Previous Year Paper

AFCAT 16th Feb 2024 (Shift 2) Memory Based Paper. (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2024

100 questions120 minutes
With answers
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Full Test (100 questions)

Question 1

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence that is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

While the increase in the proportion of adults______________________

P: having bank accounts is indeed impressive,

Q: 38% of those who have an account

R: in a financial institution made no

S: withdrawal or deposit in the past year

  1. AOption (a)

    PRQS

  2. BOption (b)

    RPQS

  3. COption (c)

    PQRS

  4. DOption (d)

    RPSQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PQRS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “PQRS”

Key Points

  • All the sentences are already arranged in the proper way and no rearrangement is needed. The arrangement “PQRS” is grammatically and contextually correct.

Hence, the correct answer is “While the increase in the proportion of adults having bank accounts is indeed impressive, 38% of those who have an account in a financial institution made no withdrawal or deposit in the past year.”

Additional Information

When we are doing Sentence Rearrangement & Para jumbles, we have to keep three things in our mind:

  1. Identify the introductory and concluding sentences.
  2. After identifying the first and last sentences, the next task is to trace the flow of information the author used. By doing this, you will be able to see the purpose of all the paragraphs, which by default will prompt you to develop a sequence between the sentences.
  3. 'For solving parajumbles, combining statements based on particular characteristics or indicators works well.

Question 2

Direction : In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word as your answer :

Knack

  1. AOption (a)

    Talent

  2. BOption (b)

    Dullness

  3. COption (c)

    Dexterity

  4. DOption (d)

    Balance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dullness

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Dullness'.

 Key Points

  • The word 'Knack' means an acquired or natural skill at performing a task (कौशल).
  • Example Sentence: She has a knack for playing the guitar.
  • 'Dullness' is the best antonym for 'Knack' because it implies the lack of ability or skill, which is the opposite of having a knack or skill for something.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 Additional Information

  • Talent: Natural aptitude or skill (प्रतिभा).
  • Dexterity: Skill in performing tasks, especially with the hands (निपुणता).
  • Balance: An even distribution of weight enabling someone or something to remain upright and steady (संतुलन).

Question 3

Directions Choose appropriate meaning of the Idioms from the choices given

Wash dirty linen in public

  1. AOption (a)

    To criticise 

  2. BOption (b)

    Make personal quarrels public 

  3. COption (c)

    To talk dirty things in public 

  4. DOption (d)

    To wash clothes 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Make personal quarrels public 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is **"**Make personal quarrels public "

Key Points 

  • The idiom "wash dirty linen in public" means to discuss private, personal, or embarrassing matters in public, often with the intention of shaming or criticizing someone(व्यक्तिगत झगड़ों को सार्वजनिक करें).
  • Example: John's ex-girlfriend was angry at him and decided to wash their dirty linen in public by posting their personal conversations on social media for everyone to see. By doing so, she intended to criticize and shame John in front of his friends, family, and colleagues.
  • In this case, the ex-girlfriend discussed their private and personal matters in public with the intention of harming John's reputation, just like the idiom "wash dirty linen in public" suggests.
  • Thus, as per the above explanation the correct answer is "Make personal quarrels public "

Correct answer: Make personal quarrels public

Question 4

From the options given below choose the correct idiom to fill in the blank.

Do you ___________ the long-distance telephone calls which you make in your office each month?

  1. AOption (a)

    keep track of

  2. BOption (b)

    draw a blank

  3. COption (c)

    borrow a leaf out of

  4. DOption (d)

    drop in

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

keep track of

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'keep track of.'

Key Points

  • The phrase 'to keep track of' is used to mean to maintain a record.
  • For example, 'His job is to keep track of all the shipments going out to customers.'
  • In the given sentence, we can understand that the speaker is asking the other person if they keep a record of some specific calls that they make.
  • So, the correct idiom that would fill in the blanks is to keep track of.
  • Correct Sentence: Do you keep track of the long-distance telephone calls which you make in your office each month?

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Let us take a look at the meanings and usage of the other idioms in the options:
  • draw a blank ⇒ elicit no successful response.
  • For example, 'The police investigated the case but drew a blank. That's why the court transferred it to the CBI.'
  • borrow a leaf out of ⇒ to do the same thing as someone did.
  • For example, 'I decided to take/borrow a leaf out of my brother's book and invest some money in the stock market.'
  • drop in ⇒ to make a casual or informal visit to a person or place.
  • For example, 'Drop in whenever you’re in the neighbourhood. My house is always open for you.'

Question 5

The following question consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence that is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

The apprentice came late to the office______________________it was a bad day for him.

P: and he went home expressing grief.

Q: the manager didn’t allow him to enter the office

R: the man was waiting outside for some time.

S: he decided to go home

  1. AOption (a)

    QRPS

  2. BOption (b)

    QRSP

  3. COption (c)

    RQPS

  4. DOption (d)

    PQRS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

QRSP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “QRSP”

Key Points

  • The first statement will be clause 'Q'. (The apprentice came late to the office, that's why the manager didn’t allow him to enter the office)
  • Clause ‘Q’ and ‘R’ are paired because the manager didn't allow him inside the office that's why the man was waiting outside.
  • Clause ‘S’ and ‘P’ is also a pair (first he  decided to go home and after  he went home expressing grief)

Hence, the correct answer is “The apprentice came late to the office, the manager didn’t allow him to enter the office, the man was waiting outside for some time, he decided to go home, and he went home expressing grief. It was a bad day for him.**”

Additional Information

When we are doing Sentence Rearrangement & Para jumbles, we have to keep three things in our mind:

  1. Identify the introductory and concluding sentences.
  2. After identifying the first and last sentences, the next task is to trace the flow of information the author used. By doing this, you will be able to see the purpose of all the paragraphs, which by default will prompt you to develop a sequence between the sentences.
  3. 'For solving parajumbles, combining statements based on particular characteristics or indicators works well.

Question 6

Directions

Choose the appropriate meaning of the idioms from the choice given:**

To play second fiddle

  1. AOption (a)

    To be happy and cheerful

  2. BOption (b)

    To do back seat driving

  3. COption (c)

    To support the role and view of another person

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To support the role and view of another person

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To support the role and view of another person​​.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:
  • To play second fiddle- To have a subordinate, lesser, or smaller role, position, or part (in something) (एक अधीनस्थ, कम, या छोटी भूमिका, स्थिति, या भाग (किसी चीज़ में) होना)
  • Example: 
  • Because I wasn't willing to play office politics, I never got the big promotion and have been playing second fiddle ever since.
  • ​Thus from the explanation given above, we find that the 3rd option is the correct choice.

 ​​​​

Additional Information  

  • Let's look at the origin of the idiom:
  • This term alludes to the part of the second violin in an orchestra. Although many would argue it is as important as the first violin, it is the idea of subordinacy that was transferred in the figurative term, so used since about 1800. (यह शब्द एक ऑर्केस्ट्रा में दूसरे वायलिन के हिस्से को दर्शाता है। हालांकि कई लोग तर्क देंगे कि यह पहले वायलिन जितना ही महत्वपूर्ण है, यह अधीनस्थता का विचार है जिसे आलंकारिक शब्द में स्थानांतरित किया गया था, इसलिए लगभग 1800 के बाद से इसका इस्तेमाल किया गया।)

Question 7

Direction: The following question, consists of an incomplete sentence or a sentence which is split into four parts. All four parts are jumbled up and are named as P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and find out which of the four combinations from the given options will correctly complete the sentence.

After the ______ use masks and gloves.

P : become mandatory

Q : for all the students to

R : pandemic,

S : it has

  1. AOption (a)

    RSPQ

  2. BOption (b)

    PSRQ

  3. COption (c)

    SQPR

  4. DOption (d)

    RSQP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

RSPQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'RSPQ.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the sentence given in options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.
  • The sentence should start with the subject R, "After the pandemic."
  • R must be followed by S as it is providing an indirect object to the sentence with the help of the phrase "it has."
  • Q must be the last part as it is providing a conclusion to the sentence by talking about "using maks and gloves by all the students."
  • ​​Correct sentence: After the pandemic, it has become mandatory for all the students to use masks and gloves.

Additional Information      

 

 

  • Before rearranging parts of the sentence, it is very important to read them carefully.
  • It is very important to analyse the use of a determiner and conjunction in such cases.
  • This confusion can be eradicated by practising more and more questions of Sentence Jumbles.

Hinglish     

 

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए वाक्य के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • वाक्य की शुरुआत subject R से होनी चाहिए, "After the pandemic"।
  • R के बाद S होना चाहिए क्योंकि यह phrase "it has" की मदद से वाक्य को एक अप्रत्यक्ष वस्तु प्रदान कर रहा है।
  • Q अंतिम भाग होना चाहिए क्योंकि यह "using maks and gloves by all the students" के बारे में बात करके वाक्य को निष्कर्ष प्रदान कर रहा है।

Question 8

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it . If there is no error, choose 'No error'.

Participants in our studies reviewed these online dating profiles.

  1. AOption (a)

    online dating profiles

  2. BOption (b)

    Participants in our

  3. COption (c)

    studies reviewed these

  4. DOption (d)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No error

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4' i.e. "No error."

Key Points

  • The sentence "Participants in our studies reviewed these online dating profiles" is grammatically correct and does not contain any errors.
  • Here's why each segment is correct:
  • "Online dating profiles" - This segment is correct. It serves as the object of the sentence, indicating what was reviewed by the participants.
  • "Participants in our" - This segment is also correct. It begins the subject of the sentence ("Participants in our studies"), indicating who performed the action of reviewing.
  • "Studies reviewed these" - This segment is correct. It completes the subject ("Participants in our studies") and begins the verb and object ("reviewed these online dating profiles"), indicating the action that was performed and what it was performed on.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: 'Participants in our studies reviewed these online dating profiles.'

Question 9

I am never late for our English class. I'm _____ on time:

  1. AOption (a)

    rare

  2. BOption (b)

    always

  3. COption (c)

    usually

  4. DOption (d)

    often

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

always

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "always".

Key Points

  • The sentence "I am never late for our English class" indicates that the speaker is consistently punctual for the English class.
  • The word "always" is an adverb that means at all times; on all occasions, which aligns with the constant punctuality implied by the speaker.

Hence, the correct answer will be Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: "rare" 
  • This is an adjective that means not occurring very often. It is not suitable in this context because the speaker is expressing a consistency in being on time, not a rarity.
  • Example sentence: "A blue moon is a rare event."
  • Option 3: "usually"
  • This is an adverb that means under normal conditions; generally. While it indicates a frequent occurrence, it does not convey the absolute consistency implied by "never late".
  • Example sentence: "I usually have coffee in the morning, but sometimes I prefer tea."
  • Option 4: "often"
  • This is an adverb that means frequently; many times. Similar to "usually", it indicates frequency but not absolute consistency.
  • Example sentence: "I often go for a run in the morning."

Question 10

Direction : In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word as your answer :

Solitary

  1. AOption (a)

    Idle

  2. BOption (b)

    Lost

  3. COption (c)

    Lonely

  4. DOption (d)

    Quiet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lonely

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Lonely'.

 Key Points

  • The word 'Solitary' means done or existing alone (एकाकी).
  • Example Sentence: He took a solitary walk in the park to clear his mind.
  • The word 'Lonely' is the best synonym for 'Solitary' because it also implies a state of being alone.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 Additional Information

  • Idle: Not active or in use (निष्क्रिय).
  • Lost: Unable to find one's way; not knowing one's whereabouts (खोया हुआ).
  • Quiet: Making little or no noise (शांत).

Question 11

In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The program has _______ a DNA based HPV test and offered it for free to these women.

  1. AOption (a)

    relate

  2. BOption (b)

    deploying

  3. COption (c)

    deployed

  4. DOption (d)

    refrain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

deployed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - "deployed"

Key Points

  • "has" depicts that given sentence is in "Present perfect tense"
  • Present perfect tense needs 3rd form of main verb.
  • Structure - Subject + has/have + Verb (3rd form) + Object.
  • Eg. He has played volleyball.
  • Option 1 2 and 4 are not 3rd form of verb.
  • Option deployed is the 3rd form of the deploy.
  • In this way, Deployed is appropriate for the blank.
  • Thus, Option 3 is correct answer.

Question 12

Directions Choose appropriate meaning of the Idioms from the choices given

Throw up one’s cards

  1. AOption (a)

    Accept defeat 

  2. BOption (b)

    Spoil the cards game 

  3. COption (c)

    Throw cards in air 

  4. DOption (d)

    Throw away the game 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Accept defeat 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Accept defeat 

Key Points 

  • The idiom "throw up one's cards" means to give up, surrender, or abandon a plan, task, or project because of difficulties or problems encountered along the way(हार मान लो).
  • Example: After weeks of trying to fix his car engine, John had to throw up his cards and accept that it was beyond repair. He had spent a lot of time and money trying to fix it, but it seemed to be a lost cause.
  • In this case, John gave up on the task of fixing his car engine due to the difficulties he encountered, just like the idiom "throw up one's cards" suggests.
  • Thus, as per the above explanation, the correct answer is "Accept defeat "

Correct answer: Accept defeat

Question 13

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.

Make sure you known how to swim.

  1. AOption (a)

    No error

  2. BOption (b)

    how to swim.

  3. COption (c)

    Make sure

  4. DOption (d)

    you known

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

you known

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

  • The error is in option 4) "you known".
  • The correct form should be "you know".
  • This is because the verb "know" needs to be in the present tense to match with "you", forming the present tense declarative sentence.
  • "Known" is the past participle of "know" and is typically used in perfect tenses or as an adjective, neither of which applies here.

Therefore, the correct sentence is- 'Make sure you know how to swim'.

Question 14

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A position requiring little or no work but giving the holder status or financial benefit

  1. AOption (a)

    Sinecure

  2. BOption (b)

    Contemporaries

  3. COption (c)

    Connoisseur

  4. DOption (d)

    Convalescent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sinecure

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1) Sinecure.

Key Points

  • A sinecure is a position that requires little or no work but gives the holder status or financial benefit.
  • Example sentence: He was appointed to a sinecure in the foreign office.
  • Hence, the correct answer will be Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Option 2: Contemporaries: Contemporaries are people or things living or existing at the same time as another.
  • Example sentence: Shakespeare and Cervantes were contemporaries.
  • Option 3: Connoisseur: A connoisseur is an expert judge in matters of taste.
  • Example sentence: She is a connoisseur of fine wines.
  • Option 4: Convalescent: A convalescent is a person recovering from an illness or operation.
  • Example sentence: He spent six weeks as a convalescent in the hospital.

Question 15

Select the most appropriate synonym of the word given in the brackets to fill in the blank.

Mrs. Rao is one of the _______ (Vociferous) members of the committee and does not let others speak when any issue is being discussed.

  1. AOption (a)

    loud

  2. BOption (b)

    silent

  3. COption (c)

    low

  4. DOption (d)

    soft

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

loud

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'loud'.

Key Points

  • Vociferous means expressing or characterized by vehement opinions; loud and forceful. (मुखर, ज़ोर की आवाज़ का , चिल्लानेवाला)
  • For example:- He is her most vociferous critic.
  • Loud means producing or capable of producing much noise; with a great deal of volume. (जोर ,  ऊँचा , उग्र)
  • For example:- His voice became harsh and loud.

Hence, loud is similar in meaning to the word vociferous. 

Additional Information

  • The meaning of the other given words are as follows:-
  • Silent - not making or accompanied by any sound. (गुमसुम, मूक)
  • Low - Not loud; gentle, low pitch. (धीमी)
  • Soft**-** easy to mould, cut, compress, or fold; not hard or firm to the touch; having a pleasing quality involving a subtle effect or contrast rather than sharp definition; in a quiet or gentle way. ( कोमल**,** नाज़ुक**,** शीतल**)**

Question 16

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose 'No error'.

The political economy of reforms teaches us one major lesson loud and clearer.

  1. AOption (a)

    teaches us one major

  2. BOption (b)

    lesson loud and clearer.

  3. COption (c)

    The political economy of reforms

  4. DOption (d)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

lesson loud and clearer.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Key Points

  • The error is in part 2) "lesson loud and clearer."
  • In English, we don't usually combine the comparative form of an adjective ("clearer") with the absolute form ("loud").
  • Instead, we would use the comparative form for both adjectives or the absolute form for both.
  • Furthermore, the idiomatic expression in English is "loud and clear", meaning unambiguously clear or unmistakable.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: "The political economy of reforms teaches us one major lesson loud and clear."

Question 17

Fill in the blank with the correct word in the given sentence:

Mother ordered a beautiful _______ marble table for the living room.

  1. AOption (a)

    circle

  2. BOption (b)

    circular

  3. COption (c)

    circuler

  4. DOption (d)

    circling

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

circular

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'circular'.

 Key Points

  • 'Circular' is the adjective form of the noun 'circle'. It is used to describe something that has the shape of a circle. Example: She cut out a circular piece of paper.
  • 'Circle' is a noun, not an adjective, so it cannot be used to describe the table.
  • 'Circuler' is not a correct English word.
  • 'Circling' is a verb, indicating the action of moving in a circular path. It is not suitable for describing the table.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Question 18

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

NEBULOUS

  1. AOption (a)

    Familiar

  2. BOption (b)

    Common

  3. COption (c)

    Mutual

  4. DOption (d)

    Clear

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Clear

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- Clear.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meanings of the given word and marked option:
  • Nebulous- in the form of a cloud or haze; hazy
  • Clear- easy to perceive, understand or interpret
  • ​​Let's look at the meanings of the other given options: 
  • Familiar- well known from long or close association
  • Common- occurring, found, or done often; prevalent
  • Mutual- (of a feeling or action) experienced or done by each of two or more parties toward the other or others
  • Hence from the given meanings, we find that Nebulous and Clear are antonyms.

Question 19

Some parts of a sentence have been jumbled up, and labelled P, Q, R and S. Select the option that gives the correct sequence in which these parts can be rearranged to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.

Novelists have proved

P. impressionable, quick studies,

Q. recalibrating their aesthetic

R. objectives to reflect those of

S. the critical theorists they emulate.

  1. AOption (a)

    SPQR

  2. BOption (b)

    SRQP

  3. COption (c)

    PQRS

  4. DOption (d)

    RQPS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

PQRS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "PQRS".

Key Points 

  • P will be the first sentence to start as it is contextually and meaningfully correct for the sentence after "Novelists have proved**"** which means that novelists have proved easy to influence quick studies.
  • Q will be after P as it continues the further information about novelists through the pronoun "their" which says that novelists change something.
  • R will be after Q as it continues the information about changes that novelists change their principle objectives to reflect those people.
  • S will be after R and is the last one as it concludes the sentence and says that those people i.e. novelists change their principle objectives to reflect those critical theorists they think or admire should be better than them.

 

Hence, the correct arrangement is "PQRS".

Correct Order

Novelists have proved

P. impressionable, quick studies,

Q. recalibrating their aesthetic

R. objectives to reflect those of

S. the critical theorists they emulate.

Complete Sentence: Novelists have proved impressionable, quick studies, recalibrating their aesthetic objectives to reflect those of the critical theorists they emulate.

Question 20

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A specialist of kidney

  1. AOption (a)

    Obstetrician

  2. BOption (b)

    Nephrologist

  3. COption (c)

    Pathologist

  4. DOption (d)

    Primatologist

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Nephrologist

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Nephrologist.

Key Points

  • The correct word that can substitute the given group of words "A specialist of kidney" is: Nephrologist.
  • NOTE: The term "Nephrologist" is derived from two root words: "nephro" and "logist." The root word "nephro" is derived from the Greek word "nephros," which means "kidney." It is commonly used in medical terminology related to the kidneys. The suffix "logist" comes from the Greek word "logos," which generally means "study" or "science." In medical terminology, the suffix "logist" is used to indicate a specialist or expert in a particular field.
  • A nephrologist is a medical specialist who specifically focuses on the diagnosis, treatment, and management of kidney-related conditions and diseases. They have expertise in kidney function, kidney diseases, and the treatment of kidney-related disorders.
  • Nephrologists often work closely with patients who have chronic kidney disease, kidney failure, or other kidney-related disorders, providing specialized care and treatment options.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2.

Additional Information

  • Now let's analyze the other options:
  • Obstetrician. This term refers to a medical specialist who specializes in pregnancy, childbirth, and the care of women before, during, and after childbirth. Obstetricians are not specifically focused on kidney-related conditions, so they do not substitute the given group of words accurately.
  • Pathologist. This term refers to a medical specialist who examines and diagnoses diseases by studying tissues, cells, and bodily fluids. While a pathologist may analyze kidney samples for diagnostic purposes, they do not specifically specialize in kidney-related conditions like a nephrologist does.
  • Primatologist. This term refers to a scientist who studies primates, such as monkeys and apes, and their behavior, genetics, and ecology. Primatologists are not medical specialists and do not have expertise in kidney-related conditions.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option 2) Nephrologist, as it accurately represents a medical specialist who specializes in the kidneys and related conditions.

Question 21

Fill in the blank with the most appropriate choice

He is still as purposefully _____ as ever, using the genre of educational information posters to inform us of our own miseducation.

  1. AOption (a)

    desiccated

  2. BOption (b)

    diffident

  3. COption (c)

    didactic

  4. DOption (d)

    desultory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

didactic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option (3) didactic.

Key Points

  • The blank requires a word that can guide or teach people about something in a different way (लोगों को कुछ सिखाने का इरादा, विशेष रूप से एक नैतिक सबक)
  • The word didactic means intended to teach people something, especially a moral lesson.
  • Example - In totalitarian societies, art exists for didactic purposes.

Thus, the correct word for the blank is option (3) didactic.

Additional Information

  • The meaning of the other words are as follows: - 
  • desiccated: things have lost all the moisture that was in them (चीज़ों ने वह सारी नमी खो दी है जो उनमें थी).
  • diffident: shy and does not enjoy talking about themselves or being noticed by other people (शर्मीले लोग जो और खुद के बारे में बात करने या अन्य लोगों द्वारा देखे जाने का आनंद नहीं लेते हैं)
  • desultory: done in an unplanned and disorganized way, and without enthusiasm (अनियोजित और असंगठित तरीके से और बिना उत्साह के किया गया कार्य)

.

Question 22

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

AMPLE

  1. AOption (a)

    Sufficient

  2. BOption (b)

    Enough

  3. COption (c)

    Liberal

  4. DOption (d)

    Meagre

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Meagre

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'meagre'.

Key Points

  • Ample means generous or more than adequate in size, scope.
  • Example: She had saved ample money for the Florida trip.
  • The marked option 'meagre' means too small in amount.
  • Therefore, from the above meaning of the marked option and the meaning of the given word 'ample' , we are clear that they are antonyms of each other.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 23

Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’.

Shapes that are impossible to make of machining can be printed.

  1. AOption (a)

    Shapes that are impossible  

  2. BOption (b)

    No error 

  3. COption (c)

    can be printed. 

  4. DOption (d)

    to make of machining 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

to make of machining 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Key Points

  • The part of the sentence that has an error is: 'To make of machining'.
  • The phrase "to make by machining" means to create or produce using machining methods.
  • The term "machining" refers to a process in which a piece of raw material is cut into a desired final shape and size by a controlled material-removal process.
  • In this context, 3D printing is often used to create complex shapes that traditional machining methods can't easily produce.
  • The preposition "of" in "to make of machining" is incorrect.
  • The correct preposition is "by," so the correct phrase should be "to make by machining."

Therefore, the correct sentence is: "Shapes that are impossible to make by machining can be printed."

Question 24

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Rock the boat

  1. AOption (a)

    escape from problems

  2. BOption (b)

    act without thinking

  3. COption (c)

    disturb an existing situation 

  4. DOption (d)

    enjoy a boat ride

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

disturb an existing situation 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "disturb an existing situation".

Key Points

  • The idiom "Rock the boat" means to say or do something to disturb an existing situation and upset people.(किसी मौजूदा स्थिति को बिगाड़ने के लिए कुछ कहना या करना).
  • Ex- If you don't want any trouble with your boss, then stop rocking the boat.
  • Therefore the correct answer is 'option 3'.

A passage is given with five blanks labelled (1) - (5). Below the passage, four options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.

<br>

We instinctively turn to outdoor activities and nature as a way of relaxing and (1) ______ our well-being. Nature (2) ______ and nurtures. We have a hibiscus plant in our garden. Every fortnight a flower (3) ______ on it; big, bright and tender.

Question 25

Which of these should be filled at (1) as per the context of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Worsening

  2. BOption (b)

    Reducing

  3. COption (c)

    Enhancing

  4. DOption (d)

    Declining

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Enhancing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. ‘Enhancing.’

  • In sentence (1), the theme of the passage is briefly described. It speaks of the beauty of nature.
  • The word relaxing is followed by a blank which probably indicates an adjective that describes nature. Since relaxing is a positive effect, the following adjective is also one that has a pleasant outcome.
  • Let’s take a look at the meaning of the words:
  • Worsening: to make or become wore.
  • Reducing: make smaller or less in amount, degree, or size.
  • Enhancing: intensify, increase, or further improve the quality, value, or extent of something.
  • Declining: becoming smaller, fewer, or less; decreasing.
  • In all of the incorrect options, the meaning refers to a reduction or decrease in the quality. However, as mentioned in first point, the passage speaks of the more positive outcomes; therefore, the three options can be eliminated.

Therefore, the sentence is: “We instinctively turn to outdoor activities and nature as a way of relaxing and (1) enhancing our well-being.”

Question 26

Which of these should be filled at (2) as per the context of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Agitates

  2. BOption (b)

    Soothes

  3. COption (c)

    Alarms

  4. DOption (d)

    Intensifies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Soothes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. ‘Soothes.’

  • The theme of the passage speaks of the beauty of nature.
  • Let’s take a look at the meaning of the words:
  • Agitates: make (someone) troubled or nervous.
  • Soothes: gently calm (a person or their feelings).
  • Alarms: make (someone) feel frightened, disturbed, or in danger.
  • Intensifies: become or make more intense.
  • The options 1, 3, and 4 can be eliminated, as they do not support the theme of the passage- positive outcomes of nature.
  • The words 'alarms' and 'intensifies' can be used to describe the effects of nature. However, in this context it is not so. Alarms refers more to a human interaction of making someone feel disturbed or in danger.
  • The word ‘soothes’ suits the sentence the best, and the following verb mentioned is ‘nurturing;’ these two verbs are joined to describe nature positively.

Therefore the sentence is: “Nature (2) soothes and nurtures.”

Question 27

Which of these should be filled at (3) as per the context of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Withers

  2. BOption (b)

    Falls

  3. COption (c)

    Fades

  4. DOption (d)

    Blooms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Blooms

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option is 4 i.e. ‘Blooms’

  • The theme of the passage speaks of the beauty of nature.
  • Let’s take a look at the meaning of the words:
  • Withers: to become dry and shriveled.
  • Falls: become detached and drop to the ground.
  • Fades: lose or cause to lose color or brightness.
  • Blooms: a state or period of greatest beauty, freshness, or vigor; period of flowering.
  • Looking at the options provided, ‘blooms’ describes a better view of nature and flowering as compared to the other verbs.
  • The other options mostly indicate the process of a flower fading or dying. The passage does not focus on the negative outcome of nature or its aspects.
  • In addition, the second part of the sentence indicates the flower being big, bright and tender. This also leads to the fact that, the flower ‘blooms’ rather than ‘withers or falls.’

Therefore, the sentence is: “Every fortnight a flower (3) blooms on it; big, bright and tender.”

Comprehension:

Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.

Good nutrition has the power to empower the present and future generations. India's greatest national treasure is its people - especially women and children - but even after 75 years of independence a majority of them do not get the required diet to meet their nutritional needs. A child's nutritional status is directly linked to their mother. Poor nutrition among pregnant women affects the nutritional status of the child and has a greater chance to affect future generations. Under-nourished children are at risk of under-performing in studies and have limited job prospects. This vicious cycle restrains the development of the country, whose work-force, affected mentally and physically, has reduced work capacity.

While there has been some progress in tackling malnutrition among children and women over the past decade, the improvement has been modest at best. This is despite declining rates of poverty, increased self-sufficiency in food production, and the implementation of a range of government programs. The National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) has shown marginal improvement in different nutrition indicators such as Stunting, Wasting and Anemia, indicating that the pace of progress is slow. Children in several States are more undernourished now than they were five years ago.

There is a greater need now to increase investment in women and children's health and nutrition to ensure their sustainable development and improved quality of life. While the Government's focus has been on the consolidation of several programmes to improve outcomes, there is a need for increased financial commitment. Experts have pointed out that Saksham Angandwadi and the Prime Minister's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment (POSHAN) 2.0 programme have seen only a marginal increase in budgetary allocation this year (Rs. 20,263 crore from Rs. 20,105 crore in 2021-22). Additionally, 32% of funds released under POSHAN Abhiyaan to States and Union Territories have not been utilised.

Question 28

What affects the nutritional status of the child and has a greater chance to affect future generations ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Household food insecurity

  2. BOption (b)

    Inadequate care

  3. COption (c)

    Poor nutrition among pregnant women

  4. DOption (d)

    Lack of health care services

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Poor nutrition among pregnant women

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Poor nutrition among pregnant women'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is all about 'Malnutrition among Children and Women'.
  • The first paragraph says "Poor nutrition among pregnant women affects the nutritional status of the child and has a greater chance to affect future generations".
  • From the above line, we can clearly say that poor nutrition among pregnant women affects their nutritional status.

Hence, the only possible answer is 'option 3'.

Question 29

According to the Passage, what are the various nutrition indicators ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Iodine and iron deficiency

  2. BOption (b)

    obesity

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin A deficiency

  4. DOption (d)

    Stunting, Wasting and Anemia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Stunting, Wasting and Anemia

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is 'Stunting, Wasting and Anemia'.

Key Points

  • The given passage is all about 'Malnutrition among Children and Women'.
  • The second paragraph of the passage says "The National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) has shown marginal improvement in different nutrition indicators such as Stunting, Wasting and Anemia".
  • From the above sentence, we can clearly say that 'Stunting, Wasting and Anemia' are the various nutrition indicators.

Hence, the only possible answer is 'Option 4'.

Question 30

Which one of the following words is most opposite in meaning to the word 'Enslave" used in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Empower

  2. BOption (b)

    Marginal

  3. COption (c)

    Nourish

  4. DOption (d)

    Sustainable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Empower

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Empower'.

Key Points

  • 'Enslave' means to make someone a slave**.**
  • Example: George was born to an enslaved African mother.
  • 'Empower' means to give power or authority.
  • Example: The Voting Rights Act was needed to empower minority groups.
  • From the above points, we can conclude that 'empower' is the word opposite to 'enslave'.
  • Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

​

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of the remaining options:
  • Marginal- minor and not important. 
  • Example: The difference between the two estimates is marginal.
  • Nourish- provided with food or other substances necessary for growth, health
  • Example: Children needed good food to nourish their bodies.
  • Sustainable- able to be maintained at a certain rate or level.
  • Example**:** The government should do more to promote sustainable agriculture.

Question 31

"Mamallapuram Utsav" is a festival of which of the following states?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gujarat

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Karnataka 

  4. DOption (d)

    Odisha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

  • Every year, from early January to early February, the Mamallapuram Dance Festival takes place for four weeks in Tamil Nadu.
  • Exponents of Bharatnatyam, Kuchipudi, Kathakali, Mohiniattam, Odissi, and Kathak gather in this town for this major festival to perform spellbinding performances in Bharatnatyam, Kuchipudi, Kathakali, Mohini Attam, Odissi, and Kathak.
  • Folk dancers contribute to the atmosphere and provide a touch of the local flavour that keeps everyone enthralled.
  • The festival draws thousands of visitors from all over the world, turning this tranquil little tourist town into a hive of activity.
  • This dance can be performed individually or in groups, and there are many powerful solo performances at Mamallapuram each year.

Additional Information

  • Tamil Nadu has a long and illustrious history in the arts and entertainment. Iyel (Literature), Isai (Music), and Nadagam (Drama) are three types of entertainment that have their origins in rural folk theatre such as Theru Koothu (Street play).
  • For popularity and simple entertainment value, several styles of groups and individual dances compete with classical forms.
  • Tribal people execute a few of the dancing types.
  • Mamallapuram, also known as Mahabalipuram, is a town in Chengalpattu district in the southeastern Indian state of Tamil Nadu, best known for the UNESCO World Heritage Site of 7th- and 8th-century Hindu Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram. It is one of the famous tourist sites in India. The ancient name of the place is Thirukadalmallai.
  • Mamallapuram was one of two major port cities in the Pallava kingdom. The town was named after Pallava king Narasimhavarman I, who was also known as Mahabali. Along with economic prosperity, it became the site of a group of royal monuments, many carved out of the living rock. These are dated to the 7th and 8th centuries: rathas (temples in the form of chariots), mandapas (cave sanctuaries), the giant open-air rock relief the Descent of the Ganges, and the Shore Temple dedicated to Shiva.

Question 32

Tamasha painting is the part of which school of painting?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mewar School of Painting

  2. BOption (b)

    Kishangarh School of Painting

  3. COption (c)

    Tanjore School of Painting

  4. DOption (d)

    Bundi School of Painting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mewar School of Painting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mewar School of Painting.

Key Points

  • Mewar School of Painting:

  • ​After the painter Sahibdin's death the later Mewari paintings depict scenes of court life and views of the city in a minutely detailed manner. These paintings were called "tamasha" paintings.

  • The  Marwar paintings developed in the royal Rajput families of Rajasthan which includes the Kishangarh, Bikaner, Jodhpur, Nagaur, Pali and Ghanerao schools of painting collectively.

  • Tamasha Painting of Mewar School

Additional Information

  • Kishangarh School of Painting:
  • Kishangarh painting is the part of Rajasthani Marwar School of painting that emerged in the 18th Century. Kishangarh which is located in the northwestern part of Rajasthan became one of the abodes of art and culture during king Sawant Singh who himself was an expert in creating poetries and paintings. He was a devotee of Lord Krishna. carried in his heart the love for ‘Bani Thani’, a maid or a singer in his stepmother’s household.
  • He started worshipping her as Radha.
  • He called himself the servant of Radha or ‘Nagridas’ which was his pen name.
  • The Kishangarh painting mainly focuses on depicting the romantic life of Radha and Krishna which was deeply influenced by Jaydev’s famous work ‘Geet Govinda.
  • Other subject matters were: hunting scenes, court scenes, portraits of kings, nawabs, Nayak Nayika Veda etc.
  • Depiction of women is one of the chief attractions of this gharana.No other Rajasthani paintings had shown women so beautifully. Female figures have been painted with sharp features with long eyes curved upward in the shape of ‘Khanjan Pakshi’.
  • Colours were most prominent. There was no mixing of colours.
  • The panoramic landscapes were drawn skillfully to narrate the stories.
  • The most important painting: ‘Bani Thani’ was painted by the court artist Nihalchand in 1760 CE and has now been preserved in the National Museum, New Delhi.
  • Thanjavur Painting:
  • The Thanjavur form of painting originated in the town of Thanjavur of Tamil Nadu patronized at first by the Vijaynagar empire.
  • The Thanjavur art form first appeared under the patronage of the Nayakas of the Vijaynagar Rayas who are ardent lovers of art, music, and dance.
  • The chief subject of these paintings is Hindu deities.
  • These paintings are distinguished by gold coating.
  • After Shivaji captured the state of Bijapur the art form carried its legacy under the Maratha Empire.
  • During the kingship of Serfogi II Bhonsle, the last ruler of the Bhonsle dynasty, the Thanjavur painting witnessed great innovations and reached its zenith.​
  • Bundi School of Painting:
  • ​The Bundi or Hadoti School of Paint began under Rao Chattar Sal who was appointed as the Governor of Delhi by Shah Jahan.
  • It is a region of Rajasthan state in western India and the country of Hada Rajputs, which comprises the territories of two states, Bundi and Kota.
  • The Bundi artists had their depiction of feminine beauty.
  • A typical Bundi-Kota miniature has graceful women with round faces, lotus petal eyes, sharp eyebrows and well-formed bodies.
  • The human figures were put in the backdrop of plants and evergreen forests along with animals like  elephants, lions, tigers and wild boars
  • Under the patronage of Raja Ummed Singh, the class of Indian paintings known as the ‘Ragamala’ and ‘Baramasa’ paintings emerged and these paintings depict the moods and sentiments of men and women, time of the day, seasons and ‘ragas’ and ‘regions’ associated with the seasons.

Question 33

Who among the following was called the ‘Father of Indian Unrest’ by Britishers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lokmanya Tilak

  2. BOption (b)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

  3. COption (c)

    Mahatma Gandhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lokmanya Tilak

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lokmanya Tilak.

Key Points

  • Lokmanya Tilak​
  • Tilak was born in Ratnagiri, present-day Maharashtra, in 1856 under the name Keshav Gangadhar Tilak.
  • He was called the ‘Father of Indian Unrest’ by Britishers
  • Born into a Hindu middle-class family, he graduated from Pune with a bachelor's degree.
  • He worked as a math teacher at first. thereafter began a career in journalism and became involved in the liberation movement.
  • The Sarvajanik Ganeshotsav as popularised by him since 1894 is still one of the biggest festivals of Maharashtra.
  • He was among the founding members of Pune's Fergusson College.
  • At 64, he passed away in 1920.

  

Additional Information

  • Jawaharlal Nehru​
  • He was the first prime minister of India and was one of the most prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement.
  • He had succeeded his father as president of the Congress in 1929.
  • Motilal Nehru was an Indian lawyer, activist and politician belonging to the Indian National Congress.
  • He also served as the Congress President twice, 1919–1920 and 1928–1929.
  • He was a patriarch of the Nehru-Gandhi family and the father of Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India.
  • ​Mahatma Gandhi
  • Gandhiji is known as the Father of our Nation.
  • He returned to India from South Africa on 9th January 1915 and celebrated it as Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (NRI Day).
  • The first satyagraha of Gandhiji is Champaran  Satyagraha (1917) also known as the first civil disobedience movement.
  • He gave the famous 'Do or Die' slogan during the Quit India Movement.
  • The Quit India Movement was a significant movement launched by the Indian National Congress on August 8, 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India.
  • The 'Do or Die' slogan emphasized the urgency and determination of the Indian people to achieve independence.
  • The first hunger strike of Gandhiji is Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918).
  • The first non-cooperation movement of Gandhiji is Kheda Satyagraha (1918).
  • He was the president of the INC session in Belgaum (1924).
  • In 1931, Gandhiji participated in the Second Round Table Conference in London.
  • Gandhiji was assassinated on 30 January 1948 by Nathuram Godse and observed as 'Martyrs Day'.​
  • ​Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  • ​Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was an Indian politician who held the positions of first Deputy Prime Minister and first Home Minister
  • In addition to being an active member of the Indian National Congress, he practiced law. His birthdate was never officially documented. However, according to his matriculation exam documents, he was born on October 31, 1875.
  • He was born in Gujarat, in Nadiad. Jhaverbhai Patel was his father, and Ladba was his mother. Siblings of Vallabhbhai Patel numbered five.
  • The nonviolent stance of Mahatma Gandhi had a great impact on him. He was a passionate adherent of Gandhi's teachings.
  • He placed a great emphasis on the Indian people's need to unite in order to free themselves from British domination.

Question 34

"Kyat" is the official currency of which of the following countries? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Sri Lanka

  2. BOption (b)

    Myanmar

  3. COption (c)

    Turkey

  4. DOption (d)

    Afghanistan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Myanmar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Myanmar.

Key Points

  • Kyat is the currency of Myanmar.
  • The term kyat derives from the ancient Burmese unit kyattha, equal to 16.3 grams of silver Myanmar, formerly known as Burma, is a country in Southeast Asia.
  • Myanmar is bordered by Bangladesh and India to its northwest, China to its northeast, Laos, and Thailand to its east and southeast, and the Andaman Sea and the Bay of Bengal to its south and southwest.
  • Capital- Naypyidaw.
  • It has a population of about 54 million, most of whom are Burmese speakers, although other languages are also spoken.
  • The biggest city is Yangon (Rangoon).
  • The main religion is Buddhism.

Additional Information

CountryCurrency
Sri LankaSri Lankan Rupee
TurkeyTurkish lira
AfghanistanAfghan Afghan

Question 35

Consider the following statements regarding Sanchi and its archaeological findings:

  1. When Sanchi was discovered in 1818, three of its four gateways were still standing, the fourth was lying on the spot where it had fallen
  2. Animals depicted at Sanchi include elephants, horses, mon- keys and cattle

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • Sanchi stupa 
  • When Sanchi was “discovered” in 1818, three of its four gateways were still standing, the fourth was lying on the spot where it had fallen and the mound was in good condition. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Art historians identified the scene depicted in the gateways as a scene from the Vessantara Jataka.
  • These figures included beautiful women swinging from the edge of the gateway holding into a tree, like, Shalabhanjika was a woman whose touch caused trees to flower and bear fruit.
  • There are other images in Sanchi stupa. Depiction of animals like elephants, horses, monkeys, and cattle were found there.
  • Animals were used as symbols of human attributes, e.g. elephants were depicted to signify strength and wisdom.

Additional Information

  • Sanchi is located in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh.
  • It was built by the Mauryan emperor Ashoka in the third century BC.
  • It is situated in a high plateau area just west of the Betwa River.
  • It contains India's best-preserved group of Buddhist monuments, which were collectively designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1989.

Question 36

A Thangka painting is a Tibetan Buddhist painting on__.

  1. AOption (a)

    wood

  2. BOption (b)

    cotton

  3. COption (c)

    wall

  4. DOption (d)

    paper

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

cotton

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is cotton.

Key Points

  • A Thangka painting is a Tibetan Buddhist painting on cotton, silk applique that usually depicts a Buddhist deity or mythological scenes.
  • Tibetan Buddhist paintings have their origins in early Buddhist paintings that today survive in a few places like the Ajanta Caves and the Mogao Caves in China.
  • These cave paintings are repositories of early Tibetan paintings on cloth.
  • Thangka paintings were created in those regions where Tibetan Buddhism was practiced including Mongolia, Ladakh, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and parts of Himalayan India.

Question 37

In which State 'Rani ki Vav' stepwell is located?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rajasthan

  2. BOption (b)

    Haryana

  3. COption (c)

    Punjab

  4. DOption (d)

    Gujarat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Gujarat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • Rani-ki-Vav was originally built on the banks of the Saraswati River as a memorial to the King in the 11th century AD.
  • Over time, they evolved from what was essentially a sandy soil pit to multi-storey works of art and architecture.
  • Rani-ki-Vav was designed at the height of craftsmanship in the construction of steppes and the architectural style of Maru-Gurjara, reflecting the mastery of this intricate technique and the great elegance of detail and proportions.
  • The construction is attributed to Udayamati (daughter of Khengara of Saurashtra) queen of the 11th-century Solanki dynasty and spouse of Bhima I.
  • It was rediscovered in the 1940s and restored in the 1980s by the Indian Archeological Survey. It has been listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 2014.

Question 38

Who among the following Indian music composers won the Oscar award in the year 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mani Sharma

  2. BOption (b)

    AR Rahman

  3. COption (c)

    Devi Sri Prasad

  4. DOption (d)

    MM Keeravani

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

MM Keeravani

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is MM Keeravani.

Key Points

  • MM Keeravani is a renowned Indian music composer who has composed music for many Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, Malayalam, and Hindi films.
  • He won the Oscar award in 2023. He was awarded for the song "Naatu Naatu" from the movie "RRR" in the category of Best Original Song.
  • He won the National Film Award for Best Music Direction for the Telugu film Annamayya in 1997 and the Filmfare Award for Best Music Director in Telugu film for the film Magadheera in 2009.
  • MM Keeravani is also known for his work in the Baahubali film series, for which he received critical acclaim and international recognition.
  • Mani Sharma has composed music for many Telugu and Tamil films.
  • AR Rahman is a well-known composer who has won many international awards, including Oscars.
  • Devi Sri Prasad is a popular music composer who has worked in Telugu and Tamil films.
  • However, none of them won the Oscar award in the year 2023, as mentioned in the question.

Additional Information

Academy Award

  • The Oscar is also known as the Academy Awards.
  • It is a set of awards given for artistic and technical merit in the American film industry.
  • The award is given annually by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Science.
  • AR Rahman is an Indian composer, singer, and songwriter who has won the 81st Academy Award. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The 2020 Oscars award this year was the 92nd in its series.
  • This year's Oscar was very special as it honored a non-English film "Parasite" with the Best Picture Award.

Question 39

Vienna is the capital of which of the following countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cuba

  2. BOption (b)

    Belgium

  3. COption (c)

    Austria

  4. DOption (d)

    Belarus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Austria

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Austria.

Key Points

  • Vienna is the capital of Austria.
  • Austria is officially known as the Republic of Austria.
  • It is a landlocked country in Central Europe.
  • It is bordered by Germany to the northwest, the Czech Republic to the north, Slovakia to the northeast, Hungary to the east, Slovenia and Italy to the south, and Switzerland and Liechtenstein to the west.
  • Austria has a population of about 9 million people.

Additional Information

CountryCapital
CubaHavana
BelgiumBrussels
BelarusMinsk
NorwayOslo
DenmarkCopenhagen
SwitzerlandBern
SpainMadrid

Question 40

Nongkrem festival of Meghalaya is celebrated by which of the following tribes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aptani Tribe

  2. BOption (b)

    Khasi tribe

  3. COption (c)

    Tutsa Tribe

  4. DOption (d)

    Galo tribe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Khasi tribe

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Khasi tribe.

Key Points

  • Nongkrem:-
  • It is a popular harvest festival celebrated by the Khasi tribe in Meghalaya.
  • The festival is observed in the month of November and is dedicated to the Goddess Ka Blei Synshar for a good harvest and prosperity.
  • During the festival, traditional dances are performed, and sacrifices are made to appease the deity.
  • The festival is also an occasion for the Khasi people to showcase their culture and traditional attire.

Question 41

Consider the following:

Assertion (A): The Gandhara School of Art bears the mark of Hellenistic influence.

Reason (R): The Hinayana form was influenced by that art.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

     Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    A is true, but R is false

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false, but R is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A is true, but R is false

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A is true, but R is false.

Key Points

  • This assertion is true. The Gandhara School of Art was a flourishing school of Buddhist art that flourished in the Gandhara region of present-day Pakistan and Afghanistan from the 1st century BCE to the 5th century CE.
  • The Gandhara region was located on the Silk Road, a major trade route that connected East and West, and as a result, Gandharan art was heavily influenced by both Indian and Hellenistic (Greek) art.
  • This reason is false. The Hinayana form of Buddhism is one of the two main schools of Buddhism, along with Mahayana Buddhism.
  • The Hinayana form is more conservative and focuses on the individual's own path to enlightenment.
  • The Mahayana form is more liberal and includes a belief in bodhisattvas, who are beings who have delayed their own enlightenment in order to help others.
  • There is no evidence that the Hinayana form of Buddhism was influenced by Hellenistic art.
  • In fact, the Hinayana form was more likely to be influenced by Indian art and culture.

Additional Information

  • Some of the key Hellenistic influences on Gandharan art include:
  • ​The use of realistic and idealized human figures
  • The use of drapery to create a sense of movement and dynamism
  • The use of architectural elements such as columns and arches
  • The depiction of scenes from Greek mythology

Question 42

Which gharana is NOT associated with Khayal music?

  1. AOption (a)

    Patiala

  2. BOption (b)

    Gwalior

  3. COption (c)

    Lucknow

  4. DOption (d)

    Kirana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lucknow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lucknow.

Key Points

  • Lucknow gharana is NOT associated with 'Khayal' music.
  • Lucknow gharana is known for its contribution to the development of 'Thumri', a semi-classical form of music.
  • Its style is characterized by a slow and romantic rendition of the notes with emphasis on the lyrics.

Additional Information

  • 'Khayal' is a form of Hindustani classical music which originated in the Mughal era and is characterized by a free-flowing structure with improvisation and creativity.
  • Gwalior gharana is one of the oldest and most prominent gharanas associated with 'Khayal' music.
  • Its style is known for its precision and clarity in rendering the notes.
  • Patiala gharana is another important gharana associated with 'Khayal' music.
  • Its style is known for its emotive and expressive rendition of the notes.
  • Kirana gharana is also associated with 'Khayal' music and is known for its melodious and soulful rendition of the notes.

Question 43

Which freedom fighter is known as the mother of the Indian revolution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sarojini Naidu

  2. BOption (b)

    Annie Besant

  3. COption (c)

    Madam Bhikaji Cama

  4. DOption (d)

    Aruna Asaf Ali

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Madam Bhikaji Cama

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Madan Bhikaji Cama.

Key Points

  • Madam Bhikaji Cama:-
  • She is known as the mother of the Indian revolution.
  • She was the first person to unfurl the Indian flag on foreign soil, at the International Socialist Conference in Stuttgart, Germany, on August 22, 1907.
  • The flag she unfurled was a tricolour of green, saffron, and red, with the words "Bande Mataram" (Hail to the Mother) written on it.
  • She was a strong advocate for women's education and rights. She was also a vocal critic of British colonial rule in India.

Additional Information

  • Sarojini Naidu:-
  • She was a prominent Indian independence fighter, politician, poet, and social activist.
  • She is known as the "Nightingale of India".
  • Sarojini Naidu was also a poet, and she wrote many poems and plays. Her poems were generally inspired by Indian culture and traditions. Sarojini Naidu received many awards for her poems, including the "Sahitya Akademi Award" and the "Padma Vibhushan".
  • Annie Besant:-
  • She was a British socialist, theosophist, freemason, women's rights and Home Rule activist, educationist, and campaigner for Indian nationalism.
  • She was an ardent supporter of both Irish and Indian self-rule.
  • Aruna Asaf Ali:-
  • She was an Indian educator, political activist, and publisher.
  • An active participant in the Indian independence movement, she is widely remembered for hoisting the Indian National flag at the Gowalia Tank maidan, Bombay during the Quit India Movement in 1942.

Question 44

Virupaksha Temple in Hampi is dedicated to which Hindu God?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shiva

  2. BOption (b)

    Indra

  3. COption (c)

    Vishnu

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Shiva

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shiva.

Key Points

Virupaksha Temple:

  • Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi in the Ballari district of Karnataka, India.
  • It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi, designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
  • The temple is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, a form of Shiva.
  • The temple was built by Lakkan Dandesha, a nayaka under the ruler Deva Raya II also known as Prauda Deva Raya of the Vijayanagara Empire.
  • Hampi is a temple town in the South Indian state of Karnataka and is one of the World Heritage Sites of UNESCO.

Question 45

Arrange the following in correct chronological order

  1. Charak Samhita
  2. Bharat's Natyashastra
  3. Sangam Literature
  4. Ashtadhyayi

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 - 3 - 4 - 2

  2. BOption (b)

    2 - 4 -1 - 3

  3. COption (c)

    4 - 3 -1 - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    3 -1 - 2 - 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4 - 3 -1 - 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 4 - 3 -1 - 2.

Key Points

  • The correct chronological order is:
  • Ashtadhyayi: Attributed to Panini in the 5th Century BCE.
  • Sangam Literature: Flourished primarily between the 3rd Century BCE and the 3rd Century CE.
  • Charak Samhita: Composed by Charaka in the 2nd century BCE and the 2nd Century CE.
  • Bharata's Natyashastra: Estimated to be written sometime between 2nd Century BCE and 2nd Century CE.

Additional Information

  • Charak Samhita is an ancient Ayurvedic text traditionally attributed to Charaka.
  • Agnivesha, under the guidance of the ancient physician Atreya, composed the Agnivesha Samhita, an encyclopedic medical compendium.
  • Agnivesha Samhita was revised by Charaka and renamed Charaka Samhita.
  • Sangam Literature is a collection of Tamil poems and writings from the Sangam period in ancient South India**.**
  • Traditionally the ancient Tamil Siddha Agastya is believed to have presided over the first Tamil Sangam in Madurai.
  • Thus he is considered the father of Sangam literature.
  • Natyashastra, attributed to Bharata Muni, an ancient Indian treatise on performing arts and aesthetics.
  • Ashtadhyayi, an ancient Sanskrit grammar text written by Panini.

Question 46

The "National Girl Child Day" is celebrated on which date in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    24th January

  2. BOption (b)

    5th April

  3. COption (c)

    13th July

  4. DOption (d)

    14th September

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

24th January

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 24th January.

Key Points

  • The National Girl Child Day is celebrated every year on 24th January in India.
  • It was started in 2008 by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India.
  • It aims at raising awareness for gender equality, healthy child sex ratio, rights of a girl child, importance of girl education, health and nutrition.
  • The theme for National Girl Child Day 2025 is "Empowering Girls for a Bright Future".

Additional Information

  • International Day of the Girl Child (declared by UN) is celebrated on 11th October every year.

Question 47

HUN is a cultural festival celebrated in which Indian State ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Assam

  2. BOption (b)

    Tripura

  3. COption (c)

    Meghalaya

  4. DOption (d)

    Manipur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Manipur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Manipur

Key Points

  • Hun is a cultural festival celebrated by the Thadou community in the Indian state of Manipur.
  • It is considered the most important festival among all their celebrations and is celebrated for seven days.
  • The word “Hun” signifies time and season according to the Thadous, and it marks the arrival of the New Year for the Thadou tribe.
  • During the festival, the Thadou people come together to honour their customs, culture, and religious beliefs.
  • The festival serves as a platform for the leaders to assess the state of affairs in their chiefdom.
  • It is also a time to acknowledge the labour of women and appreciate their contributions to Thadou society.
  • The 5th edition of the festival was held at Thomas Ground in Kangpokpi district and was attended by dignitaries, including the Chief Minister of Manipur, state ministers, MLA, top civil and police officers.

Question 48

B.R. Ambedkar made important contributions to the major economic debates during the British Indian period. Which of the following was/were written by B.R. Ambedkar?

  1. The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin and Its Solution
  2. The Evolution of Provincial Finance in British India
  3. The Economic History of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key PointsB.R. Ambedkar:

  • Dr Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar, popularly known as Babasaheb Ambedkar, was one of the main architects of the Indian Constitution.
  • He was a very well-known political leader, philosopher, writer, economist, scholar and social reformer who dedicated his life to eradicating untouchability and other social inequality in India.
  • Ambedkar began his career as an economist, making important contributions to the major economic debates of the day.
  • Ambedkar’s views on the rupee and on public finance were responses to the raging economic problems of the day.
  • In the 1918 essay on farming and farm holdings, Ambedkar considered the problem of small landholdings in India and their fragmentation.
  • He wrote three scholarly books on economics:
  • Administration and Finance of the East India Company
  • The Evolution of Provincial Finance in British India
  • The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin and Its Solution. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), was based on the ideas that Ambedkar presented to the Hilton Young Commission.
  • Dadabhai Naoroji, the ‘Grand Old Man of India’, after a brilliant analysis of the colonial economy, put forward the theory of economic drain in Poverty and un-British Rule in India.
  • Other economic analysts included Justice Mahadeo Govind Ranade, Romesh Chandra Dutt (The Economic History of India), Gopal Krishna Gokhale, G. Subramaniya Iyer and Prithwishchandra Ray. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Question 49

Match List - I with List - II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

List - IList - II
(a)Bilhana(i)Vyavaharamatrika
(b)Hemachandra(ii)Ganitasara sangraha
(c)Jimuthavahana(iii)Vikramanka devacharita
(d)Mahaviracharya(iv)Kumarapalacharita
  1. AOption (a)

    (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

  2. BOption (b)

    (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

  4. DOption (d)

    (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct matching of the given list is :(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

Important Points

  • Bilhana:
  • ​Bilhana was a famous poet of eleventh century Kashmir.
  • Bilhana was a Kashmiri court poet and scholar in the court of the Chalukya dynasty ruler Vikramaditya VI (1070–1126) of Kalyani.
  • His famous work is 'Vikramanka devacharita', which is a history book. In this book, he has presented the biography of his patron emperor in a very lucid manner.
  • The language of 'Vikramanka devacharit' is simple and clear and the style is Vaidarbhi.
  • Vikramaditya VI had to face defeat by Kulottunga I, its mention is also found in Bilhan's Vikramanka devacharit'.
  • Hemachandra:
  • Acharya Hemchandra Kumarpal was the court poet of Solanki.
  • Kumarapalacharita was composed by the famous Jainacharya Hemchandra Suri.
  • It contains the history of Siddharaj Jaisingh and Kumarpal.
  • Divided into 20 cantos, this book gives information about the detailed history of the rulers of the Chalukya dynasty of Gujarat.
  • Out of twenty cantos, first twelve cantos are written in Sanskrit language and last eight cantos are written in Prakrit language. ​
  • Jimuthavahana:
  • Jimutavahana was an Indian Sanskrit scholar and author of legal and religious texts on Vaishnavism of the early medieval period.
  • Jimutvahana was counted among the famous scholars of law and religion of India in the 12th century.
  • His famous works are 'Daybhag', Vyavaharamatrika' and 'Kalvivek' etc.
  • He was one of the first persons in Bengal to write on Smritis.
  • Mahaviracharya:
  • Mahaviracharya was a 9th-century Jain mathematician who was born in the city of Mysore in southern India.
  • He wrote Ganitasara sangraha.
  • Mahavira gave equations to find the lengths of sides and diagonals of cyclic quadrilaterals.
  • Mahavircharya's book Ganitasara sangraha is an invaluable treasure of the world in the field of mathematics.

Based on the above discussion the correct matching is:

 

List - IList - II
(a)Bilhana(iii)Vikramanka devacharita
(b)Hemachandra(iv)Kumarapalacharita
(c)Jimuthavahana(i)Vyavaharamatrika
(d)Mahaviracharya(ii)Ganitsar sangraha

Question 50

Which of the following place is also known as the cyclone capital of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sundarbans

  2. BOption (b)

    Nellore

  3. COption (c)

    Bhubaneswar

  4. DOption (d)

    Chennai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sundarbans

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sundarbans.

Key Points

  • The Climate hazards and vulnerability atlas of India shows that Sundarbans is cyclone capital of India.
  • Atlas of India was developed by the scientists at Climate Research and Services (CRS) office of the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Pune.
  • The unique analysis of cyclone return and vulnerability was modeled on the United States National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) technical memorandum regarding the national hurricane risk analysis.
  • The web atlas is depicted using Geographic Information System (GIS) tools and provides districts maps on hazard events and vulnerability.

Additional Information

  • Around 70% cyclones in the Sundarbans region from 1961-2020 were severe.
  • Purba Medinipur in West Bengal had the highest cyclone vulnerability in the country for cyclones of all intensities.
  • Baleshwar in Orissa topped the list in terms of vulnerability to severe cyclonic storms.
  • IMD launches India’s 1st weather hazard and vulnerability atlas.
  • South 24 Parganas was the second-most vulnerable to all cyclones and ranked third in terms of severe cyclonic storms.
  • The return period of cyclonic storms in the district was 1.67 years on a scale of 1.5 to 60 years.
  • Shorter return periods indicate more frequent cyclones. For severe storms, the return period was 2.61 years. In 2021, the Sunderbans saw two (Yaas and Jawad cyclones) out of the 10 cyclonic disturbances that swept the country.
  • Coastal districts of Kendrapara in Orissa, Nellore in Andhra Pradesh, Purba Medinipur in Bengal are also extremely vulnerable to cyclones

Question 51

As of December 2023 in which city did Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurate the world's largest office?

  1. AOption (a)

    Surat

  2. BOption (b)

    New Delhi

  3. COption (c)

    Mumbai

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajkot

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Surat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Surat

<br>

In News

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Surat Diamond Exchange, the world's largest office complex, in the city of Surat.

Key Points

  • The complex covers a constructed area of 6.7 million square feet and was completed at a cost of ₹32 billion.
  • Surat, often referred to as the "Diamond City," is a significant hub for processing rough diamonds, with about 90% of the world's diamonds cut and polished there.
  • The Surat Diamond Bourse aims to centralize the diamond industry under one roof, enhancing efficiency and trade.

Question 52

Which three Indian Navy ships were decommissioned recently?

  1. AOption (a)

    INS Vikrant, INS Viraat, INS Arihant

  2. BOption (b)

    INS Cheetah, INS Guldar, INS Kumbhir

  3. COption (c)

    INS Rajput, INS Mysore, INS Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    INS Shivalik, INS Satpura, INS Sahyadri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

INS Cheetah, INS Guldar, INS Kumbhir

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is INS Cheetah, INS Guldar, INS Kumbhir

In News

  • INS Cheetah, INS Guldar, INS Kumbhir were  three Indian Navy ships decommissioned recently.

Key Points

  • The decommissioning ceremony took place at Port Blair.
  • The three ships, INS Cheetah, INS Guldar, and INS Kumbhir, were built at Gdynia Shipyard, Poland, as Polnocny class Landing Ships.
  • They were commissioned into the Indian Navy in 1984, 1985, and 1986 respectively.
  • These ships served in the Andaman and Nicobar Command and were in active Naval service for nearly 40 years.
  • During their service, the ships conducted over 1300 beaching operations for landing army troops ashore.
  • They played a crucial role in various operations, including Operation Aman, Operation Tasha, and contributed significantly to relief operations post the 1997 cyclone off Sri Lanka and the 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami.

Question 53

The term NATO lake often seen in the news, is associated with:

  1. AOption (a)

    Baltic sea

  2. BOption (b)

    Black sea 

  3. COption (c)

    Mediterranean Sea

  4. DOption (d)

    Caspian Sea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Baltic sea

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Baltic sea.

In News

  • rfi: Does Sweden joining make the Baltic Sea a 'NATO lake'?

Key Points

NATO lake:

  • The term “NATO lake” is being used to refer to the Baltic Sea, following the recent accession of Sweden and Finland to NATO. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • With these additions, nearly all of the countries surrounding the Baltic Sea, except Russia, are now part of the NATO alliance.
  • This has led some observers to label the Baltic Sea a “NATO lake”, suggesting that the Western allies are well-placed to limit Russia’s room for maneuver in this crucial shipping route.
  • However, analysts warn that while Sweden’s entry makes it easier for NATO to exert control and reinforce its vulnerable Baltic states, Russia can still pose a threat to the region from the heavily armed exclave Kaliningrad and threaten undersea infrastructure.
  • It’s important to note that the term “NATO lake” is more of a semantic exaggeration and does not imply complete sea control.

Question 54

Which organization has made significant contributions in building the Stealth Guided Missile Destroyer Imphal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mazagon Dock Limited, Mumbai

  2. BOption (b)

    Defence Shipyard Limited, Goa

  3. COption (c)

    Cochin Shipyard Limited, Kerela

  4. DOption (d)

    Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers, Kolkata

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mazagon Dock Limited, Mumbai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mazagon Dock Limited, Mumbai.

In News

  • Mazagon Dock Limited has made significant contributions in building the Stealth Guided Missile Destroyer Imphal.

Key Points

  • INS Imphal is a state-of-the-art Stealth Guided Missile Destroyer, which is part of the Indian Navy's fleet.
  • It was indigenously designed by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau.
  • The ship was constructed by Mazagon Dock Limited, Mumbai, showcasing the capability of India's domestic defense manufacturing.
  • This successful production demonstrates the concerted efforts towards 'AatmaNirbhar Bharat' or self-reliant India.
  • The Mazagon Dock Limited's contribution represents a significant achievement in enhancing India's defense capabilities.
  • The association of Mazagon Dock Limited with the Indian Navy has been a long and fruitful one, providing a boost to India's indigenous shipbuilding industry.​

Question 55

Consider the statement in regard to Operation Sajag.

  1. It was conducted by the Indian Navy along the west coast on September 18, 2023. 2. The drill involved checking drug trafficking at sea.

Select the "Incorrect" statement by using the code mentioned below

  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

In NewsCoastal security drill ‘Operation Sajag’ conducted by the Indian Coast Guard along the west coast on 18 Sep 2023.

Key Points

  • ‘Operation Sajag’, a drill involving all stakeholders of the coastal security construct, was conducted by the Indian Coast Guard along the west coast on September 18, 2023. Hence, statement 1 is false.
  • The drill facilitates revalidation of the coastal security mechanism and brings awareness among the fishermen at sea. Hence, statement 2 is also false.
  • It involved checking and verification of documents and crew passes of all fishing boats, barges and craft at sea.

Additional Information

  • The Indian Air Force carried out its annual mega training exercise Trishul from 4-14 September 2023.

Indian Coast Guard:

  • It is an armed force that protects India's maritime interests and enforces maritime law, with jurisdiction over the territorial waters of India, including its contiguous zone and exclusive economic zone.
  • It was formally established in 1978 by the Coast Guard Act, of 1978 as an independent armed force of India.
  • It operates under the Ministry of Defence(MoD).
  • The organization is headed by the Director General Indian Coast Guard (DGICG).
  • The current DGICG is Rakesh Pal.
  • It is Headquartered in New Delhi.

Question 56

Babita is 1.25 times as efficient as Deepak Working together the duo can complete a piece of work in 40 days. In how many days can Deepak alone complete the same piece of work?

  1. AOption (a)

    84

  2. BOption (b)

    90

  3. COption (c)

    96

  4. DOption (d)

    100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

90

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Babita is 1.25 times as efficient as Deepak.

Working together the due can complete a piece of work in 40 days.

Concept used:

Efficiency = Total work / total time 

Calculation: 

As we know , 1.25 times = 1 + 1/4

⇒ 5/4 times 

So, Their Efficiency ratio will be ,

Babita : Deepak is 

⇒ 5 : 4

Total work will be 40 × 9 = 360 units 

The number of days taken by Deepak is

⇒ 360 / 4 = 90 days

∴ The correct option is 2

Question 57

Two trains of lengths 108 metre and 112 metre are running at speeds of 45 km/h and 54 km/h, respectively, towards each other on parallel tracks. In how many seconds will they cross each other?

  1. AOption (a)

    8 seconds

  2. BOption (b)

    10 seconds

  3. COption (c)

    12 seconds

  4. DOption (d)

    9 seconds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8 seconds

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Length of Train 1 = 108 m

Length of Train 2 = 112 m

Speed of Train 1 = 45 km/h

Speed of Train 2 = 54 km/h

Formula Used:

Time = Total Distance / Relative Speed

Relative Speed = Speed of Train 1 + Speed of Train 2 (for opposite directions)

Convert km/h to m/s using 1 km/h = 5/18 m/s

Calculation:

Relative Speed in km/h = 45 + 54

Relative Speed in km/h = 99 km/h

Convert Relative Speed to m/s: Relative Speed = 99 × (5 / 18)

Relative Speed = 27.5 m/s

Total Distance = Length of Train 1 + Length of Train 2

Total Distance = 108 + 112

Total Distance = 220 m

Time = Total Distance / Relative Speed

⇒ Time = 220 / 27.5

⇒ Time = 8 seconds

The trains will cross each other in 8 seconds.

Question 58

The average of marks obtained in an examination by 8 students was 5.1 and by 9 other students was 6.8. The average marks of the 17 students were:

  1. AOption (a)

    5.95

  2. BOption (b)

    5.9

  3. COption (c)

    6.0

  4. DOption (d)

    6.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6.0

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Assume the base average of all students is 5.1 marks.

Deviation of the 9 students' average from 5.1 = 6.8 − 5.1 = +1.7 marks.

Total deviation created by these 9 students = 9 × 1.7 = +15.3 marks.

Distributing this extra value equally among all 17 students = 15.3 ÷ 17 = +0.9 marks.

Net Combined Average = Base Average + Distributed Value = 5.1 + 0.9 = 6.0.

∴ The correct answer is 6.0 marks.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of students in group 1 (n1) = 8, Average marks (A1) = 5.1

Number of students in group 2 (n2) = 9, Average marks (A2) = 6.8

Formula Used:

Combined Average = (n1 × A1 + n2 × A2) ÷ (n1 + n2)

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of marks of the first 8 students = 8 × 5.1 = 40.8

⇒ Sum of marks of the other 9 students = 9 × 6.8 = 61.2

⇒ Total marks of all 17 students = 40.8 + 61.2 = 102

⇒ Combined Average = 102 ÷ 17 = 6.0

∴ The correct answer is 6.0 marks.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

When combining multiple groups, the overall average is found using Aw = (n1A1 + n2A2 + ... + nkAk) ÷ (n1 + n2 + ... + nk).

Alligation Cross Method

The ratio of the number of items in two groups (n1 : n2) is equal to the inverse ratio of the difference between their averages and the combined average (A2 − Aw) : (Aw − A1).

Net Deviation Concept

The sum of the deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero. This property allows quick calculation by assuming a base average and distributing the net surplus or deficit.

Question 59

A man can row 18 km upstream and 42 km downstream in 6 hours. Also he can row 30 km upstream and 28 km downstream in 7 hours. Find the speed of the man in still water.

  1. AOption (a)

    8 km/h

  2. BOption (b)

    10 km/h

  3. COption (c)

    4 km/h

  4. DOption (d)

    12 km/h

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10 km/h

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Time taken to row 18 km upstream and 42 km downstream = 6 hours

Time taken to row 30 km downstream and 28 km upstream = 7 hours

Formula used:

Downstream speed = Speed of boat + Speed of stream

Upstream speed = Speed of boat – Speed of stream

Calculation:

Let the speed of boat and speed of stream be x km/hr and y km/hr respectively

So, D = 1/(x + y) km/hr

U = 1/(x – y) km/hr

According to the question,

[18U)] + [42D] = 6  ----(i)

[30U] + [28D] = 7 ----(ii)

Now, multiplying equation (i) by 5 and equation (ii) by 3 and then subtracting

210D - 84D = 9     ----(iii)

126D = 9

x + y = 14

18U = 3

x - y = 6

x = (14 + 6)/2 = 10 km/hr.

The answer is 10km/hr

Question 60

Including stoppages the speed of a bus is 70 km/hr and excluding stoppages its speed is 75 km/hr. For how long the bus stops in an hour?

  1. AOption (a)

    6 minutes

  2. BOption (b)

    7 minutes

  3. COption (c)

    3 minutes

  4. DOption (d)

    4 minutes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4 minutes

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Including stoppages the speed of a bus is 70 km/hr and excluding stoppages its speed is 75 km/hr.

Concept:

To find the duration of stoppages, we need to compare the distance covered in an hour with and without stoppages.

Formula Used:

Time difference due to stoppages = (Speed without stoppages - Speed with stoppages) / Speed without stoppages

Calculation:

We have,

⇒ Speed with stoppages = 70 km/hr

⇒ Speed without stoppages = 75 km/hr

Distance covered in 1 hour without stoppages = 75 km

Distance covered in 1 hour with stoppages = 70 km

Difference in distance = 75 km - 70 km = 5 km

Time taken to cover 5 km at 75 km/hr = (5 km / 75 km/hr) × 60 minutes

⇒ Time taken = (5 / 75) × 60

⇒ Time taken = (1 / 15) × 60

⇒ Time taken = 4 minutes

∴ The bus stops for 4 minutes in an hour.

Question 61

A builder appoints three construction workers Akash, Sunil and Rakesh on one of his sites. They take 20, 30 and 60 days respectively to do a piece of work. How many days will it take Akash to complete the entire work if he is assisted by Sunil and Rakesh every third day?

  1. AOption (a)

    .7 days

  2. BOption (b)

    15 days

  3. COption (c)

    22 days

  4. DOption (d)

    13 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

15 days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Time taken by Akash to complete the work alone = 20 days

Time taken by Sunil to complete the work alone = 30 days

Time taken by Rakesh to complete the work alone = 60 days

Akash is assisted by Sunil and Rakesh every third day.

Formula used:

Work done per day = Sum of the individual work rates

Calculation:

Akash's work rate = 1/20 work/day

Sunil's work rate = 1/30 work/day

Rakesh's work rate = 1/60 work/day

Work done by Akash in 2 days = 2 x (1/20) = 1/10

Work done by Akash, Sunil, and Rakesh together on the third day = (1/20) + (1/30) + (1/60)

⇒ Work done by Akash, Sunil, and Rakesh on the third day = (3 + 2 + 1) / 60 = 6 / 60 = 1/10

Work done in 3 days = (1/10) + (1/10) = 1/5

⇒ Total work done in 3 days = 1/5 of the work

To complete 1 work, number of such cycles needed = 5

So, total number of days = 5 x 3 = 15 days

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 62

A 20% reduction in the price of an apple enables a man to buy 10 apples more for ₹54. Then what is the reduced price of apples per dozen ?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹14.48

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹12.96

  3. COption (c)

    ₹10.80

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹14.32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹12.96

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Amount saved due to 20% price drop = 20% of ₹54 = ₹10.80

This saved amount pays for the extra 10 apples ⇒ Reduced price of 10 apples = ₹10.80

Reduced price of 1 apple = ₹10.80 ÷ 10 = ₹1.08

Reduced price per dozen (12 apples) = 1.08 × 12 = ₹12.96

∴ The correct answer is ₹12.96.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount spent = ₹54

Price reduction = 20% = 1/5

Extra apples bought = 10

Calculations:

⇒ Let original price be 100%, then reduced price = 80%.

⇒ Ratio of Original Price to Reduced Price = 100 : 80 = 5 : 4

⇒ Since total expenditure is constant, Quantity is inversely proportional to Price.

⇒ Ratio of Original Quantity to New Quantity = 4 : 5

⇒ Difference in ratio = 5 − 4 = 1 part

⇒ 1 part = 10 apples

⇒ New Quantity = 5 parts = 5 × 10 = 50 apples

⇒ Reduced price per apple = Total Amount ÷ New Quantity = 54 ÷ 50 = ₹1.08

⇒ Reduced price per dozen = 1.08 × 12 = ₹12.96

∴ The correct answer is ₹12.96.

Additional Information

Price and Consumption Rule

When total expenditure remains constant, Price is inversely proportional to Consumption (Quantity). If the price ratio is a : b, the resulting quantity ratio becomes b : a.

Direct Formula for Reduced/Original Price

If a reduction of R% in price enables a person to buy Q more items for amount A:
Reduced Price per item = (R × A) ÷ (100 × Q)
Original Price per item = (R × A) ÷ ((100 − R) × Q)

Successive Percentage Change

The net percentage change when two changes a% and b% occur consecutively is calculated using the formula: (a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100)%.

Question 63

Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X ?

  1. AOption (a)

    12%

  2. BOption (b)

    10%

  3. COption (c)

    9%

  4. DOption (d)

    8%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

10%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the third number Z = 100.

Since X is 20% less than Z, X = 100 − 20 = 80.

Since Y is 28% less than Z, Y = 100 − 28 = 72.

Difference between X and Y = 80 − 72 = 8.

Percentage by which Y is less than X = (Difference ÷ Base X) × 100% = (8 ÷ 80) × 100% = 10%.

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number X is 20% less than the third number Z.

Number Y is 28% less than the third number Z.

Formula Used:

Percentage difference = [(First Value − Second Value) ÷ Base Value] × 100%

Calculations:

⇒ Let the third number Z be 100 units.

⇒ Number X = 100 − (20% of 100) = 100 − 20 = 80

⇒ Number Y = 100 − (28% of 100) = 100 − 28 = 72

⇒ The difference between X and Y = 80 − 72 = 8

⇒ We need to find the percentage by which Y is less than X.

⇒ Here, the comparison is made with X, so X becomes our new base value.

⇒ Required Percentage = (Difference ÷ X) × 100%

⇒ Required Percentage = (8 ÷ 80) × 100%

⇒ Required Percentage = (1 ÷ 10) × 100% = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Additional Information

Percentage Change Formulation

To find the percentage change or comparison, always divide the difference by the base value (the number following the word 'than', 'of' or 'to') and multiply by 100: % Change = (Change ÷ Base) × 100%.

Base Change Rule

If A is x% more than B, then B is [x ÷ (100 + x)] × 100% less than A. Similarly, if A is x% less than B, then B is [x ÷ (100 − x)] × 100% more than A.

Successive Percentage Equivalent

When a value is subjected to two consecutive percentage changes of a% and b%, the net effective percentage change is given by the formula: Net % = (a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100)%.

Question 64

What is the difference between the compound interests on Rs.24000 for 1 year at 8% per annum compounded yearly and half-yearly? (In Rs.)

  1. AOption (a)

    36.4

  2. BOption (b)

    38.4

  3. COption (c)

    32.4

  4. DOption (d)

    34.4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

38.4

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹24,000

Rate (R) = 8% per annum

Time = 1 year

Formula used:

CI = P(1+r100)t−P(1 + \frac{r}{100})^t - P

Calculations:

When compounded yearly:

⇒ CI = 24000 × (1 + 8/100)1 - 24000

⇒ CI = 24000 × 1.08 - 24000 = 25920 - 24000 = ₹1920

When compounded half-yearly:

Rate per 6 months = 8/2 = 4%

Number of periods = 2

⇒ CI = 24000 × (1 + 4/100)2 - 24000

⇒ CI = 24000 × (1.04)2 - 24000 = 24000 × 1.0816 - 24000

⇒ CI = 25958.4 - 24000 = ₹1958.40

∴ Difference = 1958.40 - 1920 = ₹38.40

Question 65

Two trains are moving in the same direction at the speed of 36 km/hr and 48 km/hr. The time taken by faster train to cross a man sitting in the slower train is 33 seconds. What will be the length of the faster train?

  1. AOption (a)

    770 metres

  2. BOption (b)

    90 metres

  3. COption (c)

    110 metres

  4. DOption (d)

    180 metres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

110 metres

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Relative Speed in same direction = 48 − 36 = 12 km/hr.

Convert to m/s: 12 × (5/18) = 10/3 m/s.

Length of faster train = Relative Speed × Time = (10/3) × 33 = 110 m.

∴ The correct answer is 110 metres.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of slower train (S1) = 36 km/hr

Speed of faster train (S2) = 48 km/hr

Time (t) = 33 seconds

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (Same direction) = S2 − S1

Distance (Length of faster train) = Relative Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Relative Speed = 48 − 36 = 12 km/hr

⇒ Conversion to m/s = 12 × (5/18) m/s

⇒ Relative Speed = 10/3 m/s

⇒ Length of faster train = (10/3) × 33

⇒ Length = 10 × 11 = 110 metres

∴ The correct answer is 110 metres.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concept

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is the difference (S1 − S2). If they move in opposite directions, it is the sum (S1 + S2).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Crossing a Man in a Train

When a train crosses a man sitting in another train, the distance covered is only the length of the crossing train, not the sum of both lengths.

Question 66

In a 2025 litre mixture of milk and water, the ratio of milk to water is 12 : 13. To get a new mixture containing milk and water in the ratio of 12 : 15, the amount of water to be added is 

  1. AOption (a)

    150 litres

  2. BOption (b)

    162 litres

  3. COption (c)

    156 litres

  4. DOption (d)

    160 litres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

162 litres

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Initial Milk : Water = 12 : 13

New Milk : Water = 12 : 15

Since only water is added, the milk parts remain unchanged (12 parts).

Increase in water parts = 15 − 13 = 2 parts.

Total initial parts = 12 + 13 = 25 parts → 25 parts = 2025 litres.

Added water = 2 parts = (2025 ÷ 25) × 2 = 81 × 2 = 162 litres.

∴ The correct answer is 162 litres.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total initial mixture = 2025 litres

Initial ratio of Milk : Water = 12 : 13

New ratio of Milk : Water = 12 : 15

Calculations:

Let the initial quantities of milk and water be 12x and 13x respectively.

⇒ Total initial quantity = 12x + 13x = 25x

⇒ 25x = 2025

⇒ x = 2025 ÷ 25 = 81

⇒ Initial quantity of milk = 12 × 81 = 972 litres

⇒ Initial quantity of water = 13 × 81 = 1053 litres

Let W be the amount of water added to the mixture.

⇒ New quantity of water = (1053 + W) litres

The new ratio of milk to water is given as 12 : 15.

⇒ 972 / (1053 + W) = 12 / 15

⇒ 972 / (1053 + W) = 4 / 5

⇒ 4 × (1053 + W) = 972 × 5

⇒ 4212 + 4W = 4860

⇒ 4W = 4860 − 4212

⇒ 4W = 648

⇒ W = 648 ÷ 4 = 162 litres

∴ The correct answer is 162 litres.

Additional Information

Constant Component Method

When a specific substance is added to a mixture, the quantity of the other substance remains constant. Equating the ratio parts of the constant substance before and after the addition is the fastest way to solve.

Mixtures Replacement

If a certain volume of a mixture is drawn off and replaced by purely one ingredient, the ratio of the components in the remaining portion stays identical to the initial mixture before the actual replacement occurs.

Alligation Cross Method

A structured method used when two mixtures or ingredients of different concentrations are mixed. Ratio = (Cheaper quantity) : (Dearer quantity) = (Dearer price − Mean price) : (Mean price − Cheaper price).

Question 67

The amount doubles itself under simple interest in 3.5 years. In how many years will it become 48 times of itself?

  1. AOption (a)

    184.5

  2. BOption (b)

    164.5

  3. COption (c)

    154.5

  4. DOption (d)

    174.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

164.5

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The amount doubles under simple interest in 3.5 years.

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100

For doubling: SI = Principal

Time for 48 times: Total SI = Principal × (48 - 1) = Principal × 47

Calculation:

When amount doubles:

Principal × Rate × 3.5 / 100 = Principal

⇒ Rate × 3.5 = 100

⇒ Rate = 100 / 3.5

⇒ Rate = 28.57

For amount to become 48 times:

Total SI = Principal × 47

Principal × Rate × Time / 100 = Principal × 47

⇒ Rate × Time = 47 × 100

⇒ Time = (47 × 100) / Rate

⇒ Time = (47 × 100) / 28.57

⇒ Time = 164.5

The amount will become 48 times itself in 164.5 years.

Question 68

The average of 10 observations is 46. It was realised later that an observation was misread as 42 in place of 142. Find the correct average.

  1. AOption (a)

    54

  2. BOption (b)

    45

  3. COption (c)

    65

  4. DOption (d)

    56

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

56

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net difference in observations = Correct value − Wrong value = 142 − 42 = +100

Net change in average = Net difference ÷ Number of observations = 100 ÷ 10 = +10

Correct Average = Old Average + Net change = 46 + 10 = 56

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of observations (n) = 10

Initial average = 46

Incorrect observation = 42

Correct observation = 142

Formula Used:

Average = Total Sum ÷ Number of observations

Correct Average = (Incorrect Sum − Wrong value + Correct value) ÷ n

42 (Wrong) 142 (Correct) Total Increase = +100 Avg Shift = 100 ÷ 10 = +10

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of 10 observations = 46 × 10 = 460

⇒ Correct Sum = 460 − 42 + 142

⇒ Correct Sum = 460 + 100 = 560

⇒ Correct Average = 560 ÷ 10

⇒ Correct Average = 56

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Additional Information

Basic Average Formula

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations). This is also known as the Arithmetic Mean.

Replacement Method

When one value is replaced by another, New Average = Old Average + (Correct Value − Incorrect Value) ÷ n. If the difference is negative, the average decreases.

Weighted Average

When two groups with averages A1 and A2 and sizes n1 and n2 are combined, the combined average = (n1A1 + n2A2) ÷ (n1 + n2).

Question 69

A Shopkeeper purchased an article for Rs.10400 and sold it for a loss of 20%. From that money he purchased another article and sold it for a gain of 20%. What is the overall gain or loss? (In Rs.)

  1. AOption (a)

    416

  2. BOption (b)

    414

  3. COption (c)

    412

  4. DOption (d)

    418

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

416

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Cost Price of 1st article = ₹10400

Loss on 1st article = 20%

Profit on 2nd article = 20%

Formula used:

Loss = (Loss% × CP) / 100

Profit = (Profit% × CP) / 100

Calculations:

⇒ SP of 1st article = 10400 - (20% of 10400) = 10400 - 2080 = ₹8320

⇒ CP of 2nd article = ₹8320

⇒ SP of 2nd article = 8320 + (20% of 8320) = 8320 + 1664 = ₹9984

⇒ Overall CP = ₹10400

⇒ Overall SP = ₹9984

⇒ Overall Loss = 10400 - 9984 = ₹416

∴ The overall loss is ₹416.

Question 70

The sum of the numerator and the denominator of a fraction is 14. If 1 is added to the numerator and 3 is subtracted from the denominator, it becomes 1. The fraction is:

  1. AOption (a)

    5/9

  2. BOption (b)

    3/11

  3. COption (c)

    1/13

  4. DOption (d)

    9/5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5/9

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The sum of the numerator and the denominator of a fraction is 14. If 1 is added to the numerator and 3 is subtracted from the denominator, it becomes 1.

Formula used:

Let the numerator be x and the denominator be y.

x + y = 14

x+1y−3=1\dfrac{x+1}{y-3} = 1

Calculation:

x + y = 14

⇒ y = 14 - x

x+1(14−x)−3=1\dfrac{x+1}{(14-x)-3} = 1

⇒ x + 1 = 14 - x - 3

⇒ x + 1 = 11 - x

⇒ x + x = 11 - 1

⇒ 2x = 10

⇒ x = 5

Since x + y = 14,

⇒ 5 + y = 14

⇒ y = 14 - 5

⇒ y = 9

∴ The fraction is 5/9.

Question 71

The perimeters of two squares are 48 cm and 36 cm. Then the perimeter of a third square whose area is equal to the difference of the areas of the two squares is given by:

  1. AOption (a)

    24 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    28 cm

  3. COption (c)

    16 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    12√7 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

12√7 cm

Why this answer is correct

Concept -

The perimeter P of a square is given by:

<br>

P = 4 × side length

The area A of a square is given by:

<br>

A = (side length)2

Explanation -

<br>

For the first square with a perimeter of 48 cm:

<br>

Side length of the first square = 48/4  = 12 cm

<br>

For the second square with a perimeter of 36 cm:

<br>

Side length of the second square = 36/4 = 9 cm

Area of the first square:

<br>

A1 = 122 = 144 cm2

<br>

Area of the second square:

<br>

A2 = 92 = 81 cm2

<br>

Difference in areas = A1 - A2 = 144 - 81 = 63 cm2

The side length of the third square s3 can be found from its area:

<br>

s3 = √63 cm

<br>

Perimeter of the third square = 4 × s3 

= 4 × √63 cm

= 12 √7

So, the perimeter of the third square is 12√7.

Question 72

The price of diamond is directly proportional to square of its weight. A diamond broke into four pieces in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. The broken pieces got sold in ₹2,10,000 less. What was the actual price of diamond?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹30000

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹240000

  3. COption (c)

    ₹300000

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹330000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹300000

Why this answer is correct

Given:

The price of a diamond is directly proportional to the square of its weight.

The diamond broke into four pieces in the ratio: 1 : 2 : 3 : 4

Loss in price after breaking = ₹2,10,000

Formula Used:

If weights are w₁, w₂, w₃, w₄ then:

Original price ∝ (w₁ + w₂ + w₃ + w₄)²

Broken price = w₁² + w₂² + w₃² + w₄²

Loss = Original Price – Broken Price

Calculation:

Let the common multiple of weights be x.

Weights = x, 2x, 3x, 4x

Total weight = x + 2x + 3x + 4x = 10x

Original Price ∝ (10x)² = 100x²

Broken Price ∝ x² + (2x)² + (3x)² + (4x)² = x² + 4x² + 9x² + 16x² = 30x²

Loss = 100x² – 30x² = 70x²

Given loss = ₹2,10,000

⇒ 70x² = 210000

⇒ x² = 210000 ÷ 70 = 3000

⇒ Original Price = 100x² = 100 × 3000 = ₹3,00,000

∴ The actual price of the diamond was ₹3,00,000.

Question 73

A 35% profit is made when a discount of 35% is given on the marked price of an item. When the discount is 45%, then the profit percentage will be:

  1. AOption (a)

    1711317\frac{1}{13}%

  2. BOption (b)

    1131311\frac{3}{13}%

  3. COption (c)

    1431314\frac{3}{13}%

  4. DOption (d)

    1331713\frac{3}{17}%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1431314\frac{3}{13}%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A 35% profit is made when a discount of 35% is given on the marked price of an item.

Formula used:

MP/CP = (100 + profit%) / (100 - discount%)

Profit% = [(SP - CP) / CP] × 100

Calculations:

MP/CP = (100 + 35) / (100 - 35) = 135 / 65

⇒ MP/CP = 27/13

MP = 27, CP = 13

If discount is 45%, then

SP = 27 - 27 × 45/100 = 27(1 - 45/100) = 27 × 55/100 = 297/20 = 14.85

So, profit = SP - CP = 14.85 - 13 = 1.85

Thus, Profit% = 1.85/13 × 100 = 185/13 = 14313\frac{3}{13}%

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Question 74

Ramana spends 75% of his income. His income is increased by 25% and he increases his expenditure by 10%. By what percentage are his savings increased?

  1. AOption (a)

    40%

  2. BOption (b)

    60%

  3. COption (c)

    70%

  4. DOption (d)

    50%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

70%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Initial Income (I1) = ₹100

Initial Expenditure (E1) = 75% of I1 = ₹75

Initial Savings (S1) = I1 - E1 = ₹100 - ₹75 = ₹25

New Income (I2) = I1 + 25% of I1 = ₹100 + ₹25 = ₹125

New Expenditure (E2) = E1 + 10% of E1 = ₹75 + ₹7.5 = ₹82.5

Formula used:

Percentage Increase in Savings = NewSavings−InitialSavingsInitialSavings×100\dfrac{New Savings - Initial Savings}{Initial Savings} \times 100

Calculation:

New Savings (S2) = I2 - E2 = ₹125 - ₹82.5 = ₹42.5

⇒ Percentage Increase in Savings = ₹42.5−₹25₹25×100\dfrac{₹42.5 - ₹25}{₹25} \times 100

⇒ Percentage Increase in Savings = ₹17.5₹25×100\dfrac{₹17.5}{₹25} \times 100

⇒ Percentage Increase in Savings = 70%

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Question 75

In an election, a candidate secures 40% of the votes, but is defeated by the only other candidate with a majority of 298 votes. Find the total number of votes recorded. 

  1. AOption (a)

    1,490 

  2. BOption (b)

    1,270 

  3. COption (c)

    1,290 

  4. DOption (d)

    1,470  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1,490 

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Candidate A secures 40% of the votes.

Candidate B secures the remaining votes, which is 60%.

Majority by Candidate B = 298 votes.

Calculations:

Let the total number of votes be V.

Votes secured by Candidate A = 0.40V.

Votes secured by Candidate B = 0.60V.

According to the problem, the difference in votes is:

Votes of Candidate B - Votes of Candidate A = 298.

Substituting the values gives:

0.60V - 0.40V = 298.

0.20V = 298.

Now solving for V:

V = 298 / 0.20 = 1490.

∴ The total number of votes recorded is 1490.

Question 76

Angle between hour hand and minute hand at 8:54 AM is:

  1. AOption (a)

    57º

  2. BOption (b)

    47º

  3. COption (c)

    37º

  4. DOption (d)

    67.5º

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

57º

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand when the clock shows 8:54 AM can be calculated using the following formula:

Angle = [(11 / 2) M - 30 H]

Where, M = minutes and H = hours

Here, M = 54, H = 8.

Therefore, we get angle = (11 / 2 × 54 - 30 × 8).

297 - 240 = 57º

Hence, the correct answer is "57º".

Question 77

From the given options, select the option in which the dot can be placed in exactly the same way as shown in the figure (X) below.

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2

Why this answer is correct

Hint

If exact figure is not shown in options, mark the most appropriate option present.

On observing the given figures carefully, we get:

In the question figure (X),

  1. One dot is in the common area of the square, rectangle, triangle, and circle.
  2. One dot is in the common area of the square and circle.
  3. One dot is in the common area of the rectangle and triangle.

Figure (A) → Common area of the square, rectangle, triangle, and circle isn't present.

Figure (B) → All the required conditions are fulfilled as shown below:

Figure (C) → Common area of the square, rectangle, triangle, and circle isn't present.

Figure (D) → Common area of the square, rectangle, triangle, and circle isn't present.

Hence, the correct answer is "Figure (B)".

 

We should not think of the exact shape and size of the figures in these questions.

Just resemblance will work like if an Equilateral triangle is given in the question figure, any shape of a triangle in the answer figure will work, be it right triangle or scalene triangle.

Question 78

From the given options, select the option in which the dot can be placed in exactly the same way as shown in the figure (X) below.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C

Why this answer is correct

Hint

If exact figure is not shown in options, mark the most appropriate option present.

On observing the given figures carefully, we get:

In the question figure (X),

  1. One dot is in the common area of the arrow, home, and square.
  2. One dot is in the common area of the triangle and circle.
  3. One dot is in the common area of the arrow and home.

Figure (A) → Common area of the circle and triangle isn't present.

Figure (B) → Common area of the arrow and home isn't present.

Figure (C) → All the required conditions are fulfilled as shown below:

Figure (D) → Common area of the arrow and home isn't present.

Hence, the correct answer is "Figure (C)".

 

We should not think of the exact shape and size of the figures in these questions.

Just resemblance will work like if an Equilateral triangle is given in the question figure, any shape of a triangle in the answer figure will work, be it right triangle or scalene triangle.

Question 79

From the given options, select the option in which the dot can be placed in exactly the same way as shown in the figure (X) below.

  1. AOption (a)

    C

  2. BOption (b)

    D

  3. COption (c)

    A

  4. DOption (d)

    B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

D

Why this answer is correct

Hint

If exact figure is not shown in options, mark the most appropriate option present.

On observing the given figures carefully, we get:

In the question figure (X),

  1. One dot is in the common area of the star, trapezium, and circle.
  2. One dot is in the common area of the triangle and circle.
  3. One dot is in the common area of star and triangle.

Figure (A) → Common area of the star, trapezium, and circle isn't present.

Figure (B) → Common area of the circle and triangle isn't present.

Figure (C) → Common area of the triangle and star isn't present.

Figure (D) → All the required conditions are fulfilled as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Figure (D)".

 

We should not think of the exact shape and size of the figures in these questions.

Just resemblance will work like if an Equilateral triangle is given in the question figure, any shape of a triangle in the answer figure will work, be it right triangle or scalene triangle.

Question 80

In a certain code language READING is coded as FJWILSN. How will FORMULA be coded in the same language?

  1. AOption (a)

    TKWFQZR

  2. BOption (b)

    VSJQEPY

  3. COption (c)

    VSQJPEY

  4. DOption (d)

    WTKRFQZ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

WTKRFQZ

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is,

READING is coded as FJWILSN,

Similarly,

'FORMULA' can be coded as,

Hence, the correct answer is "WTKRFQZ".

Question 81

Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the water image of the given figure. 

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The water image would be as follows :

Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 82

In a row of girls, Kamla is 9th from the left and Veena is 16th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Kamla becomes 25th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?

  1. AOption (a)

    34

  2. BOption (b)

    36

  3. COption (c)

    40

  4. DOption (d)

    41

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

40

Why this answer is correct

Given, Kamla is 9th from the left and Veena is 16th from the right and they interchange their positions.

Also given, after interchanging Kamla becomes 25th from the left.

Total number of girls = Sum of Kamla’s position from either side of row after interchanging – 1 =

16 + 25 – 1 = 40

Hence, there are 40 girls in the row.

Question 83

In each of the following questions, a series is given. Find the term that will replace the question mark.

2, 5, 3, 10, 4, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    17

  2. BOption (b)

    32

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

17

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed is:

Hence, the correct answer is "17".

Question 84

In a certain code language, ‘PARADOX’ is written as ‘IXGXUJA’ and ‘WIPES’ is written as ‘BPITF’. How will ‘PARALLEL’ be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    IXGXMMTM

  2. BOption (b)

    IXGXMTMM

  3. COption (c)

    MTMXMXGI

  4. DOption (d)

    MTMMXGXI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

IXGXMMTM

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

‘PARADOX’ is written as ‘IXGXUJA’

And,

‘WIPES’ is written as ‘BPITF’

Similarly,

‘PARALLEL’ will be written as

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 85

Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Rajdhani ∶ Howrah Rajdhani ∶∶ Shatabdi ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kalka Shatabdi

  2. BOption (b)

    Lucknow Shatabdi

  3. COption (c)

    Bhopal Shatabdi

  4. DOption (d)

    Amritsar Shatabdi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Bhopal Shatabdi

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

The Howrah Rajdhani is the first Rajdhani Express in India 

Similarly,

The Bhopal Shatabdi is the first Shatabdi Express in India.

Hence, the correct answer is "Bhopal Shatabdi". 

Additional Information

  1. On 1 March 1969, the first Rajdhani Express left from New Delhi to Howrah at 1730 hrs and arrived at its destination at 1050 hrs on the next day, completing 1450 km in a record time of 17 hours 20 minutes.
  2. The first Shatabdi Express train was introduced on 10 July 1988, by then Railways Minister Madhavrao Scindia to commemorate the birth centenary of Jawaharlal Nehru the first Prime Minister of India, between New Delhi and Gwalior Junction.
  • It was later extended to Jhansi Junction and then to Bhopal Junction.

Question 86

Mr. Sandeep has three children. The birthday of first child falls on the 5th Monday of April, that of the second one falls on the 5th Thursday of November. On which day is the birthday of his third child, which falls on 24th December?

  1. AOption (a)

    Monday

  2. BOption (b)

    Friday

  3. COption (c)

    Tuesday

  4. DOption (d)

    Wednesday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Monday

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is,

Basic Structure of a Calendar

1.Ordinary year: Any year which 365 days is called an ordinary year. Ex: 1879, 2009, 2019, etc.

2. Leap year: Any year which has 366 days is called a leap year. Ex: 2012, 2016 2020 etc. 3. The division of the number 365 by 7 gives the quotient 52 and remainder 1 which indicates that an ordinary year has 52 weeks and one extra day. This extra day is referred to as an “odd day” throughout the calendar topics. 4. A leap year has 366 days, the division of the number 366 by 7 gives the quotient 52 and remainder 2. This indicates that a leap year has 52 weeks and 2 extra days. These two extra days are also referred to as “odd days”.

An ordinary year has one odd day, whereas a leap year has two odd days.

Concept of an Odd Day

A number of odd days in a month

January has 31 days, irrespective of whether it’s an ordinary year or leap year. The division of the number 31 by 7 provides the remainder 3 hence January has 3 odd days. In generalizing, any month which has 31 days has 3 odd days and any month which has 30 days has 2 odd days.

The only exception that happens is in the case of February. The February month of an ordinary year has 28 days, division of 28 by 7 provides zero as a remainder. Hence, the number of odd days in February of an ordinary year will have 0 odd days and that of leap year will have 1 odd day as February in a leap year has 29 days.

The below table depicts the number of odd days in different months of a calendar year:

 

MonthNumber of odd days
January3
February(ordinary/leap)(0/1)
March3
April2
May3
June2
July3
August3
September2
October3
November2
December3

 

Code of weekdays:

Number of odd daysDays
0Sunday
1Monday
2Tuesday
3Wednesday
4Thursday
5Friday
6Saturday

Given that, the first child's birthday is on the 5th Monday of April.

April has 30 days → 4 weeks + 2 odd days

So, that the 5th Monday falls on either 29th or 30th.

Case 1:-

Assume 1st Monday is on 1st  April then 5th Monday will be on 29th April.

 

MarchDay
29thMonday
30thTuesday
<br>

∴ Number of odd days from May to October (6 months) = 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3

Number of odd days from May to October (6 months) = 16

Number of odd days from May to October (6 months) = 2 odd days

Tuesday + 2 odd day = Thursday → 31st October

From here we have to verify the second child's birthday.

∴ As 1st November is Friday then Thursday will be on 5th of November.

Given second one birthday falls on 5th Thursday of October.

Hence, In this case, there is no 5th Thursday we cannot find the second one birthday.

Case 1 is wrong.

Case 2:-

Assume 1st Monday is on 2nd March then 5th Monday will be on 30th April.

∴ Number of odd days from May to October (6 months) = 3 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 = 16 = 2 odd day.

Monday + 2 odd day = Wednesday → 31st October

From here we have to verify the second child's birthday.

∴ 1st Thursday → 1st November

5th Thursday → 29th November.

Hence, the Second child's birthday is on 29th November i.e., 5th Thursday.

From 29th November to 24th December there are 25 days.

The number of odd days = 4 odd days.

Thursday + 4 odd days = Monday.

Therefore, The Third child's birthday falls on Monday.

 

ChildrenDateMonthDay
130thAprilMonday
229thNovemberFriday
324thDecemberMonday

 

Hence, Monday is the correct answer.

Question 87

Identify the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below.

Women, Professor, Psychologist

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Some Women can be Professors as well as Psychologists.

Some Professors can be Women as well as Psychologists.

Similarly,

Some Psychologists can be Women as well as Professors.

Thus, the Venn diagram that best represents the relationship among Women, Professor, Psychologist is as follows:

Hence, Option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 88

Select the set of relationships of classes that are best represented in the Venn diagram.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Public Sector Bank (PSB), Non Banking Financial Institution (NBFC), Canara Bank

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

Canara Bank is a Public Sector Bank and all the Public Sector Banks are regulated by RBI. Only a few NBFCs are regulated by RBI while some are not. 

The correct Venn diagram will be as follows:

Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Key Points

NBFCs related to housing sector are not regulated by RBI but they are regulated by Housing Finance Companies (HFCs).

Question 89

Consider the two statements and the question:

Statement: No laptop is computer. Only computer is mouse. All keyboard are computer.

Conclusions:

I. Some mouse can be laptop.

II. Some keyboard can be mouse.

  1. AOption (a)

    None of the conclusion follows.

  2. BOption (b)

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion I follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

None of the conclusion follows.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement will be:

Conclusions:

I. Some mouse can be laptop.→ False (As only computer is  mouse)

II. Some Keyboard can be mouse.→ False ( As only computer is  mouse)

Hence, the correct should be "None of the conclusion follows"

Additional Information

Question 90

What would be the next term in the below number series.

12, 18, 36, 90, 270, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    945

  2. BOption (b)

    245

  3. COption (c)

    215

  4. DOption (d)

    285

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

945

Why this answer is correct

The pattern follows here is;

Hence, "945" is the correct answer.

Question 91

Select the related word from the given alternatives.

NH 44 ∶ Longest national highway in India ∶∶ ? ∶ Longest rail route of India

  1. AOption (a)

    Srinagar to Kanyakumari

  2. BOption (b)

    Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari

  3. COption (c)

    Delhi to Kanyakumari

  4. DOption (d)

    Jammu Tawi to Kanyakumari

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:

As NH 44 is the longest national highway in India with a length of 3,745 km running from Srinagar in the north to Kanyakumari in the South.

Similarly,

Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari is the longest rail route in the country with a total length of 4,273 km and Vivek Express runs on this route.

Hence, the correct answer is "Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari". 

Additional Information

  • Before the Vivek Express, Himsagar Express was the longest rail route covering a distance of 3,787 km from Jammu Tawi to Kanyakumari.

​

Important Points

  • NH 31 is the only highway that connects North-Eastern states with mainland India, passes through Chicken Neck of India (Sikkim Corridor).

Question 92

A man is facing south and covers 5m in that direction, then turns 45 degree in clockwise direction then covers 10m, then again he turns 45 degree in clockwise direction and covers 10m, then turns 90 degrees to the right and covers 5m. Find at which direction he is facing now.

  1. AOption (a)

    West

  2. BOption (b)

    East

  3. COption (c)

    North

  4. DOption (d)

    South

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

North

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

The man is facing at the North Direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "North".

Question 93

If 900 # 18 ! 47 = 54 and 23 ! 22 # 50 = 456, then 309 # 19 ! 13 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    57

  2. BOption (b)

    62

  3. COption (c)

    278

  4. DOption (d)

    3783

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

62

Why this answer is correct

Here, ‘#’ means ‘-’ and ‘!’ means ‘×’.

The pattern followed is as follows:

900 # 18 ! 47 = 900 - 18 × 47 = 900 - 846 = 54

23 ! 22 # 50 = 23 × 22 - 50 = 506 - 50 = 456

Similarly,

309 # 19 ! 13 = 309 – 19 × 13 = 309 – 247 = 62

Hence, 62 is the correct answer.

Question 94

Which number replaces the question mark below?

  1. AOption (a)

    110

  2. BOption (b)

    220

  3. COption (c)

    120

  4. DOption (d)

    240

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

110

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

(67 - 23) × 5 = 220;

(16 - 77) × 5 = -305;

Similarly,

(54 - 32) × 5 = ? = 110

Hence, the answer is “110”.

Question 95

Pointing to a portrait, Mr. Dravid said,’ The person in the portrait is daughter of my wife’s daughter – in – law. How is Mr. Dravid related to the person in the portrait.

  1. AOption (a)

    Grandfather

  2. BOption (b)

    Grandson

  3. COption (c)

    Grandmother

  4. DOption (d)

    Granddaughter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Grandfather

Why this answer is correct

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols:

Possible tree diagram will be

Hence, Mr. Dravid is grandfather of the person in the portrait.

Question 96

Eight friends, Rajiv, Rakesh, Ravali, Rambo, Rakul, Ravi, Ramesh and Ramya, are sitting anti-clockwise around a circular table in the same sequence, facing the centre, at equal distances between them. If Rambo is facing the north-west direction, then who is facing the south-east direction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rakesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Ramya

  3. COption (c)

    Rakul

  4. DOption (d)

    Ravi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ramya

Why this answer is correct

Eight friends, Rajiv, Rakesh, Ravali, Rambo, Rakul, Ravi, Ramesh and Ramya, are sitting anti-clockwise around a circular table in the same sequence, facing the centre, at equal distances between them.

1) If Rambo is facing the north-west direction.

∴ Here, 'Ramya' is facing towards 'south-east'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Ramya".

Question 97

Directions: In the following question, select the one which is different from the other three alternatives.

  1. AOption (a)

    SNINET

  2. BOption (b)

    HEFRODA

  3. COption (c)

    LABLOTOF

  4. DOption (d)

    CEKTRIC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

HEFRODA

Why this answer is correct

  • SNINET is an anagram for TENNIS
  • LABLOTOF is an anagram for FOOTBALL
  • CEKTRIC is an anagram for CRICKET.
  • HEFRODA is an anagram for FORHEAD.

Since the 1st three are sports

Hence HEFRODA is the odd one out.

Question 98

Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the following question figure?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Why this answer is correct

Hence, the figure in option 1) will complete the pattern.

Question 99

Find the ODD one out from the given options.

  1. AOption (a)

    B : F

  2. BOption (b)

    C : J

  3. COption (c)

    E : Z

  4. DOption (d)

    D : Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B : F

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

The position value of letters are:

  1. B : F → 2 : 6

22 + 1 = 5 ≠ 6

  1. C : J → 3 : 10

32 + 1 = 10

  1. E : Z → 5 : 26

52 + 1 = 26

  1. D : Q → 4 : 17

42 + 1 = 17

Hence, ‘B : F’ is the odd one out.

Question 100

In the given Venn Diagram, the Triangle represents Racers, the Square represents Arrogant, the Circle represents Hard working, the Rectangle represents Dancers. How many Racers not only Arrogant but also Dancers?

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    11

  4. DOption (d)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

7

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is :-

The region that represents no.of Racers not only Arrogant but also Dancers, as shown below.

Thus, the correct answer is '7'.

100 questions in the full paper