Previous Year Paper

AFCAT 27 Aug 2022 (Shift 1) Memory Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2022

100 questions120 minutes
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Full Test (100 questions)

Question 1

Direction: Below each of the following underlined idioms or phrases four possible substitutes (words or group of words) are given. Select the one which is most nearly the same as the given idiom or phrase.

Hit the hay

  1. AOption (a)

    Feed the cattle

  2. BOption (b)

    Go to sleep

  3. COption (c)

    Burn the hay

  4. DOption (d)

    Lose the sheep

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Go to sleep

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Go to sleep."

Key Points

  • To hit the hay means to go to bed.
  • e.g. Johnny decided it was time to hit the hay.
  • The phrase comes from the old bed mattresses, which used to be filled with hay, or dried grass.
  • 'To hit the haystack' is another phrase that has the same meaning.

Question 2

Select the correct meaning of the given idiom-

To pull one's punches

  1. AOption (a)

    be less forceful

  2. BOption (b)

    pull someone's punches

  3. COption (c)

    throw the punches

  4. DOption (d)

    having strong power

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

be less forceful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "be less forceful"

Key Points

  • The meaning of the given idiom "To pull one's punches" is "be less forceful, severe, or violent than one could be."
  • Let's see an example-
  • I want your honest opinion of my story don't pull your punches!
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. "be less forceful"

Question 3

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Temporal

  1. AOption (a)

    Worldly

  2. BOption (b)

    Secular

  3. COption (c)

    Earthly

  4. DOption (d)

    Religious

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Religious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Religious".

Key Points

  • Let's see the meanings of the given words-
  • Temporal- relating to worldly as opposed to spiritual affairs; secular.(आध्यात्मिक मामलों के विपरीत सांसारिक से संबंधित; धर्मनिरपेक्ष।)
  • Worldly-  relating to or consisting of physical things and ordinary life rather than spiritual things. (आध्यात्मिक चीजों के बजाय भौतिक चीजों और सामान्य जीवन से संबंधित।)
  • Secular- not connected with religious or spiritual matters.(धार्मिक या आध्यात्मिक मामलों से जुड़ा नहीं है।)
  • Earthly- relating to the earth or human life.(पृथ्वी या मानव जीवन से संबंधित।)
  • Religious- relating to or believing in a religion.(किसी धर्म से संबंधित या विश्वास करने वाला।)
  • Hence, according to the meanings of the given words, the correct answer is Option 4 i.e. Religious.

Question 4

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence which is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence. 

Le Corbusier was born in a small town____________. All his life he was marked by the harshness of these surroundings and the puritanism of a Protestant environment.

P) in the mountainous Swiss Jura region

Q) since the 18th century the

R) world’s center of

S) precision watchmaking.

  1. AOption (a)

    PQRS

  2. BOption (b)

    QPRS

  3. COption (c)

    RPQS

  4. DOption (d)

    SPQR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

PQRS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is PQRS.

Key Points

  • The given question is an example of sentence rearrangement.
  • The first sentence should begin with Segment P as it tells the information about the Subject (Le Corbusier's birthplace).
  • Moreover, The next sentence has two clauses that segments Q and R are connected to each other.
  • If we read carefully, Segment Q is starting with time denoting the word 'since' and ends with an article 'the' which we use before the definite article noun (ie. world).
  • Thus, Segment Q is connected with R.
  • Out of the given options, only option 1 contains Segment P as the starting segment, thereby, making it the correct answer.

 

Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option 1.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the sentence rearrangements:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs.
  • Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 5

Directions

Select the segment of the sentence that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error mark 'No error' as your answer.

The blast wave they generate is significantly longer in duration and sometimes more powerful than conventional explosives.

  1. AOption (a)

    The blast wave they generate is significantly longer

  2. BOption (b)

    in duration and sometimes more powerful

  3. COption (c)

    than conventional explosives.

  4. DOption (d)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

than conventional explosives.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. error lies in 'than conventional explosives.'

Key Points

  • In Option 3, The usage 'than' is incorrect Instead, use 'than that of'
  • According to the rule, to compare the same kinds of things use 'that of' after 'than'
  • Let's see an example:
  • The climate of Mumbai is more humid than that of Chennai. (In this sentence 'that of' is used for the climate of Chennai.)

So the correct sentence is:

The blast wave they generate is significantly longer in duration and sometimes more powerful than that of conventional explosives.

Question 6

In the following question, there is a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed by four other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best expresses the relationship like the original pair.

Xylem : Water:: Phloem: ______

  1. AOption (a)

    Food

  2. BOption (b)

    Photosynthesis

  3. COption (c)

    Carbon Dioxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Gasses

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Food

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Food"

Key Points

  • In the given analogy, Xylem and phloem facilitate the transportation of water, minerals, and food throughout the plant. Where Xylem corresponds to "water" and "Phloem" corresponds to "food".
  • "Xylem" is the specialized tissue of vascular plants that transports water and "phloem", is a plant vascular tissue that conducts foods made in the leaves during photosynthesis to all other parts of the plant.
  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. "Food"

Question 7

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Archaic

  1. AOption (a)

    Modern

  2. BOption (b)

    Outdated

  3. COption (c)

    Obsolete

  4. DOption (d)

    Frivolous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Modern

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Modern'. 

Key Points

  • Let us look at the meanings of the given word and the correct answer. 
  • Archaic: extremely old or old-fashioned.
  • Example: He often uses archaic words in his speeches.
  • Modern: of or relating to present and recent time.
  • Example: We need to be updated with the modern technology.
  • Thus, the word 'modern' is the most appropriate antonym of 'archaic'.
  • Hence, option 1) is the correct answer.
<br>

Additional Information

WordMeaning
Outdatedno longer current
E.g., Don't show us outdated designs.
Obsoleteno longer in use or no longer useful
E.g., Nowadays, you won't find an obsolete typewriter easily.
Frivolousof little weight or importance
E.g., You must not indulge in frivolous activities.

Question 8

Directions

Select the appropriate word from four alternatives provided to fill in the blanks

The petition before the Court prayed for ______ the appointment orders issued by the management.

  1. AOption (a)

    granting

  2. BOption (b)

    removing

  3. COption (c)

    dismissing

  4. DOption (d)

    quashing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

quashing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'quashing'.

Key Point

  • Let us look into the meaning of the given options - 
  • granting - agree to give or allow (something requested) to.
  • removing - take (something) away or off from the position occupied.
  • dismissing - order or allow to leave; send away.
  • quashing - reject as invalid, especially by legal procedure.
  • The given blank should use a word that would explain how the petition wanted the Court to stop certain orders legally.
  • From the above meanings, it is clear that 'quashing' is the best-fit word for the given blank.
  • Hence, option 4 is the correct answer. 

Complete sentence - The petition before the Court prayed for quashing the appointment orders issued by the management.

Question 9

Directions

Find the synonym of the given word?

PLACATE

  1. AOption (a)

    To worship

  2. BOption (b)

    To laugh

  3. COption (c)

    To force

  4. DOption (d)

    To pacify

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To pacify

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'To pacify.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'Placate' means to make somebody feel less angry about something. (किसी को शांत करना)
  • Example: The apology did little to placate customers.
  • ​Let's see the meaning of the given options:-
  • 'To worship' means to love or admire somebody or something very much. (व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु से अत्‍यधिक प्रेम करना या उसकी प्रशंसा तथा आदर करना, पूजना)
  • Example: They go to church every Sunday to worship their god.
  • 'To laugh' means to make the sounds that show you are happy or amused. (हँसना, हँस कर प्रसन्‍नता अभिव्‍यक्त करना)
  • Example: It is a great art to laugh at your own misfortune.
  • 'To force' means to make someone do something against their will. (किसी को उसकी इच्छा के विरुद्ध कुछ करने के लिए प्रेरित करना)
  • Example: The company tries to force workers to do free work on the weekends even though it is illegal.
  • 'To pacify' means to make somebody who is angry or upset be calm or quiet. (किसी नाराज़ या परेशान व्‍यक्ति को शांत एवं स्थिर करना)
  • Example: No words availed to pacify him.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Placate' are "pacify, appease, console".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Placate' are "provoke, aggravate, annoy".

Question 10

In the following question, a sentence or a phrase is given which can be substituted by one word. Choose the most appropriate word explaining the sentence or the phrase from the given option.

An amusing and interesting story

  1. AOption (a)

    Poesy

  2. BOption (b)

    Legend

  3. COption (c)

    Ballsy

  4. DOption (d)

    Anecdote

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Anecdote

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Anecdote.'

Key Points 

  • Anecdote means "a short interesting story about a real person or event (किसी व्‍यक्ति या घटना के विषय में रोचक लघुकथा; कि़स्‍सा चुटकला, लतीफा)".
  • ​Example: All the anecdotes are not equally compelling and this should not be a surprise.
  • From the above explanation, it can be concluded that 'Anecdote' is the correct word to substitute for the given description.

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

  • Poesy means the art or composition of poetry (कला या कविता की रचना).
  • Legend means an old story that may or may not be true (प्राचीन कथा जिसका सत्‍य या असत्‍य होना प्रासंगिक नहीं; आख्‍यान, किंवदंती, दंतकथा, लोककथा).
  • Ballsy means determined and courageous (दृढ़ निश्चयी और साहसी).

Question 11

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence that is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence. 

Almaty, formerly Alma-Ata, southeastern Kazakhstan.________________. With the coming of the railroad in 1930, its population grew rapidly.

P) The modern city was founded in 1854 

Q) Formerly the capital of Kazakhstan, it lost its capital status in 1995 to Aqmola (now Astana).

R) when the Russians established a military fortification

S) on the site of the ancient city of Almaty, destroyed by the Mongols in the 13th century.

  1. AOption (a)

    QPRS

  2. BOption (b)

    PQRS

  3. COption (c)

    SPQR

  4. DOption (d)

    RPQS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QPRS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is QPRS.

Key Points 

  • The given question is an example of sentence rearrangement.
  • The first sentence should begin with Segment Q as it tells the information about the Subject (Almaty).
  • Moreover, The next sentence has two clauses that segments P and R are connected to each other.
  • If we read carefully, Segment R is starting with 'when' which shows that 'Almaty city was founded when the Russians established a military fortification;'
  • Thus, Segment P is connected with R.
  • Option 4 seems correct but it can not be the answer as Segment R would come right after 'P' but here it comes before 'P' thus making it incorrect.
  • Option 3 becomes redundant as it is starting with segment S  which indicates the previous happening.
  • Out of the given options, only option 1 contains Segment Q as the starting segment, thereby, making it the correct answer.

 

Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option 1.

Question 12

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Using or expressing something in more words than are needed

  1. AOption (a)

    Verbatim

  2. BOption (b)

    Verbal

  3. COption (c)

    Verbose

  4. DOption (d)

    Reprimand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Verbose

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. verbose.

Key Points

  • The phrase using or expressing something in more words than are needed refers to the act of being overly wordy or detailed in speech or writing. (अतिरिक्त शब्दों का प्रयोग)
  • Example: His explanations are so verbose that they often confuse more than clarify.
  • Verbose means using or expressed in more words than are necessary; wordy. (शब्दबाहुल्य)
  • Example: The professor's lectures were so verbose that students found it hard to stay focused.
  • Hence, the best substitute for the phrase is verbose.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. verbose.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Verbatim (शब्दशः): In exactly the same words as were used originally.
  • Example: He repeated the speech verbatim, without altering a single word.
  • Verbal (मौखिक): Relating to or in the form of words.
  • Example: He issued verbal instructions to his team.
  • Reprimand (निंदा करना): An official rebuke or expression of disapproval.
  • Example: The manager gave a formal reprimand to the employee for his tardiness.

Question 13

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence that is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence. 

Maps that William Clark made ___________ showed how to reach the Pacific Ocean by a combination of waterways and land routes.

P) showing the geography of the West

Q) were published in 1810 and 1814.

R) The expedition did not find an all-water route across the continent, but the maps 

S) These remained the best maps of the region until the 1840s.

  1. AOption (a)

    QPSR

  2. BOption (b)

    RQPS

  3. COption (c)

    SQPR

  4. DOption (d)

    PQSR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

PQSR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is PQSR.

Key Points

  • The given question is an example of sentence rearrangement.
  • The first sentence should begin with Segment P as it tells the information about what was made. i.e. the geography of the west map
  • For further clarification, lets break the sentence,
  • 'Maps + that William Clark made + showing the geography of the west.'
  • Although, option 1 seems correct but the 'segment Q' would come after 'P' as 'made' qualify the 'maps' then we will introduce it when it was made.
  • Segment P is connected with Q.
  • Option 3 becomes redundant as it is starting with segment S 'these' which indicates previous happening without introducing the maps.
  • Out of the given options, only option 4 contains Segment P as the starting segment, thereby, making it the correct answer.
  • Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 14

Direction: Find the error in the following sentence. A part of the following sentence contains an error. Select the correct option to replace the incorrect part.

In this hard time, utilise a little money you have in a proper manner now.

  1. AOption (a)

    utilise the little money

  2. BOption (b)

    In this urgent time

  3. COption (c)

    you had in a proper manner

  4. DOption (d)

    hard times

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

utilise the little money

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'utilise the little money.'

Key Points

  • The error lies in the part (utilise a little money) of the sentence.
  • The word "little" means a bit of or hardly any amount.
  • Example: We have little time left to finish the task.
  • ​The term "a little" means some or a small quantity.
  • Example: There’s a little chance that the boy will win.
  • 'The little' means 'not much but all of that much available'.
  • ​Example: She drank off the little milk she had.
  • In the given sentence, the speaker is advising the person to use the money (not much but all of that much available) in a proper manner.
  • Therefore, the use of the phrase "utilise a little money" should be replaced with the phrase "utilise the little money" to make the sentence grammatically correct.

​Correct sentence: In this hard time, utilise the little money you have in a proper manner now.

Question 15

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Kick the bucket

  1. AOption (a)

    Be angry

  2. BOption (b)

    Die

  3. COption (c)

    Be rude

  4. DOption (d)

    Arrive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Die

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Die.

Key Points

  • The idiom ' kick the bucket ' means to die and is normally used in very informal contexts. 
  • Example: The old man kicked the bucket, a few hours ago.
  • It may also be used when a machine has broken down in such a way that it cannot be repaired.

Therefore, we can say that the correct answer is 'Die'.

Additional Information

  • Let us see the meaning of other words:
Be Angryfull of anger
Be rudeoffensively impolite or bad-mannered.
Arrivereach a place at the end of a journey

Question 16

Directions

Select the appropriate word from four alternatives provided to fill in the blanks

Rights _______ automatically to him who duly performs his duties.

  1. AOption (a)

    belong

  2. BOption (b)

    transfer

  3. COption (c)

    issue

  4. DOption (d)

    accrue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

accrue

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'accrue'.

Key Points 

  • Let us look into the meaning of the given options - 
  • belong- be the property of.
  • transfer - move from one place to another.
  • issue - an important topic or problem for debate or discussion.
  • accrue - (of a benefit) be received by someone in regular or increasing amounts over time.
  • The given blank should use a word that would explain how the person who performs their duty benefits.
  • From the above meanings, it is clear that **'**accrue' is the best-fit word for the given blank.
  • Hence, option 4 is the correct answer. 

Complete sentence - Rights accrue automatically to him who duly performs his duties.

Question 17

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Devolve

  1. AOption (a)

    Delegate

  2. BOption (b)

    Centralize

  3. COption (c)

    Retain

  4. DOption (d)

    Incline

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Delegate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Delegate"

Key Points

  • Let's see the meanings of the given words-
  • Devolve- transfer or delegate (power) to a lower level, especially from central government to local or regional administration. (स्थानांतरण या प्रतिनिधि (शक्ति) निचले स्तर पर, विशेष रूप से केंद्र सरकार से स्थानीय या क्षेत्रीय प्रशासन को।)
  • Delegate- entrust (a task or responsibility) to another person, typically one who is less senior than oneself. (किसी अन्य व्यक्ति को सौंपना (एक कार्य या जिम्मेदारी), आमतौर पर वह जो स्वयं से कम वरिष्ठ हो)
  • Centralize- concentrate (control of an activity or organization) under a single authority.(एक ही प्राधिकरण के तहत ध्यान केंद्रित (किसी गतिविधि या संगठन का नियंत्रण)।)
  • Retain- continue to have (something); keep possession of.(जारी रखना (कुछ); कब्जा रखना।)
  • Incline- be favorably disposed towards or willing to do something. (कुछ करने के लिए अनुकूल या इच्छुक होना।)
  • Hence, according to the meanings of the given words, the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. "Delegate"

Question 18

Choose the word that is the correct substitute for the given group of words

A person with bad habits or faults which cannot be changed or corrected

  1. AOption (a)

    Infallible

  2. BOption (b)

    Incurable

  3. COption (c)

    Insertable

  4. DOption (d)

    Incorrigible

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Incorrigible

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Incorrigible​'

Key Points

  • Let's see the meanings of the given words-
  • Infallible- incapable of making mistakes or being wrong.
  • Incurable- (of a sick person or a disease) is not able to be cured.
  • Insertable- capable of being inserted.
  • Incorrigible- (of a person or their behaviour) not able to be changed or reformed.
  • Hence, according to the meanings of the given words, the correct answer is Option 4 i.e.' Incorrigible '

Question 19

Directions

Select the appropriate word from four alternatives provided to fill in the blanks

In the departmental inquiry, it was denied that the police had committed any _______ on people under their custody.

  1. AOption (a)

    Injuries

  2. BOption (b)

    crime

  3. COption (c)

    Blunder

  4. DOption (d)

    excesses

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

excesses

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'excesses'.

 

Key Points

  • The word "excesses" refers to actions or behaviors that go beyond what is acceptable or normal. (अत्याचार)
  • In this context, it implies misconduct or improper actions by the police under their custody.
  • The other options do not fit the context as appropriately: "injuries" refers to physical harm, "crime" implies a legal violation, and "blunder" refers to a mistake.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: In the departmental inquiry, it was denied that the police had committed any excesses on people under their custody.

Additional Information

  • Injuries (चोटें): refers to physical harm or damage to a person's body.
  • Crime (अपराध): refers to an illegal act or offense.
  • Blunder (गड़बड़): refers to a serious mistake or error.

Question 20

Choose the word almost nearest in the meaning to the word given below.

Placid

  1. AOption (a)

    Clear

  2. BOption (b)

    Calm

  3. COption (c)

    Enjoyable

  4. DOption (d)

    Noise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Calm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Calm'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given word and the correct option:
  • Placid- having a calm appearance or characteristics (एक शांत उपस्थिति होना)
  • Example: She was a very placid child who slept all night and hardly ever cried.
  • ​Calm- peaceful, quiet, and without worry (शांतिपूर्ण, शांत और बिना किसी चिंता के)
  • Example: He has a very calm manner.
  • ​Therefore, the word almost nearest in meaning to the word given is 'Calm'.
<br>

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the other words and their meanings that are given in the options:
WordMeaningExample
Cleareasy to understand, hear, read, or see. (समझने में आसान)Our new television has a very clear picture.
EnjoyableAn enjoyable event or experience gives you pleasure. (कोई सुखद घटना या अनुभव आपको खुशी देता है।)a very enjoyable game/movie.
Noisea sound or sounds, especially when it is unwanted, unpleasant, or loud. (शोर)I heard a loud noise and ran to the window.

Read the following passage:

Landslides (X)_ reported in several parts of the state, of which the one at Koottickal in Kottayam has claimed more than seven lives. “These disasters were caused (Y)_ to higher economic activities like rock quarrying, construction (Z)_ new buildings and roads, and destruction of natural forest in the highly economic zones.

Question 21

Select the most appropriate word from the options against (X)_ .

  1. AOption (a)

    were

  2. BOption (b)

    was

  3. COption (c)

    is

  4. DOption (d)

    have

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

were

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'were'

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, 'Landslides (X)_ reported in several parts of the state, of which the one at Koottickal in Kottayam has claimed more than seven lives.' is telling about the landslide which has occured in past hours/or days.
  • More over, Landslides is a plural noun and the sentence is in past tense thus, we use 'were'.
  • We use the sentence form(was/were + V3).
  • The 'simple past tense' describes actions or events happened or occurred in past.
  • Example:
  • My parents were deeply grieved and perplexed.
  • When the kids were settled in their room, she turned on Arun.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.
  • The correct sentence is: Landslides were reported in several parts of the state, of which the one at Koottickal in Kottayam has claimed more than seven lives.

Question 22

Select the most appropriate word from the options against (Y)_ .

  1. AOption (a)

    used

  2. BOption (b)

    need

  3. COption (c)

    due

  4. DOption (d)

    in a view

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

due

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'due.'

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, 'These disasters were caused (Y)_ to higher economic activities'
  • Also, the use of the ''to'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'due' in the blank is appropriate.
  • Due to: as a result of
  • Rule:
  • This phrase is used to modify the nouns. In other words, 'due to' is used to present the reason for a noun.
  • Example: The traffic jam was due to a terrible accident at the intersection.
  • In the above-mentioned sentence, the phrase 'due to' has been used to present the reason for the noun 'traffic jam.'
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'Due'.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
  • The correct sentence is: These disasters were caused due to higher economic activities.

Question 23

Select the most appropriate word from the options against (Z)_ .

  1. AOption (a)

    for

  2. BOption (b)

    of

  3. COption (c)

    can

  4. DOption (d)

    may

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

of

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'of.'

Key Points

  • Let's look at the sentence, construction (Z)_ new buildings and roads, and destruction of natural forest in the highly economic zones.
  • The most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'of' because we follow the pattern 'construction + of + something.'
  • We use 'of' when we want to show that people or things relate to other things or people.
  • For example, when we want to say that something or someone belongs to or is a part of something or someone else, we can do it like this: Savita stared at the floor of her room.
  • Moreover, 'Of' is a preposition.
  • 'Of' commonly introduces prepositional phrases which are complements of nouns, creating the pattern: noun + of + noun.
  • This pattern is very common, especially to indicate different parts, pieces, amounts and groups: Lucknow is the capital of Uttar Pradesh.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'of'.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
  • The correct sentence is: construction of new buildings and roads, and destruction of natural forest in the highly economic zones.

Read the following passage:

The hydrogen wall has been described by scientists as the place (X)_ bubbles of solar wind cease to exist. The mass of interstellar matter here is very small (Y)_ strong enough to not let the solar winds pass through. At the same time, it is not so strong to burst (Z) the solar wind build-up. It acts like a wall pressing the solar winds inward.

Question 24

Select the most appropriate word from the options against (X)_ .

  1. AOption (a)

    when

  2. BOption (b)

    where

  3. COption (c)

    what

  4. DOption (d)

    why

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

where

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is where.

Key Points

  • The given sentence 'The hydrogen wall has been described by scientists as the place (X)_ bubbles of solar wind cease to exist.' is saying that the bubbles of solar wind exist in the hydrogen wall.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'where'.
  • Use of Where: 
  • We use 'where' as a conjunction meaning 'in the place that' or 'in situations that'. The clause with where is a subordinate clause and needs a main clause to complete its meaning.
  • Example:
  • Where you find a lot of water, you will also find these beautiful insects.
  • Where you have to pay a deposit, be sure to get a receipt.
  • We can also use 'where' as a relative pronoun:
  • The hotel where we spent our honeymoon has been demolished.
  • The hall where you’re giving your talk has a really good sound system.
  • Also, the use of the word ''exist'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'where' in the blank.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 25

Select the most appropriate word from the options against (Y)_ .

  1. AOption (a)

    since

  2. BOption (b)

    because

  3. COption (c)

    but

  4. DOption (d)

    in addition to

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

but

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​​but.

Key Points

  • The given sentence 'The mass of interstellar matter here is very small (Y)_ strong enough to not let the solar winds pass through.' is saying that though the mass of interstellar matter is small but very strong to not let pass through the solar winds.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'But'.
  • But is used for joining two ideas or statements when the second one is different from the first one, or seems surprising after the first one.
  • Example:
  • We’re making good progress, but we’ve still got a long way to go.
  • Sara is a highly intelligent girl, but she’s rather lazy.
  • A simple but effective way of filtering water
  • What we are about to do is perfectly legal. But please don’t discuss it with anyone.
  • But can be used in the following ways:
  • As a conjunction (connecting two phrases or clauses): Ram is 56 but he still goes swimming every day.
  • As a preposition (followed by a noun): There's been nothing but trouble since she came.
  • As an adverb: We can but hope that things will improve.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 26

Select the most appropriate word from the options against (Z) .

  1. AOption (a)

    into

  2. BOption (b)

    upon

  3. COption (c)

    through

  4. DOption (d)

    by

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

through

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is through.

Key Points

  • The given sentence, 'At the same time, it is not so strong to bust (Z) the solar wind build-up.' is saying that the mass of interstellar matter is not so strong that it can go through the solar wind.
  • Also, the use of the ''burst'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'through' in the blank because the 'burst through' is an idiom means "to go through something with force."
  • Burst Through: to break through or penetrate something with force.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is 'through'.
  • Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
  • The correct sentence is: At the same time, it is not so strong to burst through the solar wind build-up.

Additional Information

  • Through can also be used in the following ways:
  • as a preposition (followed by a noun): They were riding through a jungle.
  • as an adverb (without a following noun): There’s a hole in the tin-roof where the rain comes through.
  • as an adjective: a through bus

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options: 

Large-scale forest degradation and improper carbon sequestration are one of the causes of the recent flooding witnessed in most parts of Karnataka and Kerala over the last two years. Carbon sequestration is a natural/artificial process by which carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere and held in solid or liquid form. Researchers at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), in their latest study report, have found large-scale land cover shaved off, leading to deforestation with degradation, causing 20–25% of anthropogenic (human-related) carbon emissions, resulting in a regional impact on climate patterns. The loss of forest cover has also modified the local rainfall pattern. The study, ‘Carbon Sequestration Potential of the Forest Ecosystems in the Western Ghats: a Global Biodiversity Hotspot’, by researchers from the Centre for Ecological Sciences, IISc, on the fragile Western Ghats, investigated landscape dynamics with climate trends and carbon sequestration potential. The analysis indicated that the regions in the southern parts of Western Ghats (WG) in Kerala and part of Karnataka have witnessed large-scale climate changes. The central Western Ghats area (Karnataka) shows a very meager change in temperature (0.05 degrees Celsius increase), while the rainfall shows increasing trends close to 100 mm and increase in rainy days up to two days. The northern portion of the Western Ghats latitudes shows an increasing temperature of 0.5 degrees Celsius, four days increase in the number of rainy days, and an increase in rainfall by between 100 mm and just over 250 mm. These analyses demonstrate that land use has played a major role in moderating micro-climatic conditions in the Western Ghats over a temporal scale. The reduction in rainfall and an increase in temperature can affect carbon stock in the region.

Question 27

According to the passage, Select the correct statement/s-

a) The central Western Ghats area (Karnataka) shows a very meager change in temperature.

b) The analyses demonstrate that land use has played a major role in moderating micro-climatic conditions in the Western Ghats.

c) Kerala and part of Karnataka have witnessed large-scale climate changes.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only a

  2. BOption (b)

    Only b

  3. COption (c)

    Only c

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'All of the above.'

Key Points

  • The first statement (a) states that 'The central Western Ghats area (Karnataka) shows a very meager change in temperature.' which is true as it is mentioned in the passage.
  • Thus, this statement provides a solution to the problem expressed in the passage.
  • The second statement (b) is also given in the passage if we carefully read the last line of the passage, 'These analyses demonstrate that land use has played a major role in moderating micro-climatic conditions in the Western Ghats over a temporal scale.'
  • The third statement (c) is in line with the given passage as it claims that Kerala and part of Karnataka have witnessed large-scale climate changes.
  • Thus, from the above explanation it is clear that all of the above statements are correct.
  • Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 28

What will be the effect of the reduction in rainfall in the region?

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbon Stocking

  2. BOption (b)

    Increase in Temperature

  3. COption (c)

    Carbon Emission

  4. DOption (d)

    Loss of forest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Carbon Stocking

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 

Key Points

  • According to the passage, If we read the last line carefully *'*The reduction in rainfall and an increase in temperature can affect carbon stock in the region.' It clearly states that less rainfall and high temperature can impact the carbon stocking in the region.
  • From the above line, one can get the idea about Carbon Stocking,
  • The other given options do not substantiate the given passage as it is contradicts the given information.
  • Thus, It is clearly indicated that 'less rainfall and high temperature can impact the carbon stocking in the region.'
  • Hence, the most logical and rational inference that can be made is that option 1.

Question 29

According to the passage, what is the meaning of "Carbon Sequestration"?

  1. AOption (a)

    A process in which carbon dioxide is kept in only solid form.

  2. BOption (b)

    A process of removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and holding it in solid or liquid form.

  3. COption (c)

    A process of adding carbon-di-oxide to the atmosphere by taking it out from solid or liquid form.

  4. DOption (d)

    A process of removing moisture from carbon dioxide and keeping it in only liquid form.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A process of removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and holding it in solid or liquid form.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: A process of removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and holding it in solid or liquid form.

Key Points

  • According to the passage, If we read the second line carefully *'*Carbon sequestration is a natural/artificial process by which carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere and held in solid or liquid form.' It clearly state that about Carbon Sequestration.
  • From the above line, one can get the idea about Carbon Sequestration.
  • Expect option 2), all the other options do not substantiate the given passage as it is contradicting the given information.
  • Hence, the most logical and rational inference that can be made is that option 2

Question 30

The average age of a man and his son is 40 years. The ratio of their ages is 11 : 5 respectively. What is the son's age?

  1. AOption (a)

    25 years

  2. BOption (b)

    20 years

  3. COption (c)

    28 years

  4. DOption (d)

    14 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

25 years

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The average age of a man and his son is 40 years.

The ratio of their ages is 11 : 5 respectively.

Concept used:

Total = Mean × number of entities

Calculation:

Total age = Average age × number of people

Total age of man and his son = 40 × 2

⇒ 80 years

Ratio of their ages = 11 : 5

Let the ratio of age of man and son be 11x : 5x

⇒ 11x + 5x = 80

⇒ x = 5 years

Age of son = 5x

⇒ 5 × 5

⇒ 25 years

∴ The son's age is 25 years.

Question 31

Which one among the following is the largest?

  1. AOption (a)

    7/9

  2. BOption (b)

    11/14

  3. COption (c)

    3/4

  4. DOption (d)

    10/13

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

11/14

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

<br>

Alternate Method

Converting the fractions into decimals;

7/9 = 0.77

11/14 = 0.78

3/4 = 0.75

10/13 = 0.76

⇒ 0.78 > 0.77 > 0.76 > 0.75

⇒ 11/14 > 7/9 > 10/13 > 3/4

∴ The correct answer is (11/14).

Question 32

Out of four numbers, the average of the first three is 16 and that of the last three is 15. If the last number is 21 then the first number is:

  1. AOption (a)

    22

  2. BOption (b)

    21

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    28

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

24

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Average = Sum of observation / Number of observations

Shortcut Trick

The last 3 numbers total =  3 × 15 = 45

So the middle 2 numbers will add to 45 – 21 = 24

First 3 numbers total = 3 × 16 = 48

So the first number is 48 – 24 = 24

∴ The first number is 24

Alternate Method

There are four numbers A, B, C and D

Average of first 3 numbers = 16

Sum of first 3 numbers = 16 × 3 = 48

⇒ A + B + C = 48   --- (1)

Average of last 3 numbers = 15

Sum of last 3 numbers = 3 × 15 = 45

⇒ B + C + D = 45    --- (2)

Subtract equation (2) from equation (1)

⇒ A – D = 48 – 45

⇒ A – D = 3

⇒ A – 21 = 3       (∵ D = 21)

⇒ A = 3 + 21 = 24

∴ The first number is 24

Question 33

A Shopkeeper buys 2 dozen bananas at Rs.16 per dozen. After selling 18 bananas at the rate of Rs.12 per dozen, the shopkeeper reduced the rate to Rs.4 per dozen. Find the loss percentage.

  1. AOption (a)

    37 %

  2. BOption (b)

    37.5 %

  3. COption (c)

    38 % 

  4. DOption (d)

    38.5 %

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

37.5 %

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Shopkeeper buys 2 dozen bananas at Rs.16 per dozen

18 bananas were sold at 12 Rs/dozen

Remaining sold at 4 Rs/dozen

Concept:

1 dozen = 12 

Loss %  = (C.P - S.P) / C.P

Calculations:

C.P of 2 dozen bananas = 2 × 16 = 32 Rs.

(S.P)1 = 1812\frac{18}{12} × 12 = 18 Rs.

(S.P)2 = 612\frac{6}{12} × 4 = 2 Rs.

Total S.P = 18 + 2 = 20 Rs.

Loss = 32−2032×100\frac{32-20}{32}\times 100 = 37.5 %

∴ The loss percentage is 37.5 %.

Question 34

A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container, 4 litres of milk were taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now contained by the container?

  1. AOption (a)

    31.5 liter

  2. BOption (b)

    32 liter

  3. COption (c)

    29.16 liter

  4. DOption (d)

    28 liter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

29.16 liter

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Fraction of milk left after each operation = (40 − 4) ÷ 40 = 36 ÷ 40 = 9/10.

Total number of operations = 1 (initial) + 2 (further) = 3.

Final quantity of milk = Initial quantity × (Fraction left)3

⇒ 40 × (9/10) × (9/10) × (9/10) = 40 × (729/1000) = 29.16.

∴ The correct answer is 29.16 liter.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial quantity of milk (V) = 40 liter

Quantity of milk taken out and replaced (x) = 4 liter

Total number of operations (n) = 1 + 2 = 3 times

Formula Used:

Final Quantity = Initial Quantity × (1 − x/V)n

Calculations:

⇒ Final Quantity of milk = 40 × (1 − 4/40)3

⇒ Final Quantity of milk = 40 × (1 − 1/10)3

⇒ Final Quantity of milk = 40 × (9/10)3

⇒ Final Quantity of milk = 40 × (729 / 1000)

⇒ Final Quantity of milk = 4 × 729 / 100

⇒ Final Quantity of milk = 2916 / 100 = 29.16 liter

∴ The correct answer is 29.16 liter.

Additional Information

Replacement Formula

When 'x' units of mixture are taken out from 'V' units of pure liquid and replaced with water 'n' times, the remaining quantity of pure liquid is V × (1 − x/V)n.

Ratio of Remaining Liquid to Water

After 'n' replacements, the ratio of the pure liquid left to the added water is given by: Remaining Liquid ÷ (Total Volume − Remaining Liquid).

Successive Different Replacements

If different quantities a, b, c are replaced in successive steps, the final amount of pure liquid is V × (1 − a/V) × (1 − b/V) × (1 − c/V).

Question 35

Two dice are thrown together. What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the two faces is divisible by 4 or 6 (or both)?

  1. AOption (a)

    14\frac{1}{4}

  2. BOption (b)

    736\frac{7}{36}

  3. COption (c)

    536\frac{5}{36}

  4. DOption (d)

    718\frac{7}{18}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

718\frac{7}{18}

Why this answer is correct

Formula used: 

Probability of occurrence of the event:

P(E) =  n(E)n(S)\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}, Where,

n(E) = Number of favorable outcome

n(S) = Number of possible outcome

Dice: Small cube which has between 1 to 6 numbers on its sides.

Calculation:

Number of possible outcomes n(S) = 62 = 36

Multiples of 4 are 4, 8, 12

Multiples of 6 are 6, 12

Sum divisible by 4(1, 3), (2, 2), (3, 1)

Sum divisible by 6
(5, 1), (4, 2), (3, 3), (2, 4), (1, 5)

Sum divisible by 8
(4, 4), (5, 3), (3, 5), (6, 2), (2, 6)
Sum divisible by 12(6, 6)

 

Number of favourable outcomes n(E) = 14

∴ Required probability P(E) = 14 / 36 = 7/18

Question 36

The denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice the numerator. When both the numerator and denominator are decreased by 6, then the denominator becomes 12 times the numerator. Determine the fraction.

  1. AOption (a)

    187\frac{18}{7}

  2. BOption (b)

    167\frac{16}{7}

  3. COption (c)

    718\frac{7}{18}

  4. DOption (d)

    716\frac{7}{16}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

718\frac{7}{18}

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The denominator of a fraction is 4 more than twice the numerator.

If both the numerator and denominator are decreased by 6 then

The denominator becomes 12 times the numerator

Calculation:

Let the required fraction is p/q 

According to the question, 

q = 2p + 4       -----(1)

When both the numerator and denominator are decreased by 6,

New fraction = (p - 6)/(q - 6)

Again, according to the question,

(q - 6) = 12(p - 6)

⇒ q - 6 = 12p - 72

From equation (1)

⇒ (2p + 4) - 6 = 12p - 72    

⇒ 2p - 2 = 12p - 72

⇒ 10p = 70

⇒ p = 7

Again, from equation (1)

q = 2 × 7 + 4

⇒ q = 18

∴ The required fraction is 7/18.

Question 37

94 is divided into two parts in such a way that the fifth part of the first and the eighth part of the second are in the ratio 3 : 4 The first part is:

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    50

  4. DOption (d)

    64

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

30

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Convert the given fractional relation directly to a ratio: (3 × 5) : (4 × 8) = 15 : 32.

Total ratio parts = 15 + 32 = 47.

47 parts → 94 ⇒ 1 part → 2.

First part = 15 parts × 2 = 30.

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total value to be divided = 94.

Let the two parts be A and B.

Logic / Formula Used:

If a number N is divided in the ratio m : n, then First Part = N × [m ÷ (m + n)].

Calculations:

⇒ According to the question, (A ÷ 5) ÷ (B ÷ 8) = 3 ÷ 4

⇒ (A ÷ 5) × (8 ÷ B) = 3 ÷ 4

⇒ 8A ÷ 5B = 3 ÷ 4

⇒ A ÷ B = (3 × 5) ÷ (4 × 8)

⇒ A ÷ B = 15 ÷ 32

⇒ Ratio of A : B = 15 : 32

⇒ Sum of ratio terms = 15 + 32 = 47

⇒ First part A = 94 × (15 ÷ 47)

⇒ First part A = 2 × 15 = 30

∴ The correct answer is 30.

Additional Information

Dividing a Quantity in a Given Ratio

To divide a quantity N in the ratio a : b, the first part is calculated as (a ÷ (a + b)) × N and the second part as (b ÷ (a + b)) × N.

Compound Ratio

The compound ratio of two ratios a : b and c : d is given by (a × c) : (b × d). It involves multiplying the antecedent and consequent terms respectively to form a single combined ratio.

Proportion

If four numbers a, b, c, and d are in proportion (a : b = c : d), then the product of extremes equals the product of means (a × d = b × c).

Question 38

The area of a circular field is 13.86 hectares. Find the cost of fencing it at the rate of Rs. 4.40 per metre.

  1. AOption (a)

    2808

  2. BOption (b)

    3808

  3. COption (c)

    4808

  4. DOption (d)

    5808

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5808

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The area of a circular field is 13.86 hectares

Cost of fencing it at the rate of Rs.  per metre

Formula used:

Area of circle = π(radius)2

1 hectare = 10000 sq m

Calculation:

By using the above formula, the area of the field

⇒ πr2 = 13.86 × 10000

⇒ (22/7)r2 = 138600

⇒ r2 = (7/22) × 138600

⇒ r2 = 44100

⇒ r = 210 m

Length of circular field = 2πr

Length of circular field = 2 × (22/7) × 210 = 1320 m.

Hence, the cost of fencing it at the rate of Rs. 4.40 per meter

⇒ 1320 × 4.4 = 5808

∴ The cost of fencing is Rs. 5808.

Question 39

Machine P can print one lakh books in 8 hours, machine Q can print the same number of books in 10 hours while machine R can print them in 12 hours. All the machines are started at 9 A.M. while machine P is closed at 11 A.M. and the remaining two machines complete work. Approximately at what time will the work (to print one lakh books) be finished?

  1. AOption (a)

    11:30 A.M.

  2. BOption (b)

    12 noon

  3. COption (c)

    12:30 P.M.

  4. DOption (d)

    1:00 P.M.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1:00 P.M.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Machine P can print in 8 hours

Machine Q can print in 10 hours

machine R can print in 12 hours

Formula used:

Work done = Time taken × Efficiency

Time taken ∝ 1/Efficiency

Calculation:

The efficiency of P is 1/8

The efficiency of Q is 1/10

The efficiency of R is 1/12

Work done by P + Q + R in one hour

⇒ 1/8 + 1/10 + 1/12 = (15 + 12 + 10)/120

⇒ 37/120

P, Q and R work for two hours 9 A.M to 11 A.M

⇒ 37/120 × 2 = 37/60

Remaining work is

⇒ 1 - 37/60 = 23/60

⇒ Work done by Q and R in an hour

⇒ 1/10 + 1/12 = 11/60

Now time taken to complete the remaining work

⇒ (23/60) ÷ (11/60)

⇒ (23/60) × (60/11) = 23/11 ≈ 2 hours

So add 2 hours in 11 A.M we get 1 P.M

∴ The correct answer is 1 P.M

TimeTotal work (LCM of time)Efficiency
P815
Q1012012
R1210
<br>

P, Q and R works for 2 hour

⇒ 2 × (15 + 12 + 10)

⇒ 74

Remaining work is

⇒ 120 - 74 = 46

Q and R will complete in

⇒ 46/(12 + 10) = 46/22 ≈ 2 hours

∴ The correct answer is 1 P.M

Question 40

The simple interest on a certain sum of money at the rate of 5 p.a. for 8 years is Rs. 840. The rate of interest for which the same amount of interest can be received on the same sum after 5 years is 

  1. AOption (a)

    7%

  2. BOption (b)

    8%

  3. COption (c)

    9%

  4. DOption (d)

    10%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

In 1st condition, Interest = Rs. 840 

Time = 8 years, Rate of Interest = 5% 

In 2nd condition, Interest = Rs 840

Time = 5 years 

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = PRT/100

Calculation 

According to the question, 

Simple interest is the same in both conditions 

⇒ P × 8 × 5/100 = P × 5 × R/100

⇒ 40/100 = R/20

⇒ R = 8% 

∴ The rate of interest is 8%

Question 41

A train leaves Meerut at 5 a.m. and reaches Delhi at 9 a.m. Another train leaves Delhi at 7 a.m. and reaches Meerut at 10:30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?

  1. AOption (a)

    6 : 36 A.M

  2. BOption (b)

    6 : 56 A.M

  3. COption (c)

    7 : 36 A.M

  4. DOption (d)

    7 : 56 A.M

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7 : 56 A.M

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Train 1 leaves Meerut station at 5 a.m. and reaches Delhi at 9 a.m.

Train 2 leaves Delhi station at 7 a.m and reaches Meerut at 10.30 a.m

Formula used:

Speed = Distance/time

If two objects move with the speeds u & v in opposite direction, then

Relative speed = u + v

Calculation:

Train 1 travel time = 4 hours

Train 2 travel time is 3.5 = 72\frac{7}{2} hours

We know, speed = Distance/time

Let the distance b/w Meerut & Delhi is 28 Km (LCM of 4 & 72\frac{7}{2})

Speed of 1st train = 28/4 = 7 km/h

Speed of 2nd train = 28/3.5 = 8 km/h

Relative speed = Train 1 speed + Train 2 speed

⇒ Relative speed = 7 + 8 =  15 km

Train 1 travels for 2 hours before train 2 starts.

Remaining distance = 28 - 28/2 = 14 km

Time is taken to cross each other

Time = 14/15 hours or 56 minutes.

Total time taken = 2 hours + 56 minutes

∴ They cross each other at 7 : 56 a.m.

Question 42

A train 100 metres long, moving at a speed of 50 km per hour, crosses another train 120 metres long coming from the opposite direction in 6 seconds. What is the speed of the second train?

  1. AOption (a)

    132 kmph

  2. BOption (b)

    82 kmph

  3. COption (c)

    60 kmph

  4. DOption (d)

    50 kmph

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

82 kmph

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Relative Speed (m/s) = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Total Distance = 100 + 120 = 220 m

Relative Speed = 220 ÷ 6 = 110/3 m/s = (110/3) × (18/5) = 132 kmph

Speed of second train = 132 − 50 = 82 kmph

∴ The correct answer is 82 kmph.

Alternate Method

Given: Length of Train 1 (L1) = 100 m, Speed (S1) = 50 kmph. Length of Train 2 (L2) = 120 m, Speed (S2) = x kmph. Time taken to cross = 6 seconds.

Formula Used: Time = (L1 + L2) ÷ Relative Speed

⇒ Total Distance = 100 + 120 = 220 m

⇒ Let Speed of second train be x kmph.

⇒ Relative Speed = (50 + x) kmph = (50 + x) × (5/18) m/s

⇒ 6 = 220 ÷ [(50 + x) × (5/18)]

⇒ 6 × (50 + x) × 5 = 220 × 18

⇒ 30 × (50 + x) = 3960

⇒ 50 + x = 3960 ÷ 30

⇒ 50 + x = 132

⇒ x = 132 − 50 = 82 kmph

∴ The correct answer is 82 kmph.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concept

When objects move in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S1 + S2. In same direction, Relative Speed = |S1 − S2|.

Unit Conversion

To convert kmph to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to kmph, multiply by 18/5.

Crossing Distance

When a train crosses another train or a bridge, the Total Distance is always the sum of their individual lengths.

Question 43

The value of the expresssion 2.252−1.2522.25−1.25\frac{2.25^2-1.25^2}{2.25-1.25} is

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2.5

  3. COption (c)

    3.5

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3.5

Why this answer is correct

Formula used:

(a2 - b2) = (a + b)(a - b)

Calculation:

2.252−1.2522.25−1.25\frac{2.25^2-1.25^2}{2.25-1.25}

By using the above identity

⇒(2.25−1.25)(2.25+1.25)(2.25−1.25)⇒ \frac{(2.25-1.25)(2.25 + 1.25)}{(2.25-1.25)}

⇒ 2.25 + 1.25

⇒ 3.5

∴ 2.252−1.2522.25−1.25\frac{2.25^2-1.25^2}{2.25-1.25} = 3.5

Question 44

Simplify: 1119\frac{1}{9}% of 9111\frac{1}{11}% of 717\frac{1}{7}% of 614\frac{1}{4}% of 11088.

  1. AOption (a)

    0.677

  2. BOption (b)

    0.500

  3. COption (c)

    0.125

  4. DOption (d)

    0.333 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.500

Why this answer is correct

Given:

1119\frac{1}{9}% of 9111\frac{1}{11}% of 717\frac{1}{7}% of 614\frac{1}{4}% of 11088

Concept used:

Some conversions:

1119\frac{1}{9}% = 19\frac{1}{9}

9111\frac{1}{11}% = 111\frac{1}{11}

717\frac{1}{7}% = 114\frac{1}{14}

 614\frac{1}{4}% = 116\frac{1}{16}

Calculation:

1119\frac{1}{9}% of 9111\frac{1}{11}% of 717\frac{1}{7}% of 614\frac{1}{4}% of 11088 = ?

The above expression can be written as:

⇒ ? = 19\frac{1}{9} of 111\frac{1}{11} of 114\frac{1}{14} of 116\frac{1}{16} of 11088

⇒ ? = 19\frac{1}{9} of 111\frac{1}{11} of 114\frac{1}{14} of 693

⇒ ? = 19\frac{1}{9} of 111\frac{1}{11} of 49.5

⇒ ? = 19\frac{1}{9} of 4.5

⇒ ? = 0.5

∴ The value of the required answer is 0.5.

Question 45

What is the compound interest on a sum of ₹19,500 invested for 1251\frac{2}{5} years at 10% p.a., interest compounded annually?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹2,608

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹2,480

  3. COption (c)

    ₹2,808

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹2,880

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹2,808

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Sum = Rs. 19500

Rate = 10%

Time =  1251\frac{2}{5} years

Concept used:

A = P(1 + r/100)n

Interest = A - P

A = amount

P = principal or sum

r = rate

n = time

Calculation:

Interest rate for 2/5 years = 10 × (2/5) = 4%

Now,

A = 19500(1 + 10/100)1 × (1 + 10/100)2/5

⇒ A = 19500(1 + 10/100) × (1 + 4/100)

⇒ A = 19500(1 + 1/10) × (1 + 1/25)

⇒ A = 19500(11/10) × (26/25)

⇒ A = 22308

So, interest of the given years = 22308 - 19500

⇒ Rs. 2808

∴ Required compound interest is Rs. 2808.

Question 46

Which of the following fraction can be written as a Non-terminating decimal?

  1. AOption (a)

    7187 \over18

  2. BOption (b)

    1125011 \over 250

  3. COption (c)

    212821 \over 28

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7187 \over18

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The three fractions are 7/18, 11/250, 21/28

Concept used:

Terminating decimal: A terminating decimal has an end digit that has a finite number of digits or terms.

Calculation:

7/18 = 0.38888... = 0.38ˉ0.3\bar8 (Non terminating decimal)

11/250 = 0.044 (Terminating decimal)

21/28 = 0.75 (Terminating decimal)

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Important Points

Theorem:  

  • Let x be a rational number whose simplest form is p/q, where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0.
  • Then, x is a terminating decimal only when q is of the form 2m x 5n for some non-negative integers m and n.

Additional Information

Rational Numbers:

  • A number of the form p/q, where p and q are integers and q ≠ 0 are called rational numbers.
  • Square roots of prime numbers are irrational

Question 47

The ratio of efficiencies of X and Y for doing a certain work is 5 ∶ 9. Working together, they can complete a work in 15 days. X alone will complete 6623%66\frac{2}{3}\% of the same work in?

  1. AOption (a)

    28 days

  2. BOption (b)

    24 days

  3. COption (c)

    35 days

  4. DOption (d)

    30 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

28 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The ratio of efficiencies of X and Y for doing a certain work is 5 ∶ 9.

Working together, they complete a work = 15 days

Concept used:

Total work = Efficiency × total time 

Calculation:

According to the question, 

Total efficiency of X & Y = ( 5 + 9) = 14 units

Total time taken by both X & Y together = 15 days 

Total work = 14 × 15 = 210 units.

Now,

X alone can complete 6623%66\frac{2}{3}\%  of the total work means,

Total work × 6623%66\frac{2}{3}\% 

⇒ 210 × 6623%66\frac{2}{3}\%

⇒ 210 × 200/300 = 140 units

Time taken by X to complete 140 units,

⇒ 140/5 = 28 days.

∴ X will complete 6623%66\frac{2}{3}\% of the same work in 28 days.

Question 48

A milkman makes 20% profit by selling milk mixed with water at Rs.8 per litre. If the cost price of pure milk is Rs. 10 per litre then the ratio of milk and water in the given mixture.

  1. AOption (a)

    2 : 1

  2. BOption (b)

    1 : 2

  3. COption (c)

    1 : 3

  4. DOption (d)

    3 : 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2 : 1

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The cost price of pure milk = Rs.10/litre

The selling price of the mixture = Rs.8/litre

Profit = 20%

The cost price of pure milk is Rs. 10 per litre.

Formula Used:

Profit% = Profit/CP × 100

Loss% = Loss/CP × 100

Calculation:

Since, 8 × 100/120 = Rs.20/3

∴ The ratio of milk and water is 2 ∶ 1.

Alternate Method

Cost price of 1 litre mixture = 8 × 100/120 = Rs.20/3

Cost of water = Rs. 0

It means in the mixture there is only milk’s cost which is Rs.20/3.

Remaining cost = Rs. (10 – 20/3) = Rs. 10/3 

Water/milk = cost of water which is mixed in place of milk/cost of milk which is mixed

Water/milk = (10/3)/(20/3) = 1/2

Milk ∶ water = 2 ∶ 1

∴ The ratio of milk and water is 2 ∶ 1.

Question 49

At what time between 3 o'clock and 4 o'clock, both the hands of a clock will coincide with each other?

  1. AOption (a)

    1621116\frac{2}{{11}} minutes past 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1641116\frac{4}{{11}} minutes past 3

  3. COption (c)

    1541115\frac{4}{{11}} minutes past 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1521115\frac{2}{{11}} minutes past 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1641116\frac{4}{{11}} minutes past 3

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

The angle between the hour hand and minutes hand

θ = (30H - 11 M/2)

Calculation:

When minute & hour hands coincide, then θ = 0

⇒ 0 = 30 × 3 - 11 M/2

⇒ 0 = 90 - 11 M/2

⇒ 90 = 11 M/2

⇒ 180 = 11 M

⇒ M = 18011\frac{180}{11}

⇒ M = 1641116\frac{4}{{11}} Minutes

∴ The correct answer is 1641116\frac{4}{{11}} minutes past 3.

Question 50

The Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Award is given in India for contribution to the field of:

  1. AOption (a)

    sports

  2. BOption (b)

    social work

  3. COption (c)

    science and technology

  4. DOption (d)

    literature

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

science and technology

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is science and technology.

Key Points

  • Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar award is given for outstanding contributions to the field of science and technology
  • Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar was an Indian colloid chemist.
  • He was the first director-general of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
  • He is popularly called the "father of research laboratories" in India.
  • It was first awarded in 1958.
  • It is awarded annually by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.
  • It is awarded for outstanding contributions in the following disciplines:
  • Biological Sciences
  • Chemical Sciences,
  • Earth, Atmosphere, Ocean and Planetary Sciences
  • Engineering Sciences,
  • Mathematical Sciences,
  • Medical Sciences
  • Physical Sciences.
  • 14 scientists were honored with the Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize 2020.

Question 51

Which among the following is a nuclear powered submarine of Indian Navy?

  1. AOption (a)

    INS Shishumar

  2. BOption (b)

    INS Shalki

  3. COption (c)

    INS Chakra

  4. DOption (d)

    INS Sindhuvir

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

INS Chakra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is INS Chakra.

Key Points

  • INS Chakra:
  • INS Chakra is a nuclear-powered submarine.
  • It was taken by India on lease from Russia in 2012 for a period of 10 years.
  • INS Chakra is propelled by a 190 MW nuclear reactor.

Additional Information

  • INS Shalki:
  • It was India’s first indigenously built submarine.
  • It was a Shishumar-class diesel-electric submarine of the Indian Navy.
  • It was the first-ever submarine to be built in India.
  • It was launched in 1987 by the late Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.
  • INS Shishumar:
  • It is the lead vessel of the Shishumar class of diesel-electric submarines of the Indian Navy.
  • It was commissioned on 22 September 1986 under Commander P M Bhate.
  • INS Sindhuvir:
  • It is the first naval submarine of Myanmar and will be commissioned as UMS Minye Theinkhathu.
  • It is a Soviet-era submarine that was inducted into the Indian Navy in the year 1988.
  • The submarine weighs up to 3000 tonnes and can achieve a top speed of 20 knots.
  • It can dive up to a depth of 300 meters.
  • It is a kilo class submarine equipped with a guided torpedo that has a range of 40 km.

Question 52

Which DRDO developed anti tank missile is capable of being launched from helicopter?

  1. AOption (a)

    Helina

  2. BOption (b)

    SANT Missile

  3. COption (c)

    Nag Missile

  4. DOption (d)

    Amogha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Helina

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Helina.

Key Points

  • An Anti-Tank Guided Missile 'HELINA' was successfully launched from an indigenously-developed helicopter at high-altitude ranges on 11 Apr'22, in Pokhran.
  • The flight test was jointly conducted by teams of scientists from DRDO, the Indian Army, and the Indian Air Force.
  • The flight trials were conducted from an Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH).
  • The missile is guided by an Imaging Infra-Red Seeker.

Additional Information

  • Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully test-fired the surface-to-surface BrahMos supersonic cruise missile in the Andaman and Nicobar islands on 23 March'22.
  • BrahMos is a nuclear-capable missile that can be fired from land, surface and air.
  • ​BrahMos Aerospace, an India-Russian joint venture, produces supersonic cruise missiles that can be launched from submarines, ships, aircraft, or land platforms.
  • The missile can be launched from submarines, ships, aircraft, or land platforms.
  • BrahMos missile flies at a speed of 2.8 Mach or almost three times the speed of sound.

Question 53

Which is an indigenously launched Covid Vaccine?

  1. AOption (a)

    Covaxin

  2. BOption (b)

    Pfizer

  3. COption (c)

    Sputnik

  4. DOption (d)

    AstraZeneca

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Covaxin

Why this answer is correct

Coronavirus disease (COVID-19):

  • It is an infectious disease caused by a newly discovered coronavirus.
  • Most people infected with the COVID-19 virus will experience mild to moderate respiratory illness and recover without requiring special treatment.
  • Older people and those with underlying medical problems like cardiovascular disease, diabetes, chronic respiratory disease, and cancer are more likely to develop serious illnesses.

Key Points

Covaxin:

  • Hyderabad-based Bharat Biotech has developed Covaxin.
  • It is India's first indigenous experimental vaccine against COVID-19.
  • It is done in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and National Institute of Virology (NIV).
  • Human clinical trials started across India in July 2020.
  • The indigenous, inactivated vaccine was developed and manufactured in the company's Bio-Safety Level 3 (BSL-3) High Containment facility located in **Genome Valley, Hyderabad.**​

Additional Information

  • Serum Institute of Technology: Covisheild vaccine.
  • Glenmark Pharmaceuticals Limited: antiviral drug Favipiravir, under the brand name FabiFlu.
  • Cipla: Drugs Controller General of India has granted permission to Cipla to import Moderna’s Covid-19 vaccine for restricted emergency use in the country.

Question 54

Asad Ali Khan is associated with which among the following musical instruments?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rudra veena

  2. BOption (b)

    Sitar

  3. COption (c)

    Tabla

  4. DOption (d)

    Shehnai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rudra veena

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is rudra veena.

Key Points

  • Asad Ali Khan
  • Indian musician Asad Ali Khan was born on December 1st, 1937.
  • He played the rudra veena, a plucked string instrument.
  • The Hindu referred to Khan as the best living rudra veena performer in India and praised his dhrupad-inspired performances.
  • He gave performances in several nations, including Australia, the United States, Afghanistan, Italy, and several other nations in Europe. He also taught music in the United States.
  • Khan spent 17 years teaching the sitar at the Faculty of Music and Fine Arts at the University of Delhi, worked at All India Radio, and after retiring, continued to instruct individuals.
  • Khan won a number of national honours, such as the Padma Bhushan award for civilian service in 2008 and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1977.

​​

Additional Information

InstrumentArtist
SitarRavi Shankar, Pandit Nikhil Banerjee, Anoushka Shankar, Imrat Khan, Vilayat Khan
TablaZakir Hussain, Alla Rakha, Anindo Chatterjee, Anuradha Pal, Shankhar Gosh
ShehnaiBismillah Khan, S. Ballesh, Bhaskar Nath, Anant Lal, Rajendra Prasanna

Question 55

With which country India has recently signed a Project Agreement (PA) for Air-Launched Unmanned Aerial Vehicle?

  1. AOption (a)

    United States

  2. BOption (b)

    United Kingdom 

  3. COption (c)

    Russia 

  4. DOption (d)

    Canada

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

United States

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is United States.

Key Points

  • Ministry of Defence of India and the US Department of Defence have signed a Project Agreement (PA) for Air-Launched Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (ALUAV).
  • It has been signed under the Joint Working Group Air Systems in the Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI).
  • The PA for ALUAV falls under the Research, Development, Testing and Evaluation (RDT&E) Memorandum of Agreement.

Important Points

  • The main aim of DTTI is to bring sustained leadership focus to promote collaborative technology exchange and create opportunities for co-production and co-development of future technologies for Indian and US military forces.
  • Under DTTI, Joint Working Groups on land, naval, air, and aircraft carrier technologies have been established for focus on mutually agreed projects in respective domains.

Additional Information

  • USA:
  • Capital - Washington, D.C.
  • Currency - US Dollar.
  • President- Joe Biden.

Question 56

Who among the following started the newspaper 'Bahishkrit Bharat'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jyotiba Phule

  2. BOption (b)

    Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

  3. COption (c)

    M. K. Gandhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Why this answer is correct

Bahishkrit Bharat newspaper was founded by B. R. Ambedkar.

Key Points

  • This newspaper was published in 1927.
  • It was the Marathi language newspaper.
  • Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar was an Indian lawyer, economist, politician, and social reformer who influenced the Dalit Buddhist movement and campaigned against the Intouchables (Dalits) of social injustice.
  • He was India's first elected law and justice minister.

Additional Information

  • In 1923, B.R Ambedkar set up the 'Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha' (Outcastes Welfare Association), which was devoted to spreading education and culture amongst the downtrodden, improving the economic status and raising matters concerning their problems in the proper forums to focus attention on them and finding solutions to the same.
  • The problems of the downtrodden were centuries old and difficult to overcome.
  • Their entry into temples was forbidden.
  • They could not draw water from public wells and ponds.
  • Their admission in schools was prohibited.
  • In 1927, he led the Mahad March at the Chowdar Tank at Colaba, near Bombay, to give the untouchables the right to draw water from the public tank where he burnt copies of the 'Manusmriti' publicly.
  • This marked the beginning of the anticaste and anti-priest movement.
  • The temple entry movement launched by Dr. Ambedkar in 1930 at Kalaram temple, Nasik is another landmark in the struggle for human rights and social justice.

Question 57

The reign of Raja Krishnadev Raya is considered the golden age of which literary language?

  1. AOption (a)

    Telugu

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil

  3. COption (c)

    Hindi

  4. DOption (d)

    Malayalam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Telugu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Telugu.

Important Points

  • Vijayanagar empire was established in 1336 by Harihara I and his brother Bukka Raya I of the Sangama Dynasty.
  • The Vijayanagar emperors were great patrons of art and literature.
  • The Ashtadiggajas were the eight great poets in the court of the Vijayanagar king Krishnadeva Raya who ruled the Vijayanagara Empire from 1509 until his death in 1529.
  • The rule of Krishna Deva Raya is known as the golden age of Telugu literature.
  • The Ashtadiggajas are:
  • Allasani Peddana was revered as Andhra Kavita Pitamahudu (the grand father of Telugu poetry).
  • Nandi Thimmana wrote Parijataapaharanam, he was called Mukku Thimmana (Thimmana of the nose).
  • Madayyagari Mallana wrote Rajasekhara Charitram.
  • Dhurjati Kalahasti Mahatyamu.
  • Ayyalaraju Ramambhadrudu wrote Ramaabhyudayamu.
  • Pingali Surana wrote Raghavapandaveeyamu, a dual work that describes both Ramayana and Mahabharata
  • Ramarajabhushanudu wrote Kavyalankarasangrahamu, Vasucharitramu and Harischandranalopakhyanamu.
  • Tenali Ramakrishna wrote Udbhataradhya Charitramu, Panduranga Mahatmyamu, and Ghatikachala Mahatmyamu. He was also a minister of the court.

Question 58

Who wrote ‘Why I am an Atheist’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Subhash Chandra Bose

  2. BOption (b)

    Khushwant Singh

  3. COption (c)

    Bhagat Singh

  4. DOption (d)

    Madan Lal Dhingra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bhagat Singh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhagat Singh.

  • The article "Why I am an Atheist" was written by Bhagat Singh.

Key Points 

  • Bhagat Singh
  • The article "Why I am an Atheist" was written by Bhagat Singh in 1930 in Lahore jail.
  • It was a reply of Bhagat Singh to his religious friend who thought that Bhagat Singh became an atheist due to his vanity.
  • It was published in Lala Lajpat Rai's weekly 'The English' after his death.
  • He was a member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Society.

Additional Information  

  • Bhagat Singh was punished in the Lahore conspiracy case and central assembly bombing incident.
  • He founded Naujawan Bharat Sabha in March 1926.
  • He was hanged till death on 23rd March 1931 with Sukhdev and Rajguru.
  • Some of the books of BR Ambedkar
  • Annihilation of Caste (1936)
  • Who Were the Shudras? (1946)
  • The Buddha and His Dhamma (1957)
  • The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin and Its Solution (1923)
  • Castes in India (1917)
  • Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose wrote the book the Indian Struggle.

Question 59

Supernova is

  1. AOption (a)

    An asteroid

  2. BOption (b)

    A black hole

  3. COption (c)

    A comet

  4. DOption (d)

    A dying star

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A dying star

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A dying star.

Key Points

  • Supernova
  • It is a massive explosion of a dying star. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • The event occurs during the last evolutionary stages of a massive star, which is dying.
  • The explosions are extremely bright and powerful.
  • The star, after the explosion, turns into a neutron star or a black hole or is destroyed.
  • A supernova takes place when there is a change in the center of a star.
  • There are two ways in which the change can occur that result in a supernova.
  • The first type of change happens in a binary star system.
  • It occurs when one of the stars takes away all the matter from the other star in the system.
  • This results in too much matter for one star, which leads to an explosion or supernova.
  • In the other type of change, a star, which is at the end of its lifetime, runs out of nuclear fuel.
  • Due to this, some of the mass moves into the star’s core, which makes the core too heavy to withstand its gravitational force.
  • The core collapses resulting in a supernova.
  • Supernovae are often seen in other galaxies.
  • In our Milky Way Galaxy, not many supernovae are observed because dust block our view. Johannes Kepler, in 1604, discovered the last observed supernova in the Milky Way Galaxy.
  • Nasa’s Chandra telescope discovered the most recent supernova, which exploded in our galaxy more than a hundred years ago.

Additional Information

  • Asteroid
  • An asteroid is a minor planet of the inner Solar System.
  • Historically, these terms have been applied to any astronomical object orbiting the Sun that did not resolve into a disc in a telescope and was not observed to have characteristics of an active comet such as a tail.
  • Comet
  • A comet is an icy, small Solar System body that, when passing close to the Sun, warms and begins to release gases, a process that is called outgassing.
  • This produces a visible atmosphere or coma, and sometimes also a tail.
  • A black hole
  • It is a region of spacetime where gravity is so strong that nothing—no particles or even electromagnetic radiation such as light—can escape from it.
  • The theory of general relativity predicts that a sufficiently compact mass can deform spacetime to form a black hole.

Question 60

With reference to the office of the Attorney General of India, Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. He is the highest law officer in the country. 

II. In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India.

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    II only

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Point

  • Attorney General for India:
  • The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India.
  • He is the highest law officer in the country. Hence statement I is correct.
  • The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president.
  • He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years, or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.
  • The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution.
  • Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
  • He holds office during the pleasure of the president. This means that he may be removed by the president at any time.
  • He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.
  • The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such remuneration as the president may determine.
  • In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Hence statement II is correct.
  • Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote.
  • He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.

Question 61

Who among the following won the Gold medal in 2020 Paralympics in Javelin Throw?

  1. AOption (a)

    Piyush Khanna

  2. BOption (b)

    Rameshwar Choudhary

  3. COption (c)

    Neeraj Chopra

  4. DOption (d)

    Sumit Antil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sumit Antil

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sumit Antil.

Key Points

  • Sumit Antil is an Indian Paralympian and javelin thrower.
  • He won a gold medal in the men's javelin throw F64 category at the 2020 Summer Paralympics.
  • He holds the current world record, having thrown 68.55 meters in the Paralympic final.
  • Sumit Antil was born on 6 July 1998 in Khewda, Sonipat, Haryana, India.
  • He lost his left leg below the knee after he was involved in a motorbike accident in 2015 at the age of 17.

Additional Information

  • Neeraj Chopra, a javelin thrower, became only the second Indian to win an Olympic gold medal.
  • At the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, he earned a gold medal in the Javelin Throw event.
  • He became India's seventh medalist and first gold medalist in the Olympics, joining shooter Abhinav Bindra (2008 Beijing Games) as an individual gold medalist.
  • India won 1 Gold, 2 Silver, and 4 Bronze medals.

Question 62

"Global Competitiveness Report" is released by which of the following organization?

  1. AOption (a)

    WTO

  2. BOption (b)

    WEF

  3. COption (c)

    SAARC

  4. DOption (d)

    EU

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

WEF

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is WEF.

Key Points

  • Global Competitiveness Report - 
  • "Global Competitiveness Report" is an annual report published by the WEF (World Economic Forum).
  • This report assesses a country’s ability to provide high levels of prosperity to its citizens and ranks countries on the basis of the Global Competitiveness Index.
  • The First Edition of this report was released in 1979.
  • India ranked in the 40th Global Competitiveness Index 2023
  • India maintained 43rd rank on the annual World Competitiveness Index 2021.

Important Points

OrganizationHeadquartersEstablishment year
World Trade OrganizationGeneva (Switzerland)1995
World Economic ForumCologny, (Switzerland)1971
South Asian Association for Regional CooperationKathmandu (Nepal)1985

Question 63

The most commonly used semiconductor element is ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cu

  2. BOption (b)

    A

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    Si

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Si

Why this answer is correct

Semiconductors are those elements that conductivity lies between conductor and insulator.

The most used commonly used semiconductor is Silicon (Si).

  • Silicon is a pure semiconductor whose atomic no. is 14.
  • It is the second most abundant element on earth's crust.
  • It is not found free in nature but occurs chiefly as silicon dioxide and as silicates.
  • All electronic items such as chips, diodes, and transistors are made up of semiconductors mostly silicon.
  • Other than silicon, Germanium is also used as a semiconductor.

Important Points

Aluminum (Al):

  • The atomic number is 13.
  • It is soft, malleable, and ductile.
  • It has high thermal and electrical conductivity
  • It has excellent corrosion resistance.
  • It is the most abundant metal in the Earth’s crust.
  • It is widely used for foil, kitchen utensils and conductor

Germanium (Ge):

  • Atomic number is 32.
  • Germanium is most widely used as a Semiconductor.
  • Germanium is used in transistors and in integrated circuits.
  • Germanium is also used as an alloying agent.
  • Eka-silicon is known as Germanium.

Question 64

Which among the following do not contribute to the green house effect?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nitrogen

  2. BOption (b)

    CFCs

  3. COption (c)

    Water Vapours

  4. DOption (d)

    Ozone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Nitrogen

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Greenhouse effect

  • Solar energy is trapped by the earth's atmosphere and radiates slowly so as to cover our earth with a warm blanket.
  • This is the natural process of the greenhouse effect on earth to maintain its temperature and makes the earth perfect for life.
  • Carbon di Oxide is a major greenhouse gas.
  • Methane, nitrous oxide, and water vapor, Ozone and CFCs also contribute to the greenhouse effect.
  • The greenhouse effect is beneficial up to some extent because the required heat will not be present on earth in absence of such gases.
  • So, we need it, but the excess presence of greenhouse gases causes global warming.

Emission of Greenhouse Gases

  • Carbon dioxide is major greenhouse gas released due to the burning of fuels.
  • Large amounts of methane are released in paddy fields, coal mines, rotting garbage dumps, and by fossil fuels.
  • Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are man-made industrial chemicals used in air conditioning etc

Conclusion:

Nitrogen is not greenhouse among the given option, hence the correct option.

Question 65

Match List I with the correct options of List II.

List I (Grasslands)List II (Region)
1. PrairiesI. South America
2. DownsII. Australia
3. LlanosIII. USA
4. PampasIV. Venezuela
  1. AOption (a)

    1 - IV, 2 - III, 3 - I, 4 - 2

  2. BOption (b)

    1 - III, 2 - IV, 3 - I, 4 - II

  3. COption (c)

    1 - III, 2 - II, 3 - IV, 4 - I

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - I, 2 - II, 3 - IV, 4 - III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 - III, 2 - II, 3 - IV, 4 - I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • Grasslands are characterized as lands dominated by grasses rather than large shrubs or trees.
  • They are often located between temperate forests at high latitudes and deserts at subtropical latitudes.
  • Grasslands receive around 500 to 900 millimetres (20 – 35 inches) of rain annually.
  • There are two main kinds of grasslands: tropical and temperate.
  • Names of grasslands in various regions across the world:
  • In the United States Midwest, they're often called prairies.
  • In South America, they're known as pampas.
  • Central Eurasian grasslands are referred to as steppes.
  • African grasslands are called savannas.
  • The downs are the grasslands of Australia.
  • The Llanos is a vast tropical grassland plain situated to the east of the Andes Mountains in northwestern South America, within Colombia and Venezuela.

​​Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 66

Which one among the following substances does not contribute to global warming?

  1. AOption (a)

    Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen

  2. BOption (b)

    Methane

  3. COption (c)

    Carbon dioxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Water vapour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen.

Key Points

  • Global Warming:-
  • Global warming is an average increase in the temperature of the atmosphere near the Earth’s surface and in the troposphere, which can contribute to changes in global climate patterns.
  • ​Earth has warmed at an unprecedented rate over the last hundred years and particularly over the last two decades.
  • Since 1992, each year has been one of the warmest years on record. 2016 was the hottest year on record, worldwide.
  • An upsurge in the number of extreme weather events, such as wildfires, heat waves, and strong tropical storms, is also attributed.
  • Global warming can occur from a variety of causes, both natural and human-induced.
  • In common usage, “global warming” often refers to the warming that can occur as a result of increased emissions of greenhouse gases from human activities.
  • Acid rain is caused by a chemical reaction that begins when compounds like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released into the air.
  • These substances can rise very high into the atmosphere, where they mix and react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form more acidic pollutants, known as acid rain.

Important Points

  • Greenhouse Gases:
  • Atmospheric gases like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide (N2O), water vapor, and chlorofluorocarbons are capable of trapping the out-going infrared radiation from the earth’s surface thereby causing a greenhouse effect.
  • Hence these gases are known as greenhouse gases and the heating effect is known as the greenhouse effect.

Mistake Points

  • While sulfur dioxide isn't a direct greenhouse gas like carbon dioxide or methane, it is considered an indirect greenhouse gas.
  • Sulfur dioxide is regarded as an indirect greenhouse gas because, when coupled with elemental carbon, it forms aerosols.
  • Neither nitric oxide nor nitrogen dioxide are greenhouse gases, although they are important in the process of creation of tropospheric ozone which is a greenhouse gas.

Question 67

Match List I with the correct options of List II.

List I (Name of Operation)List II (Related to)
I.   Operation NistarA. Rescue operation in Yemen
II.  Operation PawanB. Control of Jaffna peninsula
III. Operation TridentC. Indo-Pak Navy 1971 War
IV. Operation BrasstacksD. 1986 Joint military               exercise
  1. AOption (a)

    I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

  2. BOption (b)

    I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C

  3. COption (c)

    I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

  4. DOption (d)

    I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • Operation NISTAR:
  • In 2018, the Indian Naval Ship (INS) Sunayana successfully evacuated 38 Indian Nationals after it entered Porbandar harbor in Gujarat.
  • They were rescued from cyclone**-hit Socotra island in Yemen** under a swift Humanitarian and Disaster Relief Operation (HADR) code-named Operation NISTAR.
  • Operation Pawan:
  • ​It was the code name for the 1987 Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) operations to disarm the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) and wrest control of the Jaffna peninsula in Northern Sri Lanka.
  • Operation Pawan was carried out as a part of the Indo-Sri Lanka Accord.
  • It took place on 11 Oct 1987 – 25 Oct 1987.
  • Operation Trident:
  • On December 4, 1971, the Indian Navy launched "Operation Trident" as Indian vessels fired anti-ship missiles heavily damaging Pakistan's Karachi port.
  • The Indian Navy formed the covert Karachi Strike Group to destroy Pakistan's main harbor which had deployed the Pakistani fleet.
  • Operation Brasstacks:
  • The biggest military exercise world has ever seen after World War II was executed by the Indian Army and Airforce between 18 November 1986 – 6 March 1987 – Operation Brasstacks.
  • The exercise started in mid-November 1986 to March 1987 and was based on the border of Rajasthan mainly the Thar desert.
  • Around half of the total army strength of the Indian Army (1.1 million) with Air support was deployed within 100-150 KM away from the Pakistan boundary.

Question 68

Which of the following is a short range surface to surface missile?

  1. AOption (a)

    NAG

  2. BOption (b)

    AKASH

  3. COption (c)

    PRITHVI

  4. DOption (d)

    TRISHUL 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PRITHVI

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is PRITHVI.

Key Points

Recently, India successfully conducted a surface-to-surface nuclear-capable short-range ballistic missile Prithvi-II.

  • Prithvi-II Missile 
  • ​Prithvi-II is an indigenously developed Surface-to-Surface Missile Short-Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM), having a range of around 250 - 350 km.
  • It is single-stage liquid-fueled missile that has warhead ascending capacity of 500 - 1000 kg.
  • It was initially evolved for the Indian Air Force but it was later inducted into the Indian Army as well.
  • It is Developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India under its Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme.
  • It is capable of striking targets with a very high degree of precision.

Important Points

  • Prithvi Missiles
  • Its ​​​development began in 1983, and it was India’s first indigenous ballistic missile.
  • The naval variant of Prithvi I and Prithvi III class missiles have the code-name Dhanush.
  • ​​​​​​Prithvi II missiles have been in service since 1996.
  • Prithvi III having a more extended range of 350 km, was successfully test-fired in 2004.

Additional Information

  • NAG - Third generation “fire & forget”, anti-tank missile.
  • AKASH - Surface-to-air missile having a range of up to 25 Km.
  • TRISHUL - Short range surface-to-air missile.
  • PRITHVI - Short range surface-to-surface ballistic missile.

Question 69

The first city to initiate a flood early warning system in India is

  1. AOption (a)

    Kolkata

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai

  3. COption (c)

    Chennai

  4. DOption (d)

    Lucknow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Kolkata

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kolkata.

Key Points

  • India’s first flood forecasting and early-warning system were launched in Kolkata in 2018.
  • This was launched by Kolkata Municipal Corporation, with the support of the Asian Development Bank (ADB).
  • The Asian Development Bank (ADB) funded the design and implementation of the FFEWS through a $1 million technical assistance to KMC from its Urban Climate Change Resilience Trust Fund under the Urban Financing Partnership Facility.​
  • It will provide real-time data on rainfall intensity, temperature, air quality, and other climate-related parameters.
  • India’s first comprehensive city-level 'FFEWS' will reduce economic loss and impacts on livelihood and improve flood awareness and safety at the community level.
  • The ultrasonic sensors fixed at key points across the city such as hot spots identified as vulnerable to inundation during flood events, canals, pumping stations, traffic junctions, and schools, will send real-time data to a cloud-based dashboard.
  • The input will be automatically analyzed with global information system data of Kolkata city.
  • Risk information will then be shared with citizens and community groups through mobile alerts and radio/television messaging, to help them plan their daily activities, such as commuting, based on early warning and real-time inundation status.

Question 70

With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements:

I. The amount collected by it directly goes to the Consolidated Fund of India.

II. It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax exemption.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    II only

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

II only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is II only.

In News

  • According to the latest Findings, 64 per cent of the Rs 10,990 crore collected by the PM CARES Fund between March 27, 2020, and March 31, 2021, remained unused as of the latter date.

Key Points

PM-CARES:

  • The Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations (PM-CARES) Fund was set up to accept donations and provide relief during the Covid-19 pandemic and other similar emergencies.
  • PM-CARES Fund:
  • PM-CARES was set up as a public charitable trust with the trust deed registered on March 27, 2020.
  • It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax exemption. Hence statement II is correct.
  • PM-CARES is different from the Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF).
  • Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the PM CARES Fund and Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs and Minister of Finance, Government of India are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund.
  • In 2021, the Delhi High Court was informed that the PM CARES Fund is not a Government of India fund and that the amount collected by it does not go to the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence statement I is not correct.

Question 71

Heron drones, inducted by Indian forces for enhancing their surveillance capabilities, are acquired from

  1. AOption (a)

    USA

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    Israel

  4. DOption (d)

    Japan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Israel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Israel.

Key Points

  • The Indian Army's surveillance capabilities have received the advanced Israeli Heron drones under the emergency procurement clause.
  • Heron drone is a medium-altitude long-endurance unmanned aerial vehicle developed by the Malat division of Israel Aerospace Industries.
  • The acquisition has been done under the emergency financial powers granted by the government to the defence forces under which they can buy equipment and systems worth Rs 500 crores.

Important Points 

  • ​The anti-jamming capability is much better than their previous versions.
  • The acquisition of these drones has been done under the emergency financial powers granted by Prime Minister Narendra Modi-led's government to the defence forces.
  • Under this power, they can buy equipment and systems worth Rs 500 crores to upgrade their warfighting capabilities, amid ongoing border conflict with China.
  • The Indian Navy has also leased two Predator drones which have been taken from American firm General Atomics.

Additional Information 

  • ​Israel:
  • Capital - Jerusalem.
  • Currency - Israeli Shekel.
  • National Sport - Association football.

Question 72

Which among the following factors does not contribute to Earthquakes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Location

  2. BOption (b)

    Distance from the epicentre

  3. COption (c)

    Local geological conditions

  4. DOption (d)

    Rate of Evaporation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rate of Evaporation

Why this answer is correct

Rate of Evaporation does not contribute to Earthquakes.

Key Points

  • An earthquake
  • In simple words is the shaking of the earth.
  • It is a natural event. It is caused due to release of energy, which generates waves that travel in all directions.
  • The vibrations called seismic waves are generated from earthquakes that travel through the Earth and are recorded on instruments called seismographs.
  • The location below the earth’s surface where the earthquake starts is called the hypocenter, and the location directly above it on the surface of the earth is called the epicentre.
  • There are several factors that determine just how destructive an earthquake can be:
  • Location: This one is kind of obvious—an earthquake that hits in a populated area is more likely to do damage than one that hits an unpopulated area or the middle of the ocean.
  • Magnitude: Scientists assign a number to represent the amount of seismic energy released by an earthquake. The Richter magnitude scale, as it is known, is logarithmic, so each step up represents an increase in energy of a factor of 10. The more energy in an earthquake, the more destructive it can be.
  • Depth: Earthquakes can happen anywhere from at the surface to 700 kilometres below. In general, deeper earthquakes are less damaging because their energy dissipates before it reaches the surface. The recent New Zealand earthquake is thought to have occurred at a more shallow depth than the one last year.
  • Distance from the epicentre: The epicentre is the point at the surface right above where the earthquake originates and is usually the place where the earthquake's intensity is the greatest.
  • Local geological conditions: The nature of the ground at the surface of an earthquake can have a profound influence on the level of damage. Loose, sandy, soggy soil, like in Mexico City, can liquefy if the shaking is strong and long enough, for example. That doesn't bode well for any structures on the surface.

Question 73

When we jump out of a boat, the boat moves in the opposite direction. This is due to:

  1. AOption (a)

    The fact that the net force acting on the boat is to be zero

  2. BOption (b)

    Newton’s First Law of Motion

  3. COption (c)

    Newton’s Second Law of Motion

  4. DOption (d)

    Newton’s Third Law of Motion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Newton’s Third Law of Motion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Newton’s Third Law of Motion.

Newton’s Third Law of Motion:

  • The Third Law states that, In every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
  • ​When a man jumps out from a boat, he presses the boat with his feet, means he is doing an action, and the boat then also exerts an equal force on him in the opposite direction which explains reaction, therefore the man jumps to the bank and the boat moves in the backward direction.

Newton’s First Law of Motion:

  • The first law is the law of Inertia.
  • According to it, if a body is at rest will remain in rest, and the body is in motion will remain in motion until unless an external force is applied to it.
  • An example is: The motion of a ball falling down through the atmosphere

Newtons Second Law:

  • Newton's second law of motion is F = ma, where m is mass of an object and a is the acceleration due to gravity.
  • Example of Newtons 2nd law is Riding your bicycle .

Question 74

Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion(A) and the other is labeled as Reason(R).

Assertion(A): The Portuguese were the first European community to discover a direct sea route to India. 

Reason(R): The Turks started levying too many taxes on the goods passing through the routes of trade and commerce between Asia and Europe.

Choose the most appropriate answer.

  1. AOption (a)

    A is false, but R is true.

  2. BOption (b)

    A is true, but R is false

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • During those times, trade and commerce between Asia and Europe were taking place through the city of Constantinople.
  • In 1453, the Ottoman Turks captured the city of Constantinople.
  • As a result, all the trade routes connecting the city of Constantinople came under the control of the Turks.
  • The Turks started levying too many taxes on the goods passing through these routes.
  • As a result, trade became unprofitable.
  • Meanwhile, Spain and Portugal were attempting to break the monopoly of Italian traders.
  • They started encouraging enterprising sailors to find a new sea route to India as India was famous for its spices. Hence, Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A.
  • The invention of the compass, astrolabes, and gunpowder provided further impetus to this venture.
  • It was Vasco da Gama, a Portuguese explorer, who had discovered the first sea route to India in 1498.
  • Vasco da Gama arrived at Calicut, an important seaport located in South-West India on May 20, 1498 AD so the Portuguese were the first European community to discover a direct sea route to India.

Question 75

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Oak, Maple and Furniture

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information Venn diagram is given below.

Some Furniture are made from Maple's tree wood.

Some Furniture are made from Oak's tree wood.

Additional InformationMaple trees are mostly native to Asia, though some originate from Europe, northern Africa, and North America. Their wood is used by the lumber industry to make flooring, furniture, interior woodwork, plywood and veneer.

The oak is a kind of hardwood forest tree. They are well known as a climax vegetation in the temperate zone of the northern hemisphere. Oak is strong and durable wood used for making furniture.

Question 76

Select the correct option to complete the following analogy.

Rabbit : Hop :: Duck : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Waddle

  2. BOption (b)

    Slither

  3. COption (c)

    Creep

  4. DOption (d)

    Crawl

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Waddle

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

  • The movement of Rabbits is Hop.

Similarly,

  • The movement of Duck is known as Waddle.

Additional Information

MovementsAnimals
SwimSharks, Fishes, Whale, Turtles
SlitherWorm lizards
CreepTurtles, Lizards, Frogs, and Toads
CrawlMoth, Lobster

Question 77

Which diagram correctly represents the relationship of pigeons, birds, dogs?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Pigeons are a specific type of birds. Thus pigeons will be completely inside birds. And Birds and Dogs are mutually exclusive of each other that mean they will not intersect each other.

Hence option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 78

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure series is shown below:

Hence, ‘option 4’ is the correct answer.

Question 79

Divya travels 15 km south, turns left and travels 40 km to reach at the college gate. She then turns right and travels 50 km. Finally, she turns right and travels 40 km. How much minimum distance does she have to travel to go back to the starting point?

  1. AOption (a)

    65 km

  2. BOption (b)

    50 km

  3. COption (c)

    40 km

  4. DOption (d)

    45 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

65 km

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information:

  • Divya travels 15 km south, turns left and travels 40 km to reach at the college gate.
  • She then turns right and travels 50 km.
  • Finally, she turns right and travels 40 km.

So, the minimum distance she have to travel to go back to the starting point = Distance between AE 

= 50 + 15 

= 65

Hence, the correct answer is "65".

Question 80

In the given diagram, Circle represent Water, Rectangle represent Wheat and Square represent Rice. Find the number of rice which are not water.. 

  1. AOption (a)

    9

  2. BOption (b)

    25

  3. COption (c)

    16

  4. DOption (d)

    5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

25

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information:

I. Number of rice which are not water.

  • As per the given diagram the shaded part represents number of rice which are not water is  9 + 16 = 25.

​​Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)".

Question 81

In the given Venn diagram, the rectangle 'people having blue eyes', the triangle represents 'people having extra fingers', and the circle represents 'people having dimples'.

The number of people who have extra fingers and blue eyes and no dimples is A and if the number of people who have extra fingers and dimples and no blue eyes is B. What is the sum of A and B?

  1. AOption (a)

    70

  2. BOption (b)

    40

  3. COption (c)

    67

  4. DOption (d)

    43

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

43

Why this answer is correct

The number of people who have extra fingers and blue eyes and no dimples is A.

  • A = 28

The number of people who have extra fingers and dimples and no blue eyes is B.

  • B = 15

The sum of A and B = 28 + 15 = 43

     Hence, '43' is the correct answer.

Question 82

Find the missing character.

  1. AOption (a)

    P

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    V

  4. DOption (d)

    S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

S

Why this answer is correct

Table show alphabet serial number –

 

The pattern for the code is as follows,

In the tringle, if the upper side alphabet adds three we get the tringle right side alphabet and if we subtract three we get the left side alphabet. 

And,

Similarly,

Hence, the missing term is S.

Question 83

If P denotes 'Addition’, Q denotes 'Division’, R denotes ‘Multiplication’ and S denotes ‘Subtraction’, then which of the statements given below is/are correct.

Statement I: 32 Q 4 P 16 S 4 R 2 = 24

Statement II: 27 Q 3 R 2 P 5 S 7 = 16

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: 32 Q 4 P 16 S 4 R 2 = 24

After applying the codded symbols

⇒ 32 ÷ 4 + 16 - 4 ×  2 = 24

⇒ 8 + 16 - 4 × 2 = 24 

⇒ 8 + 16 - 8 = 24

⇒ 24 - 8 = 24

⇒ 16 ≠ 24

⇒ 32 Q 4 P 16 S 4 R 2 = 24 ⇒ False

Statement II: 27 Q 3 R 2 P 5 S 7 = 16

After applying the codded symbols

⇒ 27 ÷ 3 × 2 + 5 - 7 = 16

⇒ 9 × 2 + 5 - 7 = 16

⇒ 18 + 5 - 7 = 16

⇒ 23 - 7 = 16

⇒ 16 = 16

27 Q 3 R 2 P 5 S 7 = 16  ⇒ True

Therefore, only Statement II is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "option (2)"

Question 84

Rearrange the jumbled-up letters in their natural sequence and find the odd one out.

  1. AOption (a)

    TOGA

  2. BOption (b)

    GEPONI

  3. COption (c)

    RARPOT

  4. DOption (d)

    LEEGA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

TOGA

Why this answer is correct

TOGA is written as GOAT

GEPONI is written as PIGEON

RARPOT is written as PARROT

LEEGA is written as EAGLE

All the above are birds except GOAT.

Hence, “TOGA” is the correct answer.

Question 85

From amongst the figures (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E), select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in figure (X)

  1. AOption (a)

    B

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    E

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B

Why this answer is correct

In figure (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to circle and parallelogram, the second dot lies in the region of parallelogram, and the third dot lie in region common to parallelogram, circle and triangle. Only figure (B) consists of these types of regions.

Question 86

Four letter-clusters have been given out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd one.

  1. AOption (a)

    NGMAO

  2. BOption (b)

    CNILPE

  3. COption (c)

    ANNABA

  4. DOption (d)

    APELP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

CNILPE

Why this answer is correct

Four letter - clusters have been given:

NGMAO → MANGO

CNILPE → PENCIL

ANNABA → BANANA

APELP → APPLE

All are the names of the fruits except, Pencil which is a stationary item.

Hence, CNILPE is different from all.

Question 87

K walks 10 km towards North. From there he walks 6 km towards South. Then he walks 3 km towards East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point? 

  1. AOption (a)

    5 km West

  2. BOption (b)

    5 km North-east

  3. COption (c)

    7 km East

  4. DOption (d)

    7 km West

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5 km North-east

Why this answer is correct

The movements of K

K to P = 10km north,

P to M = 6km south,

M to N = 3km east

We have ∆KMN

MK = KP – MP

4km = 10km – 6km

∴ K distance from starting point KN = √MK2  + MN2

                                                       = √42 + 32  

                                                       = √16 + 9

                                                       = √25

                                                       = 5km. 

So K is '5 km to the North-East' of his starting point.

The correct answer is 'B'.

Question 88

Select a figure amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space(?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed).

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The figure which will complete the pattern is:

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 89

Point B is 3m North of point A. Point C is 3m West of point B. Point D is 5m South of point C. Point E is 7m East of point D. In which of the following directions is point E, with reference to point B?

  1. AOption (a)

    South-East

  2. BOption (b)

    East

  3. COption (c)

    West

  4. DOption (d)

    South

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

South-East

Why this answer is correct

i) Point B is 3m North of point A.

ii) Point C is 3m West of point B.

iii) Point D is 5m South of point C.

iv) Point E is 7m East of point D.

Drawing the Diagram as per the given information:

Thus we can se direction of E is South-East with reference to point B.

Hence, the correct is "South-East".

Question 90

If 'L' means '×', 'M' means '-', 'N' means '+', and 'O' means '÷', then what will be the value of the following expression?

6 L 25 M 15 N 45 O 5

  1. AOption (a)

    145

  2. BOption (b)

    144

  3. COption (c)

    150

  4. DOption (d)

    134

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

144

Why this answer is correct

BODMAS rule:

Decoding the information;

LetterNMOL
Means+-÷×

Given,

6 L 25 M 15 N 45 O 5

After replacing the sign from left to right and using the BODMAS rule ,

= 6 × 25 - 15 + 45 ÷ 5

= 6 × 25 - 15 + 9

= 150 - 15 + 9

= 159 - 15

= 144

Hence, the correct answer is 144.

Question 91

Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

Logic:

In the given figure the symbols O, C and S are moving in a clockwise direction and the other symbols +, = and star(*) moving in an anticlockwise direction.

Here, the answer figure is 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (2)".

Question 92

In a certain code language, ‘BREAD’ is written as ' JGKXH ' and ‘DANCE’ is written as ‘KITGJ’. How will ‘CROWN’ be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    TCUXI

  2. BOption (b)

    SCUXI

  3. COption (c)

    TCUXJ

  4. DOption (d)

    TDUXI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

TCUXI

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

In BREAD →

In DANCE →

Similarly;

In CROWN →

In each pair diagonally letter has a increment of 6 positional value.

Hence, the correct answer is  "TCUXI".

Question 93

If Neelam says, “Anita's father Raj Is the only son of my father-in-law Sunil", then how is Kavita, who is the sister of Anita, related to Sunil?

  1. AOption (a)

    Grand Daughter

  2. BOption (b)

    Niece

  3. COption (c)

    Daughter

  4. DOption (d)

    Daughter-in-law

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Grand Daughter

Why this answer is correct

From the given information,

Anita's father Raj is the only son of my (Neelam's) father-in-law Sunil, implies Neelam is the wife of Raj. Thus, the family tree is as follows:

Now if Kavita is the sister of Anita, then the final family tree is as follows:

Hence, Kavita is the granddaughter of Sunil.

Question 94

A is the brother-in-law of B. B is the daughter of M who is the wife of G. J is the father of N. N is the only son-in-law of G. B is the daughter-in-law of C who is grandparent of F. Then how is A related to F?

  1. AOption (a)

    Paternal uncle

  2. BOption (b)

    Maternal uncle

  3. COption (c)

    Brother

  4. DOption (d)

    Grandfather

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Paternal uncle

Why this answer is correct

According to given conditions,

1) B is the daughter of M who is the wife of G.

2) N is the only son-in-law of G.

3) J is the father of N. 

4) A is the brother-in-law of B.

5) B is the daughter-in-law of C who is grandparent of F.

As the only married child till now is N, therefore F is either daughter or son of B and N.

Thus, according to the final family tree A is the paternal uncle of F.

Hence, "Paternal uncle" is the correct answer.

Question 95

Select the related word from the given alternatives.

School : Principal :: Newspaper : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Editor

  2. BOption (b)

    Printer

  3. COption (c)

    Reporter

  4. DOption (d)

    Distributor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Editor

Why this answer is correct

School is headed by Principal.

Similarly,

Newspaper is headed by an Editor. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Question 96

Study the pattern in the first two pictures and then choose the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the third picture.

  1. AOption (a)

    22

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    26

  4. DOption (d)

    16

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

18

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is,

⇒ (23 + 15) - 32 = 38 - 32 = 6

⇒ (19 + 26) - 29 = 45 - 29 = 16

Similarly,

⇒ (27 + 9) - 18 = 36 - 18 = 18

So, the missing term is 18.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2.

Question 97

From the given options, select the option in which the dot can be placed in exactly the same way as shown in the figure (X) below.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

Hint

If exact figure is not shown in options, mark the most appropriate option present.

On observing the given figures carefully, we get:

In the question figure (X),

  1. One dot is in the common area of the Y-shape, Kite-shape, and  square.
  2. One dot is in the common area of the Y-shape and circle.
  3. One dot is solely placed in the Kite-shape only.

Figure (A) → All the required conditions are fulfilled as shown below:

Figure (B) → Common area of the Y-shape, Kite-shape, and  square isn't present.

Figure (C) → Common area of the Y-shape, Kite-shape, and  square isn't present.

Figure (D) → Common area of the Y-shape, Kite-shape, and  square isn't present.

Hence, the correct answer is "Figure (A)".

 

We should not think of the exact shape and size of the figures in these questions.

Just resemblance will work like if an Equilateral triangle is given in the question figure, any shape of a triangle in the answer figure will work, be it right triangle or scalene triangle.

Question 98

Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed in the given series is:

  There is a repetition of triangle, square and pentagon in the series.

   In each step a new alphabet is introduced at the corner in clockwise pattern.

Next step will be:

  The alphabet will be 'D' and it will be placed at the only corner left i.e. bottom left.

  The shapes in the first step will repeat itself.

  

<br>

Now we compare the given options:

Option 1) The pattern matches completely.

Option 2) Shaded shape is the wrong shape.

Option 3) Alphabet 'D' is missing.

Option 4) Shaded shape is the wrong shape.

Hence the correct answer is option 1)

Question 99

In a code language, the word 'MISTER' is coded as SGWWNS and the word 'FOREST' is coded as 'UUHVTL', then the code for the word 'PERSON', in the same code language is

  1. AOption (a)

    OPVUJW

  2. BOption (b)

    OQVVJV

  3. COption (c)

    OQWVKV

  4. DOption (d)

    OPWUKW

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

OQVVJV

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

'MISTER' is coded as SGWWNS

  • 'FOREST' is coded as 'UUHVTL'

Similarly, PERSON

Hence, 'OQVVJV' is the correct answer.

Question 100

Direction: In the following question there is a related pair of words given. Complete the analogy.

Earth : Globe :: Dry : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fresh

  2. BOption (b)

    Arid

  3. COption (c)

    Wet

  4. DOption (d)

    Lively

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Arid

Why this answer is correct

Correct answer: Option 2: Arid

Key Points

  • Let us see the meaning of the words given in the question: Earth : Globe.
  • Earth: the world; the planet on which we live
  • Globe: a round object with a map of the world on it.
  • In the given pair, Earth : Globe, the synonym of earth is globe.
  • The meaning of the word dry is without liquid in it or on it; not wet.
  • Now, let's explore the meaning of the words given in the options:
  • Fresh: produced or picked very recently; not frozen or in a tin
  • Arid: very dry
  • Wet: covered in a liquid, especially water
  • Lively: full of energy, interest, excitement, etc.
  • The synonym of dry is arid.
  • Complete analogy: Earth : Globe :: Dry : Arid

100 questions in the full paper