.
  • Exposed bedrock surfaces, coarse sediments, and local sand dunes attest to the strong bottom current conditions at the present time.
  • The Strait of Malacca or Straits of Malacca is a narrow stretch of water, 580 mi (930 km) in length, between the Malay Peninsula (Peninsular Malaysia) and the Indonesian island of Sumatra.
  • As the main shipping channel between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, it is one of the most important shipping lanes in the world.
  • It is named after the Malacca Sultanate that ruled over the archipelago between 1400 and 1511, the center of administration of which was located in the modern-day state of Malacca, Malaysia.
  • The Bering Strait is a strait of the Pacific, which separates Russia and the United States slightly south of the Arctic Circle at about 65° 40' N latitude.
  • The present Russia-US east–west boundary is at 168° 58' 37" W.
  • The Strait is named after Vitus Bering, a Danish explorer in the service of the Russian Empire.
  • The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.
  • It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean and is one of the world's most strategically important choke points.

Question 4

"Hippocamp" is Moon of which planet?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jupiter

  2. BOption (b)

    Neptune

  3. COption (c)

    Uranus

  4. DOption (d)

    Saturn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neptune

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Neptune.

  • Neptune is the eighth and the farthest known planet from the sun in the solar system.
  • Neptune is the 'God of the sea' based on Roman mythology.
  • Neptune has 14 known moons.
  • Hippocamp is the moon of Neptune
  • Hippocamp was discovered on 1 July 2013.
  • It was discovered by astronomer Mark Showalter.
  • Neptune is the planet that takes maximum time for revolution..
  • Neptune has the longest year.
  • The great dark spot can be seen in Neptune.

Additional Information

Jupiter- The largest planet in the solar system. - The great red spot is seen in Jupiter. - Jupiter takes 12 earth years to make one revolution around the sun in the solar system. - The fastest rotating planet in the solar system. - The planet with the strongest magnetic field and gravitational force. - Jupiter has 95 known moons. - Jupiter's moon Ganymede is the largest and most massive of the Solar System's moon.
Uranus- The planet is referred to as an ice giant. - It was discovered by William Herschel in 1781. - Also called as 'rolling planet' or 'lying planet'. - Uranus is the first planet discovered with the help of a telescope. - Uranus has 27 known moons. - The important moons of Uranus are Miranda, Ariel, Titania, Umbriel, and Oberon.
Saturn- The second-largest planet in the solar system. - Titan was discovered by Christian Huygens in 1655. - Planet with the most number of moons. - Saturn has 146 known moons. - Also known as the jewel of the solar system. - Saturn's moon Titan is the second-largest moon in the solar system.

Question 5

Beighton Cup is associated with ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    football

  2. BOption (b)

    hockey

  3. COption (c)

    badminton

  4. DOption (d)

    golf

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

hockey

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is hockey.

Key Points

  • The Beighton Cup is associated with hockey.
  • Beighton Cup was instituted in 1895.
  • Beighton Cup is composed by the Bengal Hockey Association.

Additional Information

Other important trophies :

SportsTrophies
Agarwal CupBadminton
Agha Khan CupHockey
Bandodkar TrophyFootball
Bombay Gold CupHockey
Grand PrixLawn Tennis
Thomas CupBadminton

Question 6

Which nation emerged victorious in the 2022 Davis Cup by defeating Australia 2-0 in the final?

  1. AOption (a)

    Canada

  2. BOption (b)

    Italy

  3. COption (c)

    Australia

  4. DOption (d)

    Russia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Canada

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Canada.

Key Points

  • Canada secured its first Davis Cup title in 2022 by defeating Australia 2-0 in the final.
  • Before this victory, Canada had reached the final in 2019 but lost 2-0 to Spain in Madrid.
  • In 2013, Canada equaled its best Davis Cup result by reaching the semifinals, matching its achievement from 1913.
  • In 1982, Canada's Harry Fritz played in the longest Davis Cup singles rubber, lasting 100 games, defeating Venezuela's Jorge Andrew with a score of 16-14, 1-19, 9-11, 4-6, 11-9.
  • In 1976, another Canadian, Dale Power, was involved in the joint-longest singles set in Davis Cup history, which comprised 46 games.

Additional Information 

  • The Davis Cup is the premier international team event in men's tennis.
  • It is run by the International Tennis Federation and is contested annually between teams from over 140 competing countries.
  • It is described by the organizers as the "World Cup of Tennis", and the winners are referred to as the World Champions.

Question 7

Nur Sultan is the capital of which of the following country?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uzbekistan

  2. BOption (b)

    Turkmenistan

  3. COption (c)

    Kazakhstan

  4. DOption (d)

    Kyrgyzstan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kazakhstan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kazakhstan.

Key Points

  • Nur Sultan is the present capital of Kazakhstan named after former Kazakhstan President Nursultan Nazarbayev.
  • History of Kazakhstan capital 
  • In 1929, Alma-Ata became the capital city of the newly formed Kazakh SSR.
  • It saw great growth with the arrival of the Turkish Railway and during WWII many factories were relocated there.
  • The city was again the site of major unrest as the Soviet Union crumbled in the 1980s and, in 1991, hosted the delegation that created the CIS, effectively destroying the USSR.
  • In 1994 the city was renamed Almaty, which does follow Kazakh grammar.
  • In Present 
  • Although the city is no longer the political capital of Kazakhstan, it is still the economic capital.
  • An entirely new city called Astana is now renamed as Nur Sultan is the capital of Kazakhstan.
  • The population is mostly Russian and Ukrainian, with several thousand foreigners (from American to Chinese and Korean) seeking economic opportunity in the booming oil town.

Additional Information

CountryCapital
UzbekistanTashkent
TurkmenistanAshgabat
KazakhstanNur Sultan
KyrgyzstanBishkek

Question 8

Sattriya dance is related to which state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam

  3. COption (c)

    Sikkim

  4. DOption (d)

    Nagaland

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Assam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points 

  • Satriya Nritya is the classical dance form of Assam which represents the Satriya culture, the basis of the religious and cultural fabric of Assam.
  • It is a dance-drama performance art with origins in the Krishna-centered Vaishnavism monasteries of Assam and attributed to the 15th-century Bhakti movement scholar and saint Mahapurush Srimanta Sankardev.
  • Dance historian Dr. Sunil Kothari has recently been bestowed with the Madhabdev Award by the Government of Assam for popularising Sattriya dance.
  • Sattriya was given the status of classical dance in the year 2000 by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.

Important Points 

  • Other classical dances of India are:
  • Bharatnatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kathakali (Kerala), Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Kathak (North India), Mohiniyattam (Kerala), Manipuri (Manipur) and Odissi (Odisha).

Additional Information 

  • Chhau:
  • Chhau is a folk dance of the Rarh region.
  • The Chhau dance is mainly performed during festivals in the region of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, especially the spring festival of Chaitra Parva and in which the whole community participates.
  • The Purulia Chhau dance is celebrated during the Sun festival.
  • Rouf:
  • Rouf dance is a traditional and rhythmic folk dance of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Amidst the beauty of Kashmir, amidst the rows of blossoming tulips, you will find women wearing colourful dresses rhythmically celebrating spring.
  • The celebration is grand and includes this charismatic tradition.
  • Gotipua:
  • Gotipua is a traditional dance form in the state of Odisha, India, and the precursor of Odissi classical dance.
  • It has been performed in Orissa for centuries by young boys, who dress as women to praise Jagannath and Krishna.

Question 9

Who led the Dandi March? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi 

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajmohan Gandhi

  3. COption (c)

    Devdas Gandhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Hiralal Mohandas Gandhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi.

Key Points

  • Salt March, also called Dandi March or Salt Satyagraha, major nonviolent protest action in India led by Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi. in 1930.
  • The march was the first act in an even-larger campaign of Civil disobedience.
  • Salt March was led by Mahatma Gandhi from Sabarmati ashram to Dandi in Gujarat.
  • The 24-day march from March 12 to April 5, 1930, was a tax resistance campaign against the British salt monopoly.
  • Based on Gandhi's principle of non-violence or Satyagraha, the march marked the inauguration of the civil disobedience movement.

Additional Information

  • Rajmohan Gandhi:
  • He is an Indian biographer, historian, and research professor at the Center for South Asian and Middle Eastern studies, at USA.
  • He was the grandson of Mahatma Gandhi.
  • Devdas and Hiralal Gandhi:
  • They was the son of Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 10

In which Indian state was the country's first carbon dioxide measurement exchange tower established?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttarakhand

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai

  3. COption (c)

    Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Himachal Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Uttarakhand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

  • While there are currently several CO2 measurement towers in India, the first one was established in the state of Uttarakhand in 2009.
  • It was installed by the Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS) in the forests of Haldwani.
  • This tower was equipped with sensors to monitor carbon dioxide levels and analyze its exchange between the vegetation and the atmosphere.
  • Since then, other such towers have been set up in different parts of India, including Barkot (Uttarakhand), Meerut (Uttar Pradesh), and Betul (Madhya Pradesh).

Additional Information

  • Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a colorless, odorless gas composed of one carbon and two oxygen atoms.
  • Acts as a greenhouse gas, contributing to the greenhouse effect and climate change.
  • Released naturally through processes like respiration, volcanic eruptions, and organic matter decomposition.
  • Human activities, such as burning fossil fuels and deforestation, significantly increase atmospheric CO2 levels.
  • Linked to global warming; intensifies Earth's natural greenhouse effect.
  • Part of the carbon cycle involves exchanges between the atmosphere, oceans, soil, and living organisms.
  • Oceans absorb CO2, but this process leads to ocean acidification, affecting marine ecosystems.
  • Carbon footprint measures total direct or indirect CO2 emissions from individuals, organizations, or products.

Question 11

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India provides for a high court for each state, but the Seventh Amendment Act of 1956 authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more States or for two or more states and a union territory.
  2. The Parliament can extend the jurisdiction of a high court to any union territory or exclude the jurisdiction of a high court from any union territory.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Important Points

  • Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the organisation, independence, jurisdiction, powers, procedures and so on of the high courts.
  • The judiciary in a state consists of a high court and a hierarchy of subordinate courts. The high court occupies the top position in the judicial administration of a state.

History

  • The institution of high court originated in India in 1862 when the high courts were set up at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
  • In 1866, a fourth high court was established at Allahabad. In the course of time, each province in British India came to have its own high court.
  • After 1950, a high court existing in a province became the high court for the corresponding state.

Key Points

  • The Constitution of India provides for a high court for each state, but the Seventh Amendment Act of 1956 authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more States or for two or more states and a union territory. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The territorial jurisdiction of a high court is co-terminus with the territory of a state.
  • Similarly, the territorial jurisdiction of a common high court is co-terminus with the territories of the concerned states and union territory.
  • Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own (since 1966).
  • The other union territories fall under the jurisdiction of different state high courts.
  • The Parliament can extend the jurisdiction of a high court to any union territory or exclude the jurisdiction of a high court from any union territory. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Question 12

President's Rule is declared under which Article of the Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 356

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 358

  3. COption (c)

    Article 360

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 352

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Article 356

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 356.

Key Points

  • Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives the President of India power to suspend state government and impose President's rule in any state in the country "if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state can't be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution".
  • It is also known as State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency.
  • Upon the imposition of this rule, there would be no Council of Ministers.
  • A proclamation imposing President's rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.

Additional Information

  • Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. Article 360 in The Constitution Of India 1949.
  • Article 352 says that if the president is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or any part of the territory of India is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, he may proclaim an emergency.
  • Article 358 suspends Fundamental Rights under Article 19 for the entire duration of Emergency.

Question 13

Which Bank has received the RBI’s approval to open a special vostro account with Gazprombank of Russia for trade settlement in Indian rupees?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indusind Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    SBI Bank

  3. COption (c)

    HDFC Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    UCO bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

UCO bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is UCO bank

Key Points

  • UCO Bank has received the RBI’s approval to open a special vostro account with Gazprom bank of Russia for trade settlement in Indian rupees.
  • With this, it has become the first bank to receive RBI’s approval to settle trade in Indian currency.
  • On 11 July 2022, RBI issued a circular allowing trade settlements between India and other countries in rupee.

Additional Information

  • ​UCO Bank is one of the nationalised banks in India.
  • It is under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
  • Based on 2020 data, it is ranked 80 on the Fortune India 500 list.
  • UCO Bank:
  • Headquarters: Kolkata
  • CEO: Soma Sankara Prasad (1 Jan 2022–)
  • Founded: 6 January 1943
  • Founder: Ghanshyam Das Birla

Question 14

Which chemical is used for ripening of fruits?

  1. AOption (a)

    Methane

  2. BOption (b)

    Ethylene

  3. COption (c)

    Sulphuric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Glucose

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ethylene

Why this answer is correct

The Chemical used for the ripening of fruits is Ethylene.

Key PointsRipening of fruits:

  • Most fruits produce a gaseous compound called ethylene that starts the ripening process.
  • Its level in under-ripe fruit is very low, but as the fruits develop, they produce larger amounts of the chemical that speeds up the ripening process or the stage of ripening known as the “climacteric.”
  • The most commonly used chemical is called ethephon (2-chloroethyl phosphonic acid).
  • It penetrates into the fruit and decomposes ethylene.
  • Another chemical that is regularly used is calcium carbide, which produces acetylene, which is an analog of ethylene.

Ethylene (C2H4) is a colorless gas that causes fruit to ripen when exposed to it. This occurs because ethylene reacts with the oxygen gas in the air to form carbon dioxide and water. These products help speed the ripening process of fruit.

Question 15

Which is a water-soluble Vitamin?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vitamin A

  2. BOption (b)

    Vitamin C

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin D

  4. DOption (d)

    Vitamin K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vitamin C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vitamin C.

Key Points

  • Vitamin C also known as Ascorbic acid which helps in the binding of the cells is a water-soluble vitamin and is not produced in our body.
  • For a proper diet, an adequate intake of Vitamin C is important. Example- citrus fruits, broccoli, tomatoes, etc.

Important Points

Trick to remember fat-soluble vitamins- KEDA

  • K-Vitamin K
  • E- vitamin E
  • D-vitamin D
  • A-vitamin A

Water Soluble vitamin:

  • B & C

Question 16

Which Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) developed an artificial heart for acute heart problems?

  1. AOption (a)

    IIT Bombay 

  2. BOption (b)

    IIT Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    IIT Madras

  4. DOption (d)

    IIT Kanpur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

IIT Kanpur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is IIT Kanpur.

Key Points

The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) that developed an artificial heart for acute heart problems is IIT Kanpur. 

  • Developed by: A team at IIT Kanpur in collaboration with cardiologists from across India.
  • Purpose: To provide a bridge for patients with severe heart failure awaiting transplants or unsuitable for other treatments.
  • Stage: Currently undergoing pre-clinical trials on animals.
  • Features:
  • Designed to be smaller and more efficient than existing artificial hearts.
  • Aims to mimic the natural pumping action of the heart more closely.
  • Potentially reduce complications and increase patient comfort.

Question 17

Who is the author of the book named ‘An idealist view of life’.

  1. AOption (a)

    Jawahar Lal Nehru

  2. BOption (b)

    S. Radhakrishnan

  3. COption (c)

    Jai Shankar Prasad

  4. DOption (d)

    Mulk Raj Anand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

S. Radhakrishnan

Why this answer is correct

This book explores modern intellectual debate and the vain attempts to find a substitute for religion. Radhakrishnan discusses, drawing upon the traditions of the East and West, the nature and validity of religious experience. Finally, he creates a fine vision of man's evolution and the emergence of higher values. He was the first Vice-President of free India

Question 18

Consider the statement in regard to the SVAMITVA scheme.

  1. The aim of this scheme is to update rural land records, providing a record of rights to village households and issue property cards.
  2. SVAMITVA is a central scheme of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and Rural Development.
  3. This scheme to be implemented across the country in a phased manner over a period of six years (2020-2026).

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    All a, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • SVAMITVA scheme:
  • The aim of this scheme is to update rural land records, providing a record of rights to village households, and issue property cards.
  • SVAMITVA is a central scheme of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and Rural Development.
  • This scheme to be implemented only in 6 states presently not across the country in a phased manner over a period of four years (2020-2024).
  • Hence the correct answer is 1 and 2 Only.

Additional Information 

  • About the SVAMITVA Scheme
  • SVAMITVA is Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas
  • In each state, the Revenue Department / Land Records Department, along with the State Panchayati Raj Department and the Nodal Ministry will work to carry out the objectives of the scheme
  • The main aim of the scheme is to provide an integrated property validation solution for rural India
  • SVAMITVA Property cards will be provided to the landowners by the Government authorities, under this scheme
  • Drone Surveying technology and Continuously Operating Reference Station (CORS) will be used for the demarcation of rural Abadi areas
  • This will help owners possess their houses in the inhabited areas and use them as an asset for loans or other financial requirements
  • The mapping of areas using drones will be done gradually in all the villages for a period of 4 years, starting from 2020, and ending in 2024
  • Presently, the scheme is only applicable for 6 states: Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand
  • The scheme is funded by the Central Government of the country and Rs 79.65 crores have been allotted for the pilot phase of the project
  • Under the Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas scheme, SVAMITVA property cards will be generated for each landowner.
  • This will help them present an official document to the financial institutions in case of using their land/property as an asset in the future.

Question 19

The Headquaters of of Indian Council of Medical Research is located in which city?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pune

  2. BOption (b)

    New Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    Nagpur

  4. DOption (d)

    Kolkata

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

New Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is New Delhi.

  • The Headquarters of the Indian Council of Medical Research is located in New Delhi.
  • The Indian Council of Medical Research is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research.
  • The ICMR is funded by the Government of India through the Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  • In 1911, the Government of India set up the Indian Research Fund Association (IRFA) with the specific objective of sponsoring and coordinating medical research in the country.
  • After independence, It was redesignated as the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in 1949.
  • Its Director General is Dr. Balram Bhargava.

Question 20

Which of the following song has won the "Best original song" award at Oscar 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Naacho Naacho

  2. BOption (b)

    Yara Teri Meri Yaari

  3. COption (c)

    Neendraan Ni Aandiyaan

  4. DOption (d)

    Naatu Naatu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Naatu Naatu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Naatu Naatu.

In News

  • In the 95th Academy Awards ceremony, India's 'Naatu Naatu song' from SS Rajamouli's film RRR made history by becoming the first Indian film to win an Oscar for best original song.

Key Points 

  • The film inspired is from the lives of freedom fighters Komaram Bheem and Alluri Sitarama Raju.
  • Another Indian entry 'The Elephant Whisperers' also won an Oscar in the Best Documentary Short Film category.
  • The 95th Academy Awards were held on 12 March 2023 in Los Angeles.
  • Everything Everywhere All At Once won Best Picture.
  • Michelle Yeoh won Best Actress for Everything Everywhere All at Once.
  • Brendan Fraser won Best Actor for The Whale.
  • Daniel Kwan and Daniel Schienert won Best Director for Everything Everywhere All at Once.
  • All Quiet on the Western Front won Best International Feature Film.

Additional Information

  • Awards won by 'RRR':
  • 'RRR' won the International Film of the Year award at the Dadasaheb Phalke International Film Festival awards, announced on 20 February 2023 in Mumbai.
  • RRR won 2 awards, one for Best Foreign Language Film and another for Best Song (Nattu Nattu) at the Critics Choice Awards 2023 in January 2023.
  • It won Best Original Song for Naatu Naatu at Golden Globes Awards.
  • RRR' won the Best International Film Award at the 50th Saturn Awards.
  • SS Rajamouli won the top prize - Best Director - at the New York Film Critics Circle for his film RRR.

Question 21

Match Column A with Column B.

Column A (Helicopters)Column B (Countries)
(a)Apache Helicopter1.France
(b)Heron drone2.Russia
(c)Kamov Ka-52 Helicopter3.Israel
(d)Tiger Helicopter4.USA
  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - 2; (b) - 4; (c) - 1; (d) - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - 3; (b) - 2; (c) - 1; (d) - 4

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - 3; (b) - 1; (c) - 4; (d) - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - 4; (b) - 3; (c) - 2; (d) - 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(a) - 4; (b) - 3; (c) - 2; (d) - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

Apache Helicopter:

  • Country of Origin: United States
  • Manufacturer: Boeing
  • Special Features:
  • Iconic tandem cockpit for improved visibility and crew coordination.
  • Powerful General Electric T700 turboshaft engines for high speed and maneuverability.
  • M230 Chain Gun for close-air support.
  • Diverse armament options like Hellfire missiles, Hydra rockets, and Stinger air-to-air missiles.

Heron Drone:

  • Country of Origin: Israel
  • Manufacturer: Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI)
  • Special Features:
  • Multiple variants with varying sizes and capabilities.
  • Long endurance (up to 48 hours) for extended surveillance and reconnaissance missions.
  • Various payloads like electro-optical/infrared sensors, radar, and communication relays.
  • Can be armed with air-to-ground missiles for attack missions (Heron TP variant).

Kamov Ka-52 Alligator:

  • Country of Origin: Russia
  • Manufacturer: Kamov Design Bureau
  • Special Features:
  • Coaxial rotor design for high maneuverability and stability even in harsh environments.
  • Powerful Klimov VK-2500 turboshaft engines for superior performance.
  • 30mm automatic cannon and diverse armament options similar to the Apache.
  • Advanced avionics and integrated countermeasures suite.
  • Unique "ejection seat" system for both crew members in emergencies.
  • Primarily used by the Russian Air Force.

Tiger Helicopter:

  • Country of Origin: France and Germany (joint development)
  • Manufacturer: Airbus Helicopters
  • Special Features:
  • Tandem-seat configuration with side-by-side arrangement for improved ergonomics.
  • MTR390E turboshaft engines providing good power and agility.
  • 30mm cannon and various weaponry options, including air-to-air missiles.
  • Advanced targeting systems and battlefield communication capabilities.
  • Primarily used by the French Army and German Army.

Question 22

Spider Missile System belongs to which country?

  1. AOption (a)

    Russia

  2. BOption (b)

    U.S.A.

  3. COption (c)

    India

  4. DOption (d)

    Israel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Israel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Israel.

Key Points

  • The Spider Missile System, officially SPYDER, is developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems.
  • Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI) assisted in its development.
  • Originated in Israel, the system is primarily associated with the country.
  • It integrates Python and Derby missiles for versatile air defense applications.
  • Adopted by various countries, including India, Vietnam, Singapore, and the Philippines.
  • Designed as a surface-to-air missile system for countering aerial threats.
  • Known for its advanced radar and tracking systems for target acquisition.
  • Configured as a mobile platform, offering rapid-response capabilities.
  • Effectiveness demonstrated against aircraft and unmanned aerial vehicles.

Question 23

What is "Sarang" in the context of the Indian defense?

  1. AOption (a)

    An indigenous light combat aircraft

  2. BOption (b)

    An Indian military display team flying Advanced Light Helicopters

  3. COption (c)

    An aerobatics team operating Su-30 MKI aircraft

  4. DOption (d)

    The Sanskrit name for the national animal of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

An Indian military display team flying Advanced Light Helicopters

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • "Sarang" in the context of Indian defense refers to the Sarang Helicopter Display Team, which is an Indian military display team known for flying the Indian-manufactured Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) Dhruv.
  • The name "Sarang" is derived from the Sanskrit name for peacock, the national bird of India.
  • The Sarang team is distinctive as it is the only four-helicopter military display team globally.
  • The team has showcased its daring maneuvers at various international venues, including Singapore, UAE, Germany, UK, Bahrain, Sri Lanka, and Russia.

Question 24

Which is the first Asian Country to join NATO’s cyber defence group?

  1. AOption (a)

    India

  2. BOption (b)

    South Korea

  3. COption (c)

    Sri Lanka

  4. DOption (d)

    Bangladesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

South Korea

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is South Korea.

Key Points

  • South Korea became the first Asian country to join in North Atlantic Treaty Organization Cooperative Cyber Defence Centre of Excellence.
  • South Korea’s National Intelligence Service (NIS) has joined as a contributing participant in the NATO Cooperative Cyber Defence Centre of Excellence.
  • Now, the total NATO CCDCOE has 32 countries as its official members which include 27 NATO member countries and 5 five non-NATO states as contributing participants.
  • South Korea has participated in the Locked Shields 2022, the largest and most complex annual international live-fire cyber defence exercise in the world.
  • It has been participating two years in a row since 2020.
  • South Korea joining the CCDCOE **would help it counter the cybersecurity threat perception due to North Korea.**​
  • Cooperative Cyber Defence Centre of Excellence was a cyber defence hub founded in Estonia, in 2008 and is focused on cyber-security research, training, and exercises.

Additional Information 

North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO):

  • North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) is a military alliance established by the North Atlantic Treaty (also called the Washington Treaty) of April 1949, by the United States, Canada, and several Western European nations to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.
  • There are currently 32 member states.
  • Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
  • Headquarters of Allied Command Operations: Mons, Belgium.

Important Points

List of NATO member countries
CountryJoined In
Belgium1949
Canada1949
Denmark1949
France1949
Iceland1949
Italy1949
Luxembourg1949
Netherlands1949
Norway1949
Portugal1949
United Kingdom1949
United States1949
Greece1952
Türkiye1952
Germany1955
Spain1982
Czechia1999
Hungary1999
Poland1999
Bulgaria2004
Estonia2004
Latvia2004
Lithuania2004
Romania2004
Slovakia2004
Slovenia2004
Albania2009
Croatia2009
Montenegro2017
North Macedonia2020
Finland2023
Sweden2024

Question 25

Match the following columns:

OperationEvacuation
1. Operation GangaA. Operation conducted by BSF
2. Operation SardHawaB. Evacuation plan from Ukraine
3. Operation Green HuntC. Counter-insurgency campaign
4. Operation Devi ShaktiD. Evacuation plan from Afghanistan
  1. AOption (a)

    1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - B, 4 - A

  2. BOption (b)

    1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D

  3. COption (c)

    1 - C, 2 - B, 3 - D, 4 - A

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - B, 2 - D, 3 - C, 4 - A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 - B, 2 - A, 3 - C, 4 - D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

Operation Ganga

  • India has mounted a massive rescue operation named ‘Operation Ganga’ to bring back Indian citizens stranded in Ukraine.
  • The Ministry of External Affairs, in close coordination with the Ministry of Civil Aviation, is making all efforts to bring the Indian students back to India at a fast pace.
  • Indian Airlines is putting its resources into a faster evacuation process. 16 flights are scheduled to evacuate 6000+ citizens.

Operation SardHawa:

  • The Border Security Force (BSF) initiated Operation Sard Hawa along the western border of Rajasthan.
  • This operation is conducted annually during the last week of January, from the 21st to the 27th in 2021.
  • Taking into consideration India's Republic Day, this operation continues for a week.
  • In addition to Operation Sard Hawa, the BSF also runs Operation Garam Hawa during the summer. Both these operations form part of routine exercises undertaken by BSF to prevent infiltration during different seasons.
  • Special checkpoints are established along the border during Operation Sard Hawa.

Operation Green Hunt:

  • Counter-insurgency campaign against Maoist Naxalite groups in India, launched in 2010.
  • Key features:
  • Deployment of security forces in Maoist-affected areas.
  • Focus on development initiatives alongside military operations.
  • Controversial due to allegations of human rights violations and displacement of civilians.
  • Complex and ongoing operation with mixed results.
  • Reduced Maoist violence in some areas but raised concerns about civil liberties and tribal rights.

Operation Devi Shakti

  • Under "Operation Devi Shakti”, a total of 669 people have now been evacuated from Afghanistan.
  • This comprises 448 Indians and 206 Afghans, which includes members of the Afghan Hindu/Sikh minority community.
  • In view of the challenging humanitarian situation in Afghanistan, the Government of India has dispatched humanitarian assistance consisting of medical supplies on the return flight.

Question 26

What will be the sum that when compounded quarterly at a rate of 8% per annum amounts to 6765201 in one year?

  1. AOption (a)

    6264000

  2. BOption (b)

    6764000

  3. COption (c)

    6250000

  4. DOption (d)

    6406275

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6250000

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

A = P(1+R/100)n

C.I = A - P

Calculation:

Rate = 8/4 = 2%,

Time = 1 year = 4 quarter

Therefore, by using the above formula

6765201 = P(1+ 2/100)4

⇒ 6765201 = P × (102/100)4

⇒ 6765201 = P × (1.02 × 1.02 × 1.02 × 1.02)

⇒ P = 6765201 ÷ (1.02 × 1.02 × 1.02 × 1.02)

⇒ P = 6250000

∴ Required sum will be Rs. 6250000.

Question 27

Aman started a journey of 200km by car. The average speed of the car for reaching the destination was 40 km/hr, and while returning home, the average speed was 20 km/hr. What was the average speed of the car for the whole journey?

  1. AOption (a)

    25 km/hr

  2. BOption (b)

    93/5 km/ph

  3. COption (c)

    80/3 km/ph

  4. DOption (d)

    32 km/hr

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

80/3 km/ph

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

When distance remains the same then 

Average Speed = 2 (Speed1 × Speed2)/ (Speed1 + Speed2)

Calculation:

Given that,

Speed1 = 40 kmph, Speed2 = 20 kmph

By using the above formula

Average speed = 2 × (40 × 20)/(40 + 20)

Average speed = 1600/60 = 80/3

∴ Average speed is 80/3 kmph.

Question 28

The sum of the three numbers is 370. The first number is 1/4th of the third number, and the ratio of the second number to the third is 3 : 5. Find the third number

  1. AOption (a)

    200

  2. BOption (b)

    120

  3. COption (c)

    50

  4. DOption (d)

    160

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

200

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The sum of the three numbers = 370

The first number = 1/4th of the third number

The ratio of the second number to the third = 3 : 5

Calculation:

According to question

Let, 2nd number = 3X & 3rd number = 5X

And, 1st number = (1/4) × 5X = 5X/4

Now, (5X/4) + 3X + 5X = 370 

⇒ (5X/4) + 8X = 370 

⇒ 37X/4 = 370 

⇒ X = (370 × 4)/37 = 40

The third number = 5 × 40 = 200

∴ Correct answer is 200

Alternate MethodLet three numbers are a, b & c

According to the question

a/c = 1/4 = 5/20

b/c = 3/5 = 12/20

a : b : c = 5 : 12 : 20

⇒ a + b + c = 370

5 + 12 + 20 unit = 370

37 unit = 370

1 unit = 10

Hence, 

20 unit = 20 × 10 = 200

Question 29

A number when divided by 5 leaves a remainder 3. When the square of the same number is divided by 5, then the remainder is:

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder 

Calculation:

Let the number be N.

N = 5 × Q + 3 

N2 = (5Q + 3)2

⇒ 25Q2 + 9 + 30Q 

On N2 ÷ 5 = 5(5Q2 + 30Q) + 5 + 4 

⇒ 5(5Q2 + 30Q + 1) + 4 

∴ The required remainder is 4.

Question 30

A sum of money is sufficient to pay A's wages for 21 days and B's wages for 28 days. The same money is sufficient to pay the wages of both for how many days?

  1. AOption (a)

    10 days 

  2. BOption (b)

    12 days

  3. COption (c)

    14 days

  4. DOption (d)

    16 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12 days

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

A sum of money is sufficient to pay A's wages for 21 days and B's wages for 28 days.

CALCULATION:

Let total money be Rs. x

⇒ A's 1 day's wages = Rs.x/21 and B's 1 day's wages = Rs.x/28

⇒ (A + B)'s 1 day's wages = Rs.(x/21 + x/ 28) 

⇒ Rs.x/12

∴ Money is sufficient to pay the wages of both for 12 days

Question 31

A and B together take 5 days to do work, B and C take 7 days to do the same, and A and C take 4 days to do it. Who among these will take the least time to do it alone?

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    The data is not sufficient

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A and B  take 5 days

B and C take 7 days

A and C take 4 days

Solution:

LCM(5, 7, 4) = 140 let total work be 140 unit

TimeWorkEfficiency
514028
720
435

The efficiency of A, B, C are

⇒ 2(A + B + C) = 28 + 20 + 35 = 83

⇒ A + B + C = 83/2 = 41.5

⇒ A = (A + B + C) - (B + C) = 41.5 - 20 = 21.5

By the same process

⇒ B = 41.5 - 35 = 6.5

⇒ C = 41.5 - 28 = 13.5

⇒ Time(A) = 140/21.5 = 6.51

⇒ Time(B) = 140/6.5 = 21.54

⇒ Time(C) = 140/13.5 = 10.37

A took the least time to complete the work. So, A is the fastest.

∴ A finishes fastest in 6.51 days.

Important Points  We do not need to calculate the exact value we can find answer by approx value.

Question 32

There are 50 workers in a factory. Every man gets 95 Rs, and every woman gets 70 Rs. The sum of their wages is Rs 4100. Find the number of men.

  1. AOption (a)

    21

  2. BOption (b)

    26

  3. COption (c)

    23

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

24

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Assume all 50 workers are women. Total wage would be 50 × 70 = ₹3500.

Actual total wage is ₹4100, so the difference is 4100 − 3500 = ₹600.

Wage difference between a man and a woman is 95 − 70 = ₹25.

Number of men = 600 ÷ 25 = 24.

∴ The correct answer is 24 men.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total workers = 50

Total wages = ₹4100

Wage per man = ₹95 | Wage per woman = ₹70

⇒ Average wage of 50 workers = 4100 ÷ 50 = ₹82

⇒ By rule of alligation, Ratio of Men : Women = (82 − 70) : (95 − 82)

⇒ Ratio = 12 : 13

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 12 + 13 = 25 units

⇒ If 25 units represents 50 workers, then 1 unit = 2 workers.

⇒ Number of men = 12 × 2 = 24 men

∴ The correct answer is 24 men.

Additional Information

Rule of Alligation

It is a rule used to find the ratio in which two or more ingredients at their respective prices must be mixed to produce a mixture at a given price. Ratio = (Cheaper price − Average) : (Average − Dearer price) in absolute values.

Weighted Average Formula

Total Value = (n1 × x1 + n2 × x2), where n is the number of items and x is the value per item.

Substitution Method

If number of men is M, then 95M + 70(50 − M) = 4100. This linear equation can be solved to find the value of any unknown variable.

Question 33

A vendor lends 72,000 rupees at a rate of 12% of compound interest per annum, compounded annually. Find the interest for the 3rd year (approximate value).

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs 10500

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs 10838 

  3. COption (c)

    Rs 10818

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs 10850

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs 10838 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Lend amount = Rupees 72,000

Rate = 12% per annum

Time = 3 years

Compounded annually

Concept used:

CI = Total amount - Principal

P(1 + R/100)N - P

Where, P = Principal, R = Rate of interest, N = Time (in years)

Calculation:

Amount at the end of 1st year

⇒ 72000 × (1 + 12/100)

⇒ 72000 × (112/100)

⇒ Rs. 80640 

Amount at the end of 2nd year

⇒ 80640 × (1 + 12/100) 

⇒ 80640 × (112/100) 

⇒ 90316.8 ≈ Rs. 90317

Interest at the end of 3rd year

⇒ 90317 × (1 + 12/100) - 90317

⇒ 90317 × (112/100) - 90317

⇒ 101155 - 90317

⇒ Rs. 10838

∴ The interest for the 3rd year is Rs. 10838.

Shortcut Trick

Question 34

Three containers are filled with a mixture of sugar and water. The ratio of their quantity is 5:4:3. The ratio of sugar and water in those containers is 2:3, 4:5, and1:3 respectively. These containers are then mixed and shifted to another container. Now, find the ratio of sugar and water in the mixture.

  1. AOption (a)

    145:268

  2. BOption (b)

    140:263

  3. COption (c)

    163:269

  4. DOption (d)

    145:295

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

163:269

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Ratio of quantity of 3 containers = 5 : 4 : 3

Ratio of sugar and water in first container = 2 : 3

Ratio of sugar and water in second container = 4 : 5

Ratio of sugar and water in third container = 1 : 3

Calculation:

Let the quantity of container 1, 2 and 3 is 5x, 4x, and 3x respectively

Now, in container-1 with volume 5x,

Quantity of sugar = 2/5 × 5x = 2x

Quantity of water = 3/5 × 5x = 3x

Similarly, in container-2 with volume 4x,

Quantity of sugar = 4/9 × 4x = 16x/9

Quantity of water = 5/9 × 4x = 20x/9

And, in container-3, with volume 3x,

Quantity of sugar = 1/4 × 3x = 3x/4

Quantity of water = 3/4 × 3x = 9x/4

Now in container 4,

Total sugar = 2x + 16x/9 + 3x/4

⇒ (72x + 64x + 27x)/36

⇒ 163x/36

Total water = 3x + 20x/9 + 9x/4

⇒ (108x + 80x + 81x)/36

⇒ 269x/36

The ratio of sugar and water = 163x/36 : 269x/36

⇒ 163 : 269

∴ The ratio of milk and water in the container is 163 : 269

Shortcut Trick

Question 35

Ravi travels by taxi for Rs 15 per km and by rented car for Rs 5 per km. He travels 80km in a week for Rs. 500. Find the distance traveled by taxi.

  1. AOption (a)

    8 km

  2. BOption (b)

    9 km

  3. COption (c)

    10 km

  4. DOption (d)

    12 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10 km

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The travel price of a taxi = 15 Rs/km

The travel price of car = 5 Rs/km

Total distance traveled = 80 km

Total amount spend = Rs. 500

Formula used:

Total amount spent = Distance × price per km.

Calculation:

Let the distance traveled by taxi be D,

So, D × 15 + (80 - D) × 5 = 500

⇒ 15D + 400 - 5D = 500

⇒ 15D - 5D = 500 - 400

⇒ 10D = 100

⇒ D = 100/10 = 10

Hence, the distance traveled by taxi is 10 km.

Question 36

A wire of square shape with an area of 676 cm2 is bent in the form of a circle. Find the diameter of the circle (in cm).

  1. AOption (a)

    3311133\frac{1}{11}

  2. BOption (b)

    1113311\frac{1}{33}

  3. COption (c)

    2211122\frac{1}{11}

  4. DOption (d)

    2213322\frac{1}{33}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3311133\frac{1}{11}

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Side of the square = √676 = 26 cm.

Since the same wire is bent, the Circumference of the circle = Perimeter of the square.

Circumference = 4 × 26 = 104 cm.

Diameter = Circumference ÷ π = (104 × 7) ÷ 22 = 364 ÷ 11 = 33(1/11) cm.

∴ The correct answer is 33(1/11) cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of the square shaped wire = 676 cm2

The wire is bent into the form of a circle.

Formula Used:

Area of a square = a2

Perimeter of a square = 4 × a

Circumference of a circle = π × d (where d is the diameter)

Calculations:

⇒ a2 = 676

⇒ a = √676

⇒ a = 26 cm

⇒ Perimeter of the square = 4 × 26 = 104 cm

⇒ Since the same wire is used to form the circle, the circumference of the circle is equal to the perimeter of the square.

⇒ Circumference of the circle = 104 cm

⇒ π × d = 104

⇒ (22 ÷ 7) × d = 104

⇒ d = (104 × 7) ÷ 22

⇒ d = (52 × 7) ÷ 11

⇒ d = 364 ÷ 11

⇒ d = 33(1/11) cm

∴ The correct answer is 33(1/11) cm.

Additional Information

Wire Bending Rule

When a continuous wire is bent from one enclosed 2D shape into another, its total length remains completely unchanged. This directly means the perimeters of both geometric shapes will always be equal.

Area of a Circle vs Square

For a fixed perimeter length, a circle will consistently enclose a significantly larger area than any polygon, including a square. The ratio of the area of a circle to a square having the identical perimeter is roughly 14:11.

Circumference to Diameter Link

The core relationship joining the circumference (C) and diameter (d) of a circle is represented directly as C = πd, where the mathematical constant π equals roughly 22/7 or 3.14.

Question 37

Rakesh covers a distance in two equal halves. He covers the first half of the distance with his original speed and increases his speed by 60% for the second half. He covers the complete distance in 39 minutes. Find the total distance travelled by him if the speed in the first half was 15 m/s.

  1. AOption (a)

    50 km

  2. BOption (b)

    32.4 km

  3. COption (c)

    37.8 km

  4. DOption (d)

    43.2 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

43.2 km

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Speed in the first half (v1) = 15 m/s

Speed in the second half (v2) = 1.6 × 15 m/s = 24 m/s

Total time (T) = 39 minutes = 2340 seconds

Concept Used:

Average speed = 2s1s2/(s1 + s2)

Calculation:

Average speed = 2s1s2/(s1 + s2)

Average speed = 2 × 15 × 24/(15 + 24) = 720/39 m/s

Total distance = Average speed × time taken

Total distance = 720/39 × 2340 = 43200 m = 43.2 km

∴ Rakesh travelled a total distance of 43.2 km.

Question 38

The sum of area of a rectangle 42m wide and a circle with a radius of 21m is 4116. Find the length of a rectangle.

  1. AOption (a)

    62 m

  2. BOption (b)

    63 m

  3. COption (c)

    64 m

  4. DOption (d)

    65 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

65 m

Why this answer is correct

Given: 

Width of the rectangle (w) = 42m

Radius of the circle (r) = 21m

Sum of area of rectangle and circle = 4116 m2

Concept Used:

Area of a rectangle = length × width

Area of a circle  = πr2

Calculation:

Area of the circle = 3.1416 × (21)2 = 1385.4424 m2

From given,

Sum of area of rectangle and circle = Area of rectangle + Area of circle

⇒ 4116 = Area of rectangle + 1385.4424

⇒ Area of rectangle = 4116 - 1385.4424 = 2730.5576 m2

Area of rectangle = length × width

⇒ Length = Area of rectangle/Width

⇒ Length = 2730.5576/42 = 65 m

∴The length of the rectangle is 65 m.

Question 39

There are 500 blue pens, 250 pink pens, and 250 yellow pens. If 50% of blue pens and 50% of pink pens are taken out, then find the percentage of yellow pens.

  1. AOption (a)

    20 %

  2. BOption (b)

    30 %

  3. COption (c)

    40 %

  4. DOption (d)

    50 %

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

40 %

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Number of blue pens = 500

Number of pink pens = 250

Number of yellow pens = 250

50% of blue pens and 50% of pink pens are taken out

Calculation:

Total number of pens = 500 + 250 + 250 = 1000

50% of blue pens + 50% of pink pens

⇒ 500/2 + 250/2 = 250 + 125 = 375

Remaining pens = 1000 - 375 = 625

Percentage of yellow pens in remaining pens

⇒ (250/625) × 100 = 40%

∴ The percentage of yellow pens in the remaining pens is 40%.

Question 40

20 tickets with numbers 1 to 20 written on them are mixed thoroughly and then a ticket is drawn at random out of them. Find the probability that the number on the drawn ticket is a multiple of 3 or 7.

  1. AOption (a)

    3/5

  2. BOption (b)

    2/7

  3. COption (c)

    2/5

  4. DOption (d)

    3/7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2/5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A ticket is drawn at random from 20 tickets having numbers from 1 to 20

Formula Used:

Probability = Number of Favourable OutcomesTotal Number of Outcomes\frac{Number\ of\ Favourable\ Outcomes}{Total\ Number\ of\ Outcomes}

Calculation:

Total number of outcomes = 20

Favourable outcomes = 3, 6, 7, 9, 12, 14, 15, 18

⇒ Number of favourable outcomes = 8

Probability = (8/20) = 2/5

∴ The probability that the number on the drawn ticket is a multiple of 3 or 7 is (2/5).

Question 41

Find 0.09‾×7.3‾0.\overline{09} \times 7.\overline{3}

  1. AOption (a)

    3/2

  2. BOption (b)

    4/3

  3. COption (c)

    2/3

  4. DOption (d)

    3/4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2/3

Why this answer is correct

Given:

a = 0.09‾0.\overline{09} 

b =  7.3‾7.\overline{3}

Concept used:

Suppose XY is a two-digit number after the decimal 

Then, if there is a bar on the last two digits i.e. (0.0xy‾\overline{xy}) =  (xy)/99 

And, if there is a bar on only one digit i.e.(x. y‾\overline y )= xy9\frac{y}{9}

 Calculation:

Here, we have, 0.09‾0.\overline{09} , 7.3‾7.\overline{3}

As we know when the bar is on two-digit then,

⇒ A = 9/99

⇒ B = 7+(3/9) = 739\frac{3}{9} 

Now, A × B =  9/99 × 66/9 = 2/3

∴ The correct answer is 2/3

Question 42

A vendor bought some items for 25,000 rupees. He sells some of them for a 10% profit and remaining on 8% profit. The total profit he gets is Rs. 2250. Find the individual profits.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 1250 & Rs. 1000

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 983 & Rs. 1000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 1250 & Rs. 983

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1200 & Rs. 1050

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 1250 & Rs. 1000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Overall Profit % = (2250 ÷ 25000) × 100 = 9%.

Use Alligation: (10% − 9%) : (9% − 8%) ⇒ 1 : 1 ratio for CP.

CP of each part = 25,000 ÷ 2 = 12,500.

Individual Profit 1 = 10% of 12,500 = 1,250.

Individual Profit 2 = 8% of 12,500 = 1,000.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1250 & Rs. 1000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Cost Price = Rs. 25,000

Profit on Part 1 = 10%

Profit on Part 2 = 8%

Total Profit Amount = Rs. 2,250

Formula Used:

Profit = CP × Profit% | Overall Profit% = (Total Profit ÷ Total CP) × 100

Total CP = Rs. 25,000 Part 1 (10%) Part 2 (8%)

9%

(9−8) = 1 (10−9) = 1 CP Ratio = 1 : 1

⇒ Total Profit % = (2250 ÷ 25000) × 100 = 9%

⇒ By Alligation: Ratio of CP1 to CP2 = (9 − 8) : (10 − 9) = 1 : 1

⇒ CP of Part 1 = (1 ÷ 2) × 25000 = Rs. 12,500

⇒ CP of Part 2 = (1 ÷ 2) × 25000 = Rs. 12,500

⇒ Profit on Part 1 = 10% of 12500 = (10 ÷ 100) × 12500 = Rs. 1,250

⇒ Profit on Part 2 = 8% of 12500 = (8 ÷ 100) × 12500 = Rs. 1,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1250 & Rs. 1000.

Additional Information

Alligation Rule

It is a rule that enables us to find the ratio in which two or more ingredients at the given price must be mixed to produce a mixture of a specified price.

Net Profit on Parts

If two parts of a total CP (A+B) are sold at p1% and p2% profit, the total profit = (A × p1 ÷ 100) + (B × p2 ÷ 100).

Mean Value Application

The mean value (overall profit %) always lies between the two individual profit percentages.

Question 43

The effective annual rate of interest corresponding to a nominal rate of 8% per annum payable half-yearly is:

  1. AOption (a)

    8.8%

  2. BOption (b)

    8.6%

  3. COption (c)

    8.23%

  4. DOption (d)

    8.16%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8.16%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Nominal rate of interest = 8% p.a. half yearly.

Formula used:

Amount = P (1+r100)n\left(1+\frac{r}{100}\right)^n

Where, P = Principal and n = Numbers of time.

Calculation:

As the interest is half - yearly, n = 2

Rate will also be halved, r = 8 / 2 = 4%

Let the principal be Rs. 100

Amount = 100 × (1+4100)2\left(1+\frac{4}{100}\right)^2

⇒ 100 × 104/100 × 104/100 

⇒ 108.16

Interest = Amount - principal

Interest = 108.16 - 100

Interest = 8.16

∴ Effective annual rate of interest is 8.16%.

Question 44

Find the angle traced by hour hand of a correct clock between 6 am and 3 pm.

  1. AOption (a)

    90°

  2. BOption (b)

    180°

  3. COption (c)

    270°

  4. DOption (d)

    30°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

270°

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

The angle traced by hour hand from 6 am to 12 pm = 2 right angles = 180° 

Also, the angle traced by hour hand from 12 pm to 3 pm = 1 right angle = 90° 

Hence, the angle traced by hour hand from 6 am to 3 pm is 270°.

Question 45

The number of students in three different schools is in the ratio 2:3:3. Students in each school have decreased by 60%, 30%, and 20%. Find the new ratio of the number of students.

  1. AOption (a)

    21:28:24

  2. BOption (b)

    23:13:12

  3. COption (c)

    8:21:24

  4. DOption (d)

    9:14:17

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

8:21:24

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The ratio of the number of the students = 2 : 3 : 3

Number of students decreased by 60%, 30%, and 20%.

Calculation:

Let the number of students be 2X, 3X, and 3X.

According to the question,

Then, decreased students = 2X × 40%, 3X × 70%, 3X × 80%

The ratio of new number of students = 2X × 40% : 3X × 70% : 3X × 80%

⇒ Ratio = 80 : 210 : 240

⇒ Ratio = 8 : 21 : 24

∴ The new ratio of the number of students is 8 : 21 : 24.

Question 46

Find the odd one from the given alternatives - 

  1. AOption (a)

    TBVD

  2. BOption (b)

    AXCZ

  3. COption (c)

    JOKQ

  4. DOption (d)

    FRHT

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

JOKQ

Why this answer is correct

Check all the options:

Option (1): TBVD

Option (2): AXCZ

Option (3): JOKQ

Option (4): FRHT

So, "Option (2)" doesn't follow the pattern.

Hence, "Option (2)" is an odd one.

Question 47

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    210

  2. BOption (b)

    190

  3. COption (c)

    220

  4. DOption (d)

    240

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

210

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

Given: 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?

Hence the correct answer is "210".

Question 48

Alka and Adhir are siblings. Arun is the husband of Alka and Ankita is the wife of Adhir. Ahilya is the mother of Adhir. Ananya is the only daughter of Arun. How is Ananya related to Ahilya?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ananya is Ahilya's sister

  2. BOption (b)

    Ananya is the daughter of Ahilya

  3. COption (c)

    Ananya is Ahilya's niece

  4. DOption (d)

    Ananya is the granddaughter of Ahilya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ananya is the granddaughter of Ahilya

Why this answer is correct

The symbols used in family tree are -

Let's draw family tree as per question:-

Hence, the correct answer is Ananya is the granddaughter of Ahilya.

Question 49

In a certain code language, if 'D' = 4 and 'AND' = 19, than how will 'ADM' be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    17

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    19

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

18

Why this answer is correct

The positional value of the English alphabet is given below:

The logic followed here is: Sum of positional values

D = 4 (Positional Value)

AND = 1 + 14 + 4 = 19

Similarly,

ADM = 1 + 4 + 13 = 18

Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)".

Question 50

Three of the four group of words are alike in some manner. Select the odd group of words. 

  1. AOption (a)

    (Stock, Troupe, Robber)

  2. BOption (b)

    (Crowd, Army, Herd)

  3. COption (c)

    (Team, Council, Bouquet)

  4. DOption (d)

    (Shoal, Flock, Chorus)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(Stock, Troupe, Robber)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: These words represent different groups or collections.

Let's check each option as per the logic:

1) (Stock, Troupe, Robber):

→ Here. Robber doesn't represent any group.

2) (Crowd, Army, Herd):

→ These words represent different groups.

3) (Team, Council, Bouquet):

→ These words represent different groups or collections.

4) (Shoal, Flock, Chorus):

→ These words represent different groups or collections.

Here, we can see that Option 1 doesn't follow the group.

Hence, the correct answer is "(Stock, Troupe, Robber)".

Question 51

Rearrange the jumbled letters to make meaningful words and then select the one which is different.

  1. AOption (a)

    HCOACCKRO

  2. BOption (b)

    SUIMTOOQ

  3. COption (c)

    PUOSTOC

  4. DOption (d)

    METERIT

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PUOSTOC

Why this answer is correct

HCOACCKRO is written as COCKROACH

SUIMTOOQ is written as MOSQUITO

PUOSTOC is written as OCTOPUS

METERIT is written as TERMITE

All the above options are insects except “OCTOPUS”.

Hence, “PUOSTOC” is the correct answer.

Question 52

The numbers in the figure below represent people who know the languages:

The ratio of people who know all languages ​​to people who know only  one language is

  1. AOption (a)

    16\frac{1}{6}

  2. BOption (b)

    19\frac{1}{9}

  3. COption (c)

    13\frac{1}{3}

  4. DOption (d)

    89\frac{8}{9}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16\frac{1}{6}

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

The shaded part represents the people who know all languages.

  

 

So, it is 100

The shaded part represents only one language.

  

So, it is = 210 + 200 + 190 = 600

Now the ratio is

=100600=16=\dfrac{100}{600}=\dfrac{1}{6}

Therefore, the required ratio is 16\dfrac{1}{6}

Hence, 'Option (1)' is the correct answer.

Question 53

 In a certain code language, ‘STORK’ is written as ‘URROO’ and ‘ASHES’ is written as ‘CQKBW’. How will ‘BUNKE’ be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    DRPGI

  2. BOption (b)

    DSPHG

  3. COption (c)

    DSQGI

  4. DOption (d)

    DSQHI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

DSQHI

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

For, 'STORK’ is written as ‘URROO',

For, 'ASHES’ is written as ‘CQKBW',

Similarly, for 'BUNKE'

So, 'BUNKE' will be written as 'DSQHI'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 54

Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence:

  1. Hungry
  2. Baby
  3. Smile
  4. Cry
  5. Food
  1. AOption (a)

    1, 5, 4, 2, 3

  2. BOption (b)

    5, 3, 1, 2, 4

  3. COption (c)

    2, 1, 4, 5, 3

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 4, 3, 1, 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2, 1, 4, 5, 3

Why this answer is correct

Solution :

The logical and meaningful order is as follows :

Baby ⇒ Hungry ⇒ Cry ⇒ Food ⇒ Smile

So the correct and meaningful order is  "2 ⇒ 1 ⇒ 4 ⇒ 5 ⇒ 3"

Hence the correct answer is "2, 1, 4, 5, 3".

Question 55

Ram is older than Shyam, Moti is older than Ram while Naresh is younger to Moti but older than Shyam. Who is the youngest?

  1. AOption (a)

    Naresh 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ram

  3. COption (c)

    Moti 

  4. DOption (d)

    Shyam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Shyam

Why this answer is correct

  1. Ram is older than Shyam

Ram > Shyam

  1. Moti is older than Ram while Naresh is younger to Moti but older than Shyam. 

Moti > Ram

Moti > Naresh > Shyam

From both the statements, we get:

Case I: Moti > Ram > Naresh > Shyam

Case II: Moti > Naresh > Ram > Shyam

In either case, Shyam is the youngest.

Hence, ‘Shyam’ is the correct answer.

Question 56

In the following question, four number groups are given. In each group the three numbers are related to each other by some Logic/Rule/ Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    (12, 24, 41)

  2. BOption (b)

    (13, 26, 43)

  3. COption (c)

    (16, 32, 49)

  4. DOption (d)

    (17, 34, 53)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(17, 34, 53)

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

Second Number = First number × 2

Third Number = Second number + 17

Option (1): (12, 24, 41) → 

12 × 2 = 24

24 + 17 = 41

Option (2):  (13, 26, 43) → 

13 × 2 = 26

26 + 17 = 43

Option (3): (16, 32, 49) → 

16 × 2 = 32

32 + 17 = 49

Option (4): (17, 34, 53) → 

17 × 2 = 34

34 + 17 = 51 ≠ 53

Hence, "(17, 34, 53)" is the odd one out.

Question 57

A word with letters jumbled has been given. Choose the correct order of letters which are required to form the correct word.

Jumbled word: VTNEAI

  1. AOption (a)

    4, 5, 2, 1, 6, 3

  2. BOption (b)

    5, 1, 6, 3, 2, 4

  3. COption (c)

    2, 1, 6, 4, 5, 3

  4. DOption (d)

    3, 5, 2, 6, 1, 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3, 5, 2, 6, 1, 4

Why this answer is correct

1) 4, 5, 2, 1, 6, 3

452163
EATVIN

 

 

 

2) 5, 1, 6, 3, 2, 4

516324
AVINTE

 

 

 

3) 2, 1, 6, 4, 5, 3

216453
TVIEAN

 

 

 

4) 3, 5, 2, 6, 1, 4

352614
NATIVE

 

 

 

'NATIVE' is a meaningful English word.

Hence, '3, 5, 2, 6, 1, 4' is the correct answer.

Question 58

Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock, when the time is 3:25 -

  1. AOption (a)

    47½°

  2. BOption (b)

    45°

  3. COption (c)

    40°

  4. DOption (d)

    45½°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

47½°

Why this answer is correct

Formula:

Ø = (30)H - (11/2)M  OR = (11/2)M - (30)H

Where:

H = Hour

M = Minute

Ø = The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand.

Given time → 3:25

H = 3

M = 25

Ø = (11/2)M - (30)H

Ø = (11/2)(25) - (30 × 3)

Ø = 137.5 - 90 = 47.5º

Ø =  47.5º

Here, the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand is 47.5º.

Hence, the correct answer is "47.5º".

Question 59

A man walks 15 metres in the front and then 15 metres to his right. Then every time turning to his left, the man walks 5 metres. 20 metres and 20 metres respectively. How far is the man from the starting point?

  1. AOption (a)

    15 metres

  2. BOption (b)

    5 metres

  3. COption (c)

    20 metres

  4. DOption (d)

    10 metres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5 metres

Why this answer is correct

As per the given question,

A man walks 15 metres in the front and then 15 metres to his right. Then every time turning to his left, the man walks 5 metres. 20 metres and 20 metres respectively.

Thus, the following diagram can be drawn: 

Clearly, the man is '5 metres' far from the starting point.

Hence, the correct answer is "5 metres".

Question 60

Refer to the following letter, number, symbol series and answer the question

(Left) D F * S % 8 E 2 ^ 6 L & 2 T Y # 3 5 $ K J 9 (Right)

If all the numbers are dropped from the series, which of the following will be ninth from the right?

  1. AOption (a)

    E

  2. BOption (b)

    ^

  3. COption (c)

    &

  4. DOption (d)

    L

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

^

Why this answer is correct

Given series;

(Left) D F * S % 8 E 2 ^ 6 L & 2 T Y # 3 5 $ K J 9 (Right)

If all the numbers are dropped from the series then the new series will be as;

(Left) D F * S % E ^ L & T Y # $ K J (Right)

<br>

So, the 9th element from the right end is ^.

Hence, the correct answer is "^".

Question 61

C is wife of B, E is son of C, A is brother of B and father of D. How is E related to D?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cousin

  2. BOption (b)

    Sister

  3. COption (c)

    Father

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cousin

Why this answer is correct

The symbol used to draw family tree is given below-

The family tree of the given question is -

Here, E and D are from generation and E is son of D's uncle.

Hence E and D are cousin.

Hence, the correct answer is Cousin.

Question 62

Find the wrong term in the series given below:

5, 10, 17, 24, 37, 50, 65

  1. AOption (a)

    37

  2. BOption (b)

    17

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

24

Why this answer is correct

LOGIC in the given series is:

Consecutive odd numbers are added in previous term to get the next term, starting from 5.

5 + 5 = 10

10 + 7 = 17

17 + 9 = 26

26 + 11 = 37

37 + 13 = 50

50 + 15 = 65

So, the wrong number is 24.

Question 63

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

12 + 4 ÷ 2 - 6 = 16

  1. AOption (a)
    • and =
  2. BOption (b)
    • and -
  3. COption (c)

    ÷ and =

  4. DOption (d)

    ÷ and +

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.
  • and -

Why this answer is correct

Given equation: 12 + 4 ÷ 2 - 6 = 16.

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) - and =

Given: 12 + 4 ÷ 2 - 6 = 16 

After interchanging the symbols, we get;

⇒ 12 + 4 ÷ 2 = 6 - 16 

⇒ 12 + 2 = 6 - 16 

⇒ 14 = 6 - 16

⇒ 14 ≠ -10

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) + and -

Given: 12 + 4 ÷ 2 - 6 = 16 

After interchanging the symbols we get;

⇒ 12 - 4 ÷ 2 + 6 = 16 

⇒ 12 - 2 + 6 = 16 

⇒ 18 - 2 = 16 

⇒ 16 = 16

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 3) ÷ and =

Given: 12 + 4 ÷ 2 - 6 = 16 

After interchanging the symbols we get;

⇒ 12 + 4 = 2 - 6 ÷ 16 

⇒ 12 + 4 = 2 - 0.375

⇒ 16 = 2 - 0.375

⇒ 16 ≠ 1.625

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) ÷ and +

Given: 12 + 4 ÷ 2 - 6 = 16 

After interchanging the symbols we get;

⇒ 12 ÷ 4 + 2 - 6 = 16 

⇒ 3 + 2 - 6 = 16 

⇒ 5 - 6 = 16 

⇒ -1 ≠ 16

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 64

In the following question, select the odd letter/letters from the given alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    VWYB

  2. BOption (b)

    LMOR

  3. COption (c)

    QSVY

  4. DOption (d)

    ABDG

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

QSVY

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) VWYB

Option 2) LMOR

Option 3) QSVY

Option 4) ABDG

Here, 'QSVY' is odd among the given options.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 65

X, Y, Z, P, Q and R are sitting in a row facing north. X is the neighbour of Y and P. Q is the neighbour of Z and R, P is to the right of X and P and Z are immediate neighbours.

Then how many persons are between X and Q?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Three

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Two

Why this answer is correct

Given:

X, Y, Z, P, Q and R are sitting in a row facing north.

  1. X is the neighbour of Y and P.

  2. Q is the neighbour of Z and R.

  3. P is to the right of X and P and Z are immediate neighbours.

Hence, the correct answer is "Two".

Question 66

In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    Lizard

  2. BOption (b)

    Snake

  3. COption (c)

    Whale

  4. DOption (d)

    Crocodile

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Whale

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

All except Whale are reptiles, while the whale is a mammal.

Additional Information

AnimalGroup
LizardReptiles
SnakeReptiles
WhaleMammals
CrocodileReptiles

Hence, the correct answer is "Whale".

Question 67

Choose from the four answer figures the figure that will be formed when question figure is folded into a box.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The opposite sides of cubes are

Now look at the options

 → This figure cannot be the answer because from the above figure it is clearly seen that the face S is opposite to face T but in this figure face S is adjacent to the face T.

 → This figure cannot be the answer because from the above figure it is clearly seen that the face P is opposite to face R but in this figure face P is adjacent to the face R.

 → This figure cannot be the answer because from the above figure it is clearly seen that the face U is opposite to face Q but in this figure face U is adjacent to the face Q.

 → This figure satisfies the above conditions, Hence this figure will be the answer figure.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (4).

Question 68

Direction: In the question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement:

All teachers are students.

All principals are teachers.

Conclusion:

All principals are students.

Some teachers are principal

  1. AOption (a)

    Both  I and II  follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both  I and II  follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:

All principals are students → True (As all principals are teachers and all teacher are students)

Some teachers are principal → True (As all principals are teachers and all teacher are students)

Hence, the correct answer is Both  I and II  follows.

Question 69

From the given options, select the option in which the dot can be placed in exactly the same way as shown in the figure below.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B

Why this answer is correct

On observing the given figures carefully, we get:

In the question figure,

  1. One dot is in the common area of the triangle and square.
  2. One dot is in the common area of the circle, square and drum.
  3. One dot is in the common area of the circle and drum.
  4. One dot is solely placed in the circle only.

Figure (A) → Common area of the circle, square and drum isn't present.

Figure (B) → All the required conditions are fulfilled as shown below:

Figure (C) → Common area of the circle, square and drum isn't present.

Figure (D) → Common area of the triangle and square isn't present.

Hence, the correct answer is "Figure (B)".

 

We should not think of the exact shape and size of the figures in these questions.

Just resemblance will work like if an Equilateral triangle is given in the question figure, any shape of a triangle in the answer figure will work, be it right triangle or scalene triangle.

Question 70

Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

4 × 8 - 12 + 5 = 16

  1. AOption (a)

    8 and 5

  2. BOption (b)

    12 and 16

  3. COption (c)

    16 and 8

  4. DOption (d)

    4 and 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8 and 5

Why this answer is correct

Given equation: 4 × 8 - 12 + 5 = 16.

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) 8 and 5

Given: 4 × 8 - 12 + 5 = 16

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 4 × 5 - 12 + 8 = 16

⇒ 20 - 12 + 8 = 16

⇒ 28 - 12 = 16

⇒ 16 = 16

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 2) 12 and 16

Given: 4 × 8 - 12 + 5 = 16

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 4 × 8 - 16 + 5 = 12

⇒ 32 - 16 + 5 = 12

⇒ 37 - 16 = 12

⇒ 21 ≠ 12

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) 16 and 8

Given: 4 × 8 - 12 + 5 = 16

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 4 × 16 - 12 + 5 = 8

⇒ 64 - 12 + 5 = 8

⇒ 69 - 12 = 8

⇒ 57 ≠ 8

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) 4 and 5

Given: 4 × 8 - 12 + 5 = 16

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 5 × 8 - 12 + 4 = 16

⇒ 40 - 12 + 4 = 16

⇒ 44 - 12 = 16

⇒ 32 ≠ 16

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 71

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Sagacious

  1. AOption (a)

    Delicious

  2. BOption (b)

    Judicious

  3. COption (c)

    Precious

  4. DOption (d)

    Malicious

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Judicious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Judicious'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate synonym of the given word 'Sagacious' is 'Judicious'.
  • Sagacious: having or showing good judgment and understanding. (सही निर्णय क्षमता या समझ वाला; बुद्धिमान, दूरदर्शी, विवेकशील)
  • Example: The army had appeared a hard master when it ent its strength to a wise and sagacious rule.
  • Judicious: (used about a decision or an action) sensible and carefully considered; showing good judgement. [(निर्णय या कार्रवाई) बुद्धिमत्तापूर्ण और सुविचारित; विवेकपूर्ण विवेक-सम्‍मत]
  • Example: We should listen to the judicious opinion of that old man.

Correct Answer: Judicious.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Delicious: having a very pleasant taste or smell. (स्‍वादिष्‍ट या सुगंधित)
  • Precious: of great value (usually because it is rare or difficult to find). [क़ीमती, बहुमूल्‍य (सामान्‍यतः दुर्लभ होने के कारण)]
  • Malicious: intended to harm or upset other people. (अन्य लोगों को नुकसान पहुंचाने या परेशान करने का इरादा)

Question 72

Choose the word that means the same as the given word.

Vacillate

  1. AOption (a)

    Advance

  2. BOption (b)

    Stir

  3. COption (c)

    Plunge

  4. DOption (d)

    Hesitate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hesitate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. 'Hesitate'.

Key Points

  • The word that means the same as the given word "Vacillate" is "Hesitate".
  • "Vacillate" comes from the Latin word "vacillatus," which means to sway.
  • In English**, it is used to describe** someone who is unable to decide or choose, often changing their mind back and forth.(अनिश्चित रहना)
  • "Hesitate" means to pause before you do or say something, often because you are uncertain or nervous about it.(हिचकिचाहट)

Therefore, the correct answer is: 'Hesitate'.

Additional Information

  • Now, let's look at the options:
  • "Advance" in English refers to the act of moving forward or making progress, both physically and metaphorically.(आगे बढ़ना)
  • "Stir" means to move or to mix by making circular movements, especially in cooking or the processing of liquid.(हिलना)
  • "Plunge" means to jump, dive, or fall quickly and energetically.(डुबकी)

Question 73

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Gentle

  1. AOption (a)

    Fierce

  2. BOption (b)

    Ferocious

  3. COption (c)

    Cruel

  4. DOption (d)

    Sympathetic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sympathetic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Sympathetic

<br>

Key Points

 

  • Gentle means kind, mild, or tender. (दयालु, सौम्य या कोमल)
  • Example: She spoke to the scared child in a gentle voice, trying to calm him down.
  • Marked option Sympathetic means showing understanding or compassion. (समझ या करुणा दिखाना)
  • Example: She was always sympathetic towards others' struggles.
  • So, it is clear that 'Sympathetic' is the appropriate synonym for 'Gentle'.

Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

  • Fierce means aggressive or violent. (आक्रामक या हिंसक)
  • Ferocious means savagely fierce or cruel. (अत्यधिक भयंकर या क्रूर)
  • Cruel means causing pain or suffering intentionally. (जानबूझकर दर्द या पीड़ा पहुंचाना)

Question 74

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Voracious

  1. AOption (a)

    Indifferent

  2. BOption (b)

    Ferocious

  3. COption (c)

    Rapacious

  4. DOption (d)

    Rampant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Indifferent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1) i.e. Indifferent.

 

  • Let's look at the meanings of the given word and marked option:
  • Voracious- engaging in an activity with great eagerness or enthusiasm.
  • Indifferent- having or showing a lack of interest or concern.
  • Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
  • Ferocious- extreme in degree, power, or effect.
  • Rapacious- having a huge appetite.
  • Rampant- getting worse quickly and in an uncontrolled way.
  • Hence from the given meanings, we find that Voracious and Indifferent are antonyms.

 ​​​​

   

  • We should learn the words in a bunch if we want to enhance our vocabulary skills, learning through root words serves that very purpose.
  • There are some other words with the root 'Vor/vour-' which indicates 'eat/large' are given below:
  • Carnivorous- meat-eating.
  • Devour- to eat quickly.
  • Omnivorous- avidly taking in everything as if devouring or consuming.
  • Herbivorous- feeding on plants.

Question 75

Choose the word from the given options that is antonym to the given or stated word.

Profane

  1. AOption (a)

    kitten 

  2. BOption (b)

    energy 

  3. COption (c)

    pious 

  4. DOption (d)

    wild

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

pious 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is 'Pious'

 Key Points

  • 'Profane' suggests disrespect or contempt, especially for religious or holy things. It communicates a lack of reverence.
  • 'Pious' indicates a deep-seated respect, devotion, or reverence, typically in a religious context. It's the exact opposite of 'Profane'.
  • The other options do not fit as antonyms. 'Kitten' is unrelated to the religious or holy context, 'Energy' is a neutral term and 'Wild' would steer towards the profane rather than the devout.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 'Pious'.

 Additional Information

  • Kitten: A young cat.
  • Energy: The strength and vitality for sustained physical or mental activity.
  • Pious: Devoutly religious.
  • Wild: (Of an animal or plant) living or growing in the natural environment; not domesticated or cultivated.

Question 76

Direction : In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word as your answer :

Flippant

  1. AOption (a)

    Shallow

  2. BOption (b)

    Serious

  3. COption (c)

    Strong

  4. DOption (d)

    Successful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Serious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Serious'.

 Key Points

  • The word 'Flippant' means not showing a serious or respectful attitude (तुच्छ).
  • Example Sentence: His flippant remarks about the accident made everyone upset.
  • The word 'Serious' is the best antonym for 'Flippant' because it implies an attitude of gravity, solemnity, or earnestness, which is the opposite of a flippant or disrespectful attitude.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 Additional Information

  • Shallow: Of little depth; not exhibiting, requiring, or capable of serious thought (उथला).
  • Strong: Having the power to move heavy weights or perform other physically demanding tasks (मजबूत).
  • Successful: Accomplishing an aim or purpose (सफल).

Question 77

What does the following idiom mean?

To get a cold feet

  1. AOption (a)

    To grasp early

  2. BOption (b)

    To catch cold

  3. COption (c)

    To misunderstand

  4. DOption (d)

    To be afraid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To be afraid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To be afraid.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning and the example of the given idiom:
  • To get a cold feet: to suddenly become too frightened to do something you had planned to do, especially something important such as getting married.
  • Example: I was going to try bungee jumping, but I got cold feet.
  • Thus, the idiom means to be frightened or afraid to do something.
<br>

Thus, it can be concluded that To get a cold feet means to be afraid.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer choice.

Question 78

What is the most appropriate meaning of the idiom?

To show a clean pair of heel

  1. AOption (a)

    To run away quickly and without looking back

  2. BOption (b)

    To be very polite and respectful

  3. COption (c)

    To stay in one place for a long time

  4. DOption (d)

    To work very hard and efficiently

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To run away quickly and without looking back

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “To run away quickly and without looking back”.

Key Points

  • The idiom "to show a clean pair of heel" means to run away quickly and without looking back.
  • It is often used to describe someone who is trying to escape from danger or trouble.
  • The phrase "a clean pair of heel" refers to the fact that someone who is running away will often show the soles of their shoes as they run.
  • This idiom is often used in a humorous way to describe someone who is trying to avoid a difficult situation.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Question 79

What is the most appropriate meaning of the idiom?

Laugh in one’s sleeves

  1. AOption (a)

    To laugh quietly to oneself

  2. BOption (b)

    To laugh loudly and boisterously

  3. COption (c)

    To cry and be sad

  4. DOption (d)

    To be angry and upset

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To laugh quietly to oneself

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “To laugh quietly to oneself”.

Key Points

  • The idiom "to laugh in one's sleeves" means to laugh quietly to oneself without anyone else knowing.
  • It is often used to describe someone who is trying to hide their amusement or pleasure.
  • The phrase "in one's sleeves" refers to the fact that someone who is laughing in this way will often cover their mouth with their hand or sleeve.
  • This idiom is often used in a humorous way to describe someone who is trying to keep a secret from someone else.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'

Question 80

What is the most appropriate meaning of the idiom?

Fall like a stone

  1. AOption (a)

    To fall slowly and gently

  2. BOption (b)

     To fall quickly and heavily

  3. COption (c)

    To stand up and walk away

  4. DOption (d)

    To jump up and down

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

 To fall quickly and heavily

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “To fall quickly and heavily”.

Key Points

  • The idiom "to fall like a stone" means to fall quickly and heavily.
  • It is often used to describe someone or something that is falling very fast.
  • The phrase "like a stone" refers to the fact that stones are very heavy and fall quickly when dropped.
  • This idiom is often used in a negative way to describe something that is happening quickly and without warning.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Question 81

Out of four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given Words/sentences.

Specialty in dealing with problems of the elderly.

  1. AOption (a)

    Obstetrics

  2. BOption (b)

    Pediatrics

  3. COption (c)

    Geriatrics

  4. DOption (d)

    Orthodontics

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Geriatrics

Why this answer is correct

Obstetrics => the branch of medicine and surgery concerned with childbirth and midwifery.

Pediatrics => branch of medicine that deals with the medical care of infants, children, and adolescents.

Geriatrics => the branch of medicine or social science dealing with the health and care of old people.

Orthodontics => the branch of dentistry dealing with positioning of teeth.

Hence, Option 3) Geriatrics is the correct answer.

Question 82

Directions

Pick the most suitable one-word substitute for

A person who loves mankind and works for their well ­being.

  1. AOption (a)

    Trustee

  2. BOption (b)

    Philanthropist

  3. COption (c)

    Devotee

  4. DOption (d)

    Anthropologist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Philanthropist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. Philanthropist.

Key Points

  • Let us explore the given options:
  • A trustee is a natural or legal person to whom property is legally committed to be administered for the benefit of a beneficiary
  • A philanthropist is a person who seeks to promote the welfare of others, especially by the generous donation of money to good causes.
  • A devotee is a person who is very interested in and enthusiastic about someone or something.
  • An anthropologist is a person engaged in the practice of anthropology. Anthropology is the study of aspects of humans within past and present societies.
  • Hence, a person who loves mankind and works for their well ­being is a Philanthropist.

Important Points

  • The synonyms of the word 'Philanthropist' are "helper, subscriber, supporter, protector, saviour".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Philanthropist' are "beneficiary, donee, giftee, the recipient".
  • Examples of 'Philanthropist' in a sentence:
  • She was a dedicated philanthropist, devoting her time and energy to make the world a better place.
  • Currently, all eyes are on Ahn Chul-soo, a former anti-virus software entrepreneur and philanthropist.

Question 83

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select No Error.

She is (1)/ the better student (2)/ in her class (3)/ No Error (4)

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2

Why this answer is correct

The incorrect part of the sentence would be part 2.

Better is a comparative adjective. A comparative adjective is used to compare two things with each other. Best is what is known as a superlative adjective. A superlative adjective is used when you compare three or more things with one another.

So, the correct sentence would be:

She is the best student in her class.

Question 84

Direction: Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.

All these things happen/ because she do not / pay heed to my words.

  1. AOption (a)

    pay heed to my words

  2. BOption (b)

    All these things happen 

  3. COption (c)

    No error

  4. DOption (d)

    because she do not 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

because she do not 

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is: because she do not.

Key Points

  • 'She' is a singular subject.
  • Hence, 's' or 'es' should be added to the verb 'do' to make it singular.
  • Thus, 'does' must be replaced by 'do' to make the sentence grammatically correct.

Therefore, the correct sentence will be "All these things happen/ because she does not / pay heed to my words".

Question 85

The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

He is faster enough / to defeat / the current record holder.

  1. AOption (a)

    He is faster enough

  2. BOption (b)

    No error 

  3. COption (c)

    the current record holder

  4. DOption (d)

    to defeat 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

He is faster enough

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'He is faster enough'.

Key Points

  • The question involves identifying a grammatical error in the given sentence.
  • The sentence is divided into parts, and we need to find the part that is grammatically incorrect.
  • The first part of the sentence says 'He is faster enough', which is not grammatically correct.
  • In English, we usually say someone is "fast enough" or "quick enough", not "faster enough".
  • The adverb 'enough' modifies adjectives but it does not usually modify comparatives.
  • So, the error lies in the first part of the sentence.
  • 'To defeat' and 'the current record holder' are grammatically correct as they convey clear and specific meanings.
  • 'To defeat' indicates the action that can be done because the person is 'fast enough', and 'The current record holder' identifies who the person can defeat.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 86

Directions

Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response on the answer sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Some researchers(a)/believes that population explosion(b)/has some positive sides too(c)/No Error(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(b)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'believes that'.

Key Points

  • In the second part of the given sentence, the use of 'believes that' is incorrect.
  • The given sentence is a Present Indefinite Tense . (Affirmative Sentence)
  • Structure: Sub + V1 + s/es + Obj . (Singular subjects)                                                                                                                                                                          
  • Example: He obeys his parents.
  • Structure: ​Sub + V1 + Obj . (Plural subjects) 
  • Example: They follow their leader.
  • Since 'researchers' is 'plural' adding 's' or 'es' in the verb 'believe' is incorrect.
<br>

Correct Sentence:  Some researchers believe that population explosion has some positive sides too.

Question 87

In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The employees are told to _______ these brochures in the weekend.

  1. AOption (a)

    Look up

  2. BOption (b)

    Look down

  3. COption (c)

    Look after

  4. DOption (d)

    Look into

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Look up

Why this answer is correct

In the given sentence, the correct phrasal verb to fit in will be ‘look up’, which means to seek out something.

However,

‘Look down’ means to degrade someone, hence eliminated. 

‘Look into’ means to investigate, hence, omitted.

‘Look after’ means to take care, hence, eliminated.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 88

Select the most appropriate option to collocate with the word ‘look’ to fill in the blank.

Let’s take a ___ look through this file.

  1. AOption (a)

    quick 

  2. BOption (b)

    swift 

  3. COption (c)

    rapid 

  4. DOption (d)

    fast

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

quick 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'quick'.

 Key Points

  • The phrase 'take a quick look' is a common expression that means to quickly or briefly inspect or examine something.
  • 'Quick' is the adjective that often collocates with 'look' when expressing the idea of a speedy or brief observation.
  • Within the context of the sentence, 'quick' gives the sense of promptly and briefly reviewing the file, which seems to be the intended meaning.
  • Collocational competence involves knowledge of which words tend to occur together, and 'quick look', falls within such lexical collocations.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'quick'.

 Additional Information

  • 'swift' (Option 2), 'rapid' (Option 3), and 'fast' (Option 4) can all signify quickness or speed, but they are not usually used in combination with 'look'. The term 'quick look' is more conventionally used and sounds more natural in the context.
  • In most contexts, 'swift' and 'fast' are synonymous with 'quick', while 'rapid' implies an action happening at a high speed or in a short time. Nevertheless, these options are not as commonly or appropriately used with 'look' as 'quick' is.

Question 89

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

After suffering so many losses, the company is about to go _____.

  1. AOption (a)

    bankrupt

  2. BOption (b)

    silent

  3. COption (c)

    cynical

  4. DOption (d)

    awry

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

bankrupt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Bankrupt'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate option to fill in the blank is: 'Bankrupt'
  • "Bankrupt" is the correct choice because it refers to the state of being insolvent, or unable to pay debts, which is a common consequence for a company that has suffered many losses.
  • It's contextually appropriate and makes sense given the information in the sentence.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'After suffering so many losses, the company is about to go bankrupt.

Additional Information

  • "Silent" could metaphorically mean the company is closing or ceasing operations, but it's not the most precise term for describing a company's financial state after heavy losses.
  • "Cynical" is an adjective typically used to describe a person's attitude or outlook, not a company's financial state. It's not contextually suitable here.
  • "Awry" means that something is going wrong or is off track. While it could loosely apply to a company in trouble, it doesn't convey the financial distress implied in the sentence as accurately as "bankrupt" does.

Question 90

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The farmers in this village ______ their fields with water from the river.

  1. AOption (a)

    flush

  2. BOption (b)

    irrigate

  3. COption (c)

    flood

  4. DOption (d)

    soak

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

irrigate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "irrigate"

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words.
  • flush: cleanse (something, especially a toilet) by causing large quantities of water to pass through it.
  • irrigate: supply water to (land or crops) to help growth, typically by means of channels.
  • flood: an overflow of a large amount of water beyond its normal limits, especially over what is normally dry land.
  • soak: make or allow (something) to become thoroughly wet by immersing it in liquid.
  • ​As per the meaning of the given words, "irrigate" is the appropriate word choice for the blank.
  • In the given sentence, irrigation is a commonly used method by farmers to supply their fields with water.

The correct sentence is: The farmers in this village irrigate their fields with water from the river.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blank with the help of alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

Madagascar was a place with one of the richest (1) in the world, and for many people, it was a (2). Then years without rain changed everything. Scientists said that the area would become even drier. Madagascar could become the first country to experience (3) as a result of climate change.

Question 91

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank no.1

  1. AOption (a)

    Sameness

  2. BOption (b)

    Similarity

  3. COption (c)

    Biodiversity

  4. DOption (d)

    Paucity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Biodiversity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Biodiversity'

Key Points

  • In the given sentence "biodiversity'' is the correct answer.
  • Let's see an example-
  • Sameness- the quality of being the same as or very similar to something else.(किसी चीज़ के समान या बहुत समान होने का गुण।)
  • Similarity- the fact that people or things look or are the same.(तथ्य यह है कि लोग या चीजें समान दिखती हैं या हैं।)
  • Biodiversity- the number and types of plants and animals that exist in a particular area or in the world generally, or the problem of protecting this.(किसी विशेष क्षेत्र या दुनिया में आम तौर पर मौजूद पौधों और जानवरों की संख्या और प्रकार, या इसे बचाने की समस्या।)
  • Paucity- the fact that there is too little of something.(तथ्य यह है कि कुछ बहुत कम है।)
  • Hence, according to the meanings of the given words, the correct answer is option 3 i.e. Biodiversity:
  • So the complete passage is- Madagascar was a place with one of the richest (1)biodiversity in the world, and for many people, it was a (2)paradise. Then years without rain changed everything.Scientists said that the area would become even drier. Madagascar could become the first country to experience (3)famine as a result of climate change.

Question 92

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank no.2

  1. AOption (a)

    Paradise

  2. BOption (b)

    Sadness

  3. COption (c)

    Misery

  4. DOption (d)

    Gloom

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Paradise

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Paradise'

Key Points 

  • In the given sentence "Paradise'' is the correct answer.
  • Let's see an example-
  • Paradise-  a place or condition of great happiness where everything is exactly as you would like it to be.(बड़ी खुशी का स्थान या स्थिति जहाँ सब कुछ ठीक वैसा ही हो जैसा आप चाहते हैं।)
  • Sadness-  the feeling of being unhappy, especially because something bad has happened.(दुखी होने की भावना, खासकर क्योंकि कुछ बुरा हुआ है।)
  • Misery-  great unhappiness.(महान दुर्भाग्य।)
  • Gloom-  feelings of great unhappiness and loss of hope.(बड़ी नाखुशी और आशा की हानि की भावनाएँ।)
  • Hence, according to the meanings of the given words, the correct answer is option 1 i.e. Paradise:
  • So the complete passage is- Madagascar was a place with one of the richest (1)biodiversity in the world, and for many people, it was a (2)paradise. Then years without rain changed everything.Scientists said that the area would become even drier. Madagascar could become the first country to experience (3)famine as a result of climate change.

Question 93

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank no.3

  1. AOption (a)

    Wealth

  2. BOption (b)

    Famine

  3. COption (c)

    Plenty

  4. DOption (d)

    Abundance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Famine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Famine'

Key Points 

  • In the given sentence "Famine'' is the correct answer.
  • Let's see an example-
  • Wealth-  a large amount of money or valuable possessions that someone has.(किसी के पास बड़ी मात्रा में धन या मूल्यवान संपत्ति।)
  • Famine-  an extreme lack of food in a region, causing suffering and death.(एक क्षेत्र में भोजन की अत्यधिक कमी, पीड़ा और मृत्यु का कारण।)
  • Plenty-   enough or more than enough, or a large amount.(पर्याप्त या पर्याप्त से अधिक, या बड़ी मात्रा में।)
  • Abundance-  the situation in which there is more than enough of something.(वह स्थिति जिसमें किसी चीज के लिए पर्याप्त से अधिक हो।)
  • Hence, according to the meanings of the given words, the correct answer is option 2 i.e. Famine:
  • So the complete passage is- Madagascar was a place with one of the richest (1)biodiversity in the world, and for many people, it was a (2)paradise. Then years without rain changed everything.Scientists said that the area would become even drier. Madagascar could become the first country to experience (3)famine as a result of climate change.

Question 94

Choose the correct order of the sentence.

Mahatma Gandhi______________civil disobedience movement. 

P: within seven days failing which, 

Q: to stop lawlessness and barbarianism 

R: gave notice to the Government 

S: he would start

  1. AOption (a)

    R Q P S

  2. BOption (b)

    S P Q R

  3. COption (c)

    R P Q S

  4. DOption (d)

    S Q P R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

R Q P S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'RQPS'.

Key Points

  • 'Mahatma Gandhi' is the subject of the sentence.
  • The part R mentions that Gandhi gave notice to the Government. Thus, it must be the first part.
  • The part Q mentions that the notice was given to stop lawlessness and barbarianism. Hence, it must be the second part of the sentence.
  • The part P implies that the timeframe mentioned in the notice to stop lawlessness was seven days. Therefore, it must be the third part of sentence.
  • The part S further mentions that (after combining with the last part of the sentence) if govt fails to comply with the demand of Gandhi, he would start civil disobedience movement. Thus, it must be the last part of the sentence.
  • Correct sentence: Mahatma Gandhi gave notice to the Government to stop lawlessness and barbarianism within seven days failing which, he would start civil disobedience movement.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Question 95

The following question, consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence which is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

 

Literature has existed in the Americas __________ as far back as the 5th century are known. 

 

P: for as long as the people who lived there

Q: of oral literature. Mayan books from

R: cultures have a rich history

S: have been telling stories. Native American

  1. AOption (a)

    PSQR

  2. BOption (b)

    PQRS

  3. COption (c)

    PSRQ

  4. DOption (d)

    PQSR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PSRQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "PSRQ"

Key Points

  • The first sentence should contain the time period for which literature has existed in the Americas, which part P does.
  • The next part should complete the ending of P and describe what people living there have been doing. Part S does the same by informing us that they have been telling stories.
  • S also starts a new sentence which joined with R completes the meaning of Native American cultures having a rich history.
  • The final part Q specifies that the rich history is of oral literature when joined with S and starts a new sentence which leads to the latter half of the given question.

The correct sentence is : Literature has existed in the Americas P for as long as the people who lived there S have been telling stories. Native American R cultures have a rich history Q of oral literature. Mayan books from as far back as the 5th century are known

Question 96

The following questions consist of an incomplete sentence that is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and named P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

 

It was thought at the time that________________it scorched Europe and surrounding continents.

 

P.  however as the months turned into

Q. and that victory would be won easily and without much cost;

R. years and the war spread like hellfire,

S. the war wouldn’t last more than a few months,

  1. AOption (a)

    SQPR

  2. BOption (b)

    SQRP

  3. COption (c)

    QSRP

  4. DOption (d)

    QPRS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

SQPR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "SQPR"

Key Points

  • At the start, of the sentence, it mentions the phrase "initial thought of the time". 
  • Part S and Part Q will follow the first part as they describe what the initial thought was:
  • the war wouldn’t last more than a few months and that victory would be won easily and without much cost;
  • Part P and Part R show the reality, which is contradictory to the initial thought.
  • however as the months turned into years and the war spread like hellfire,
  • The last part concludes that it scorched through Europe.

Hence the correct passage: It was thought at the time that S. the war wouldn’t last more than a few months, Q. and that victory would be won easily and without much cost; P.  however as the months turned into R. years and the war spread like hellfire, it scorched Europe and surrounding continents.

Question 97

The following questions consist of an incomplete sentence that is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and named P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

 

The First World War, known at the time________________military personnel and seven million civilians.

 

P. series of calamities that broke the delicate arrangement of European powers, 

Q. it was an unforeseen war that resulted from a

R. as “The Great War”, was a four-year conflict that spanned the globe involving thirty-two countries in total;

S. and ended with the loss of over eleven million

  1. AOption (a)

    QSPR

  2. BOption (b)

    QPRS

  3. COption (c)

    RQPS

  4. DOption (d)

    RSQP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

RQPS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "RQPS"

Key Points

  • The first part of the sentence is given, and it refers to World War I.
  • Part R specifies the name of the first world war and the reason behind the name:
  • as "The Great War", was a four-year conflict that spanned the globe––involving thirty-two countries in total;
  • Part Q and Part P will follow Part R as they state how the war started:
  • it was an unforeseen war that resulted from a series of calamities that broke the delicate arrangement of European powers,
  • Part S states how the war ended and tells us about the number of casualties.
  • and ended with the loss of over eleven million military personnel and seven million civilians.

Hence, the correct passage: The First World War, known at the time R. as "The Great War", was a four-year conflict that spanned the globe involving thirty-two countries in total; Q. it was an unforeseen war that resulted from a P. series of calamities that broke the delicate arrangement of European powers, S. and ended with the loss of over eleven million military personnel and seven million civilians.

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives

A group of researchers has demonstrated that pleasure and positive states of mind are better for our health. This new intellectual approach to health is not only more powerful, but also has no side effects. Central to this claim are recent findings that even getting an education may add as much as 10 years to your health. That is why National Geographic featured John de Rosen in its book The Incredible Machine, which discussed old age. De Rosen, an artist, continued to paint until the week he died at age 91. The book notes: "Some scientists believe that retirement to a sedentary lifestyle initiates or aggravates medical problems, thus shortening life. According to a study of retired people, adults over 65 can learn a creative skill, like oil painting, as readily as younger students." So retiring from a job in a sense means retiring from life unless supplemented by some other, preferably new activity.

Question 98

What is considered as a "new intellectual approach to health"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Health benefits of a clean diet.

  2. BOption (b)

    Positive state of mind.

  3. COption (c)

    Mentally challenging activities.

  4. DOption (d)

    Engaging in Physical activities everyday.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Positive state of mind.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Positive state of mind".

Key Points 

  • Let's refer to the following lines from the passage:
  • ​'A group of researchers has demonstrated that pleasure and positive states of mind are better for our health. This new intellectual approach to health is not only more powerful but also has no side effects.'
  • Upon the perusal of the above lines, it is clear that a group of researchers has demonstrated that pleasure and positive states of mind are better for our health. These two are considered a new intellectual approach to health.
  • All other options are eliminated because they are not mentioned in the passage and also are not considered as a new intellectual approach.

Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 99

What/who was the primary subject of the National Geographic premiered book "The Incredible Machine"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Old Age

  2. BOption (b)

    John de Rosen

  3. COption (c)

    Positive effects of a healthy state of mind.

  4. DOption (d)

    Education

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Old Age

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Old Age".

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the following line from the passage:
  • **​'That is why National Geographic featured John de Rosen in its **book The Incredible Machine, which discussed old age.'
  • Upon the perusal of the above line, it is clear that National Geographic featured by John de Rosen in his book "The Incredible Machine" mentioned or has the primary subject as old age.
  • All other options are eliminated because of this reason.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 100

What was John de Rosen profession?

  1. AOption (a)

    Antique collector

  2. BOption (b)

    Painter

  3. COption (c)

    Artist

  4. DOption (d)

    Librarian

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Artist

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is "Artist".

Key Points 

  • Let's refer to the following lines from the passage:
  • ​'De Rosen, an artist, continued to paint until the week he died at age 91.'
  • Upon the perusal of the above line, it is clear that in the passage it is clearly written that John de Rosen is an artist by profession who continued to paint until the week he died at age of 91.
  • All other options are eliminated because of this reason.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

100 questions in the full paper