AFCAT 26 Aug 2022 (Shift 1) Memory Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is 'SQRP'.

Key Points

• While arranging the parts of the sentence given in options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let's find out.
• The first statement in the sequence should be the one that best connects with the clause "The Indian Civil Service gradually developed into one of the most powerful civil services".
• S follows S1 because it is adding information about the power of members of the civil services.
• Q follows S because it explains that its members often participated in the making of policy.
• R follows Q because it explains the tradition of the civil service.
• P follows R because it talks about the tradition which is of independence, integrity, and hard work.
• Therefore, the correct sequence is 'SQRP'.
• Correct sequence: 
• The Indian Civil Service gradually developed into one of the most powerful civil services;_____________though these qualities obviously served British, and not Indian interests.
  

S: its members exercised vast power,

Q: and often participated in the making of policy,

R: and developed a certain tradition of

P: independence, integrity, and hard work

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

The correct answer is 'PRQS'.

Key Points

• While arranging the parts of the sentence given in options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let's find out.
• The first statement in the sequence should be the one that best connects with the phrase "The decomposers".
• P follows S1 because it is adding information about the decomposers which help in decomposing.
• R follows P because it explains that the decomposers help in decomposing the dead bodies of plants and animals.
• Q follows R because it explains that by decomposing the dead bodies of plants and animals, they help to clean the environment.
• S follows Q because it mentions that the after cleaning the environment they put back various useful elements into soil.
• Therefore, the correct sequence is 'PRQS'.
• Correct sequence: 
• The decomposers______________into the soil, air, and water.
  

P : help in decomposing the

R : dead bodies of plants and animals 

Q : and hence help to clean the environment

S : and put back various useful elements

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

The correct answer is 'SPQR'.

Key Points

• While arranging the parts of the sentence given in options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let's find out.
• The first statement in the sequence should be the one that best connects with the phrase "Thick glass may".
• S follows S1 because it is adding information about the cutting of thick glass.
• P follows S because it explains that the thick glass may be cut with one of the home bottle cutters.
• Q follows P because it explains the availability of bottle cutters.
• R follows Q because it mentions that the bottle cutters are available in many large stores.
• Therefore, the correct sequence is 'SPQR'.
• Correct sequence: 
• Thick glass may___________glass requires personal attention.
  

S: be cut with one

P : of the home bottle-cutters

Q : which are available

R : in many large stores, but any fine

Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

The correct answer is 'Traditionally.'

Key Points 

• Let's see the meanings of the given options:
• ​Occasionally: at infrequent or irregular intervals; now and then (कभी कभार या अनियमित अंतराल पर; जब तब).
• Mainly: more than anything else; mostly (किसी भी वस्तु से ज्यादा; मुख्‍य रूप से, अधिकांशतः, अधिकतर).
• Traditionally: as part of a long-established custom, practice, or belief; typically (एक लंबे समय से स्थापित रिवाज, अभ्यास, या विश्वास के हिस्से के रूप में; आम तौर पर).
• Fanatically: motivated or characterized by an extreme, uncritical enthusiasm or zeal, as in religion or politics (धर्म या राजनीति के रूप में, अत्यधिक, गैर-आलोचनात्मक उत्साह या उत्साह से प्रेरित या विशेषता).​
• Here, we are talking about the farmers that previously farmers have used different methods to save their crops from pests and diseases.
• The option "Traditionally" is correct in this context.

Correct Paragraph:

Traditionally, farmers have used a variety of methods to protect their crops from pests and diseases. They have put herb-based poisons on crops, handpicked insects off plants, bred strong varieties of crops, and rotated crops to_______Y_______insects. Now, almost all farmers, especially in developed countries, _______Z_______on chemicals to control pests.

Additional Information 

• Let's see the synonym of the given options:​​
• Occasionally: Sometimes, intermittently, infrequently.
• Mainly: Mostly, predominantly, largely.
• Traditionally: Conventionally, customarily, regularly.
• Fanatically: Rabidly, zealously, avidly.

The correct answer is 'control.'

Key Points 

• Let's see the meanings of the given options:
• ​Control: to keep something within certain limits (किसी को सीमित या नियंत्रण में रखना).
• Breed: to keep animals or plants in order to produce young from them (पशुओं या पौधों को नसलें पैदा करने के लिए पालना).
• Heed: to pay attention to advice, a warning, etc. (सलाह, चेतावनी आदि पर ध्यान देना).
• Maintain: to make something continue at the same level, standard, etc. (किसी वस्‍तु को उसी स्‍तर, मानक आदि पर बनाए रखना, जारी रखना).
• ​Here, we are talking about the farmers that have spread herb based poisons on crops chosen carefully to kill insects on plants, produce wide variety of crops, and change crops to keep insects away from the crops.
• The option "control" is correct in this context.

Correct Paragraph:

X, farmers have used a variety of methods to protect their crops from pests and diseases. They have put herb-based poisons on crops, handpicked insects off plants, bred strong varieties of crops, and rotated crops to control insects. Now, almost all farmers, especially in developed countries, _______Z_______on chemicals to control pests.

Additional Information 

• Let's see the synonym of the given options:​
• ​Control: Run, manage, supervise.
• Breed: Propagate, reproduce, procreate.
• Heed: Obey, notice, follow.
• Maintain: Sustain, preserve, conserve, continue.

The correct answer is 'rely.'

Key Points 

• Let's see the meanings of the given options:
• Based: use something specified as the foundation or starting point for something (किसी वस्तु का कुछ निर्दिष्ट के लिए आधार या शुरुआती बिंदु के रूप में उपयोग होना).
• Rely: to need somebody/something and not be able to live or work properly without him/her/it (किसी पर निर्भर होना ठीक ढंग से रह पाने या कुछ कर पाने के लिए).
• Perceive: to notice or realize something (इंद्रियों द्वारा ग्रहण करना, देखना, जानना, बोध होना).
• Lay: to put something in the correct position for a particular purpose (प्रयोजन विशेष से किसी वस्‍तु को सही स्थिति में रखना या डालना).
• Here, we are talking about the farmers that almost all farmers particularly in developed countries depend on chemicals for pests control.
• The option "rely" is correct in this context.

Correct Paragraph:

X, farmers have used a variety of methods to protect their crops from pests and diseases. They have put herb-based poisons on crops, handpicked insects off plants, bred strong varieties of crops, and rotated crops to_______Y_______insects. Now, almost all farmers, especially in developed countries, rely on chemicals to control pests.

Additional Information 

• Let's see the synonym of the given options:​
• Based: Build, formed.
• Rely: Depend, trust.
• Perceive: Recognize, understand.
• Lay: Put, place.

The correct answer is 'brackish'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is complaining, something about a meal.
• The use of the word 'complained' in the sentence indicates expressing dissatisfaction or annoyance about something.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'brackish.'
• 'Brackish' means slightly salty. (नमकीन, क्षारयुक्त)
• Example: These fishes do best in brackish or saltwater.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete Sentence: The diner complained that his meal was too brackish to consume.

Additional Information

• Let us explore the other options:
• 'Wobble' means to move from side to side in a way that is not steady; to make somebody/something do this. (किसी का) लड़खड़ाना, डगमगाना, ढुलमुल होना, अस्थिर ढंग से चलना (किसी को) लड़खड़ा देना, ढुलमुल कर देना
• 'Pure' means not mixed with anything else. (शुद्घ या बिना मिलावट का))
• 'Delicious' means having a very pleasant taste or smell. (स्‍वादिष्‍ट या सुगंधित)

The correct answer is 'commotion'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about the reason for returning back to the castle.
• The use of the word 'sound' in the sentence indicates something that you hear or that can be heard.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'commotion.'
• 'Commotion' means great noise or excitement. (शोरग़ुल, उत्तेजना, हुल्‍लड़, गड़बड़ी)
• Example: His death caused a great commotion in London.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Complete Sentence: He returned to the castle, stopping at the sound of commotion from the direction of the forest.

Additional Information

• Let us explore the other options:
• 'Calm' means not excited, worried, or angry. (शांत, चुपचाप)
• 'Peace' means the state of being calm or quiet. (शांति की सि्‍थति जहाँ कोई हलचल आदि न हो)
• 'Quiet' means with very little or no noise. (शांत, ख़ामोश)

The correct answer is option 1; Use "bring about" instead of "bring in"

Key Points

• We will have to use bring about meaning cause something to happen to make the sentence meaningful.
• Alcohol deaddiction centres keep addicts busy in various activities and try to bring about behavioral changes in them.

Correct sentence - Alcohol deaddiction centers try to bring about behavioral changes in the lifestyle of addicts by keeping them busy in various activities.

Additional InformationPhrasal verb is a combination of words (a verb+preposition) that when used together, usually take on a different meaning than that of the original verb

• Important phrasal verbs formed with the help of "bring"

1. Bring about = to make something happen.
2. Bring back = To cause someone to remember
3. Bring forward = To make something happen earlier than originally planned.
4. Bring off = To succeed in doing something difficult
5. Bring on = To cause something to happen especially something bad.
6. Bring in = To use the skills of a particular group or person.
7. Bring out = 1. To produce a new product and start selling it. 2. To make someone or something show a quality that they have.
8. Bring up = 1. To look after a child until He/she becomes an adult. 2. To start discussing a topic.

The correct answer is 'Small.'

Key Points 

• Colossal means 'extremely large (अतिविशाल, वृहत्‍काय, बहुत बड़ा)'.
• ​Example: Companies today are highly competitive and welcome the colossal saving of time and money by introducing new methods.
• Marked option 'Small' means 'not large in size, number, amount, etc. (छोटा आकार, संख्‍या, मात्रा आदि की दृष्टि से)'.
• ​Example: Small businesses are the lifeblood of the economy.
• It is clear that Colossal and 'Small' are opposite in meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Additional Information 

• Giant means something that is very large (बहुत बड़े आकार की कोई वस्‍तु; भीमकाय).
• Dark means with no light or very little light (अँधेरा, काला-सा, साँवला).
• Opaque means something that one cannot see through (ऐसा कुछ जिसे कोई देख नहीं सकता; अपारदर्शी).

The correct answer is 'Acquired.'

Key Points 

• Intrinsic means 'belonging to something as part of its nature; basic (किसी वस्‍तु की प्रकृति का अंतरंग; मूलभूत)'.
• ​Example: Maths is an intrinsic part of the school curriculum.
• Marked option 'Acquired' means **'**to gain something by your own efforts, ability or behaviour (**अपने स्वयं के प्रयासों, क्षमता या व्यवहार से कुछ हासिल करना)'.**​
• ​Example: The company has recently acquired a new office building in central Boston. ​
• It is clear that Intrinsic and 'Acquired' are opposite in meaning. 
  

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information 

• Benefit means an advantage or useful effect that something has (लाभ, हित, फायदा).
• Extravagant means spending or costing too much money (फ़िजूलख़र्च या बेहद महँगा).
• Intensive means involving a lot of work or care in a short period of time (जिसमें सीमित समय में काफी अधिक कार्य या सावधानी की अपेक्षा हो; गहन, प्रबलित).

The correct answer is 'Supporter.'

Key Points 

• Proponent means 'a person who speaks or argues, often publicly, in support of a particular idea or persuades people to do something (विशिष्ट विचार का सार्वजनिक समर्थक या विशेष काम के लिए लोगों को मनानेवाला; प्रतिपादक)'.
• Example: Stephen has always been a strong proponent of women's rights.
• Marked option 'Supporter' means 'a person who supports a political party, sports team, etc. (राजनीतिक दल, क्रीड़ा-दल आदि का समर्थक)'.
• ​Example: Deepesh is a staunch supporter of controls on government spending.
• It is clear that Proponent and 'Supporter' are similar in meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information 

• Opponent means a person who disagrees with somebody’s actions, plans or beliefs and tries to stop or change them (किसी के कार्य, योजना तथा विश्वास से असहमत होना तथा उसे परिवर्तित करने का प्रयास करना, विरोधी).
• Passive means showing no reaction, feeling or interest; not active (जो कोई प्रतिक्रिया, भावना या रुचि न दिखाए; निष्क्रिय).
• Bestow means to give something to somebody, especially to show how much he/she is respected (कुछ प्रदान करना, विशेषतः आदर व्‍यक्त करने के लिए; अर्पित करना).

The correct answer is 'To scold.'

Key Points 

• Let's look at the meaning of the given word.
• ​Haul Over the Coals means "to criticize sharply; censure ; scold (तीखी आलोचना करना; निंदा; भला-बुरा कहना)".
• ​Example: Ritesh was hauled over the coals for coming in late for work.
• ​From the above lines, we can say that "To scold" is the correct meaning of the given word.

​​​​​​Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

• Barter means to exchange goods, services, property, etc. for other goods, etc., without using money (रुपये आदि मुद्रा के बिना वस्‍तुओं, सेवाओं आदि का लेन-देन करना).
• Pretend means to behave in a particular way in order to make other people believe something that is not true (प्रदर्शन, ढोंग या दिखावा करना).
• Prevail means to exist or be common in a particular place or at a particular time (स्‍थान-विशेष या समय-विशेष में किसी बात का विद्यमान या प्रचलन में होना).

The correct answer is 'Providence.'

Key Points 

• Providence means "god or a force that is believed to have control over our lives and the things that happen to us in a way that protects us (हमारे जीवन तथा इसमें घटित होनेवाली घटनाओं को नियंत्रित करनेवाली शक्ति; परमात्मा; ईश्वर)".
• ​Example: The recovery of Shweta was a special providence of god.
• From the above explanation, it can be concluded that 'Providence' is the correct word to substitute for the given description.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

• Universal means connected with, done by or affecting everyone in the world or everyone in a particular group (सार्वभौमिक; विश्‍व में या किसी समूह में प्रत्‍येक व्‍यक्ति से संबंधित, द्वारा किया गया या प्रभावित करने वाला; सर्विक, सार्वत्रिक).
• Spiritual means concerning deep thoughts, feelings or emotions rather than the body or physical things (गहन विचारों, भावनाओं या मनोभावों से संबंधित न कि शरीर या भौतिक वस्‍तुओं से आत्मिक; आध्‍यात्मिक).
• Metaphysics means the area of philosophy that deals with the nature of existence, truth and knowledge (दर्शनशास्‍त्र की शाखा जिसमें अस्‍तित्‍व, सत्‍य और ज्ञान का अध्‍ययन होता है; तत्‍वमीमांसा).

The correct answer is 'To seize an opportunity.'

Key Points 

• Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
• Take time by the forelock means "to accept an opportunity without hesitation (बिना किसी हिचकिचाहट के एक अवसर को स्वीकार करना)".
• ​Example: You must take time by the forelock and do it now.
• From the above lines, we can say that "To seize an opportunity" is the correct meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

​​​​​​Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'adhere.'

Key Points 

• Let's discuss the marked option first:
• Adhere (verb) means 'to continue to support an idea, etc.; to follow a rule (किसी विचारधारा आदि को समर्थन देते रहना; किसी नियम का पालन करना)'.
• ​Example: All members of the association adhere to a strict code of practice.
• Explanation: You must follow the rules made by our company.
• It is clear that the words given in option 2 fit in the blanks contextually.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Complete Sentence: You must adhere to the rules followed by our company. 

Additional Information 

• Obey means to do what you are told to do (आज्ञा का पालन करना).
• Ought means used to indicate duty or correctness, typically when criticizing someone's actions (कर्तव्य या शुद्धता को इंगित करने के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है, आमतौर पर जब किसी के कार्यों की आलोचना करते हैं).
• Pursue means to try to achieve something or to continue to do something over a period of time (कुछ पाने की कोशिश करना या किसी काम में अरसे तक लगे रहना).

The correct answer is 'The sweat of one’s brows.'

Key Points 

• Let's discuss the marked option first:
• The sweat of one’s brows (idiom) means 'doing hard, physical work (कठिन, शारीरिक श्रम करना)'.
• ​Example: Himesh earned his money by the sweat of his brow.
• Explanation: An honest person lives by doing hard or physical work.
• It is clear that the words given in option 1 fit in the blanks contextually.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Complete Sentence: An honest person lives by the sweat of one’s brows?

Additional Information 

• A sight for sore eyes​ means a person or thing that one is extremely pleased or relieved to see (वह व्यक्ति या वस्तु जिसे देखकर कोई अत्यंत प्रसन्न या राहत महसूस करता हो).
• Long arm of the law​ means the ability of the police to find and catch people who commit crimes (अपराध करने वाले लोगों को खोजने और पकड़ने के लिए पुलिस की क्षमता).
• Foot in the mouth means o accidentally say something that is embarrassing or that upsets or annoys someone (गलती से कुछ ऐसा कहना जो शर्मनाक हो या जो किसी को परेशान या परेशान करता हो).

The correct answer is 'fanned.'

Key Points 

• Let's discuss the marked option first:
• Fanned (verb) means 'to make a fire burn more strongly by blowing on it (हवा करके आग को भड़काना)'.
• Example: Gusty winds fanned the flames.
• Explanation: A light wind made the forest fire more strong by blowing and hence, made it more dangerous.
• It is clear that the words given in option 3 fit in the blanks contextually.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Complete Sentence: A light breeze fanned the forest fire and made it more dangerous. 

Additional Information 

• Give up means to stop trying to do something; to accept that one cannot do something (कुछ करने की कोशिश को रोक देना; किसी काम को करने में अपनी असमर्थता को मान लेना).
• Riled up means to make agitated and angry; upset (किसी व्‍यक्ति को उत्तेजित और क्रोधित कर देना; परेशान कर देना).
• Enrage means to make somebody very angry (किसी व्‍यक्ति को बहुत ग़ुस्‍सा दिलाना, अत्‍यधिक क्रोधित कर देना).

The correct answer is 'Uncertain.'

Key Points 

• Precarious means 'not safe or certain; dangerous (असुरक्षित या अनिश्चित; खतरनाक)'.
• ​Example: Our financial situation had become precarious.
• Marked option 'Uncertain' means **'not sure; not able to decide, not certain (अनिश्‍चित, संशययुक्त; निश्‍चय करने में असमर्थ, ढुलमुल, अनिश्‍चयी)'.**​
• ​Example: His political position has become extremely uncertain.
• It is clear that Precarious and 'Uncertain' are similar in meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information 

• Perfect means completely good; without faults or weaknesses (पूर्णतः अच्‍छा, परिपूर्ण; दोषरहित).
• Perpetual means continuing for a long period of time without stopping (लगातार लंबे समय तक बना रहने वाला; अविरल, शाश्‍वत).
• Certain means completely sure; without any doubts (पूर्णतया आश्‍वस्‍त; संदेह से मुक्त, असंदिग्‍ध).

The correct answer is 'Restrain.'

Key Points

• The given word 'Engender' means to cause or give rise to (a feeling, situation, or condition). (कारण या जन्म देना (एक भावना, स्थिति या स्थिति))
• ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
• 'Cause' means to make something happen. (कुछ होने का कारण बनना, उत्‍पन्‍न करना)
• 'Subdue' means to overcome, quieten, or bring under control. (काबू पाना, शांत करना या नियंत्रण में लाना)
• 'Conserve' means to protect from harm or destruction. (नुकसान या विनाश से बचाने के लिए)
• 'Restrain​' means to prevent (someone or something) from doing something; keep under control or within limits. ((किसी को या कुछ) कुछ करने से रोकना; नियंत्रण में या सीमा के भीतर रखें)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information

• The antonyms of the word 'Engender' are "restrain, end, cease".
• The synonyms of the word 'Engender' are "continue, persist, emerge".

The correct answer is- 'Defeat.' 

Key Points 

• Let's understand the meaning of the given word:
• Rout is a verb and it means to defeat an opponent completely*.* (किसी विरोधी को पूरी तरह से हराना।)
• Example: The Indian chess team routed all the rest.
• By the meaning and example, we can say that 'Defeat' is a similar word for 'Rout.'

Hence option 3 is the correct answer. 

Additional Information  

• Antonyms of the given word Rout are:
• Miracle, Win, Wonder
• Let's understand the meaning of the given options:
• Defeat: Win a victory over (हार)
• Debate: A discussion in which reasons are advanced for and against some proposal (वाद-विवाद)
• Discussion: An extended communication dealing with some particular topic (चर्चा)
• Ending: The act of ending something (किसी बात को समाप्त करने की क्रिया)

The correct answer is '​Cautious: ​Hasty​.' 

Key Points 

• Let us see the meanings of the words given in the question- Shame: Honor​​:
• Shame: the unpleasant feeling of guilt and embarrassment that you get when you have done something stupid or morally wrong; the ability to have this feeling. (लज्‍जा, शर्म (मूर्खतापूर्ण या अनैतिक काम से उत्‍पन्‍न अपराध और व्‍याकुलता की भावना); लज्‍जाशीलता, शरमीलापन)
• Honor: the respect from other people that a person, country, etc. gets because of high standards of behaviour and moral character. (आदर, सम्‍मान)
• In the given pair Shame: Honor​​, the antonym of 'Shame' is 'Honor'.
• Now, let us explore the meanings of the words from the option:
• Hypocrisy: behaviour in which somebody pretends to have moral standards or opinions that he/she does not really have. ((वास्‍तविकता के विपरीत) उच्‍च नैतिक मानदंड और व्‍यवहार का ढोंग रचना; पाखंड, ढोंग, मिथ्‍याचार)
• Deception: making somebody believe or being made to believe something that is not true. (धोखा देने की क्रिया)
• Daring: adventurous or audaciously bold. (साहसी या दुस्साहसी बोल्ड)
• Courageous: not deterred by danger or pain; brave. (खतरे या दर्द से विचलित नहीं; बहादुर)
• Cautious​​: taking great care to avoid possible danger or problems. (सावधान, सतर्क, चौकस)
• Hasty: said or done too quickly. (जल्‍दी में कहा या किया हुआ; तीव्र गतिक)
• Humility: the quality of not thinking that you are better than other people. (विनम्रता, विनयशीलता)
• Resignation: the state of accepting something unpleasant that you cannot change. (अप्रिय स्थिति को स्‍वीकार कर लेने की स्थिति (उसे बदलने में असमर्थता के कारण))
• The antonym of Cautious is Hasty.
• Complete analogy: Shame​: Honor :: Cautious: ​Hasty​​

Additional Information 

• Let us see some more examples of analogies:
• Pen : Paper
• Path : Highway
• Vein : Artery
• Sculptor : Chisel

The correct answer is 'Example : Epitome**.'** 

Key Points

• Let us see the meanings of the words given in the question- Exterminate : ​Eradicate:
• Exterminate: to destroy or kill a large group of people or animals. (लोगों या जानवरों के एक बड़े समूह को नष्ट करने या मारना, बड़ी संख्‍या में लोगों अथवा पशुओं को मार देना; संहार करना)
• Eradicate: to destroy or get rid of something completely. ((रोग आदि) को जड़ से उखाड़ देना, पूर्णतया उन्‍मूलित कर देना)
• In the given pair Exterminate : ​Eradicate, the synonym of 'Exterminate' is 'Eradicate'.
• Now, let us explore the meanings of the words from the option:
• Dismantle: to take something to pieces; to separate something into the parts it is made from. ((किसी वस्‍तु) को विखंडित या टुकड़े-टुकड़े कर देना; (किसी मशीन आदि के) पुरज़े खोलना)
• ​Fabricate: to invent something false in order to deceive people. (मनगढ़ंत बातें करना, झूठी बातें गढ़ना, विरचना करना)
• Gentle: kind and calm; touching or treating people or things in a careful way so that they are not hurt. (दयालु और शांत; बिना चोट पहुँचाए कोमलता से व्‍यवहार करने वाला; सौम्‍य)
• ​Ferocious: very aggressive and violent. (अति आक्रामक और हिंसक; उग्र व ख़ूनख्‍़वार)
• Example: something such as an object, a fact or a situation which shows, explains or supports what you say. (उदाहरण, मिसाल)
• Epitome: a perfect example of something. (किसी बात का आदर्श उदाहरण)
• Truth: what is true; the facts. (सत्‍य, सच्‍चाई, यथार्थता; सच्‍ची बातें, तथ्‍य)
• Fallacy: a false belief or a wrong idea. (झूठा विश्‍वास या भ्रांत धारणा)
• The synonym of Example is Epitome.
• Complete analogy: Exterminate : ​Eradicate :: Example : Epitome
  

Additional Information  

• Let us see some more examples of analogies:
• Misfortune: Disaster
• Path : Highway
• Vein : Artery

The correct answer is A

Key Points  

• The sentence is about a particular condition in the future but there is no possibility of it being real.
• In such cases the phrase, 'If I were...' is used to describe a subjunctive mood.
• the subjunctive mood is used about hypothetical situations or things that are contrary to facts.
• Ex: If I won the lottery, I would buy a house.
• Therefore the use of 'am' is incorrect and should be replaced with 'were' to make the sentence grammatically correct.
  

​Hence, the correct sentence would be, If I were the principal of the school I would make co-curricular activities compulsory for each student.

Therefore, it can be inferred that the correct answer is option 1)

Additional Information 

 'If I was...' is used when referring to something that actually happened.

• Ex: If I was late for curfew when I was a teenager, my parents grounded me.

The correct answer is A

Key Points 

• Part C of the sentence is erroneous.
• To- infinitive is used as 'to + base form of the verb' example to dance, to play, to sing, etc.
• Since to-infinitive is used in the sentence, the verb 'joining' should be replaced with 'join'.
  

​Hence, the correct sentence would be, My senior asked me whether I was interested to join the group for the skit*.*

Therefore, it can be inferred that the correct answer is option 3)

Additional Information 

 There are certain verbs used in the following pattern: Subject + Verb + Past Participle(-ing form of the verb)

• Some of the verbs are: hate, stop, finish, enjoy, etc.
• ​Ex: He hates coming late to the company.

The correct answer is C

Key Points 

• Part C of the sentence is erroneous.
• The sentence is referring to the postmortem reports which is a plural subject.
• According to the Subject-Verb agreement rule, the helping verb was is to be replaced by were in the sentence.
  

​Hence, the correct sentence would be, The judge was referring to the two post­mortem reports that were reviewed by a team of forensic experts.

Therefore, it can be inferred that the correct answer is option 3)

Additional Information 

 The basic rule of the Subject-Verb agreement is that a singular subject (he, she, car) takes a singular verb (is, goes, shines) whereas a plural subject takes a plural verb.

• Ex: The list of items is on the table (SIngular subject- singular verb)
• Ex: I and my friends are going to a movie. (Plural subject-plural verb)

The correct answer is Rhetoric.

Key Points

• Let's understand the meanings of the given words in the options:
• Rhetoric: a way of speaking or writing that is intended to impress or influence people but is not always sincere (वाग्मिता, वाक्‌पटुता (प्रभावपूर्ण रीति से या लोगों को प्रभावित करने के लिए कुछ कहने या लिखने की कला, कभी-कभी केवल दिखावे के लिए)
• Example: Before long, the same political rhetoric was repeated.
• **Reinforcing (**gerund or present participle form of reinforce): to make something stronger (अधिक मज़बूत करना, सुदृढ़ करना)
• Example: The builders used metal rods to reinforce the walls of the building.​​
• Idiographic: relating to or dealing with something concrete, individual, or unique (कुछ ठोस, व्यक्तिगत, या अद्वितीय से संबंधित या उससे निपटना)
• Example:​ Still, nothing about this idiographic method actually prevents the historian from comparing one event to another.
• Kinship: a feeling of being close to somebody because you have similar attitudes or characteristics (समान प्रवृति या व्‍यवहार के कारण बँधुता)
• Example:​ They felt a kinship with the local peasants.
• From the above-given descriptions, it can be inferred that Rhetoric is the correct word that can replace the given description in the question.

The correct choice is option 1.

The correct answer is tangible and perceived contact with dolphins.

Key Points

• The fifth line of the passage states, *"*The connections described are powerful: perceptions of communion and mutual exchange become articulated through rhetoric of friendship and kinship."
  

​

​Hence, from the above line, it is clear that the correct answer is Option 3.

SUMMARY of the passage:

This passage throws light on the relationship between humans and animals. It states how this relationship has been improved over the years. Human-Dolphine relationship and the latest developments in their connection are also mentioned which is helping in the well-being of both.

Additional Information

Comprehension questions can be answered easily by:

• Reading the passage carefully.
• Identifying the purpose of the passage.
• Going through the questions so that you know what specific information

The correct answer is tangible and perceived contact with dolphins.

Key Points

• The fourth line of the passage states, *"*The narratives reported here describe strong emotional connections, transmitted through both tangible and perceived contact with dolphins, which translate into positive senses of emotion and well-being."
  

​

​Hence, from the above line, it is clear that the correct answer is Option 3.

SUMMARY of the passage:

This passage throws light on the relationship between humans and animals. It states how this relationship has been improved over the years. Human-Dolphine relationship and the latest developments in their connection are also mentioned which is helping in the well-being of both.

Additional Information

Comprehension questions can be answered easily by:

• Reading the passage carefully.
• Identifying the purpose of the passage.
• Going through the questions so that you know what specific information

The correct answer is "The relationship between dolphins and people becomes communicative with the help of effective persuasion of trust and sympathy."

Key Points

• In the given sentence, perceptions of communion and mutual exchange become articulated through the rhetoric of friendship and kinship. The statement has been used for the relationship between dolphins and people. The statement explains that mutual understanding becomes expressive through proper communication.
• Hence, the nearest meaning of the sentence is given in Option 2.
• The rest of the options have negative words which make these options incorrect.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Concept:

HCF: Product of the smallest power of each common prime factor in the numbers.

LCM: Product of the greatest power of each prime factor, involved in the numbers.

Calculation:

P = ab²         -----(1)

Q = a²b         -----(2)

Using the above concept

HCF = ab

LCM = a²b²

∴ Hence, HCF & LCM will be 'ab' & a²b².

Formula Used:

The angle between the hour hand and minutes hand

θ = (30H - 11 M/2)

Calculation:

H = 5 and angle = 0°

When minute & hour hands coincide, then θ = 0

⇒ 0 = 30 × 5 - 11 M/2

⇒ 0 = 150 - 11 M/2

⇒ 150 = 11 M/2

⇒ 300 = 11 M

⇒ M = $\frac{300}{11}$

⇒ M = $27\frac{3}{11}$ Minutes

∴  The correct answer is $27\frac{3}{11}$ minutes past 5.

Formula used:

Probability of occurrence of the event:

P(E) =  $\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}$

Where,

n(E) = Number of favorable outcome

n(S) = Number of possible outcome

Dice: Small cube which has between 1 to 6 numbers on its sides.

Calculation:

When the dice are rolled, the possible outcomes are

n(S) = 6² = 36

Favourable outcomes are Favourable outcomes

(2,6), (3,5), (3,6), (4,4), (4,5), (4,6), (5,3), (5,4), (5,5,), (5,6), (6,2), (6,3), (6,4), (6,5), (6,6)

⇒ n(E) = 15

Using the above formula, the required probability

P = $\frac{n(E)}{n(S)} = \frac{15}{36} = \frac{5}{12}$

∴ Required probability is $\frac{5}{12}$.

Formula used:

Probability of occurrence of the event:

P(E) =  $\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}$

Where,

n(E) = Number of favorable outcome

n(S) = Number of possible outcome

Calculation:

Probability of the following Events:

P(A) = One white ball is drawn from the first bag

P(B) = One black ball is drawn from the first bag.

P(C|A) = One black ball is drawn from the second bag when there are 5 White and 3 black balls.

P(D|B) = One black ball is drawn from the second bag when there are 4 White and 4 black balls.

Let, the required probability is P

Case:1 If the white ball is transferred from bag 1 to 2 then

Probability of choosing a black ball from bag 2

P(A) = P(white ball transferred) × P(Ball drawn black) 

⇒ $P(A).P(C|A) = \frac{4}{9}× \frac{3}{8} = \frac{3}{18}$

Case:2  If the black ball transferred from bag 1 to 2 then

Probability of choosing a black ball from bag 2

$P(B).P(D|B) = \frac{5}{9}× \frac{4}{8} = \frac{5}{18}$

Hence, the required probability is 

P = P(A) P(C|A) + P(B) P(D|B)

⇒ P = $\frac{3}{18} + \frac{5}{18}= \frac{8}{18} = \frac49$

∴ The correct  answer is $\frac{4}{9}$

Given: 

Rate = 10%, Time = 2 years

CI - SI = 631  

Formula used

(CI - SI) for 2 years = P(R/100)2

P = Principal, R = Rate

Calculation

Using the above formula, 

631 = P(10/100)²

⇒ 631 = P/100

⇒ P = 63100

∴ The required sum is Rs 63100.

Given:

A lends Rs. 4000 to B and a certain sum to C at the same time at 7% per annum simple interest

Time = 5 years

A receives Rs. 3500 as interest from B and C

Formula used:

$Simple\ Interest=\frac{Principal\times Rate\times Time}{100}$

Calculation:

let y be the sum lent to C by A,

Interest for 5 years = 3500

Interest for 1 year = 3500/5

= 700

$\frac{4000\times 7\times 1}{100}+\frac{y\times 7\times 1}{100}=700$

${40\times 7\times 1}+\frac{y\times 7\times 1}{100}=700$

$280+0.07y=700$

0.07y = 700 - 280

0.07y = 420

y = $\frac{420}{0.07}$

y = $\frac{420}{\frac{7}{100}}$

y = 6000

Amount lent to C by A = Rs. 6000

Difference between C and B = 6000 - 4000

= Rs. 2000

∴ Answer is Rs. 2000.

Given

10 years ago the average age of 4 members of the family = 24 years.

The current average of 6 members is 24 years.

Formula used:

Sum of ages = Average age × Number of members

Calculation

Present total age of 4 members

⇒ 24 × 4 = 96 + (10 × 4) = 136

Preset total age of 6 members (including 2 children) 

⇒ 24 × 6 = 144

Sum of the ages of the two children

⇒ 144 - 136 = 8 yrs.

Since the difference b/w age of two children is 2 year

⇒ The ages of the children are 5 yrs & 3 yrs.

∴ The youngest child's age is 3 years old.

Given:

No of the students in section A = 40 

No of the students in section B = 44 

The average weight of section A = 35 kg 

The average weight of section B = 37 kg 

Formula used:

Average = {Sum of Observations} ÷ {Total number of Observations}

Calculation:

Using the above formula, we get

Weight of Section A = 40 × 35 = 1400

Weight of Section B = 44 × 37 = 1628

Total weight = 1400 + 1628 = 3028

Now, the average weight of the whole class

⇒ Average = Total weight ÷ Total number of students

⇒ Average = 3028/(40 + 44)

⇒ Average = 36.04

∴ The average weight of the whole class is 36.04 kg. 

Shortcut TrickOption method:-

If the average weight of section A is 35 kg and that of section B is 37 kg, 

This means whatever the average will be between these two.(35 < avg < 37).

This is available in only one option (2)

Given:

Cost of sugar  A = 9.25 Rs/kg

Cost of the mixture = 10 Rs/kg

The ratio of both sugar = 17 : 15

Calculation:

Let the cost of another sugar be x Rs/kg.

According to the question,

$\frac{x-10}{0.75} = \frac{17}{15}$

⇒ 15x -150 = 12.75

⇒ 15x = 162.75

⇒ x = 10.85 Rs/kg

∴ The cost of sugar B is 10.85 Rs/kg

Calculation:

27.44% of 0.433%

⇒ (27.44/100) × (0.433/100)

⇒ 0.2744 × 0.00433

⇒ 0.001188

∴ The correct answer is 0.001188

Additional Information

BODMAS rule:

Given:

Speed of train P = 50 km/hr

Speed of train Q = 40 km/hr

Formula used:

Time = Distance/Speed

Calculation:

Let, the distance covered by train Q be x

Since P & Q take the same time t

T_P = T_Q

$\frac{x+100}{50} = \frac{x}{40}$

⇒ 5 x = 4 x + 400

⇒ x = 400

Hence initial distance b/w P & Q = (x + 100) + x

⇒ 400 + 100 + 400 = 900 km

∴ 900 km is the correct answer.

Given:

5 men + 4 women can complete the work in 10 days.

4 women + 7 men can do the same work in 8 days.

Formula Used

(M1× D1× H1)/W1 = (M2 × D2 × H2)/W2

Calculation:

Let the efficiency of man be M and efficiency of woman be W

(5M + 4W) × 10 = (4M + 7W) × 8

⇒ 50M + 40W = 32M + 56W

⇒ 18M = 16W

⇒ M = (8/9)W       ----(1)     

Again, one day work of 5 men & 4 women

5M +  4W = 1/10

⇒ 5 × (8/9)W + 4W = 1/10

⇒ W [${40 \over 9 }+ 4$] = 1/10

⇒ W$(40+36) \over 9$= $1\over10$

⇒ W = 9/760

Hence, one day work of 11 women

⇒ 11 × 9/760 = 99/760

∴ 11 women can complete the same work in $7\frac{67}{99}$ days.

Given:

A can compelte the work in 16 dyas

B can complete the work in 10 days

A work alone for 4 days

Remaining work is completed by A & B

Calculation:

4 days work of A= 5 × 4 = 20 unit

Remaining work = 80 - 20 = 60 unit

Now A & B work toageter to compelte the 60 unit work

Time to complete the remaining work

⇒ 60/(5 + 8) = 60/13 days 

Hence total time required to complete the 80 unit work 

⇒ $\frac{60}{13}+4 = \frac{60 + 52}{13} = \frac{112}{13} = 8\frac{8}{13}$

∴ The entire work will be completed in $8\frac{8}{13}$ days.

Formula used:

Profit percentage = (Selling Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price

Calculation:

Given that, selling price = 96

Let, cost price = C

According to the question

Profit percentage = Cost Price = C

Profit percentage = (Selling Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price

C/ 100 = (96-C)/C

⇒ C² = 9600 - 100 C

⇒ C² + 100 C - 9600 = 0

⇒ C2 + 160 C - 60 C - 9600 = 0

⇒ C(C + 160) - 60(C + 160) = 0

⇒  C = 60 &  - 160

∴ The cost price is 60 Rs.

Given:

The selling price of the article = 375 Rs

Profit = $\frac{1}{4}$ × cost price

Formula Used:

Profit = SP - CP

Calculation:

According to the question

$\frac{1}{4}$ CP = SP - CP 

⇒ CP($\frac{1}{4}+1$) = SP 

⇒ $\frac{5}{4}$CP = 375     (∵ SP = 375)

⇒ CP = 300

∴ Cost price of the iteam is 300 Rs.

Given:

Quantity of sugar = 1000 kg

Calculation:

Alternate Method

Let the cost price of 1kg of sugar be Rs.100.

The selling price of 1kg sugar sold at 8% profit

⇒ 100 × 108/100 = Rs.108

The selling price of 1kg sugar sold at 18% profit

⇒ 100 × 118/100 = Rs.118

The average selling price of 1kg of sugar

⇒ 100 × 114/100 = Rs.114

Using the rule of the allegation,

The ratio of sugar sold at 8% and 18% profit

⇒ (118 - 114) : (114 - 108)

⇒ 4 : 6 = 2 : 3

∴ Quantity sold at 18% profit = 3/5 × 1000 = 600 kg

Given:

Two numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 5

After subtracting 9 from each the ratio of numbers become 12 : 23

Calculations:

Let the number be 3x and 5x

According to the question

⇒ (3x – 9)/(5x − 9) ​= 12/23​

⇒ 23(3x − 9) = 12(5x − 9)

⇒ 69x − 207 = 60x − 108

⇒ 69x − 60x = 207 − 108

⇒ 9x = 99

⇒ x = 11

∴ The smaller number is 3 × 11 = 33

Given:

Rs. 5625 is divided among A, B and C

 A receive 1/2 as much as B and C together

B receives 1/4 of what A and C together

Shortcut Trick

Hence, required share = $5625 \times \frac{(5-3)}{15} = 750$

∴ A's share is more than that of B by Rs. 750.

Alternate MethodGiven that

A + B + C = 5625    -----(1)

According to the question

A = (B + C)/2

⇒ B + C = 2 A 

Adding A on both sides     

⇒ A + B + C = 3A = 5625     [from (1)]

⇒ 3A = 5625

⇒ A = Rs. 1875

Again B = ( A + C )/4

⇒ A + C = 4B

⇒ A + B + C = 5B = 5625     [from (1)]

⇒ 5B = 5625

⇒ B = Rs. 1125

⇒ A - B = 1875 - 1125 = 750

∴ A's share is more than that of B by Rs. 750.

Shortcut Trick

Area of Rectangular Park = 180 × 120 = 21600 m²

Total Area of Circular Field = Excluding Area + Park Area

Total Area = 40000 + 21600 = 61600 m²

Using πr² = 61600 → (22/7) × r² = 61600 → r² = 2800 × 7 = 19600

r = √19600 = 140 m

∴ The correct answer is 140 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length (L) = 180 m, Breadth (B) = 120 m

Remaining Area = 40000 m²

Formula Used:

Area of Rectangle = Length × Breadth

Area of Circle = π × (Radius)²

Calculations:

⇒ Area of Rectangular Park = 180 m × 120 m = 21600 m²

⇒ Total Area of Circular Field = Area of Park + Remaining Area

⇒ Total Area = 21600 + 40000 = 61600 m²

⇒ π × r² = 61600

⇒ (22/7) × r² = 61600

⇒ r² = (61600 × 7) ÷ 22

⇒ r² = 2800 × 7 = 19600

⇒ r = √19600 = 140 m

∴ The correct answer is 140 m.

Additional Information

Area of Circle

The total space occupied by a circle is given by A = πr², where r is the radius.

Circumference of Circle

The boundary length of a circle is calculated as C = 2πr.

Rectangle Properties

Area = L × B and Perimeter = 2(L + B). The diagonal of a rectangle is √(L² + B²).

Shortcut Trick

Let the original length and breadth be 3x and 2x respectively.

New Area = (3x + 5) × 2x = 2600 m²

⇒ 6x² + 10x = 2600 ⇒ 3x² + 5x − 1300 = 0

Solving the quadratic equation, we get x = 20 (since x cannot be negative).

Original Perimeter = 2(3x + 2x) = 10x = 10 × 20 = 200 m.

∴ The correct answer is 200 m.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of length to breadth = 3 : 2, Increase in length = 5 m, New Area = 2600 m².

Formula Used: Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth; Perimeter = 2 × (Length + Breadth).

⇒ Original Length (L) = 3x and Breadth (B) = 2x

⇒ New Length (L') = 3x + 5

⇒ New Area = L' × B = (3x + 5) × 2x = 2600

⇒ 6x² + 10x = 2600

⇒ 3x² + 5x − 1300 = 0

⇒ 3x² + 65x − 60x − 1300 = 0

⇒ x(3x + 65) − 20(3x + 65) = 0

⇒ (x − 20)(3x + 65) = 0

⇒ x = 20 (as x > 0)

⇒ Original Length = 3 × 20 = 60 m

⇒ Original Breadth = 2 × 20 = 40 m

⇒ Original Perimeter = 2(60 + 40) = 2(100) = 200 m.

∴ The correct answer is 200 m.

Additional Information

Area and Perimeter of Rectangle

The Area is the product of length and breadth (L × B), while the Perimeter is the total boundary length given by 2(L + B).

Quadratic Root Shortcut

For ax² + bx + c = 0, identify two numbers whose product is (a × c) and sum is (b). The roots are these numbers with signs reversed, divided by (a).

Ratio and Proportionality

When dimensions are in a ratio m : n, we can assume the actual values to be mx and nx, where x is the common proportionality constant.

The correct answer is to protect the Indian Government from fake news.

Important Points

• It is aimed at protecting and insulating the government and its agencies against fake news on social media and digital platforms.
• It will largely focus on online and digital content for now and will be later expanded to the electronic media later.
• It will be initially manned by information service officers, who are also mandated to create appropriate content to re-balance narrative and promote the government’s official position.
• They will also target content to ensure that government versions are visible and accessible to the public.

Key Points

• The four principles of 'FACT Check Module' are 
• find,
• assess,
• create and
• target
• FACT Check Module is set up to identify the fake news on social media and digital platforms and take corrective action.
• It will be set up under the Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Exercise VARUNA:

• The 20th edition of the Indian and French Navy bilateral exercise ‘VARUNA-2022’ is being conducted in the Arabian Sea.
• It has become a vital part of the India-France strategic bilateral relationship.
• The Indian and French Navies have been conducting bilateral maritime exercises since 1993.
• Since 2001, these exercises have been called ‘VARUNA’. This is an annual event.

Exercise INDRA:

• The INDRA series of exercises began in 2003 and was conducted as a bilateral naval exercise alternately between India and Russia.
• However, the first joint Tri-Services Exercise was conducted in 2017.
• Exercise INDRA-21 will further strengthen mutual confidence and interoperability between the Indian & Russian Armies and enable sharing of best practices between the contingents of both countries.

Exercise MAITRI:

• Exercise MAITRI is an annual training event that is conducted in India and Thailand alternatively, since 2006.
• Against the backdrop of changing facets of global terrorism, this exercise is a significant exercise for both nations as they face security challenges from terrorism.
• The scope of this exercise covers company-level joint training on insurgency & counter-terrorism operations in jungles and urban scenarios.
• The joint military exercise between the Indian Army (IA) and the Royal Thailand Army (RTA) will give a boost to defence cooperation and bilateral relations between the two nations.

Exercise GARUDA SHAKTI:

• Garuda Shakti is a bilateral exercise between the special forces of the armies of India and Indonesia.
• This joint military exercise is a part of India and Indonesia's defence cooperation.
• The bilateral military exercise between India and Indonesia started in 2012.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The Olympic symbol
• It is widely known throughout the world as the Olympic rings
• It is the visual ambassador of Olympism for billions of people.
• Based on a design first created by Pierre de Coubertin, the Olympic rings remain a global representation of the Olympic Movement and its activity.
• The Olympic rings were publicly presented for the first time in 1913. In the centre of a white background, five rings are interlaced: blue, yellow, black, green and red. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
• Their relative size reflects the region's role in social issues such as global population, obesity, carbon dioxide emissions and Coca-Cola sales.
• The Olympic symbol consists of five interlaced rings of equal dimensions (the Olympic rings), used alone, in one or in five different colours.
• When used in its five-colour version, these colours shall be, from left to right, blue, yellow, black, green and red.
• The rings are interlaced from left to right; the blue, black and red rings are situated at the top, and the yellow and green rings are at the bottom in accordance with the following graphic reproduction.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Biosphere.

Key Points

• The largest ecosystem of the Earth is Biosphere.
• The biosphere is made up of the parts of Earth where life exists.
• The biosphere extends from the deepest root systems of trees to the dark environment of ocean trenches, to lush rain forests and high mountaintops.
• Life exists on the ground, in the air, and in the water, the biosphere overlaps all these spheres.​

Important Points

• An ecosystem is an interaction of biological community organisms between each other and their physical environment.
• The lithosphere is the outer part of the Earth it is made up of the crust and the top part of the upper mantle.
• A biome is a large community of vegetation and wildlife which are adapted to a specific climate.
• The five major types of the biome are:
• aquatic
• grassland
• forest
• desert
• tundra

Mistake Points

• The biosphere is the single largest ecosystem of the earth.
• The biosphere is known as the sum of all ecosystems also known as the ecosystem also the zone of life on earth.

The correct answer is Stromboli.

Stromboli is known as the ‘lighthouse of the Mediterranean’.

Key Points

Stromboli Volcano:

• Stromboli is an active volcano.
• It is one of the three active volcanoes in Italy.
• Stromboli is a small island in the Tyrrhenian Sea.
• The Tyrrhenian Sea is part of the Mediterranean Sea.
• It is also called the Lighthouse of the Mediterranean Sea.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Bhrtendu Harishchandra.

• Bhartendu Harishchandra was born in an Agarwal family of Banaras.

Key Points

• His father Gopal Chandra was a poet who wrote under the pen name Girdhar Das.
• Bhartendu Harishchandra wrote Andher Nagari in 1881 on the Ghats of Varanasi.
• It is one of the well-known Hindi plays today.
• Over the years it has been translated into many languages, movies, poems and stories.
• He dedicated his life for the development of Hindi literature.
• He was awarded the title of ‘Bhartendu’ in a scholar’s meeting held in Kashi in 1880.

Additional Information

• Kalidas is a pioneer of Sanskrit literature.
• Shakuntala and Meghdutum are his famous plays.
• Vikramorvasiyam is a five-act Sanskrit play by Kalidasa.
• It is based on the legend of the love of the mortal Pururavaas for the heavenly damsel Urvasi.
• Surdas was a late 15th-century blind saint, poet and musician, known for his devotional songs dedicated to Lord Krishna.
• Surdas is said to have written and composed a hundred thousand songs in his magnum opus the Sur Sagar, out of which only about 8,000 are extant.
• Premchand was born as Dhanpat Rai Shrivastava and wrote under the pen name of “Premchand”.
• Munshi Premchand is the author of the novel Godaan.
• The novel is themed around the socio economic deprivation as well as the exploitation of the village poor.

The correct answer is Cassini.

Key Points

• Cassini was a joint endeavor of NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Italian space agency, Agenzia Spaziale Italiana (ASI).
• It was a robotic spacecraft orbiting Saturn and studying the Saturnian system in detail.
• It also carried a probe called Huygens, which parachuted to the surface of Saturn’s largest moon, Titan, in January 2005 and returned results.
• Cassini completed its initial four-year mission to explore the Saturn System in June 2008, and the first extension, called the Cassini Equinox Mission, in September 2010.
• On Sept. 15, 2017, the spacecraft made its final approach to Saturn.
• Cassini dived into the planet's atmosphere, sending science data for as long as its small thrusters could keep the spacecraft's antenna pointed at Earth. Soon after, Cassini burned up and disintegrated like a meteor.

Additional Information

• Sputnik 1 was the first probe to go into space.
• It was launched on Oct. 4, 1957, by the former Soviet Union.
• The twin Voyager 1 and 2 spacecraft are exploring where nothing from Earth has flown before. 
• In August 2012, Voyager 1 made the historic entry into interstellar space, the region between stars, filled with material ejected by the death of nearby stars millions of years ago.
• The primary mission was the exploration of Jupiter and Saturn.
• After making a string of discoveries such as active volcanoes on Jupiter's moon Io and intricacies of Saturn's rings, the mission was extended.
• ​New Horizons is a NASA mission to study the dwarf planet Pluto, its moons, and other objects in the Kuiper Belt.
• New Horizons was the first spacecraft to encounter Pluto, a relic from the formation of the solar system.

The correct answer is Hygrometer.

• A hygrometer is an instrument used to measure relative humidity.
• A psychrometer is an example of a hygrometer.
• A psychrometer uses two thermometers to measure relative humidity, one measures the dry-bulb temperature, and the other measures the wet-bulb temperature.
• Humidity is the measure of the amount of moisture in the air.

Important Points

Key Points

• Hydrometer operates based on the Archimedes principle that a solid body displaces its own weight within a liquid in which it floats.
• A pyrometer is an instrument that measures temperature remotely by measuring the intensity of radiation from the object, without having to be in contact.
• It has two categories - optical pyrometers and infrared/radiation pyrometers.
• The specific gravity of milk is determined using the lactometer, an instrument which sinks to a definite point in pure milk.
• It consists of a test-tube and a meter blub.
• The most abundant proteins in bovine milk are caseins and some of the whey proteins, namely beta-lactoglobulin, alpha-lactalbumin, and serum albumin.

The correct answer is (a) - iv, (b) - iii, (c) - ii, (d) - i.

Key Points

The table below is correctly matched:

Additional Information 

• Ustad Qamruddin Bismillah Khan, often referred to by the title Ustad, was an Indian musician credited with popularizing the shehnai, a subcontinental wind instrument of the oboe class.
• Pandit Shivkumar Sharma is an Indian music composer and Santoor player from the state of Jammu and Kashmir. The Santoor is a folk instrument.

The correct answer is A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2.

Important Points

• 52nd Amendment Act:
• The Tenth Schedule was inserted into the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act.
• It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House.
• 73rd Amendment Act:
• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India.
• This part is entitled ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O.
• The Act gives constitutional status to the Panchayati raj institutions.
• 61st Amendment Act:
• It reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
• This came into force on March 28, 1989.
• 86th Amendment Act:
• ​Elementary Education was made a fundamental right – Free and compulsory education to children between 6 and 14 years.
• A new Fundamental Duty under Article 51 A was added – “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years”.

The correct answer is Belgaum.

The only Session of the Indian National Congress which was presided by Mahatma Gandhi was held at Belgaum.

Key Points

• 1924 Congress Session
• It was the 39th session.
• It was held on 26 & 27 December 1924.
• Gandhiji visited Belagam three times.
• He attended the Bombay provincial conference of the Home Rule League in 1916.
• He spent 10 days in the Khadi and Village Industries Centre in Hudali village in 1937.

Additional Information

• The 1924 Belgaum (now Belgavi) session of the Indian National Congress was featured in Karnataka’s tableau that was roll down the Rajpath on the Republic Day parade 2019.

The correct answer is Nuclear Fusion.

Key Points

• Nuclear fusion
• It is the nuclear reaction in which two or more atomic nuclei are combined to form one or more different atomic nuclei and subatomic particles.
• Sun and other stars generate light and heat by nuclear fusion.
• A hydrogen bomb is an immensely powerful bomb whose destructive power comes from the rapid release of energy during the nuclear fusion of isotopes of hydrogen (deuterium and tritium), using an atom bomb as a trigger.
• The principle behind the hydrogen bomb is based on uncontrollable nuclear fusion. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• A nuclear bomb based on the fission of uranium is placed at the core of the hydrogen bomb.
• So hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of Nuclear Fusion Reaction.
• A hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of nuclear fusion.

Important Points

• ​Nuclear fusion
• It is the process where the nuclei of two light atoms combine to form a new nucleus.
• A hydrogen bomb is considered to be 1,000 times more powerful than an atomic bomb.
• Hydrogen bombs cause a bigger explosion.
• As shock waves, blasts, heat, and radiation all have a larger reach than an atomic bomb.

Additional Information

• A nuclear explosion
• It is an explosion that occurs as a result of the rapid release of energy from a high-speed nuclear reaction.
• Atmospheric nuclear explosions are associated with mushroom clouds, although mushroom clouds can occur with large chemical explosions.
• A chain reaction
• It refers to a process in which neutrons released in fission produce additional fission in at least one further nucleus.
• If each neutron releases two more neutrons, then the number of fissions doubles each generation.

The correct answer is 4.

Important Points

• Based on historical seismic activity, the Bureau of Indian Standards has categorized regions in India into four seismic zones: zones II, III, IV and V.
• Of these, the most seismically active area is Zone V and the least active is Zone II.
• There is a history of devastating earthquakes on the Indian subcontinent.
• The key cause for the high frequency and severity of earthquakes is that the Indian plate is driving into Asia at a rate of roughly 47 mm/year.
• India's geological figures indicate that about 54 percent of the land is prone to earthquakes.
• Research by the World Bank and the United Nations predicts that by 2050, about 200 million urban dwellers in India will be vulnerable to storms and earthquakes.
• The most recent edition of India's seismic zoning map given in India's earthquake-resistant design code [IS 1893 (Part 1) 2002] assigns four degrees of seismicity in terms of zone factors for India.
• In other words, unlike its previous edition, which consisted of five or six zones for the region, India's earthquake zoning map divides India into four seismic zones (zones 2, 3, 4, and 5).
• According to the new zoning map, the maximum degree of seismicity is predicted in Zone 5, while the lowest level of seismicity is correlated with Zone 2.
• ​Additional Information:
• In late 2025, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) released a major revision to the national seismic hazard map (under the new Earthquake Design Code, 2025).
• This update officially introduced Zone VI as the highest-risk category.
• However, later In March 2026, the government withdrew the 2025 seismic code
• The notification introducing Zone VI was cancelled
• India reverted back to the old 2016 code (IS 1893:2016)

Revised earthquake hazard zone map of India

The correct answer is II and III only.

Key Points

Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas:

• The Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) programme was started by the Government of India in 1984 when they established the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) to manage the LCA programme.
• It replaced the ageing Mig 21 fighter planes.
• The HAL Tejas is an Indian, single-engine, delta wing, light multirole fighter designed by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) under the Department of Defence Research and Development and manufactured by State-owned Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). Hence, statement II is correct.
• Recently, India’s Indigenous Light Combat Aircraft Tejas has added the capability of firing Israeli-origin Python-5 air-to-air missile (AAM) after concluding successful tests. 
• It is already integrated with Derby Beyond Visual Range (BVR) AAM. Hence, statement III is correct.

Features:

• The lightest, smallest and tailless multi-role supersonic fighter aircraft in its class.
• Designed to carry a range of air-to-air, air-to-surface, precision-guided, weapons.
• Air-to-air refuelling capability.
• The maximum payload capacity of 4000 kg.
• It can attend the maximum speed of Mach 1.8. Hence, the statement I is not correct.
• The range of the aircraft is 3,000km.

Additional Information

Python-5 Missile:

• It has been developed by the Israeli defence company Rafael Advanced Defense Systems. It is the newest member of the Python family.
• This fifth-generation air-to-air missile provides the pilot engaging an enemy aircraft with a revolutionary full sphere launch capability.
• It can be launched from very short to beyond-visual ranges with greater kill probability, and excellent resistance to countermeasures, irrespective of evasive target manoeuvers or deployment of countermeasures.
• It is a dual-use missile suitable for air-to-air and surface-to-air missions.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana:
• Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) was launched in 2015. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It is implemented by National Skill Development Corporation.
• Under this Scheme, Training and Assessment fees are completely paid by the Government.
• The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood.
• Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).
• Apart from providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), Training Centres shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Individuals with prior learning experience or skills shall be assessed and certified under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component of the Scheme.
• RPL aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the NSQF. Hence statement is correct.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

United News of India:

• United News of India (UNI) is a multilingual news agency in India.
• It was founded On 19 December 1959 as an English news agency.
• Its commercial operations started on 21 March 1961.
• It's headquarters is located in New Delhi.
• With its Univarta, a Hindi news service, UNI became one of the multilingual news services in the world.
• In 1992, it started its Urdu news service and hence became the first news agency to provide Urdu news.
• Currently, it is the second largest news agency in India, supplying news in English, Hindi, Urdu and Kannada languages.
• Its news bureaus are present in all state capitals and major cities of India.
• UNI is registered as a non-profit company under section 25 of the Indian Companies Act. It is owned by a group of newspapers that have bought shares to run them.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The Quit India movement, 1942:

• On 8th August 1942, Mahatma Gandhi gave a clarion call to end British rule and launched the Quit India Movement at the session of the All-India Congress Committee in Mumbai.
• Gandhiji gave the call “Do or Die” in his speech delivered at the Gowalia Tank Maidan, now popularly known as August Kranti Maidan.
• The Quit India movement of August 1942 marked the culmination of the Indian freedom struggle,
• It had the widest social base.
• Participation of Women to a large extent.​
• Participation from Rural India.
• Communal Harmony.
• Affected the entire country.

Phases:

• First Phase, urban revolt, marked by strikes, boy­cott and picketing, which were quickly suppressed. Gandhiji was soon imprisoned at Aga Khan Palace in Pune and almost all leaders were arrested.
• In the second phase, the focus shifted to the countryside, which witnessed a major peasant rebellion, marked by the destruction of communication sys­tems, such as railway tracks and stations, telegraph wires and poles, attacks on government buildings or any other visible symbol of colo­nial authority.
• The last phase witnessed the formation of national governments or parallel governments in isolated pockets (Ballia, Tamluk, Satara etc.)

Successes of the Movement:

• Underground activities were taken by leaders that included Ram Manohar Lohia, J.P. Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali, Biju Patnaik, Sucheta Kriplani, etc who later emerged as prominent leaders.
• Women took active participation in the movement. Female leaders like Usha Mehta helped set up an underground radio station which led to the awakening of the movement.
• A greater sense of unity and brotherhood emerged due to the Quit India Movement.
• Many students dropped out of schools and colleges, and people gave up their jobs and withdrew money from the banks.
• The movement revealed the people’s fighting spirit and their desperate longing for freedom.
• This movement thus served as an eye-opener to the British Government about India’s attitude to imperialism. The “Quit India Movement” of 1942 gave the death blow to British Rule.
• The August Revolution in India marked the culmination of the Indian Freedom Movement. Hence, (A) is true.
• While the Quit India campaign was crushed in 1944, with the British refusing to grant immediate independence, saying it could happen only after the war had ended, they came to the important realization that India was ungovernable in the long run due to the cost of World War II.
• It changed the nature of political negotiations with the British, ultimately paving the way for India's independence.
• After the Quit India movement, **it was only a matter of time before the mechanics of the transfer of power were determined. *Hence (R) is a true and correct explanation of (A).***​​

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

Ministry of Defence:

• The Government of India is responsible for ensuring the defence of India and every part thereof. The responsibility for national defence rests with the Cabinet.
• This is discharged through the Ministry of Defence, which provides the policy framework and wherewithal to the Armed Forces to discharge their responsibilities in the context of the defence of the country.
• The Raksha Mantri (Defence Minister) is the head of the Ministry of Defence.
• The principal task of the Defence Ministry is to obtain policy directions of the Government on all defence and security-related matters and communicate them for implementation to the Services Headquarters, Inter-Services Organisations, Production Establishments and Research and Development Organisations.
• It is also required to ensure effective implementation of the Government's policy directions and the execution of approved programmes within the allocated resources.

Departments under the Ministry of defence:

• The Department of Defence (DoD)
• The Department of Military Affairs (DMA)
• The Department of Defence Production (DDP)
• The Department of Defence Research and Development (DDR&D)
• The Department of Ex-Servicemen Welfare (DESW). Hence, options 2, 3 and 4 are departments under the Defence ministry while option 1 is not a department.

The correct answer is Sukhoi 30 MKI.

Key Points

Sukhoi 30 MKI:

• Sukhoi Su-30MKI is a  twinjet multirole air superiority fighter developed by Russia's Sukhoi Sukhoi Aviation Corporation and built under licence by India's Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
• It is a variant of the Sukhoi Su-30 and is a heavy, all-weather, long-range fighter.
• There are many variants of Sukhoi-30 aircraft, and the variant used by Indian Air Force is Sukhoi 30 MKI.
• Sukhoi 30 MKI is the backbone of the Indian Air Force.
• Sukhoi 30 jets have been modified to carry BrahMos air-to-surface missiles giving them the capacity to conduct long-range precision strikes.
• It was for the first time in the world that such a heavyweight missile was integrated into a fighter aircraft.
• Brahmos is the heaviest weapon to be deployed on Su-30 MKI fighter aircraft, with a weight of 2.5 tonnes.
• Su-30 MKI fighter aircraft:
• Range – 3000 Km
• Maximum Speed – Mach 2.
• Engine – Saturn AL-31FL
• 12 Hardpoints – Sukhoi 30 can carry different weapons and bombs in the 12 Hardpoints.
• Radar – Bars Planar Array Radar

Additional Information

Tejas:

• It is the lightest, smallest and tailless multi-role supersonic fighter aircraft in its class.
• It is designed to carry a range of air-to-air, air-to-surface, precision-guided, weapons.
• It replaced the ageing Mig 21 fighter planes.
• The Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) programme was started by the Government of India in 1984 when they established the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) to manage the LCA programme.

Mirage 2000:

• The Dassault Mirage 2000 is a French multirole, single-engine fourth-generation fighter jet manufactured by Dassault Aviation.
• While earlier Mirage 2000 was designed as a lightweight fighter, it later evolved into a multirole aircraft with several variants developed.
• It was used for dropping laser-guided bombs on peaks occupied by Pakistani intruders during the Kargil War in 1999.

Jaguar:

• The SEPECAT Jaguar is an Anglo-French jet attack aircraft originally used by the British Royal Air Force and the French Air Force in the close air support and nuclear strike role.
• It is still in service with the Indian Air Force.
• Originally conceived in the 1960s as a jet trainer with a light ground attack capability, the requirement for the aircraft soon changed to include supersonic performance, reconnaissance and tactical nuclear strike roles.

The correct answer is Datia.

Key Points

• On April 21, 2022, Prime Minister Narendra Modi honoured Datia district administration with the Prime Minister's Award for excellence in public administration.
• The objective of this program is to remove underweight, stunting and physical wasting in children and to treat anaemia in women.
• In Datia district, ‘Mera Bachha Abhiyan’ was started in a nutrition campaign through public participation.
• Along with this, the community was also motivated to provide food assistance to the families of malnourished children in the district under the theme 'Poshan Matka'.

The correct answer is Jamshedpur.

Key Points

• Jamshedpur steel plant does not function under the Steel Authority of India Limited
• Jamshedpur steel plant function under the tata iron and steel company limited.
• It was formed on 26^th August 1907.
• Jamshetji Tata was the founder of tata steel.
• Jamshedpur steel plant is a steel plant under the private sector.
• It is the largest steel plant in the private sector in India.

Important Points

• Steel Authority of India Limited is a state-owned steel-making company in India.
• It was formed in 1954.
• The headquarters is located in New Delhi.
• Steel Authority of India Limited owns 5 integrated steel plants in India, namely;
• Bhilai steel plant.
• Rourkela steel plant.
• Durgapur steel plant.
• Bokaro steel plant.
• Burnpur(Asansol) steel plant.

Additional Information

• Bhilai steel plant is in Chhattisgarh.
• It was established with the help of Russia.
• Rourkela steel plant is in Odisha.
• It was established with the help of Germany.
• Durgapur steel plant is in West Bengal.
• It was established with the help of Britain.

The correct answer is I, II and III.

Key Points

History of Cricket:

• Village cricket had developed by the middle of the 17th century and the first English “county teams” were formed in the second half of the century, as “local experts” from village cricket were employed as the earliest professionals.
• The first known game in which the teams use county names is in 1709.
• In the first half of the 18th Century cricket established itself as a leading sport in London and the south-eastern counties of England. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Its spread was limited by the constraints of travel, but it was slowly gaining popularity in other parts of England Women’s Cricket dates back to 1745, when the first known match was played in Surrey.
• In 1744, the first Laws of Cricket were written and subsequently amended in 1774, when innovations such as lbw, a 3rd stump, - the middle stump, and a maximum bat width were added. Hence, statement II is correct.
• The codes were drawn up by the “Star and Garter Club” whose members ultimately founded the famous Marylebone Cricket Club at Lord's in 1787.
• MCC immediately became the custodian of the Laws and has made revisions ever since then to the current day.
• The first Test match was played between Australia and England in Melbourne in 1877, with Australia winning. Hence, statement III is correct.
• When Australia again won at the Oval at Kennington, London, in 1882, the Sporting Times printed an obituary notice announcing that English cricket would be cremated and the ashes taken to Australia, thus creating the “play for the Ashes.”

Concept:

The earth's crust is made up of various types of rocks, differing from one another in texture, structure, colour, permeability, mode of occurrence, and degree of resistance to denudation.

Generally speaking, all rocks may be classified into three major groups:

• Igneous Rocks,
• Sedimentary Rocks,
• Metamorphic Rocks. 1. Igneous Rocks:
• Igneous rocks are formed by the cooling and solidification of molten rock (magma) from beneath the earth's crust.
• Example: Granite, Gabbro, Basalt, etc.

2. Sedimentary Rocks:

• Sedimentary rocks are formed by the process of weathering and cementation or precipitation on the Earth's surface.
• Example: Sandstones,Kankar, shales, limestones, Mudstones, laterite, etc 3. Metamorphic Rocks:
• Formed when rocks are subjected to high heat, high-pressure changes inside the Earth.
• Example: Gneissoid, slate, schist, marble, quartzite, etc.

The correct answer is IV.

Key Points

• Part IV  of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy.
• Article 36-51 comes under  Part IV of the Indian Constitution.
• Important Articles of DPSP:
• ​Article 40: Organization of village panchayats.
• Article 43A: Participation of workers in the management of industries.
• Article 45: Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years.
• Article 49: Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance.
• Article 50: Separation of judiciary from the executive.
• There are three types of Directive Principles of State Policy:
• ​Socialist.
• Gandhian.
• Liberal-Intellectual.

Important Points

• A new DPSP under Article 38 was added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, which requires the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities.
• The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21A.
• A new DPSP under Article 43B was added by the 97th Amendment Act of 2011 relating to co-operative societies.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Consumer price index.

Key Points

• Many developing countries use changes in the consumer price index (CPI) as their central measure of inflation.
• In India, CPI (combined) is declared as the new standard for measuring inflation (April 2014).
• CPI numbers are typically measured monthly, and with a significant lag, making them unsuitable for policy use.
• Inflation is the measured surge in the average prices of goods and services over a longer period in the economy.
• It is a macro term in which the impact of inflation on a large basket of goods is seen.
• As the value of money is decreased, the cumulative impact of inflation is reported as the buying power of money is reduced.

Important Points

• A wholesale price index (WPI) is an index that measures and monitors changes in the price of goods at stages prior to the retail level. This applies to goods sold in bulk and exchanged between companies or companies (instead of between consumers).
• The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a metric examining the weighted average of consumer goods and services basket prices such as transport, food and medical care.

The sun is in the east at the time of the morning.

Therefore, Om started walking in North direction initially. 

Hence, the correct answer is "option (3)".