Previous Year Paper

AFCAT 02/2023 Memory Based Paper 27 Aug 2023 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2023

100 questions120 minutes
With answers
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Full Test (100 questions)

Question 1

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Absolve

  1. AOption (a)

    Accuse

  2. BOption (b)

    Condemn

  3. COption (c)

    Attack

  4. DOption (d)

    Pardon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pardon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e., 'Pardon'.

Key Points

  • Absolve is a verb which means declare (someone) free from guilt, obligation, or punishment. ((किसी को) अपराधबोध, दायित्व या दंड से मुक्त घोषित करना।)
  • The meaning of the given options are as follows - 
  • Accuse - charge (someone) with an offence or crime. (अपराध या अपराध के साथ आरोप (कोई)।)
  • Condemn - express complete disapproval of; censure. (की पूर्ण अस्वीकृति व्यक्त करें; निंदा)
  • Attack - take aggressive military action against (a place or enemy forces) with weapons or armed force. (हथियारों या सशस्त्र बल के साथ (एक जगह या दुश्मन सेना) के खिलाफ आक्रामक सैन्य कार्रवाई करना।)
  • Pardon - the action of forgiving or being forgiven for an error or offence. (किसी त्रुटि या अपराध के लिए क्षमा करने या क्षमा करने की क्रिया।)
  • From the above meanings it is evident that pardon is the correct synonym for the word absolve.

Question 2

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Devolve

  1. AOption (a)

    Delegate

  2. BOption (b)

    Centralize

  3. COption (c)

    Retain

  4. DOption (d)

    Incline

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Delegate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Delegate"

Key Points

  • Let's see the meanings of the given words-
  • Devolve- transfer or delegate (power) to a lower level, especially from central government to local or regional administration. (स्थानांतरण या प्रतिनिधि (शक्ति) निचले स्तर पर, विशेष रूप से केंद्र सरकार से स्थानीय या क्षेत्रीय प्रशासन को।)
  • Delegate- entrust (a task or responsibility) to another person, typically one who is less senior than oneself. (किसी अन्य व्यक्ति को सौंपना (एक कार्य या जिम्मेदारी), आमतौर पर वह जो स्वयं से कम वरिष्ठ हो)
  • Centralize- concentrate (control of an activity or organization) under a single authority.(एक ही प्राधिकरण के तहत ध्यान केंद्रित (किसी गतिविधि या संगठन का नियंत्रण)।)
  • Retain- continue to have (something); keep possession of.(जारी रखना (कुछ); कब्जा रखना।)
  • Incline- be favorably disposed towards or willing to do something. (कुछ करने के लिए अनुकूल या इच्छुक होना।)
  • Hence, according to the meanings of the given words, the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. "Delegate"

Question 3

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Archaic

  1. AOption (a)

    Modern

  2. BOption (b)

    Outdated

  3. COption (c)

    Obsolete

  4. DOption (d)

    Frivolous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Modern

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Modern'. 

Key Points

  • Let us look at the meanings of the given word and the correct answer. 
  • Archaic: extremely old or old-fashioned.
  • Example: He often uses archaic words in his speeches.
  • Modern: of or relating to present and recent time.
  • Example: We need to be updated with the modern technology.
  • Thus, the word 'modern' is the most appropriate antonym of 'archaic'.
  • Hence, option 1) is the correct answer.
<br>

Additional Information

WordMeaning
Outdatedno longer current
E.g., Don't show us outdated designs.
Obsoleteno longer in use or no longer useful
E.g., Nowadays, you won't find an obsolete typewriter easily.
Frivolousof little weight or importance
E.g., You must not indulge in frivolous activities.

Question 4

Directions

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.**

PLACATE

  1. AOption (a)

    Propitiate

  2. BOption (b)

    Enrage

  3. COption (c)

    Appease

  4. DOption (d)

    Conciliate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Enrage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Enrage'.

<br>

Key Points 

  • The word 'Placate' means to lessen the anger or agitation of someone.
  • The antonyms of the word 'Placate' are "enrage, anger, infuriate".
  • From the antonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'Enrage' is the opposite in meaning.
  • The word 'Enrage' means to make someone very angry.
  • Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
WORDSMEANING
Propitiatewin or regain the favour of (a god, spirit, or person) by doing something that pleases them
Appeasepacify or placate (someone) by acceding to their demands
Conciliatestop (someone) being angry or discontented; placate
<br>

Hence, the correct answer is Enrage.

 

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Placate' are "propitiate, appease, conciliate".
  • Example of 'Placate' in a sentence:
  • His intent is clearly not to placate his critics.

Question 5

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Hit the hay

  1. AOption (a)

    To rise early in the morning

  2. BOption (b)

    To go to bed

  3. COption (c)

    To use unfair means

  4. DOption (d)

    To get excited

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To go to bed

Why this answer is correct

Hit the hay- to go to bed

Example- I'm so tired. It's time to hit the hay.

Additional information-

  • Make hay when the sun shines- to take advantage of an opportunity

Example- Sarita made it clear she was making hay while the sun shone.

  • Hay seed- An unsophisticated person

Example- When I knew Ram, he was a total hayseed, but I guess he's converted to city life now.

Question 6

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To be in hot water

  1. AOption (a)

    To be in a difficult situation in which you can be criticised

  2. BOption (b)

    To enjoy hot baths as a part of a health treatment

  3. COption (c)

    To enjoy being praised for taking up a challenge

  4. DOption (d)

    To be bold and refuse to be bullied by your superior

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To be in a difficult situation in which you can be criticised

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. “To be in a difficult situation in which you can be criticised.”

 

Key Points

Let’s look at the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase:

  • The phrase ‘to be in hot water’ means to get into a troubled or dangerous situation.
  • Example: ​The man found himself in hot water for revealing some secret news.
  • Hence, the only possible answer is option 1 ‘To be in a difficult situation in which you can be criticised’, which exactly resembles the meaning of the given idiom/ phrase.

 

Correct meaning: To be in a difficult situation in which you can be criticised.

Question 7

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Blow hot and cold

  1. AOption (a)

    This one time, for only one time

  2. BOption (b)

    Having no stand, shows favour at one time and unfavoured at another

  3. COption (c)

    Natural and simple

  4. DOption (d)

    A mental institutional facility

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Having no stand, shows favour at one time and unfavoured at another

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Having no stand, shows favour at one time and unfavored at another."

Key Points

  • Idiom means an expression that cannot be understood from the meanings of its separate words but must be learned as a whole. 
  • Example: "Hit the sack" means to go to bed in order to sleep.
  • I’ve got a busy day tomorrow, so I think I’ll hit the sack.
  • The given idiom "Blow hot and cold" means 
  • alternate inconsistently between two moods, attitudes, or courses of action.
  • Example: He's been blowing hot and cold about the trip to Goa.
  • From the above explanation, it is clear that option 2 describes the correct meaning of the given idiom.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 8

Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words.

One who is beyond reform

  1. AOption (a)

    Incorrigible

  2. BOption (b)

    Implausible

  3. COption (c)

    Incomprehensible

  4. DOption (d)

    Improbable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Incorrigible

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Incorrigible.' 

Key Points

  • Let's understand the meaning of incorrigible:
  • incorrigible is an adjective and it means an incorrigible person or incorrigible behaviour is bad and impossible to change or improve. (एक असाध्य व्यक्ति या असुधार्य व्यवहार जिसे बदलना या सुधारना असंभव है।)
  • Example: Mithali is an incorrigible liar.
  • By the above meaning and example, we can say that 'incorrigible' is the correct answer.

Hence option 1 is the appropriate answer. 

Additional Information 

  • Let's learn the meaning of the other given options:
  • implausible - Having a quality that provokes disbelief (अकल्पनीय)
  • incomprehensible - Incapable of being explained (समझ से बाहर)
  • improbable - Not likely to be true or to occur (असंभव)

Question 9

Select the correct one word for the given group of words:

A group of girls.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bevy

  2. BOption (b)

    Covey

  3. COption (c)

    Fleet

  4. DOption (d)

    Flock

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bevy

Why this answer is correct

The one word for the given sentence is Bevy.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the meaning and example of the marked option: 
  • Bevy(noun)- "a large group of people, especially women or girls, or a large group of similar things". (लोगों का एक बड़ा समूह, विशेषकर महिलाएं या लड़कियां, या समान चीजों का एक बड़ा समूह)
  • E.g: He is greeted by a bevy of attractive women.
  • Let's have a look at the meaning of the other given options:
  • Covey(noun)- "a group of birds". (पक्षियों का एक समूह)
  • Fleet(noun)- "a group of ships, or all of the ships in a country's navy". (जहाजों का एक समूह, या देश की नौसेना में सभी जहाजों का समूह)
  • Flock(noun)- "a group of sheep, goats, or birds". (भेड़, बकरी या पक्षियों का एक समूह)
  • Hence, from the given meanings, we find that Bevy is the correct one-word substitute.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1).

Question 10

The following sentence has been split into four parts (1 to 4). Identify the part that contains an error.

Either my aunt or (1) / my cousin have (2) / the cookbook my (3) / uncle wrote. (4)

  1. AOption (a)

    (1)

  2. BOption (b)

    (3)

  3. COption (c)

    (2)

  4. DOption (d)

    (4)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(2)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "(2)".

Key Points

  • The sentence is:"Either my aunt or (1) / my cousin have (2) / the cookbook my (3) / uncle wrote. (4)"
  • Here, the part that contains the error is "my cousin have".
  • The error here is about subject-verb agreement.
  • When we use "either/or" or "neither/nor" in a sentence, the verb should agree with the nearest subject.
  • "My cousin" is a singular subject, therefore it requires a singular verb.
  • The verb "have" is plural, so it does not match the singular subject "my cousin".
  • So the correct sentence should be: "Either my aunt or my cousin has the cookbook my uncle wrote."

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 11

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

First, tell me / why are they / late to work / every other day.

  1. AOption (a)

    First, tell me

  2. BOption (b)

    every other day

  3. COption (c)

    late to work

  4. DOption (d)

    why are they

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

why are they

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "why are they".

Key Points

  • To determine which segment contains a grammatical error, let's analyze each one:
  • "First, tell me" - This segment is grammatically correct.
  • It is common to use this phrase to ask someone to explain something first before discussing anything else.
  • "every other day" - This is also grammatically correct.
  • It is a common phrase used to denote a recurring event that takes place every second day.
  • "late to work" - This segment is grammatically correct.
  • It describes the condition of being tardy to one's job.
  • "why are they" - This is where the error lies.
  • When a question is embedded within a larger sentence, it is generally supposed to be structured in statement syntax, not question syntax.
  • So instead of "why are they," it should be "why they are."
  • The corrected sentence would then read: "First, tell me why they are late to work every other day."
  • Therefore, segment 4 "why are they" contains the grammatical error.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 12

In the following sentence, an error is present in one of the four underlined parts. Identify the part with an error.

She avoided (a)/ to visit (b)/ after the incident (c)/ that had happened at her place.(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Part b".

Key Points

  • 'Avoid' is a verb that is followed by a gerund (-ing form) rather than an infinitive ('to' form). A gerund is itself a kind of non-finite verb form – that is, a verb form that is not tied to the tense, mood, or aspect of the clause in which it appears.
  • Therefore, the correct form should be "visiting" after "avoided", not "to visit".
  • The corrected sentence should read, "She avoided visiting after the incident that had happened at her place."
  • Non-finites are typically used to compress information: in this case, to compress the information of an activity into a single word. As 'avoid' usually indicates a foregoing action, it naturally pairs with verbs in their '-ing' form. That encapsulates the aspect of the avoided action more neatly than the infinitive form, which does not mark for aspect.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Question 13

Any part of the following sentence may have error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error or no error.

The captain along with his team / are practicing very hard / for the forthcoming match.

  1. AOption (a)

    The captain along with his team

  2. BOption (b)

    for the forthcoming match.

  3. COption (c)

    No error 

  4. DOption (d)

    are practicing very hard

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

are practicing very hard

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'are practicing very hard'

 Key Points

  • When we use phrases like 'along with', 'as well as' or 'together with' to join two subjects, the verb will agree with the first subject. In this case, it should be "The captain along with his team is practicing very hard".
  • Here, the main subject is 'The captain', which is singular so the verb should be 'is' instead of 'are'.
  • In English grammar, if two singular nouns are connected by 'along with', the verb should be singular.
  • This sentence structure might be confusing because 'his team' seems like it should be the subject of 'are', but in fact, 'The captain' is the subject, hence using 'are' is inappropriate.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 14

Improve the underlined part of the sentence. Choose 'No improvement' as an answer if the sentence is grammatically correct.

She was fined of driving over the speed limit.

  1. AOption (a)

    fine of driving

  2. BOption (b)

    fined for drive

  3. COption (c)

    fined for driving

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

fined for driving

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: fined for driving

Key Points

  • In the original sentence, the word "of" is incorrectly used after "fined."
  • The correct preposition to use with "fined" is "for".
  • "Fine of driving" and "fined for drive" are both incorrect grammatically.
  • The correct structure is "fined for + gerund (verb+ing)".
  • The construction "for + gerund" (verb + -ing form) is a grammatical structure used to indicate the purpose, reason, or cause for action.
  • When someone is fined, it means they are being penalized or required to pay a certain amount of money as a consequence of their actions. In this case, the action is "driving over the speed limit."

Therefore, the correct answer is option 3.

Corrected sentence: She was fined for driving over the speed limit.

Question 15

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

"If he ____ sooner, he could have caught the train."

  1. AOption (a)

    Arrived

  2. BOption (b)

    Had arrived

  3. COption (c)

    Would arrive

  4. DOption (d)

     Would have arrived

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Had arrived

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Had arrived".

 

Key Points

  • The sentence is trying to express a condition in the past that didn't happen, which is why we use the third conditional sentence structure.
  • The third conditional sentence structure includes "if" followed by the past perfect tense, and then "would have" + past participle.
  • "Had arrived" is in the past perfect tense which is used to talk about something that didn't happen before another action in the past. In this case, him not arriving before the train left.
  • "Arrived" is the simple past tense which doesn't convey the conditional aspect needed.
  • "Would arrive" and "would have arrived" both refer to the future from the perspective of the past, and thus, aren't used here.
  • Hence, the correct answer is 'option 2'.

Question 16

Fill up the blank:

He saw me by chance and ______ the car.

  1. AOption (a)

    was stopping

  2. BOption (b)

    stops

  3. COption (c)

    stopped

  4. DOption (d)

    stop

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

stopped

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'stopped' (Option 3)

 Key Points

  • In this context, the past tense verb "stopped" is needed to match the past tense "saw".
  • The action of stopping the car is a completed, past event because he already "saw".
  • The other options - "was stopping", "stops", and "stop" - don't correctly match the tense of the sentence.
  • For example, "was stopping" is in the past continuous tense, used for actions in progress at some point in the past, not actions completed in the past.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 Additional Information

Correct verb tense consistency within sentences, paragraphs, and compositions is key to making your writing understandable and meaningful.

Question 17

Direction: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Meenakshi sweeps the ball excellently when she ______ an off - spin delivery.

  1. AOption (a)

    will get

  2. BOption (b)

    has got

  3. COption (c)

    got

  4. DOption (d)

    gets

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

gets

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "gets."

<br>

 Key Points

  • The first part of the sentence is in the present tense, so to maintain uniformity, we have to write the V1 form of the verb "get."
  • Structure for Simple Present Tense: Subject + V1 (s/es) + Object
  • Example: She plays with me.
  • So, the correct verb form to use is "gets."
  • The correct answer "gets" indicates that Meenakshi currently has the ability to sweep the ball well when faced with an off-spin delivery.
  • The correct answer is Option 4.

Correct sentence: Meenakshi sweeps the ball excellently when she gets an off - spin delivery.

 Additional Information

  • "Will get" implies a future action, which is not appropriate in this context.
  • "Has got" is incorrect because the past participle "got" is unnecessary in this sentence.
  • "Got" is past tense and does not match the present tense of the sentence.

Question 18

Fill in the blank with the correct conjunction.

Either I drive to the airport ________ I get a taxi.

  1. AOption (a)

    and

  2. BOption (b)

    if

  3. COption (c)

    or

  4. DOption (d)

    nor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

or

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'or'.

Key Points

  • In the given sentence the most appropriate conjunction to fill-in-the-given blank is 'or'.
  • Some Conjunctions are in pairs. They are called 'Correlative Conjunctions' or merely 'Correlatives'.
  • These pairs are: As ... as, So ... as, Neither ... nor, Either ... or, Hardly ... when, No sooner ... than, Scarcely ... when, So ... that, Too ... to, Such ... as, Such ... that, Though/ Although ... yet, Lest ... should, Whether ... or, etc.
  • Example: 
  • It’s either black or grey.
  • It’s either black nor grey.
  • We know that 'either' is followed by 'or'.
  • Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option 3.

​

Correct Sentence: Either I drive to the airport or I get a taxi.

Additional Information

  • We know that 'Hardly/Scarcely' is followed by 'when'. 
  • Example:​ Hardly did I see him when I stopped my car.
  • We also know that 'Both' is complemented by 'and', not by 'as well as'. 
  • Example: Both Naresh and Monika are good friends.

Question 19

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence that is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

Global factors are important, but_______________

P: India is uniquely placed as a large economy

Q: depending on export markets

R: whose major activity, wealth- and job creation

S: come internally, instead of

  1. AOption (a)

    PRQS

  2. BOption (b)

    RQPS

  3. COption (c)

    QPSR

  4. DOption (d)

    PRSQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

PRSQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “PRSQ”

Key Points

  • If we read the opening statement, we can conclude that the presence of ' but' indicates that the following part is of the opposite idea of ​​the opening sentence.
  • Clause ‘P’ opens with India’s condition; Thus, the opening statement and clause ‘P’ make a mandatory pair.
  • Further, clause ‘P’ mentions ends with the mention of the Indian economy and clause ‘R’ opens with ‘whose’ (it refers to the economy). Thus, clause ‘P’ gives further information in clause ‘R.’
  • Clause ‘S’ is dependent on information given by clause ‘R.’ So, clause ‘S’ is the third statement.
  • Clause ‘Q’ is the concluding statement.

Hence, the correct answer is “Global factors are important, but India is uniquely placed as a large economy whose major activity, wealth- and job creation come internally, instead of depending on export markets.”

Additional Information

When we are doing Sentence Rearrangement & Para jumbles, we have to keep three things in our mind:

  1. Identify the introductory and concluding sentences.
  2. After identifying the first and last sentences, the next task is to trace the flow of information the author used. By doing this, you will be able to see the purpose of all the paragraphs, which by default will prompt you to develop a sequence between the sentences.
  3. 'For solving parajumbles, combining statements based on particular characteristics or indicators works well.

Question 20

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence that is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

The decline in______________________

P: the share of small borrowers in the

Q: total credit during the 2010-20 period

R: can be explained by the dramatic rise

S: in corporate credit of large borrowers

  1. AOption (a)

    QPRS

  2. BOption (b)

    PRQS

  3. COption (c)

    PQRS

  4. DOption (d)

    SPQR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PQRS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “PQRS”

Key Points

  • All the sentences are already arranged in the proper way and no rearrangement is needed. The arrangement “PQRS” is grammatically and contextually correct.

Hence, the correct answer is “The decline in the share of small borrowers in the total credit during the 2010-20 period can be explained by the dramatic rise in corporate credit of large borrowers.”

Additional Information

When we are doing Sentence Rearrangement & Para jumbles, we have to keep three things in our mind:

  1. Identify the introductory and concluding sentences.
  2. After identifying the first and last sentences, the next task is to trace the flow of information the author used. By doing this, you will be able to see the purpose of all the paragraphs, which by default will prompt you to develop a sequence between the sentences.
  3. For solving parajumbles, combining statements based on particular characteristics or indicators works well.

Question 21

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence that is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

Anamika had longed to see her daughter______________________so, she rushed out of her house and hailed a taxi to reach the station in time.

P: “she will arrive at the station at 12 O'clock”, she said to herself.

Q: and she prepared herself for it.

R: She looked at the clock.

S: There were only ten minutes left.

  1. AOption (a)

    PQRS

  2. BOption (b)

    QPSR

  3. COption (c)

    PRSQ

  4. DOption (d)

    QPRS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

QPRS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “QPRS”

Key Points

  • If we read the opening statement clearly, we can conclude that the next statement should continue to explain her further situation, which is given in clauses ‘Q’ and ‘P’, Thus, meaningfully, clause ‘Q’ is the first statement and clause ‘P’ is the second statement.
  • Clause ‘R’ and ‘S’  is a pair (she looked at the clock and only ten minutes left)
  • Clause ‘S’ is the fourth statement part (only ten minutes left she rushed out of her house).
  • Clause ‘S’ gives further information on the concluding statement.

Hence, the correct answer is “Anamika had longed to see her daughter, and she prepared herself for it, "She will arrive at the station at 12 o'clock," she said to herself. She looked at the clock, there were only ten minutes left, so she rushed out of her house and hailed a taxi to reach the station in time.”

Additional Information

When we are doing Sentence Rearrangement & Para jumbles, we have to keep three things in our mind:

  1. Identify the introductory and concluding sentences.
  2. After identifying the first and last sentences, the next task is to trace the flow of information the author used. By doing this, you will be able to see the purpose of all the paragraphs, which by default will prompt you to develop a sequence between the sentences.
  3. 'For solving parajumbles, combining statements based on particular characteristics or indicators works well.

Question 22

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence that is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

In the shops of Cambodia, Kulwant Singh______________________particularly financial ones.

P: of our elephant-headed God of success, Ganesha

Q: who was likely to be a counterpart

R: missed the image of any God

S: presiding over all our enterprises

  1. AOption (a)

    QPRS

  2. BOption (b)

    QPSR

  3. COption (c)

    PQSR

  4. DOption (d)

    RSPQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

QPSR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “QPSR”

Key Points

  • Clause ‘Q’ is the first statement because we use 'who' for Kulwant Singh.
  • Clause ‘Q’ and ‘P’ is a pair (counterpart - of)
  • Clause ‘S’ is dependent on clause ‘P’, Thus, clause ‘S’ is the third statement.
  • Clause ‘R’ gives further information for the concluding statement.

Hence, the correct answer is “In the shops of Cambodia, Kulwant Singh, who was likely to be a counterpart of our elephant-headed God of success, Ganesha, presiding over all our enterprises, missed the image of any god, particularly financial ones.”

Additional Information

When we are doing Sentence Rearrangement & Para jumbles, we have to keep three things in our mind:

  1. Identify the introductory and concluding sentences.
  2. After identifying the first and last sentences, the next task is to trace the flow of information the author used. By doing this, you will be able to see the purpose of all the paragraphs, which by default will prompt you to develop a sequence between the sentences.
  3. 'For solving parajumbles, combining statements based on particular characteristics or indicators works well.

Direction: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number.

Earth is a part of the Solar system. It is the third ______ (1) ______ from the sun. The atmosphere of Earth has free oxygen, water and life which is ______ (2) ______ for all of us. Earth is larger______ (3) ______ Mercury, Mars and Venus and it is smaller than Jupiter, Saturn Uranus and Neptune. Earth is ______ (4) ______ in shape and almost 71% of it is enfolded with water. Plants are responsible for ______ (5) ______ a considerable part of Earth’s oxygen.

Question 23

Which of these should be filled at (5) as per the context of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Producing

  2. BOption (b)

    Wasting

  3. COption (c)

    Ignoring

  4. DOption (d)

    Existence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Producing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Producing'.

Key Points

  • The passage is all about a brief description of Earth.
  • Let's find out the usage of the words given in options.
  • 'Producing' is a verb which means to 

make or manufacture from components or raw materials.

  • 'Wasting' is a verb which means to use or expend carelessly, extravagantly, or to no purpose.
  • 'Ignoring' is a verb which means to refuse to take notice of or acknowledge; disregard intentionally.
  • 'Existence' is a noun which means the fact or state of living or having objective reality.

→ " Plants are responsible for______ (5) ______ a considerable part of Earth’s oxygen." If we try to put all the words in the blank one by one, we find that 'existence' is a 'noun' and will not fit here contextually. Although 'wasting' and 'ignoring' are 'verbs' and can be used in the blank, yet they are contextually incorrect. So the correct answer is 'producing'. 

Additional Information

  • 'Verbs' are words that show action (sing), occurrence (develop), or state of being (exist).
  • Almost every sentence requires a' verb'.
  • Examples:
  • play, call, stay, live, etc.
  • 'Noun' is a word that is the name of something (such as a person, animal, place, thing, quality, idea, or action).
  • It is typically used in a sentence as subject or object of a verb or as an object of a preposition
  • Examples:
  • ​boy, girl, building, temple, chair, etc

Question 24

Which of these should be filled at (4) as per the context of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    ellipsoid

  2. BOption (b)

    cylindrical

  3. COption (c)

    square

  4. DOption (d)

    uneven

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ellipsoid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Ellipsoid'.

Key Points

  • The passage is all about a brief description of Earth.
  • Let's find out the usage of the words given in options.
  • Ellipsoid- An ellipsoid is a surface that may be obtained from a sphere by deforming it by means of directional scalings
  • 'Cylindrical' means shaped like a cylinder.
  • 'Square' means a plane figure with four equal straight sides and four right angles.
  • 'Uneven' means not level or smooth.

→ " Earth is ______ (4) ______ in shape and almost 71% of it is enfolded with water." If we try to put all the words in the blank one by one, we find that 'round', 'square', and 'uneven' will not fit here contextually as their meanings are not satisfying the context. So the correct answer is 'Ellipsoid'.

Additional Information

  • According to scientific data, While the Earth appears to be round when viewed from the vantage point of space, it is actually closer to an ellipsoid. However, even an ellipsoid does not adequately describe the Earth’s unique and ever-changing shape.
  • Check out the link- The figure of the earth.

Question 25

Which of these should be filled at (3) as per the context of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Then

  2. BOption (b)

    Than

  3. COption (c)

    To

  4. DOption (d)

    From

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Than

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Than'.

Key Points

  • The passage is all about a brief description of Earth.
  • Let's find out the usage of the words given in options.
  • 'Then' is an adverb which means 

at that time; at the time in question, after that; next; afterwards.

  • 'Than' is a preposition which means introducing the second element in a comparison.
  • 'To' is a preposition which means expressing motion in the direction of (a particular location). It is always used next to 'prefer'.
  • 'From' is a preposition which means indicating the point in space at which a journey, motion, or action starts.

→ " Earth is larger ______ (3) ______ Mercury, Mars and Venus and it is smaller than Jupiter, Saturn Uranus and Neptune." If we try to put all the words in the blank one by one, we find that 'then' and 'from' will not fit here contextually as their meanings are not satisfying the context. Although, 'than' and 'to' can be used in the blank but 'to' is not used after 'larger'. So the correct answer is 'than'.

Additional Information

  • A preposition is a word used to link nouns, pronouns, or phrases to other words within a sentence.
  • They act to connect the people, objects, time and locations of a sentence.
  • Prepositions are usually short words, and they are normally placed directly in front of nouns.
  • Examples are:
  • to, from, of, with, than, etc.

Read the given passage and answer the following questions carefully  - 

In 1896, gold was discovered in the Klondike region of Yukon, Canada, triggering an unprecedented Gold rush that brought about significant transformation. Prospectors and adventurers traveled from far and wide in the hope of finding wealth overnight. The journey was treacherous, adventures were perilous, and only a minuscule number of those who embarked on the trip eventually struck gold. But it was not just the gold seekers that defined the era. The Klondike Gold Rush stimulated worldwide interest in prospecting for gold and the flowering of valuable industries that continue even today.

Entrepreneurs such as Friedrich Trump, the grandfather of Donald Trump, made the most of their opportunities without touching a shovel. Friedrich arrived in the Klondike and quickly set up a restaurant and inn that often served as the last comfort point for many gold diggers. He made his fortune by providing necessary commodities such as food, drinks, accommodation, and even entertainment to tired and hungry prospectors, ushering the service industry's tremendous growth.

Interestingly, the Klondike Gold Rush's environmental impact was significant. The insatiable digging and excavation transformed the landscape dramatically. Rivers got polluted from runoff and waste, while plants and animals faced displacement. However, the event also led to a boom in the relevant scientific research – geographers, biologists, chemists flocked to the region to study the environmental change, fueling an unexpected surge in environmental sciences.

Question 26

How did the Klondike Gold Rush affect industries other than mining?

  1. AOption (a)

    It spurred the growth of the service industry

  2. BOption (b)

    It resulted in the collapse of the shoe industry

  3. COption (c)

    It led to the decline of the jewelry industry

  4. DOption (d)

    It hindered the growth of the shipping industry

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It spurred the growth of the service industry

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "It spurred the growth of the service industry".

Key Points

  • The Klondike Gold Rush, while centered around gold mining, also significantly impacted other industries, particularly the service industry.
  • Entrepreneurs like Friedrich Trump established businesses to cater to the necessities and comforts of the prospectors, such as food, drink, and accommodation, thus bolstering the service industry's growth.
  • This specific effect of the gold rush represents the indirect economic outcomes, being more profitable than actual gold prospecting in some cases.
  • The second paragraph of the comprehension offers an insight into this development.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1’.

Question 27

Besides the prospectors, which another group was drawn to the Klondike region due to the Gold Rush? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Geographers, biologists, and chemists

  2. BOption (b)

    Astronomers and physicists

  3. COption (c)

    Mathematicians

  4. DOption (d)

    Historians and archaeologists

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Geographers, biologists, and chemists

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Geographers, biologists, and chemists".

Key Points

  • Besides gold prospectors, the Klondike Gold Rush acted as a magnet for geographers, biologists, and chemists interested in studying the environmental changes due to the exploitation.
  • These scientific researchers explored the region to understand and document the consequences of such massive human activity on the environment.
  • This spurred development in environmental sciences at that time.
  • Relevant details can be found in the third paragraph of the comprehension.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1’.

Question 28

What effect did the Klondike Gold Rush have on the environment?  

  1. AOption (a)

    It had no impact

  2. BOption (b)

    It led to a decrease in pollution

  3. COption (c)

    It caused pollution and landscape change

  4. DOption (d)

    It led to increased plant growth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It caused pollution and landscape change

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "It caused pollution and landscape change".

Key Points

  • The Klondike Gold Rush had significant environmental consequences; the landscape dramatically altered due to relentless digging and excavation.
  • Rivers got polluted from the effluence and waste, which disrupted the local ecosystem.
  • The gold rush affected flora and fauna in the region, leading to displacement and changes in population.
  • The hint lies in the third paragraph of the comprehension text.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3’.

Question 29

What business did Friedrich Trump set up during the Klondike Gold Rush? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Gold mining company

  2. BOption (b)

     Legal firm

  3. COption (c)

    Restaurant and inn

  4. DOption (d)

    Shoe factory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Restaurant and inn

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Restaurant and inn".

Key Points

  • Friedrich Trump capitalized on the influx of gold diggers by providing required services.
  • He didn't opt for mining but instead started a restaurant and inn, profiting from essential commodities and services.
  • His efforts significantly contributed to the growth of the service industry in that era.
  • This information can be found in the second paragraph of the comprehension text.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3’.

Question 30

When was the Klondike Gold Rush triggered?

  1. AOption (a)

    1856

  2. BOption (b)

    1896

  3. COption (c)

    1986

  4. DOption (d)

    1996

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1896

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "1896". 

Key Points

  • The Klondike Gold Rush was triggered in 1896 when gold was discovered in the Klondike region of Yukon, Canada.
  • This discovery led to a rush of prospectors and adventurers to the region, each hoping to strike it rich.
  • This year is central to the context of the comprehension, reflecting a significant historical period.
  • The hint lies in the first sentence of the comprehension itself.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2’.

Question 31

Consider the following statements regarding the Doctrine of Lapse.

  1. It was introduced by Lord Dalhousie.
  2. It derecognized the adopted sons of the deceased princes as legal heirs.
  3. Awadh was the first state to be annexed under this doctrine.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Important Points

The doctrine of Lapse:

  • The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by Lord Dalhousie. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • It was the chief instrument of his policy of annexation.
  • Under this Doctrine, when the ruler of a protected state died without a natural heir, his state was not to pass to an adopted heir as sanctioned by the age-old tradition of the country. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Instead, it was to be annexed to the British dominions unless the adoption had been clearly approved earlier by the British authorities.
  • Many states, including Satara in 1848 and Nagpur and Jhansi in 1854, were annexed by applying this doctrine.

 

  • Satara was the first state to be annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
  • The Nawab of Avadh had many heirs and could not therefore be covered by the Doctrine of Lapse.
  • Lord Dalhousie was keen on annexing the kingdom of Avadh.
  • He accused Nawab Wajid Ali Shah of having misgoverned his state and refusing to introduce reforms.
  • His state was therefore annexed in 1856.

Question 32

Which of the following soils is formed by lava?

  1. AOption (a)

    Red soil

  2. BOption (b)

    Black soil

  3. COption (c)

    Alluvial soil

  4. DOption (d)

    Laterite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Black soil

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Black soil.

  • Black soil is also known as Regur soil.

​

Key Points

  • It is formed by weathering of lava of igneous rock and then cooling of this lava after volcanic eruption happens.
  • The texture and composition of this soil are formed due to this lava.
  • The soil that is present in Deccan Plateau is black basalt soil that is rich in iron, hummus and contains a good quantity of lime, magnesia, and Alumina.
  • Basalt is a type of igneous rock.
  • It is formed due to the rapid freezing of the basaltic lava on the surface.
  • This is the most suitable for cotton cultivation.

Additional Information

  • Alluvial soils:-
  • The alluvium is said to be the soil that has been drained by flowing water and deposited elsewhere.
  • It is brittle or loose.
  • Its particles do not bind together to form a 'solid' shell.
  • It is best for agriculture.
  • Laterite soils:-
  • Laterite soil is formed in parts where dry and wet weather occurs repeatedly.
  • It is formed by the breakage of laterite rocks.
  • This soil is found on flat highlands.
  • It is very useful for tea, coffee cultivation due to its acidic nature.
  • Red soils:-
  • It is found in red and chocolate colors.
  • This soil is very porous and it is very useful for the Millet crop.
  • Dark red soil is suitable for cotton, wheat, pulses, coarse grains, etc.

Question 33

Which of the following is not a member of ASEAN?

  1. AOption (a)

    Myanmar

  2. BOption (b)

    Thailand

  3. COption (c)

    Indonesia

  4. DOption (d)

    India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India.

India is not a member of ASEAN.

Key Points

  • ASEAN
  • It is The Association of Southeast Asian Nations.
  • It was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand.
  • The founding members, namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand signed the Bangkok Declaration.

Additional Information

  • The ASEAN Vision 2020
  • It was adopted by the ASEAN Leaders on the 30th Anniversary of ASEAN.

Question 34

H S Prannoy is related to which among the following sports?

  1. AOption (a)

    Badminton

  2. BOption (b)

    Gymnastics

  3. COption (c)

    Tennis

  4. DOption (d)

    Hockey

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Badminton

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is Option 1 i.e Badminton.

Famous Indian Badminton PlayersPrakash Padukone Saina Nehwal P. Kashyap P. V. Sindhu HS Prannoy Dipankar Bhattacharya Pullela Gopichand
Famous Indian Gymnastics PlayersDipa Karmakar Ashish Kumar Darshan Mondal
Famous Indian Tennis PlayersLeander Paes Sania Mirza Mahesh Shrinivas Bhupathi Yuki Bhambri Rohan Bopanna
Famous Indian Hockey PlayersDhyan Chand Balbir Singh Dosanjh Udham Singh Kular Mandeep Singh Prabhjot Singh

Question 35

Match List - I (National Park) with List - II (Important Wildlife) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List - IList - II
(a) Gir national park(i) Elephant
(b) Ranthambore(ii) Indian Lion
(c) Kaziranga(iii) Tiger
(d) Bandipur(iv) One-horned Rhino
(e) Kanchenjunga park(v) Musk deer
  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (v), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii), e - (i)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i), e - (v)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (v), (d) - (iv), e - (i)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (v), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii), e - (i)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i), e - (v)

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

Gir national park:

  • Gir national park is located in Gujarat.
  • Gir national park is also known as Sasan Gir.
  • It is famous for Asiatic lions.
  • It is located in Junagadh, Gir Somnath and Amreli districts of Gujarat.

Ranthambore National Park:

  • It is a national park in Rajasthan, northern India, with an area of 1,334 km (515 sq mi).
  • It is bounded by the Banas River in the north and the Chambal River in the south.
  • It is named after the historic Ranthambore Fort, which is located within the park.
  • Ranthambore National Park was established in 1955 as the Sawai Madhopur Game Sanctuary, initially covering an area of 282 km (109 sq mi).
  • It was declared as one of the Project Tiger Reserves in 1973 and became a National Park on 1 November 1980.
  • In 1984, the surrounding forests were declared as Sawai Man Singh Sanctuary and Keladevi Sanctuary.

​Kaziranga:

  • The Kaziranga National Park and the Manas Tiger Project (National Park) are internationally famous for one-horned Rhino and Royal Bengal Tiger respectively.
  • Kaziranga national park is famous for being the world's largest habitat for the great one-horned rhinos.
  • Kaziranga National Park is situated in Assam.
  • It was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1985.

​Bandipur:

  • It is located in Chamarjanagar, Karnataka.
  • It was founded under the "Project Tiger" in the year 1974 by the government of India.
  • The "Project Tiger" was launched in 1973 to protect the population of tigers for scientific, aesthetic, cultural, and ecological values.
  • The Bandipur National Park is aimed at protecting the tiger in their natural habitat.
  • It is extended up to 872.24 sq. km.
  • Apart from the tiger, it is also the habitat of Asiatic elephants, sloths, pythons, jackals, antelopes, etc.
  • In addition, it also includes number of timber like teak, rosewood, sandalwood, etc.
  • The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve also encompasses the parts of Bandipur.

​Kanchenjunga park:

  • Khangchendzonga National Park is a National Park and a Biosphere reserve in Sikkim listed in UNESCO World Heritage Sites in July 2016.
  • It is India's first mixed heritage site, also included in UNESCO Man and the Biosphere Programme.
  • It is the natural habitat of  Asian black bear, Red panda, white-bellied musk deer, chestnut-breasted partridge, blood pheasant, and  snow leopard.
  • There are total 14 protected areas in the regions of Kanchenjunga.

The correct match of List-I to List-II is (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i), e - (v)

List - IList - II
(a) Gir national park(ii) Indian Lion
(b) Ranthambore(iii) Tiger
(c) Kaziranga(iv) One-horned Rhino
(d) Bandipur(i) Elephant
(e) Kanchenjunga park(v) Musk deer

Question 36

Which city will host the 2032 Summer Olympic Games?

  1. AOption (a)

    Athens

  2. BOption (b)

    Jakarta

  3. COption (c)

    Brisbane

  4. DOption (d)

    Tokyo

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Brisbane

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Brisbane.

Key Points

  • American executive Cindy Hook has been appointed as the inaugural CEO of the organising committee for the 2032 Olympic and Paralympic Games in Brisbane.
  • The organising committee announced the appointment on December 13 after engaging with 50 candidates over six months.
  • Hook was based in Singapore as CEO of Deloitte Asia Pacific until June and had previously worked for the international professional services network in the US and in Australia, moving to Sydney in 2009 to lead the auditing practice for six years and later becoming CEO of the Australian operation in 2015.
  • The International Olympic Committee awarded the 2032 Games to Brisbane in July of last year, under a revamped procedure for choosing host cities that saw a small group of IOC members identify and propose host cities to the board.
  • Australia has twice previously hosted the Summer Olympics, at Melbourne in 1956 and Sydney in 2000.
  • The 2032 organizing committee held its first board meeting in April and, on July 23, started the decade-long countdown.

Additional Information

  • The 2032 Summer Olympics, officially known as the Games of the XXXV Olympiad and also known as Brisbane 2032, will be an international multi-sport event scheduled to take place from 23 July to 8 August 2032, in Brisbane, Queensland, Australia.
  • Following changes in the bidding rules, the International Olympic Committee selected and announced Brisbane as the winning bid on 21 July 2021, two days before the start of the 2020 Summer Olympics.

Question 37

In which state of India, is the Chapchar Kut festival celebrated?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jharkhand

  2. BOption (b)

    Goa

  3. COption (c)

    Mizoram

  4. DOption (d)

    Kerala

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mizoram

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

  • The Chapchar Kut is a festival of Mizoram, India.
  • It is the biggest festival in Mizoram.
  • Chapchar Kut means a festival held during the period when the bamboos and trees that have been cut down are being awaited to dry to be burnt for jhumming.
  • It is celebrated every year in the month of March.
  • The festival has been estimated to have started in 1450–1700 A.D. in a village called Suaipui.

Additional Information

The Indian festivals:

StateFestivals
Andhra PradeshDasara, Ugadi, Deccan Festival, Brahmotsavam
Arunachal PradeshReh, Boori Boot, Myoko, Dree, Pongtu, Losar, Murung, Solang, Mopin, Monpa festival
AssamAmbubachi, Bhogali Bihu, Baishagu, Dehing Patkai
BiharChhath Puja, Bihula
ChhattisgarhMaghi Purnima, Bastar Dussehra
GoaSunburn festival, Ladain, Mando
GujaratNavratri, Janmashtami, Kutch Utsav, Uttarayana
Himachal PradeshRakhadumni, Gochi Festival
HaryanaBaisakhi
Jammu and KashmirHar Navami, Chhari, Bahu Mela, Dosmoche,
JharkhandKaram Utsav, Holi, Rohini, Tusu
KarnatakaMysore Dasara, Ugadi
KeralaOnam, Vishu
Madhya PradeshLok-rang Utsav, Tejaji, Khujaraho festival
MeghalayaNongkrem festival, Khasis festival, Wangla, Sajibu Cheiraoba
MaharashtraGanesh Utsav, Gudi Padva
ManipurYaoshang, Porag, Chavang Kut
MizoramChapcharkut Festival
NagalandHornbill festival, Moatsu Festival
OdishaRath Yatra, Raja Parba, Nukahai
PunjabLohri, Baisakhi
RajasthanGangaur, Teej, Bundi
SikkimLosar, Saga Dawa
Tamil NaduPongal, Thaipusam, Natyanjali Festival
TelanganaBonalu, Bathukamma, ugadi
TripuraKharchi Puja
West BengalDurga Puja
UttaranchalGanga Dussehra
Uttar PradeshRam Navmi, Ganga Mahotsav, Navaratri, Khichdi

Question 38

Which of the following are correctly matched?

A. Operation Raahat - Yemen

B. Vande Bharat Mission - Sri Lanka

C. Operation Maitri - Nepal

D. Operation Sukoon - Iraq

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    B and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A and C only

Why this answer is correct

For Indian citizen government steps in to save them in a foreign land. 

Key Points

  • Operation Raahat is related to the evacuation plan related to 5,600 individuals from Yemen when the Yemeni government and the Houthi rebels were at war in 2015.
  • Vande Bharat Mission is related to bringing back Indian citizens stranded in foreign countries during Covid-19.
  • Operation Maitri is a combined effort between the Indian government and the armed forces to provide relief and rescue following the 2015 Nepal earthquake.
  • India launched this operation Sukoon to rescue its stranded residents as Israel and Lebanon started a war clash in July 2006.

Thus, the correct answer from the options are A and C only. 

Additional Information

  • Operation Home coming to rescue its nationals who had become lost in war-torn Libya.
  • Operation Ganga is an evacuation plan for Indian nationals who are now stranded in Ukraine are being evacuated.

Question 39

Who was the Governor General of India when the first Anglo-Burmese War was started ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Amherst

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Cornwallis

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Dalhousie

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Hastings

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lord Amherst

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lord Amherst.

  • Lord Amherst (1823-1828):
  • He was the Governor-General of Bengal when The First Anglo-Burmese war (1824-1826).
  • This war ended with the Treaty of Yandabo (1826).
  • This treaty made Burma cede large tracts of land and accept a British Representative.

Additional Information

  • Lord Hastings:
  • ​Lord Hastings was the Governor-General of Bengal from 1813 to 1823.
  • He is credited with initiating the new policy of paramountcy, which aimed to assert British supremacy over all the native rulers in India.
  • ​Lord Dalhousie:
  • He established the foundations of the modern educational system in India by adding mass education in addition to elite higher education.​
  • Lord Cornwallis:
  • He arrived in India in July 1805, and died on 5 October of a fever at Gauspur in Ghazipur, at that time in the Varanasi kingdom.
  • Cornwallis was buried there, overlooking the Ganges River, where his memorial is a protected monument maintained by the Archaeological Survey of India.​

Confusion Points

  • Lord Hastings and Warren Hastings are two different people.
  • Warren Hastings became the first governor-general of Bengal from 1772 to 1785 and Lord Hastings became the Governor General of British India in 1813.

Question 40

When is 'National Energy Conservation Day' observed?

  1. AOption (a)

    02 October

  2. BOption (b)

    06 October

  3. COption (c)

    14 December

  4. DOption (d)

    12 November

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

14 December

Why this answer is correct

  • 'National Energy Conservation Day' is observed on 14 December.
  • The National Energy Conservation Day is organized every year on 14th December every year by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), under the Ministry of Power.
  • The objective to celebrate the National Energy Conservation Day is to drive mass awareness about the importance of energy efficiency and conservation.
  • BEE also recognizes and encourages endeavours of industries in reducing energy consumption by felicitating them with National Energy Conservation Awards.

Question 41

Consider the following statements:

Statement 1:

The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as the 2020 Tree City of the World.

Statement 2:

Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.

which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1

  3. COption (c)

    Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4

Key Points

  • Statement 1: "The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as the 2020 Tree City of the World."
  • While Hyderabad was indeed recognized as the 2020 Tree City of the World, it was not by the United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF).
  • The recognition came from the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), not UNCDF. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Statement 2: "Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests. "
  • Hyderabad was recognized as a Tree City of the World for its efforts to grow and maintain urban forests and its dedication to environmental stewardship.
  • The recognition highlights Hyderabad's initiatives toward urban forestry and sustainable urban planning. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Question 42

Which is the largest metal trading center?

  1. AOption (a)

    Johannesburg

  2. BOption (b)

    New York

  3. COption (c)

    London

  4. DOption (d)

    Singapore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

London

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is London.

Key Points

  • The largest metal trading centre is in London.
  • London:
  • London, city, capital of the United Kingdom.
  • It is among the oldest of the world’s great cities—its history spanning nearly two millennia.
  • By far Britain’s largest metropolis, it is also the country’s economic, transportation, and cultural centre.
  • London is situated in southeastern England, lying astride the River Thames some 50 miles (80 km) upstream from its estuary on the North Sea.
  • In satellite photographs, the metropolis can be seen to sit compactly in a Green Belt of open land, with its principal ring highway (the M25 motorway) threaded around it at a radius of about 20 miles (30 km) from the city centre.

Question 43

Which of the following missiles developed by DRDO is an Air-to-Air missile?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prahaar

  2. BOption (b)

    Shaurya

  3. COption (c)

    Astra

  4. DOption (d)

    Prithvi III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Astra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Astra.

Key Points

  • About ASTRA 
  • ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) class of Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft.
  • The missile is designed to engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aircraft.
  • The missile has all-weather day and night capability.

Additional Information

Types of MissilesName of the MissileOperational Range
Air-to-air missilesMICA500 m to 80 km
Air-to-air missilesAstra Missile80-110 km
Surface-To-Air MissilesTrishul
Surface-To-Air MissilesAkash MissileAkash -1S (18 – 30 Km)
Akash Mk-II (35 – 40 Km) Akash-NG (More than 50 Km)
Surface-To-Air MissilesBarak 8100 km
Surface-to-surface MissilesAgni-VAround
5,000 km
Surface-to-surface MissilesPrithvi II350 km
Surface-to-surface MissilesShaurya750 to 1,900 km

Question 44

Consider the following statements about pardoning power of the President :

  1. The pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary.
  2. The President while exercising this power, does sit as a court of appeal.
  3. Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

  • The pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary; it is executive power. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • But, the President while exercising this power, does not sit as a court of appeal. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The object of conferring this power on the President is two-fold:
  1. to keep the door open for correcting any judicial errors in the operation of law
  2. to afford relief from a sentence, which the President regards as unduly harsh.
  • Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of any offense in all cases where the: Hence statement 3 is correct.
  1. Punishment or sentence is for an offense against a Union Law.
  2. Punishment or sentence is by a court-martial (military court).
  3. The Sentence is a sentence of death.

Question 45

Which of the following articles is not included in the articles related to 'right to equality' provided under the Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 20

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 16

  3. COption (c)

    Article 18

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Article 20

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 20

Key Points

  • Right to Equality:-
  • The right to equality is one of the fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution of India.
  • It is guaranteed to all citizens, irrespective of their religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • The right to equality is enshrined in Articles 14 to 18 of the Constitution.
  • Article 20-
  • ​It deals with the protection in respect of conviction for offences.
  • Article 20 grants three kinds of protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person, whether citizen or foreigner.
  1. No ex-post-facto law: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a new law in force at the time of the commission of the act nor subjected to a penalty greater than that prescribed by the law in force at the time of the commission of the act.
  2. No double jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
  3. No self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
  • The protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court of law or judicial tribunal.

Additional Information

  • Article 14:-
  • It guarantees equality before the law and the equal protection of the laws.
  • This means that all persons are equal in the eyes of the law and that no one can be discriminated against on the basis of any of the grounds mentioned above.
  • Article 15:-
  • It prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
  • This means that the government cannot discriminate against any person on the basis of any of these grounds.
  • Article 16:-
  • It guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
  • This means that all citizens have equal opportunities to apply for and be considered for government jobs.
  • Article 17:-
  • It abolishes untouchability.
  • This means that no person can be discriminated against on the basis of their caste.
  • Article 18:-
  • It abolishes titles.
  • This means that no citizen can be granted any title by the government.

Question 46

PM Narendra Modi inaugurated Donyi Polo Airport in which of the following states?

  1. AOption (a)

    Assam

  2. BOption (b)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    West Bengal

  4. DOption (d)

    Sikkim

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Arunachal Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

  • PM Narendra Modi inaugurated the Donyi Polo Airport at Itanagar in Arunachal Pradesh on 19 November 2022.
  • It is the first Greenfield Airport in the state.
  • It is equipped with ultra-modern facilities to ensure all-weather operations.
  • The name of the airport is given after Donyi and Polo, i.e. Sun and Moon.

Additional Information

  • ​Arunachal Pradesh is popularly known as the Land of the Dawn-lit Mountains.
  • Arunachal Pradesh is India's remotest state and the first Indian state to greet the rising sun.
  • It was formed from the erstwhile North-East Frontier Agency region and became a state on 20 February 1987.
  • It borders the states of Assam and Nagaland to the south.
  • Solung is the most popular festival of the Adis of Arunachal Pradesh which is celebrated on September 1 every year.
  • Capital: Itanagar
  • Chief minister: Pema Khandu

Question 47

Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer:

List - IList - II
A. Chakravarty Committee1. Tax Reforms
B. Narasimham Committee2. Poverty Estimation
C. Tendulkar Committee3. Banking Sector Reforms
D. Chelliah Committee4. Financial Sector Reforms
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1.

Key Points

  • Chakravarty Committee
  • It was formed in December 1982 under the chairmanship of Prof. Sukhamoy Chakroborty to assess the functioning of the Indian Monetary system.
  • Its goal was to improve monetary regulation, a feat that was hoped would enable price stability.
  • Narasimham Committee
  • It was established under former RBI Governor M. Narasimham in August 1991 to look into all aspects of the financial Banking system in India.
  • Tendulkar Committee
  • An export Group headed by Prof. Suresh D. Tendulkar was constituted in 2005 to review the methodology for the official estimation of poverty and recommend changes in the existing procedures.
  • The Tendulkar Committee submitted its report in 2009.
  • Chelliah Committee
  • The Government appointed a Tax Reforms Committee under Prof Raja Chelliah to lay out the agenda for reforming India's tax system.
  • This TRC came up with three reports in 1991, 1992, and 1993.

Question 48

Which of the following disease is not caused by virus ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Polio

  2. BOption (b)

    Aids

  3. COption (c)

    Conjunctivitis

  4. DOption (d)

    Plague

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Plague

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Plague.

Key Points 

  • Any illness or health condition caused by a virus is referred to as a viral disease.
  • The plague is an infectious disease that affects both humans and animals.
  • It is caused by the bacteria Yersinia pestis, which is typically found in small mammals and their fleas and is found all over the world, including the United States.
  • Fever, weakness, and a headache are among the symptoms.
  • Infectious diseases are transmitted by infectious agents.
  • Sunlight and drying are both effective at killing Yersinia pestis. When the bacteria are released into the air, the bacterium can survive for up to an hour, although it varies depending on the circumstances.

Thus, Plague disease is not caused by viruses.

Note ->

  • Polio -> Poliovirus
  • Aids -> Human immunodeficiency virus
  • Conjunctivitis -> enterovirus 70 or coxsackievirus
  • Plague -> Bacteria Yersinia pestis

Additional Information

  • Polio:
  • Polio is a life-threatening viral disease caused by the poliovirus.
  • Polio is spread through contaminated water or food, as well as through contact with an infected person.
  • Many people infected with the poliovirus do not get sick and show no symptoms. Those who do become ill, on the other hand, develop paralysis and muscle weakness, which can sometimes be fatal.
  • Aids: 
  • Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a viral disease caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
  • HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that attacks the immune system of the body.
  • AIDS is transmitted by sexual contact with the infected person, by sharing infected needles and also spread from the infected mother to her child through placenta.
  • Conjunctivitis: 
  • Conjunctivitis or pink eye is a viral disease that is caused by allergies or bacterial or viral infection.
  • It is the Inflammation or infection of the eyeball's outer membrane and the inner eyelid.
  • Conjunctivitis is highly contagious and is spread through contact with infected people's eye secretions.

Question 49

Which state government has decided to promote 'One District, One Sport scheme'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Haryana

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Manipur

  4. DOption (d)

    Punjab

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Uttar Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uttar Pradesh.

Key Points

  • The Uttar Pradesh government has decided to promote 'One sport in One district'.
  • Under the One District, One Sport scheme, players will get training in the specified sport for their district to play both at national and international events.
  • The aim is to provide a platform for budding sportspersons so that they can participate in prestigious national and international championships and win medals.

Additional Information

  • ​Uttar Pradesh will host the 2023 K helo India University Games, the third edition of the event.
  • Lucknow will be the main host city for the multi-discipline event in which almost 6000 athletes  from all over the country are expected to participate.
  • The first-ever Khelo India University Games (2021) in the city of Bhubaneswar in Odisha.
  • Khelo India University Games held in Karnataka from 24th April 2022.

Question 50

Who among the following Indian music composers won the Oscar award in the year 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mani Sharma

  2. BOption (b)

    AR Rahman

  3. COption (c)

    Devi Sri Prasad

  4. DOption (d)

    MM Keeravani

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

MM Keeravani

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is MM Keeravani.

Key Points

  • MM Keeravani is a renowned Indian music composer who has composed music for many Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, Malayalam, and Hindi films.
  • He won the Oscar award in 2023. He was awarded for the song "Naatu Naatu" from the movie "RRR" in the category of Best Original Song.
  • He won the National Film Award for Best Music Direction for the Telugu film Annamayya in 1997 and the Filmfare Award for Best Music Director in Telugu film for the film Magadheera in 2009.
  • MM Keeravani is also known for his work in the Baahubali film series, for which he received critical acclaim and international recognition.
  • Mani Sharma has composed music for many Telugu and Tamil films.
  • AR Rahman is a well-known composer who has won many international awards, including Oscars.
  • Devi Sri Prasad is a popular music composer who has worked in Telugu and Tamil films.
  • However, none of them won the Oscar award in the year 2023, as mentioned in the question.

Additional Information

Academy Award

  • The Oscar is also known as the Academy Awards.
  • It is a set of awards given for artistic and technical merit in the American film industry.
  • The award is given annually by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Science.
  • AR Rahman is an Indian composer, singer, and songwriter who has won the 81st Academy Award. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The 2020 Oscars award this year was the 92nd in its series.
  • This year's Oscar was very special as it honored a non-English film "Parasite" with the Best Picture Award.

Question 51

The jet aircraft fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?

  1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere
  2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • The primary reason aeroplane flies in the stratosphere is because this is where the least amount of turbulence is found.
  • This layer of the atmosphere allows for a much better fuel economy.
  • This is because, in higher altitudes, such as those found in the stratosphere, there is less air resistance.
  • The air resistance in the stratosphere is about half of the resistance found on the ground, which means the plane can hold airspeed at lower power settings.
  • Clouds are found almost exclusively in the troposphere.
  • The stratosphere is very dry, because the vertical transfer is limited by the high stability and because any transfer would have to occur through the tropopause, which is so cold that the saturation vapour pressure is negligibly small.
  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The increase in the temperature with height in the stratosphere makes this region a stable place where the air tends not to overturn vertically. Thus vertical winds are almost absent in Stratosphere. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Important Points

  • Stratosphere
  • It is the second major strata of air in the atmosphere.
  • It extends above the tropopause to an altitude of about 30 miles (50 km) above the planet's surface.
  • The air temperature in the stratosphere remains relatively constant up to an altitude of 15 miles (25 km).
  • Then it increases gradually to up to stratopause.
  • Because the air temperature in the stratosphere increases with altitude, it does not cause convection and has a stabilizing effect on atmospheric conditions in the region.

Question 52

Under project 'Navika Sagar Parikrama', which will commence in September 2017, a team of women officers of the Indian Navy would circumnavigate the globe on an Indian-built sail boat named ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    INSV Durga

  2. BOption (b)

    INSv Sindhu

  3. COption (c)

    INSV Amba

  4. DOption (d)

    INSV Tarini

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

INSV Tarini

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e INSV Tarini.

  • A team of women officers of the Indian Navy would circumnavigate the globe on an Indian-Built sailboat named INSV Tarini.
  • It was a Six Member all-woman team.
  • INSV Tarini was built indigenously by M/s Aquarius Shipyard Pvt Ltd, Goa.
  • It was named after 'Tara Tarini' Temple in Odisha.
  • The Expedition was flagged-off by Nirmala Sitharaman at Goa.
  • The Expedition was named as "Navika Sagar Parikrama".

Question 53

Which one of the following chemical is used in nail polish remover?

  1. AOption (a)

    Acetone

  2. BOption (b)

    Benzene

  3. COption (c)

    Acetic acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Formaldehyde

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Acetone

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Acetone.

Key Points

  • The most familiar household use of acetone is as the active ingredient in nail polish remover.
  • Acetone:
  • Acetone (also known as dimethyl ketone, 2-propanone) is the simplest representative of ketones.
  • Its chemical formula is CH3(CO)CH3.
  • Acetone is a colourless mobile flammable liquid with a pleasant, somewhat fruity odour.
  • Melting Point: -95.4 °C and Boiling Point: 56.53 °C.
  • It is readily soluble in water, ethanol, ether, etc. and serves as an important solvent.
  • Acetone is also used to make plastic, fibres, drugs, and other chemicals.

Important Points

Common chemicals in everyday life:

Common NameChemical NameChemical Formula
Baking SodaSodium BicarbonateNaHCO3
Washing SodaSodium CarbonateNa2CO3
Bleaching PowderCalcium HypochloriteCa(OCl2)
AspirinAcetylsalicylic AcidC9H8O4
Caustic SodaSodium HydroxideNaOH
Limestone, Marble, ChalkCalcium CarbonateCaCO3
QuicklimeCalcium OxideCaO
Oil of VitriolSulphuric AcidH2SO4
Spirits of Salt, Muriatic AcidHydrochloric AcidHCl
Plaster of ParisCopper Sulphate HemihydrateCaSO4.1/2 H20

Additional Information

  • Benzene:
  • Benzene (C6H6), is the simplest organic, aromatic hydrocarbon and parent compound of numerous important aromatic compounds.
  • Benzene is a colourless liquid with a characteristic odour.
  • Used in the production of polystyrene.
  • It is highly toxic and is a known carcinogen, exposure to it may cause leukaemia.
  • Acetic acid:
  • Acetic acid (CH3COOH) also called ethanoic acid, is the most important of the carboxylic acids.
  • A dilute solution of acetic acid produced by fermentation and oxidation of natural carbohydrates is called vinegar.
  • Use: Preparation of metal acetates, printing processes, production of plastics, used in making photographic films and textiles and used as solvents for resins, paints and lacquers.
  • Formaldehyde:
  • The Molecular Formula of Formaldehyde is CH2O.
  • Formaldehyde is a colourless poisonous gas synthesized by the oxidation of methanol.
  • Used as an antiseptic, disinfectant, histologic fixative and general-purpose chemical reagent for laboratory applications.
  • Environmentally, formaldehyde may be found in the atmosphere, smoke from fires, automobile exhaust and cigarette smoke.

Question 54

Heron drones, inducted by Indian forces for enhancing their surveillance capabilities, are acquired from

  1. AOption (a)

    USA

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    Israel

  4. DOption (d)

    Japan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Israel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Israel.

Key Points

  • The Indian Army's surveillance capabilities have received the advanced Israeli Heron drones under the emergency procurement clause.
  • Heron drone is a medium-altitude long-endurance unmanned aerial vehicle developed by the Malat division of Israel Aerospace Industries.
  • The acquisition has been done under the emergency financial powers granted by the government to the defence forces under which they can buy equipment and systems worth Rs 500 crores.

Important Points 

  • ​The anti-jamming capability is much better than their previous versions.
  • The acquisition of these drones has been done under the emergency financial powers granted by Prime Minister Narendra Modi-led's government to the defence forces.
  • Under this power, they can buy equipment and systems worth Rs 500 crores to upgrade their warfighting capabilities, amid ongoing border conflict with China.
  • The Indian Navy has also leased two Predator drones which have been taken from American firm General Atomics.

Additional Information 

  • ​Israel:
  • Capital - Jerusalem.
  • Currency - Israeli Shekel.
  • National Sport - Association football.

Question 55

What is the name given to India’s fastest supercomputer unveiled by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology recently?

  1. AOption (a)

    Soorya

  2. BOption (b)

    Param

  3. COption (c)

    Pratyush

  4. DOption (d)

    Shakti

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pratyush

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pratyush.

Key Points

  • Pratyush is a supercomputer in India established at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune.
  • As of January 2018, Pratyush is the fastest supercomputer in India with a maximum speed of 6.8 petaflops.
  • The system was inaugurated by Dr Harsh Vardhan, Union Minister of Science and Technology on 8 January 2018.

Important Points

  • Mihir is another supercomputer unveiled at the National Center for Medium-Range Weather Forecast (NCMRWF), Noida.
  • The maximum speed of this supercomputer is 2.8 PetaFlops.
  • Together they provide a combined output of 6.8 PetaFlops.
  • Since June 2022, the USA's Frontier is the world's most powerful supercomputer, reaching 1102 petaFlops (1.102 exaFlops) on the LINPACK benchmark.

Question 56

The average of 10 numbers is 35. Later it was found that one of the numbers was mistakenly written as 24 instead of 42. Find the correct average.

  1. AOption (a)

    35

  2. BOption (b)

    36.6

  3. COption (c)

    36.8

  4. DOption (d)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

36.8

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The average of 10 numbers = 35

One of the numbers 42 was written as 24.

Formula used:

Average = Sum of observation/Number of observation

Calculation:

According to formula, we have

(Sum of 10 numbers)/10 = 35

⇒ Sum of 9 numbers + 24 = 35 × 10

⇒ Sum of 9 numbers = 350 - 24

⇒ Sum of 9 numbers = 326

Since the original number is 42

So, Sum of 10 number = 326 + 42

⇒ Sum of 10 numbers = 368

Now, the correct average = (Sum of 10 numbers)/10

⇒ 368/10

⇒ 36.8

∴ The correct average number is 36.8.

Question 57

A person invests 15,000 rupees in a scheme for 18 years. After every 6 years, the amount (in rupees) gets doubled, then how much will he get after completing the scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    100000

  2. BOption (b)

    120000

  3. COption (c)

    140000

  4. DOption (d)

    160000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

120000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Principal = 15,000 rupees

Total Time = 18 years

Formula used:

Amount = P × (1 + R/100)n

Calculation:

According to the question,

After 6 year

⇒ 15,000 × (1 + R/100)6 = 30,000 

⇒ (1 + R/100)6 = 30,000/15,000

⇒ (1 + R/100)6 = 2

After 18 year

⇒ {(1 + R/100)6}3 = 23  ∴ (am)n = a(m * n)

⇒ (1 + R/100)18 = 8

Now,

⇒ P × (1 + R/100)18 = 8 × P

⇒ P × (1 + R/100)18 = 8 × 15,000 ( By putting principal value)

⇒ P × (1 + R/100)18 = 1,20,000

∴ He will get after completing the scheme Rs. 1,20,000.

Question 58

24 kg of sugar A costing Rs. 30 per kg is mixed with 16 kg of sugar B is costing Rs. 40 per kg, the average per kg of mixed sugar is 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 34 per kg

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 32 per kg

  3. COption (c)

    Rs 30 per kg

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 36 per kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 34 per kg

Why this answer is correct

∴ The rate of the mixture is Rs. 34 per kg.

 

Given:

24 kg of sugar A = Rs. 30 per kg

16 kg of sugar B = Rs. 40 per kg

Concept used:

Average = Sum of observations/Number of observations

Calculations:

According to the question, we have

24 kg of sugar A costing Rs. 30 per kg is mixed with 16 kg of sugar B is costing Rs. 40 per kg

⇒ (24 × 30 + 16 × 40)/(24 + 16)

⇒ (720 + 640)/40

⇒ 1360/40

⇒ Rs. 34 per kg

∴ The rate of the mixture is Rs. 34 per kg.

Question 59

What is the probability that a number selected from the numbers 1, 2, 3, ______, 25 is a prime number, when each of the given numbers is equally likely to be selected?

  1. AOption (a)

    825\frac{8}{25}

  2. BOption (b)

    125\frac{1}{25}

  3. COption (c)

    925\frac{9}{25}

  4. DOption (d)

    25\frac{2}{5}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

925\frac{9}{25}

Why this answer is correct

Formula Used:

probability of an event = (favorable outcome/number of outcome)

Calculation:

⇒ favorable outcome = number of prime number from 1 to 25 = 9 i.e. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23

⇒ probability = 9/25  

∴ required probability = 9/25

Question 60

The average of 70 numbers is 91. If one number, mistakenly recorded as 91 instead of its actual value 98, what is the correct original average?

  1. AOption (a)

    91.01

  2. BOption (b)

    91.11

  3. COption (c)

    91.10

  4. DOption (d)

    91.21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

91.10

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net Change in sum = Correct value − Incorrect value = 98 − 91 = +7.

Average Change = Net Change ÷ Total Numbers = 7 ÷ 70 = 0.1.

Correct Average = Old Average + Average Change = 91 + 0.1 = 91.1.

∴ The correct answer is 91.10.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total numbers (n) = 70

Initial average = 91

Incorrect value = 91

Correct value = 98

Calculations:

⇒ Initial Sum = 70 × 91 = 6370

⇒ Correct Sum = Initial Sum − Incorrect value + Correct value

⇒ Correct Sum = 6370 − 91 + 98

⇒ Correct Sum = 6370 + 7 = 6377

⇒ Correct Average = Correct Sum ÷ Total numbers

⇒ Correct Average = 6377 ÷ 70

⇒ Correct Average = 91.1

∴ The correct answer is 91.10.

Additional Information

Average Formula

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations).

Correction in Average

New Average = Old Average + [(Correct Value − Incorrect Value) ÷ Total Number].

Weighted Average

When two groups with averages A1 and A2 and sizes n1 and n2 are combined, Combined Average = (n1A1 + n2A2) ÷ (n1 + n2).

Question 61

The initial price of a burger is 50 rupees. If its price increases successively by 10%, 10%, and 20%, find the overall percentage change in the price of the burger.

  1. AOption (a)

    41%

  2. BOption (b)

    43.1%

  3. COption (c)

    44%

  4. DOption (d)

    45.2%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

45.2%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Initial cost price of burger = Rs. 50

The price of a burger increases successively by 10%, 10%, and 20%

Calculation:

Final cost price of burger = 50 × 110/100 × 110/100 × 120/100 = Rs. 72.6

Percentage change = (72.6 - 50)/50 × 100 = 45.2%

∴ The overall percentage change in the price of the burger is 45.2%.

Alternate MethodConcept:

The overall percentage change in the price is found using the formula for successive percentage changes:

Overall change = a + b + ab100ab\over 100 , where a and b are successive percentage changes.

Calculation:

Resultant increment% = 10 + 10 + (10 × 10)/100 = 21%

Final increment% = 21 + 20 + ( 21 × 20)/100 = 45.2%

∴ The overall percentage change in the price of the burger is 45.2%.

Question 62

The cost of carpeting a room 18 m long with a carpet 75 cm wide at Rs.4.50 per metre is Rs.810. The breadth of the room is :

  1. AOption (a)

    7 m

  2. BOption (b)

    7.5 m

  3. COption (c)

    8 m

  4. DOption (d)

    8.5 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7.5 m

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A carpet length = 18 m

Width of the carpet = 75 cm

Cost of the carpet = Rs. 4.50 per metre

Total cost = Rs. 810

Concept:

Area of rectangle = length × breadth

Calculation:

Let the breadth of the room be 'b' 

Area of the room = 18b m2

Length of the carpet = total cost / cost per metre = 810/ 4.50 

Length of the carpet = 180 m

Then, Width of the carpet = 75 cm

Width of the carpet in meter = 0.75 m

Area of the carpet = 180 × 0.75 m = 135 m2

Area of the room = Area of carpet

18b = 135

⇒ b = 135 / 18 =  7.5 m

∴ The breadth of the room is 7.5 m

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the room = 18 m

Width of the carpet = 75 cm = 0.75 m

Cost per metre of carpet = Rs. 4.50

Total cost = Rs. 810

Formula Used:

Total cost = Total length of carpet needed × Cost per metre

Calculation:

Total length of carpet needed:

⇒ Total length of carpet needed = Total cost / Cost per metre

⇒ Total length of carpet needed = 810 / 4.50

⇒ Total length of carpet needed = 180 m

Number of strips of carpet required:

⇒ Number of strips = Total length of carpet needed / Length of the room

⇒ Number of strips = 180 / 18

⇒ Number of strips = 10

Each strip covers a width of 0.75 m.

Total width covered by 10 strips:

⇒ Total width = Number of strips × Width of each strip

⇒ Total width = 10 × 0.75

⇒ Total width = 7.5 m

The breadth of the room is 7.5 m.

Question 63

27 × 56 × 13 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    25000000

  2. BOption (b)

    36000000

  3. COption (c)

    26000000

  4. DOption (d)

    35000000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

26000000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

27 × 56 × 13 = ?

Calculation:

According to the question,

27 = 128

56 = 15,625

27 × 56 × 13 = 128 × 15,625 × 13 = 26,000,000.

Question 64

If 156% of x equals 195, what is 234% of x?

  1. AOption (a)

    292.5

  2. BOption (b)

    292.4

  3. COption (c)

    292.6

  4. DOption (d)

    292.3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

292.5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

156% of x = 195

Calculation:

According to the questions,

156% of x = 195

⇒ 156/100 of x = 195

⇒ x = 195 × 100 /156 = 125

Then, 234% of x 

⇒ 234/100 × 125 = 292.5

Question 65

Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is

  1. AOption (a)

    50 m

  2. BOption (b)

    72 m

  3. COption (c)

    80 m

  4. DOption (d)

    82 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

50 m

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The speed of two trains is 46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. 

The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds.

The length of the train is same.

Formula Used:

Relative speed in same direction = S1 - S2

Calculation:

Let the length of the train be x.

Time taken to over take = (x + x)/(46 - 36)

⇒ 2x/10 = 36/3600

⇒ x = 1/20 km = 1/20 × 1000 = 50 m

∴ The length of each train is 50 m.

Question 66

A certain sum amounts to Rs. 14,641 in 4 years at 10% p.a. when interest is compounded annually. What will be the amount of the same sum (in Rs.) in 3253\frac{2}{5} years at the same rate at simple interest?

  1. AOption (a)

    13,400

  2. BOption (b)

    14,000

  3. COption (c)

    13,200

  4. DOption (d)

    13,600

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

13,400

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For 10% rate and 4 years, the Effective CI rate is 46.41%.

⇒ Amount = 146.41% of Principal = ₹14,641

⇒ 1% = ₹100 → Principal (100%) = ₹10,000

⇒ SI for 32/5 (3.4) years = 10% × 3.4 = 34%

⇒ New Amount = 134% of ₹10,000 = ₹13,400

∴ The correct answer is ₹13,400.

Alternate Method

Given: Amount (A) = ₹14,641, Time (n) = 4 years, Rate (R) = 10% p.a.

Formula Used: A = P(1 + R/100)n and SI Amount = P + (P × R × T)/100

⇒ 14,641 = P(1 + 10/100)4

⇒ 14,641 = P(1.1)4

⇒ 14,641 = P × 1.4641

⇒ P = 14,641 ÷ 1.4641 = ₹10,000

⇒ New Time (T) = 3 + 2/5 = 17/5 = 3.4 years

⇒ SI = (10,000 × 10 × 3.4) / 100 = ₹3,400

⇒ New Amount = 10,000 + 3,400 = ₹13,400

∴ The correct answer is ₹13,400.

Additional Information

Effective Rate of Interest

For 10% CI, effective rates are: 2 yrs = 21%, 3 yrs = 33.1%, 4 yrs = 46.41%.

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

SI is calculated only on the principal, while CI is calculated on the principal plus accumulated interest.

Question 67

The minute hand of a clock is 10 cm long. Find the area of the face of the clock described by the minute hand between 9 A.M and 9.35 A.M.

  1. AOption (a)

    90.165 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    112.6 cm2

  3. COption (c)

    156.6 cm2

  4. DOption (d)

    183.3 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

183.3 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length of minute hand (i.e., radius) = 10 cm

Time interval = 9:00 AM to 9:35 AM, i.e., 35 minutes

Concept:

The minute hand of a clock moves 360° in 60 minutes.

The area described by the minute hand in a certain time interval can be found using the formula for area of sector of a circle.

Area = (θ/360) × πr², where θ is the angle moved by the hand.

Calculation:

Angle moved in 35 minutes = (35 / 60) × 360° = 210°

⇒ Area described = (210 / 360) × π × (10)2 cm2 = 183.33 cm2

∴ The area of the face of the clock described by the minute hand between 9 AM and 9:35 AM is 183.33 cm2.

Question 68

At the end of a music concert, the 15 singers presents all shake hands with each other once, How many handshakes will be exchanged in total ?

  1. AOption (a)

    105

  2. BOption (b)

    125

  3. COption (c)

    90

  4. DOption (d)

    120

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

105

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information,

The number of people present is n = 15.

The number of handshakes exchanged is,

n(n - 1) ÷ 2

= 15(15 - 1) ÷ 2

= 15(14) ÷ 2

= 15 × 14 ÷ 2

= 15 × 7

= 105

Here, number of handshakes exchanged is 105.

Hence, the correct answer is "105". 

Additional Information

To find the number of solutions of two consecutive integers we can use the formula n(n - 1) ÷ 2, where n is an integer.

Here, we have 15 people so the maximum number of handshakes that can be done is 14. So, this formula is applicable here.

Question 69

The regular hexagon inscribed in a circle with a radius of 2 cm has an area of

  1. AOption (a)

    6√3 cm2

  2. BOption (b)

    3√3 cm2​

  3. COption (c)

    4√3 cm2​

  4. DOption (d)

    6 cm2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6√3 cm2

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Radius of a circle, r = 2 cm

Concept:

The area of a regular hexagon inscribed in a circle can be found using the formula:

Area of hexagon = (3 × √3 × (radius of the circle)²) / 2

Calculation:

Radius = 2 cm

Area of hexagon = (3 × √3 × 2²) / 2

⇒ Area = (3 × √3 × 4) / 2

⇒ Area = (3 × √3 × 4) / 2

⇒ Area = (12 × √3) / 2

⇒ Area = 6√3 square cm

∴ The area of the regular hexagon inscribed in the circle with a radius of 2 cm is 6√3.

Question 70

How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in a day?

  1. AOption (a)

    20

  2. BOption (b)

    22

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

22

Why this answer is correct

The two hands coincide at the times 12:00, 1:05, 2:11, 3:16 and so on.

These coincide every 65 minutes, not 60 minutes.

They coincide 11 times in 12 hours and hence coincide 22 times in 24 hours.

Hence the hands coincide 22 times in a day.

Question 71

A person weighing 78 kg loses 15.2 grams in a day. How many days will it take for him to reduce his weight by 20%?

  1. AOption (a)

    1200

  2. BOption (b)

    1132

  3. COption (c)

    1026

  4. DOption (d)

    1080

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1026

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Weight of person = 78 kg = 78000 gm

20% of total weight = 78000 × 20/100

20% of total weight = 15600 gm

Weight loss in a day 15.2 gm

Let n days required to reduce weight up to 62400 gm

Therefore,

15600 = 15.2 × n

n = 15600/15.2 = 1025.31

n = ≈ 1026

Hence the correct answer is option (3)

Question 72

0.35100×45050−0.2100×15=x2\frac{0.35}{100} \times \frac{450}{50} - \frac{0.2}{100} \times 15 = x^2 then x = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    2510\frac{\sqrt{25}}{10}

  2. BOption (b)

    125100\frac{\sqrt{125}}{100}

  3. COption (c)

    1210\frac{\sqrt{12}}{10}

  4. DOption (d)

    15100\frac{\sqrt{15}}{100}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

15100\frac{\sqrt{15}}{100}

Why this answer is correct

Calculation:

Given that 

0.35100×45050−0.2100×15=x2\frac{0.35}{100} \times \frac{450}{50} - \frac{0.2}{100} \times 15 = x^2

3.15100−3100=x2\frac{3.15}{100} - \frac{3}{100} = x^2

3.15−3100=x2\frac{3.15-3}{100} = x^2

0.15100=x2\frac{0.15}{100} = x^2

1510000=x2\frac{15}{10000} = x^2

x=1510000x=\sqrt{\frac{15}{10000}}

x=15100x=\frac{\sqrt{15}}{100}

Hence the correct answer is option (4)

Question 73

A person travels a distance of 240 km, partly by train and the rest by bus. He takes 3123\frac{1}{2} hours if he travels 150 km by train and the rest by bus. If he travels 140 km by bus and the rest by train, he takes 3233\frac{2}{3} hours. What is the speed of the train?

  1. AOption (a)

    70 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    75 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    72 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    80 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

75 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Let speed of train and bus x km/hr and y km/hr respectively

According to the question,

⇒ 150/x + 90/y = 7/2

Divided by 3

⇒ 50/x + 30/y = 7/6     ----(1)

100/x + 140/y = 11/3

Divided by 2

⇒ 50/x + 70/y = 11/6      ----((2)

Subtract equation (1) from equation (2)

⇒ 40/y = 4/6

⇒ y = 60 km/hr

From equation (1)

⇒ 50/x + 30/60 = 7/6

⇒ 50/x + 1/2 = 7/6

⇒ 50/x = 7/6 – 1/2

⇒ 50/x = (7 – 3)/6 = 4/6

⇒ x = 50 × (6/4)

⇒ x = 75 km/hr

Speed of train 75 km/hr

Question 74

A mixture of 70 liters of wine and water contain 10% water. How much more water should be added to the mixture to make 37% water in the resulting mixture?

  1. AOption (a)

    27 litres

  2. BOption (b)

    18.9 litres

  3. COption (c)

    30 litres

  4. DOption (d)

    63 liters

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

30 litres

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Mixture of wine and water = 70 liters

Initial water concentration = 10%

Calculations:

Amount of water in 70 litre of mixture = 10% of 70 = 7 litres

Let x litres of water is added to the mixture

According to question,

⇒ 7 + x = 37/100 × (70 + x)

⇒ 100(7 + x) = 37 (70 + x)

⇒ 700 + 100x = 2590 + 37x

⇒ 63x = 1890 

⇒ x = 189/63 = 30

∴ x = 30 litres

Question 75

Let L be the LCM and H be the HCF of two given numbers. L and H are in the ratio 3 ∶ 2. If the sum of the two numbers is 45, then what is the product of the numbers?

  1. AOption (a)

    243

  2. BOption (b)

    486

  3. COption (c)

    504

  4. DOption (d)

    Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Why this answer is correct

Given:

L : H = 3 : 2

Sum of two numbers = 45

Concept used:

Numbers are multiples of HCF.

Product of numbers = LCM × HCF

HCF (Highest Common Factor) is the largest number that can divide the given set of two or more numbers.

Calculation:

Let, the common factor of the ratio of L and H be m**.**

Now, LCM = 3m and HCF = 2m

According to the concept of HCF,

The numbers considered are 2ma and 2mb.

According to the question,

⇒ 2ma × 2mb = 3m × 2m

⇒ ab = 3/2     ---(i)

According to the question,

⇒ 2ma + 2mb = 45

⇒ 2m(a + b) = 45     ---(ii)

Now, using equations (i) and (ii), we can't find the value of all three variables a, b, and m.

∴ The answer cannot be determined due to insufficient data.

Question 76

Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?

2, 4, 7, 12, 19, 30, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    38

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    43

  4. DOption (d)

    47

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

43

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

The next number in the given series is obtained by adding a consecutive prime number to the previous number.

2 + 2 = 4,

4 + 3 = 7,

7 + 5 = 12,

12 + 7 = 19,

19 + 11 = 30,

30 + 13 = 43

Hence, “43” is the correct answer.

Question 77

Which of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship between teacher, female and mother?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The Venn diagram that best represents the relationship between teacher, female and mother is shown below:

We know that, All mothers should be female but not all Female should be mother.

Some Teachers could be Mother as well as Female. So there will be some intersection between them.

Thus only option 3 which represents the correct relation between teacher, female and mother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

Question 78

Find the next term in the following series.

1, 8, 27, 64, 125, _ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    216

  2. BOption (b)

    289

  3. COption (c)

    256

  4. DOption (d)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

216

Why this answer is correct

The given series is:

1, 8, 27, 64, 125, _ ?

The pattern follows here is:

Therefore, the next term in the series is 216.

Hence, the correct answer is 216.

Question 79

When the time is 3 O'clock, how much time does appear in a mirror?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    9

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

9

Why this answer is correct

For every mirror image based on a clock,

Given:

The clock shows the time = 3:00

To find:

Time is shown in the mirror image 

Concept used:

For mirror image

(11 - hours) : (60 - minutes)

Solution:

Hours = 3

Minutes = 00

Mirror image = (11 - 3) : (60 - 00)

⇒ Mirror image = 8:60 i.e. 9:00

If it is 12 hrs clock, then subtract the given timing from 11:60 hrs.

If it is 24 hrs clock, then subtract the given timing from 23:60 hrs.

Hence, the actual time will be 9:00.

Alternate method:

At 3:00, the hour hand will be at 3 and the minute hand will be at 12.

So in the mirror image, the hour hand will be on the opposite side i.e. at 9 and the minute hand will remain at 12.

 

Thus, the time on the clock will be 9:00.

Hence, ‘9:00’ is the correct answer.

Question 80

Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Dengue : Mosquito ∷ Rabies : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dog

  2. BOption (b)

    Rat

  3. COption (c)

    Crow

  4. DOption (d)

    Snail

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dog

Why this answer is correct

Dengue is caused by mosquito bite. Similarly, Rabies is caused by dog bite.

Hence, Dog is the correct answer.

Question 81

In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

6 : 216 : : 5 : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    125

  2. BOption (b)

    50

  3. COption (c)

    75

  4. DOption (d)

    150

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

125

Why this answer is correct

The analogy can be decoded by obtaining the cubes of the numbers. To illustrate,

63 = 216

Similarly,

53 = 125

Hence, ‘125’ is the correct answer.

Question 82

Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)

Norway : Oslo :: Thailand : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bangkok

  2. BOption (b)

    Kathmandu

  3. COption (c)

    Hong Kong 

  4. DOption (d)

    Singapore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bangkok

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed in the given set is:

Norway : Oslo → Oslo is the capital city of Norway.

Similarly,

Thailand : ? → ? is the capital city of Thailand.

Now we consider the given options:

Option 1) Bangkok → Bangkok is the capital city of Thailand.

Option 2) Kathmandu → Kathmandu is the capital city of Nepal.

Option 3) Hong Kong → Hong Kong is the capital city of Hong Kong.

Option 4) Singapore → Singapore is the capital city of Republic of Singapore.

Hence, the correct answer is "option (1)".

Question 83

Looking at a photograph, Anjali said, "He is the only son of my father." How is the man in the photograph related to Anjali?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brother

  2. BOption (b)

    Father's father

  3. COption (c)

    Son

  4. DOption (d)

    Mother's father

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Brother

Why this answer is correct

Given Statement : Looking at a photograph, Anjali said, "He is the only son of my father."

Thus, according to the final family tree the man in the photograph is brother of Anjali.

Hence, "Brother" is the correct answer.

Question 84

Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

63 = 56 + 88 ÷ 11 - 15

  1. AOption (a)
    • and =
  2. BOption (b)
    • and ÷
  3. COption (c)

    ÷ and -

  4. DOption (d)
    • and =
View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.
  • and =

Why this answer is correct

Given equation: 63 = 56 + 88 ÷ 11 - 15.

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) - and =

Given: 63 = 56 + 88 ÷ 11 - 15

After interchanging the symbols, we get;

⇒ 63 - 56 + 88 ÷ 11 = 15

⇒ 63 - 56 + 8 = 15

⇒ 71 - 56 = 15

⇒ 15 = 15

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 2) + and ÷

Given: 63 = 56 + 88 ÷ 11 - 15

After interchanging the symbols we get;

⇒ 63 = 56 ÷ 88 + 11 - 15

⇒ 63 = 0.63 + 11 - 15

⇒ 63 = 11.63 - 15

⇒ 63 ≠ -3.37

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 3) ÷ and -

Given: 63 = 56 + 88 ÷ 11 - 15

After interchanging the symbols we get;

⇒ 63 = 56 + 88 - 11 ÷ 15

⇒ 63 = 56 + 88 - 0.73

⇒ 63 = 144 - 0.73

⇒ 63 ≠ 143.27

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) + and =

Given: 63 = 56 + 88 ÷ 11 - 15

After interchanging the symbols we get;

⇒ 63 + 56 = 88 ÷ 11 - 15

⇒ 63 + 56 = 8 - 15

⇒ 119 = 8 - 15

⇒ 119 ≠ -7

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 85

The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 4:20?

  1. AOption (a)

    10°

  2. BOption (b)

    20°

  3. COption (c)

    5°

  4. DOption (d)

    0°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10°

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPTS :

The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand can be calculated as:

Formula :

Angle = | 11211 \over 2M - 30H | 

Where M = minutes and H = hours

Important Points

Here the Angle formula is in mod value therefore two angles are calculated from it.

One is the main angle and another is the reflex angle which can be calculated by subtracting it from 360°.

Depending on the options we need to choose accordingly.

EXPLANATION : 

The angle between the hand when time is 4:20 using the formula :

Angle = | 11211 \over 2M - 30H |

Here, M = 20 and H = 4

Therefore, angle = | 11211 \over 2 × 20 - 30 × 4 |

angle  = | 110 - 120 |

angle = 10°

Conclusion :

Hence, 10° is the correct answer.

Question 86

Which of the following is rearranged to form an English word?

  1. AOption (a)

    TCAPU

  2. BOption (b)

    LEABO

  3. COption (c)

    TCINO

  4. DOption (d)

    LIUDT

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

TCINO

Why this answer is correct

Option (1):

TCAPU → Not meaningful word

Option (2):

LEABO → Not meaningful word

Option (3):

TCINO → TONIC → meaningful word

Option (4)::

LIUDT → Not meaningful word

Hence, the correct answer is "TCINO".

Question 87

By Interchanging which two signs the equation will be correct? 

15 + 5 ÷ 2 - 9 × 3 = 22

  1. AOption (a)
    • and -
  2. BOption (b)

    × and ÷ 

  3. COption (c)

    × and +

  4. DOption (d)

    ÷ and +

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

× and ÷ 

Why this answer is correct

Given equation: 15 + 5 ÷ 2 - 9 × 3 = 22.

BODMAS Table: 

Let's check each option one by one.

Option 1) + and -

Given: 15 + 5 ÷ 2 - 9 × 3 = 22

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 15 - 5 ÷ 2 + 9 × 3 = 22

⇒ 15 - 2.5 + 9 × 3 = 22

⇒ 15 - 2.5 + 27 = 22

⇒ 42 - 2.5 = 22

⇒ 39.5 ≠ 22

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 2) × and ÷ 

Given: 15 + 5 ÷ 2 - 9 × 3 = 22

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 15 + 5 × 2 - 9 ÷ 3 = 22

⇒ 15 + 5 × 2 - 3 = 22

⇒ 15 + 10 - 3 = 22

⇒ 25 - 3 = 22

⇒ 22 = 22

⇒ LHS = RHS

Option 3) × and +

Given: 15 + 5 ÷ 2 - 9 × 3 = 22

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 15 × 5 ÷ 2 - 9 + 3 = 22

⇒ 15 × 2.5 - 9 + 3 = 22

⇒ 37.5 - 9 + 3 = 22

⇒ 40.5 - 9 = 22

⇒ 31.5 ≠ 22

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Option 4) ÷ and +

Given: 15 + 5 ÷ 2 - 9 × 3 = 22

After interchanging the numbers we get;

⇒ 15 ÷ 5 + 2 - 9 × 3 = 22

⇒ 3 + 2 - 9 × 3 = 22

⇒ 3 + 2 - 27 = 22

⇒ 5 - 27 = 22

⇒ -22 ≠ 22

⇒ LHS ≠ RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 88

M is the father of L. R is the father of M. Q is the husband of S. L is the brother of Q. How is S related to M?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mother

  2. BOption (b)

    Daughter in law

  3. COption (c)

    Niece

  4. DOption (d)

    Daughter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Daughter in law

Why this answer is correct

Family Chart:

Given: M is the father of L. R is the father of M. Q is the husband of S. L is the brother of Q.

So, S is Daughter in law of M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 89

Which one of following responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

  1. Chapter
  2. Index
  3. Bibliography
  4. Introduction
  5. Preface
  1. AOption (a)

    5, 2, 4, 1, 3

  2. BOption (b)

    4, 2, 5, 1, 3

  3. COption (c)

    5, 1, 4, 3, 2

  4. DOption (d)

    5, 4, 1, 3, 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5, 2, 4, 1, 3

Why this answer is correct

Meaningful order of words:

  1. Preface → 2. Index → 4. Introduction → 1. Chapter → 3. Bibliography

Hence, "5, 2, 4, 1, 3" is correct answer.

Question 90

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

3, 12, ?, 39, 57, 78

  1. AOption (a)

    19

  2. BOption (b)

    22

  3. COption (c)

    20

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

24

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

Hence, the correct answer is "24".

Question 91

Each letter below is assigned a unique number. Select the combination of numbers whose corresponding letters are arranged accordingly to form a meaningful word.

CNASPHI
1234567
  1. AOption (a)

    4, 5, 7, 2, 3, 1, 6

  2. BOption (b)

    7, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 6

  3. COption (c)

    5, 7, 4, 2, 6, 1, 3

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 3, 7, 5, 4, 1, 6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

4, 5, 7, 2, 3, 1, 6

Why this answer is correct

Given:

CNASPHI
1234567

Check all the options:

(1) 4, 5, 7, 2, 3, 1, 6

SPINACH
4572316

SPINACH → Spinach is a leafy green vegetable plant.(Meaningful word)

(2) 7, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 6

INASPCH
7234516

INASPCH → not meaningful.

(3) 5, 7, 4, 2, 6, 1, 3

PISNHCA
5742613

PISNHCA → not meaningful.

(4) 2, 3, 7, 5, 4, 1, 6

NAIPSCH
2375416

NAIPSCH → not meaningful.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (1)".

Question 92

'Restaurant' is related to 'Menu' in the same way as 'Library' Is related to '_____'.

  1. AOption (a)

    Register

  2. BOption (b)

    Rack

  3. COption (c)

    Book

  4. DOption (d)

    Catalogue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Catalogue

Why this answer is correct

  • 'Menu' is a list of food available in 'Restaurant'

Similarly,

  • 'Catalogue' is a list of books available in 'Library'

Hence, the correct answer is "Catalogue".

Question 93

In a certain code language, 'FAN' is written as '21'. How will 'TORCH' be written in that language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    64

  2. BOption (b)

    74

  3. COption (c)

    53

  4. DOption (d)

    23

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

64

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Sum of the place values of the letters in the word is the code of that word.

Now,

'FAN' is coded as '21'

⇒ F(6) + A(1) + N(14) = 21.

Similarly,

for 'TORCH'

⇒ T(20) + O(15) + R(18) + C(3) + H(8) = 64;

So, 'TORCH' will be coded as '64'.

Hence, the correct answer is "64".

Question 94

A is taller than B. C and D are of equal height. E is shorter than B but taller than D. F is shorter than C, who is shorter than B. Who is the shortest among all?  

  1. AOption (a)

    F

  2. BOption (b)

    E

  3. COption (c)

    D

  4. DOption (d)

    C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

F

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is :-

1) A is taller than B and E is shorter than B but taller than D.

A > B > E > D

2) C and D are of equal height.

A > B > E > D = C

3) F is shorter than C, who is shorter than B.

A > B > E > D = C > F

∴ Here, 'F' is the shortest among all.

Hence, the correct answer is "F".

Question 95

Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Book, Page, Pen

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

The correct Venn diagram representation is:

Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.

Question 96

Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. F is an immediate neighbour of A. D sits second to the right of E. B is an immediate neighbour of E and sits second to the right of C. F sits second to the right of D. A is not an immediate neighbour of E. Who is sitting between D and E?

  1. AOption (a)

    C

  2. BOption (b)

    F

  3. COption (c)

    B

  4. DOption (d)

    A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B

Why this answer is correct

Given: Six students are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

  1. D sits second to the right of E. 

2) F sits second to the right of D.

  1. B is an immediate neighbour of E and sits second to the right of C.

4) F is an immediate neighbour of A.

  1. A is not an immediate neighbour of E.

Here, "B' is sitting between D and E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 97

K is 20 m to the south of A. L is 30 m to the East of K and B is 40 m to the north of L. B is in which direction with respect to A?

  1. AOption (a)

    South-west

  2. BOption (b)

    South

  3. COption (c)

    South-east

  4. DOption (d)

    North-east

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

North-east

Why this answer is correct

We make a diagram according to the question:

  • K is 20 m to the south of A.
  • L is 30 m to the East of K.
  • B is 40 m to the north of L.

We can clearly see that "B" is in the "North-East"  direction with respect to "A".

Hence the correct answer is "North-East".

Question 98

In a certain code language, 'PHONES' is coded as 'NFMLCQ'. What is the code for 'REALLY' in that code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    PCYKKW

  2. BOption (b)

    PCYJJY

  3. COption (c)

    PCYJJV

  4. DOption (d)

    PCYJJW

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

PCYJJW

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

For, ‘PHONES' is coded as 'NFMLCQ’,

Similarly, for 'REALLY'

So, 'REALLY' is coded as 'PCYJJW'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 99

From the given options, select the option in which the dot can be placed in exactly the same way as shown in the figure below.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

On observing the given figures carefully, we get:

In the question figure,

  1. One dot is in the common area of arrow, square, rectangle, and circle.
  2. One dot is in the common area of the rectangle and circle.
  3. One dot is in the common area of rectangle and arrow.

Option (1) → Common area of arrow, square, rectangle, and circle isn't present.

Option (2) → Common area of arrow, square, rectangle, and circle isn't present.

Option (3) → All the required conditions are fulfilled as shown below:

Option (4) → Common area of arrow, square, rectangle, and circle isn't present.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option (3)".

 

We should not think of the exact shape and size of the figures in these questions.

Just resemblance will work, like if Equilateral triangle is given in the question figure, any shape of triangle in the answer figure will work, be it right triangle or scalene triangle.

Question 100

In a certain code language, 'GLOBE' is coded as '40', 'GRASS' is coded as '63'. What is the code for 'HANDY' in that code language? 

  1. AOption (a)

    52

  2. BOption (b)

    49

  3. COption (c)

    51

  4. DOption (d)

    50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

51

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Sum of the place values - 1.

Now,

'GLOBE' is coded as '40'

⇒ G(7) + L(12) + O(15) + B(2) + E(5) - 1

⇒ 41 - 1 = 40.

'GRASS' is coded as '63'

⇒ G(7) + R(18) + A(1) + S(19) + S(19) - 1

⇒ 64 - 1 = 63.

Similarly,

for 'HANDY'

⇒ H(8) + A(1) + N(14) + D(4) + Y(25) - 1

⇒ 52 - 1 = 51;

So, 'HANDY' will be coded as '51'.

Hence, the correct answer is "51".

100 questions in the full paper