Previous Year Paper

AFCAT 01/2025: 22 January 2025 Shift 2 Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2025

100 questions120 minutes
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Full Test (100 questions)

Question 1

Where will the AFC Asian Cup 2027 be held?

  1. AOption (a)

    Qatar

  2. BOption (b)

    Saudi Arabia

  3. COption (c)

    UAE

  4. DOption (d)

    Oman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Saudi Arabia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Saudi Arabia

In News

  • The AFC Asian Cup 2027 will take place from January 7 to February 5, 2027, as announced by the Asian Football Confederation (AFC).

Key Points

  • Five stadiums confirmed for the tournament are:
  • King Fahd Sports City Stadium
  • King Saud University Stadium
  • Imam Mohammed Ibn Saud University Stadium
  • Kingdom Arena
  • Al Shabab Stadium
  • Saudi Arabia was selected as the host nation for the 2027 Asian Cup in 2023 after India withdrew its bid.
  • The 2023 edition of the tournament was hosted by Qatar.
  • Mr. Yasser Al Misehal, President of the Saudi Arabian Football Federation, emphasized the significance of confirming dates and stadiums as a strategic milestone.
  • Eighteen countries have already qualified for the tournament, with the third round of qualifiers starting in March 2025.
  • India is in Group C for the qualifiers, along with Singapore, Hong Kong, and Bangladesh.

Question 2

The DRDO Ghatak is a _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Air defence system

  2. BOption (b)

    Glide bomb

  3. COption (c)

    Unmanned combat aerial vehicle

  4. DOption (d)

    Combat tank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Unmanned combat aerial vehicle

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Unmanned combat aerial vehicle.

Key Points

  • DRDO Ghatak is an autonomous stealthy unmanned combat air vehicle (UCAV).
  • Aeronautical Development Agency, Defence Electronics Application Laboratory and Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur are the project partners.
  • It was originally called Autonomous Unmanned Research Aircraft (AURA).
  • Development began in 2009, and in 2016 the Indian government approved Rs 231 crore for the project.
  • The first flight is expected to take place in 2024, or 2025.
  • In 2019, a prototype was tested using the Russian NPO Saturn 36MT turbofan engine.
  • The UCAV will be capable of delivering precision-guided bombs, missiles and munitions.
  • The Aeronautical Development Agency is headquartered in Bengaluru.
  • The Defence Electronics Application Laboratory is headquartered in Dehradun.

Question 3

Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s) from the following:

  1. The UDAN scheme has completed five years since its implementation in 2017.
  2. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Science and Technology.
  3. The Airports Authority of India is the implementing agency of this scheme.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only statement 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only statement 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only statements 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only statements 1 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only statement 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only statements 3.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The UDAN scheme, also known as Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik, was launched in 2017, and it has completed seven years of its implementation in 2024.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The UDAN scheme is not the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Science and Technology. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Airports Authority of India (AAI) is the implementing agency of the UDAN scheme.
  • The UDAN scheme aims to make air travel affordable and widespread, thereby boosting inclusive national economic growth, job growth, and air transport infrastructure development in all regions and states of India.

Additional Information

  • UDAN Scheme (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik)
  • UDAN is a regional airport development and "Regional Connectivity Scheme" (RCS) of Government of India, aimed at making air travel affordable and widespread.
  • The scheme is jointly funded by the central government and state governments.
  • Under the scheme, financial incentives in terms of concessions from the central and state governments and airport operators are extended to selected airlines to encourage operations from unserved and underserved airports, and keep airfares affordable.
  • The UDAN scheme envisions the enhancement of aviation infrastructure and air connectivity in tier II and tier III cities.
  • Ministry of Civil Aviation
  • The Ministry of Civil Aviation of Government of India is responsible for formulating national policies and programmes for the development and regulation of the Civil Aviation sector in the country.
  • It oversees airport facilities, air traffic services, and maintenance of the air transportation system.
  • The Ministry also ensures the implementation of various schemes, including the UDAN scheme, to promote regional connectivity and affordable air travel.
  • Airports Authority of India (AAI)
  • The Airports Authority of India (AAI) is a statutory body, working under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India.
  • AAI is responsible for creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing civil aviation infrastructure in India.
  • It manages a total of 137 airports, which include 24 International Airports, 10 Customs Airports, 80 Domestic Airports, and 23 Civil Enclaves at Defence airfields.
  • AAI also provides air traffic management (ATM) services over the entire Indian airspace and adjoining oceanic areas.

Question 4

Which among the following is an agricultural festival of Arunachal Pradesh and celebrated by the Galo tribe? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Losar

  2. BOption (b)

    Ugadi

  3. COption (c)

    Karma

  4. DOption (d)

    Mopin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mopin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mopin.

Key Points

  • Mopin a festival of the Galo tribe of Arunachal Pradesh is celebrated in April every year.
  • The Mopin festival is an important festival of Galong tribe of Arunachal Pradesh which is celebrated in the month of Lumi (April) every year.
  • Mopin is thought to bring wealth and prosperity to households and to the Gallon community as a whole. It is also believed that the festival drives away evil shadows and spreads God’s blessing of universal happiness.

Additional Information

StateFestival
Andhra PradeshUgadi
Arunachal PradeshLosar
AssamBihu
BiharChhath Puja
ChhattisgarhBastar Dussehra
GoaGoa Carnival
GujaratNavaratri
HaryanaSurajkund Crafts Mela
Himachal PradeshKullu Dussehra
JharkhandSarhul
KarnatakaMysore Dasara
KeralaOnam
Madhya PradeshKhajuraho Dance Festival
MaharashtraGanesh Chaturthi
ManipurYaoshang (Holi)
MeghalayaNongkrem Dance Festival
MizoramChapchar Kut
NagalandHornbill Festival
OdishaRath Yatra
PunjabBaisakhi
RajasthanPushkar Camel Fair
SikkimLosoong
Tamil NaduPongal
TelanganaBonalu
TripuraKharchi Puja
Uttar PradeshKumbh Mela
UttarakhandMakar Sankranti
West BengalDurga Puja
Andaman and Nicobar IslandsIsland Tourism Festival
ChandigarhRose Festival
Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and DiuNariyal Poornima
DelhiQutub Festival
Jammu and KashmirTulip Festival
LadakhHemis Festival
LakshadweepEid-ul-Fitr
PuducherryPuducherry Liberation Day

Question 5

Which of the following countries and geographic features share a border with Kazakhstan?

  1. Russia
  2. China
  3. Afghanistan
  4. Kyrgyzstan
  5. Caspian Sea

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2, 4, and 5 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 3, 4, and 5 only

  3. COption (c)

    2, 3, and 5 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2, 4, and 5 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, 4, and 5 only.

In News

  • A tragic aircraft crash near Aktau, Kazakhstan, has brought attention to the country's geographic and strategic significance in Central Asia.

Key Points

  • Kazakhstan shares its longest border with Russia to the north. Hence, point 1 is correct.
  • Kazakhstan shares a significant border with China to the east. Hence, point 2 is correct.
  • Kazakhstan does not share a border with Afghanistan, as Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan lie between them. Hence, point 3 is incorrect.
  • Kazakhstan shares a southern border with Kyrgyzstan. Hence, point 4 is correct.
  • The Caspian Sea forms the western boundary of Kazakhstan. Hence, point 5 is correct.

Question 6

SLINEX (Sri Lanka-India Exercise) was recently conducted in December 2024. When was it first held?

  1. AOption (a)

    2002

  2. BOption (b)

    2005

  3. COption (c)

    2012

  4. DOption (d)

    2015

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2005

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2005​.

In News

  • SLINEX 24 (Sri Lanka-India Exercise 2024) was conducted from 17th to 20th December 2024 at Visakhapatnam.

Key Points

  • The exercise took place in two phases: Harbour Phase (17-18 Dec) and Sea Phase (19-20 Dec).
  • INS Sumitra of the Indian Navy and SLNS Sayura of Sri Lanka Navy participated in the exercise.
  • The exercise aimed to strengthen bilateral ties and promote a safe and rule-based maritime domain.
  • SLINEX series of bilateral exercises, started in 2005, have been conducted regularly to enhance maritime cooperation.

Additional Information

  • SAGAR (Security And Growth for All in the Region)
  • An initiative by the Government of India focused on ensuring security, stability, and sustainable growth in the maritime region.
  • SLINEX
  • A series of bilateral naval exercises between India and Sri Lanka aimed at strengthening maritime cooperation and security.
  • INS Sumitra
  • A ship of the Eastern Fleet of the Indian Navy, participating in maritime exercises and operations.

Question 7

Which organization has launched Ugram, the indigenous assault rifle for the Indian armed forces?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL)

  2. BOption (b)

    Defence Research and Development Organisation

  3. COption (c)

    Dvipa Armour India Private Limited

  4. DOption (d)

    Ordnance Factories Institute of Learning, Ishapore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Defence Research and Development Organisation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Defence Research and Development Organisation. 

In News

  • DRDO launched ‘Ugram’, indigenous assault rifle for armed forces.

Key Points

  • The launch of Ugram, a state-of-the-art assault rifle, that has been indigenously manufactured for the operation requirements of the armed forces, paramilitary, and state police entities.
  • This rifle has been launched by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), which is an Indian autonomous research agency responsible for the development of military technologies and weapons systems.
  • The 7.62 x 51 mm calibre rifle has been named Ugram, signifying 'ferocious'.
  • DRDO's Pune-based facility Armament Research and Development Establishments (ARDE) developed Ugram in collaboration with Hyderabad-based Dvipa Armour India Private Limited.
  • The first operational prototype of the rifle was unveiled in Pune by Dr. Shailendra V Gade, the Director General of the Armament and Combat Engineering Systems of the DRDO.

Additional Information

  • DRDO:
  • The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is India's premier agency responsible for military research and development. It operates under the Department of Defence Research and Development in the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India.
  • DRDO was formed in 1958 through the merger of the Technical Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical Development and Production of the Indian Ordnance Factories, along with the Defence Science Organisation.
  • The organization is headquartered in New Delhi and it has a network of 52 laboratories engaged in developing defence technologies, making it India's largest and most diverse research organisation.
  • The fields of development covered by DRDO include aeronautics, armaments, electronics, land combat engineering, life sciences, materials, missiles, and naval systems.
  • The organization comprises around 5,000 scientists belonging to the Defence Research & Development Service (DRDS) and about 25,000 other subordinate scientific, technical, and supporting personnel.
  • A unique Department of Defence Research and Development was formed in 1980, which later started administering DRDO and its almost 30 laboratories and establishments. The number of labs has grown to 52 after merging.

Question 8

Consider the following statements:

  1. They established settlements in India during sixteenth century.
  2. Mughals refused to grant trading rights to English under their pressure.
  3. They had settlements at Daman, Hugli and Salsette.

The above statements are related to which of the following European powers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Portuguese

  2. BOption (b)

    Dutch

  3. COption (c)

    French

  4. DOption (d)

    Danes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Portuguese

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Portuguese.

Key Points

  • The Portuguese traveler Vasco da Gama reached the port of Calicut in 1498 and returned to Portugal in the next year.
  • Pedro Alvarez Cabral arrived in 1500 and Vasco da Gama also made a second trip in 1502.
  • They established trading stations at Calicut, Cannanore, and Cochin.
  • The first governor of the Portuguese in India was Francis de Almeida.
  • Later in 1509 Albuquerque was made the governor of the Portuguese territories in India. In 1510, he captured Goa from the ruler of Bijapur.
  • Thereafter, Goa became the capital of the Portuguese settlements in India.
  • Albuquerque captured Malacca and Ceylon.
  • He also built a fort at Calicut.
  • Albuquerque died in and his successors established Portuguese settlements at Daman, Salsette, and Bombay on the west coast and at San Thome near Madras and Hugli in Bengal on the east coast.
  • The English East India Company was established in 1600.
  • Captain Hawkins arrived at the royal court of Jahangir in 1609 to seek permission to establish an English trading center at Surat but it was refused by the Mughal Emperor due to Portuguese pressure.
  • Later in 1612 when the Portuguese fleet was defeated by the English, Jahangir issued a Farman (permission letter) to the English and they established a trading factory at Surat in 1613.
  • ​Hence option 1 is correct.

Question 9

Ministry of Defence has signed a contract with Bharat Electronics Limited for modification of which of the following's Battle Tanks?

  1. AOption (a)

    T-90 BHISMA

  2. BOption (b)

    T-72 AJEYA

  3. COption (c)

    K2 Black Panther

  4. DOption (d)

    Arjun Tank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

T-90 BHISMA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is T-90 BHISMA.

Key Points

  • The acquisition wing of the Ministry of Defence has signed a contract for ₹1,075 cr with Bharat Electronics Limited for the retro-modification of Commander Sight of Battle Tanks-T-90.
  • It will be carried out in 957 T-90 tanks of the Indian Army.
  • Commander sight of Battle Tank T-90, India’s premier battle tank, is presently fitted with Image Converter (IC) tube-based sight for night viewing.

Additional Information

  • The T-90 is a third-generation Russian main battle tank.
  • The tanks are equipped with the French Thales-built Catherine-FC thermal sights and use Russian Kontakt-5 K-5 explosive reactive armoured plates.
  • Kontakt-5 ERA in addition to the primary armor which consists of laminated plates and ceramic layers with high tensile properties.
  • Ministry of Defence will procure 118 Main Battle Tanks, MBTs Arjun Mk-1A for the Indian Army. The order was worth Rs 7,523 crore with Heavy Vehicles Factory in September 2021.
  • About the Arjun Mk-1A Tank:
  • The Main Battle Tank Mk-1A is a new variant of the Arjun Tank. It has been designed to enhance firepower, mobility, and survivability.
  • Arjun Tank has been part of the Indian Army for the last 15 years. It has been designed and developed by Combat Vehicles Research and Development Establishment (CVRDE).
  • It will be manufactured at the government’s Heavy Vehicles Factory in Chennai. It can work during day and night conditions and can hit the target in both static and dynamic modes.

Question 10

Whose famous painting is 'Shakuntala'?

  1. AOption (a)

    K S Kulkarni

  2. BOption (b)

    Raja Ravi Verma

  3. COption (c)

    Bikash Bhattacharjee

  4. DOption (d)

    Krishen Khanna

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Raja Ravi Verma

Why this answer is correct

The famous painting of 'Shakuntala' was painted by 'Raja Ravi Verma'.

Key Points Shakuntala:

  • She was wife of Dushyanta, and her story is mentioned in epic Mahabharata.
  • The most famous adaptation is Kalidasa's play Abhijnanasakuntala.
  • Shakuntala and Dushyanta Married as per the Gandharva marriage system.

Raja Ravi Varma:

  • He was also known as Koil Thampuran of Kilimanoor and Ravi Varma Koli Thampuran, he was born in Kilimanoor in Travancore.
  • His paintings depict story of Dushyanta and Shakuntala, and Nala and Damayanti from Mahabharat. His paintings are in Laxmi Vilas Palace, Vadodara.
  • He started a printing press in 1894 in Ghatkopar, Mumbai which was based on lithographs.

Additional Information 

K S Kulkarni- He also known as Krishna Shamrao Kulkarni was born in Belgaum in Karnataka. - He was an Indian painter and educator. - In his later work Pablo Picasso's Cubism is visible. - He was awarded Parishad Samman by Sahitya Kala Parishad, A National Award by Lalit Kala Akademy.
Bikash Bhattacharjee- He was born in Kolkata, West Bengal. - He was an Indian Painter who worked in acrylics, Conte, oils, and watercolors. - His style of painting was realism. - He was conferred with Lalit Kala Akademi Fellowship, he was also awarded Padma Shri in 1989.
Krishen Khanna- He was born in Lyallpur in Punjab Province. - He was an Indian painter. - A documentary named A Far Afternoon-A painted saga by Krishen Khanna received two national awards. - He received Padma Shri in 1990, Padma Bhushan in 2011, and National Award Lalit Kala Academy in 1965.

Question 11

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the code given below-

LIST - I (Important Days)LIST - II (Date)
A.World Population Day1.March 03
B.World Wildlife Day2.July 11
C.World Ozone Day3.April 07
D.World Health Day4.September 16
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 1, B - 3, C - 4, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key PointsWorld Population Day:

  • United Nations(UN) World Population Day is observed annually on July 11 to raise awareness about population issues like family planning, gender equality, poverty, maternal health and human rights.
  • Theme of 2023 - "Unleashing the power of gender equality: Uplifting the voices of women and girls to unlock our world's infinite possibilities”
  • Background -
  • The day was established by the then-Governing Council of the United Nations Development Programme in 1989, inspired by the interest generated by the Day of Five Billion observed on 11 July 1987.
  • The first Population Day was marked on 11 July 1990.

​World Wildlife Day:

  • Every year 3rd March is celebrated as World Wildlife Day, commemorating the day of the signing of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1973.
  • The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) celebrated the day every year to raise awareness about global wildlife and plants.
  • The Theme of World Wildlife Day 2024 - "Connecting People and Planet: Exploring Digital Innovation in Wildlife Conservation"

World Ozone Day:

  • Ozone Day is an International day for preserving the ozone layer.
  • It is informally called Ozone Day.
  • The United Nations General Assembly designed it.
  • The slogan of Ozone Day is “Ozone for Life.”
  • It reminds us that ozone is crucial for life on earth, and we should continue to protect the ozone layer for future generations.
  • Ozone day is celebrated on 16th September of every year.
  • The theme for World Ozone Day 2023 is “Montreal Protocol: fixing the ozone layer and reducing climate Change.”

World Health Day:

  • World Health Day is a global health awareness day celebrated every year on 7 April, under the sponsorship of the World Health Organization (WHO), as well as other related organizations.
  • In 1948, the WHO organized the first World Health Assembly which called for the creation of a "World Health Day".
  • In 1950, the first World Health Day was celebrated on April 7 and since then, it is observed every year on the same day.
  • The theme for World Health Day 2024 is 'My health, my right. '

Question 12

Who was the first winner of the Arjuna Award in Kabaddi? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Sahanand Mahadev Shetty

  2. BOption (b)

    Manjeet Chhillar

  3. COption (c)

    BC Ramesh 

  4. DOption (d)

    Bholanath Guin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sahanand Mahadev Shetty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sahanand Mahadev Shetty.

Key Points

  • The Arjuna Award, introduced in 1961, recognized outstanding achievements in various sports disciplines.
  • Sahanand Shetty, a versatile kabaddi player from Maharashtra, was the inaugural recipient, having secured 12 Senior National Championship titles with Indian Railways.
  • Following suit, Shakuntala Khatavkar became the first female awardee in kabaddi in 1978.
<br>

Important Points

  • Officially titled the Arjuna Awards for Outstanding Performance in Sports and Games, this prestigious honor is conferred annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
  • Prior to the establishment of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 1991–1992, the Arjuna Award held the distinction of being India's highest sporting accolade.
  • As of 2020, the award package includes a bronze statuette of Arjuna, a certificate, ceremonial attire, and a cash prize of ₹15 lakh.

Additional Information

  • Manjeet Chhillar, a former Indian kabaddi player, now assumes the role of assistant coach for the Telugu Titans. Known for his exceptional skills on the kabaddi mat, Chhillar has transitioned into coaching, contributing his expertise to the development of the sport.
  • BC Ramesh is a prominent figure in Indian kabaddi, distinguished both as a player and a coach. Honored with the Arjuna Award in 2001, he boasts an illustrious career that includes clinching two gold medals while representing India on the kabaddi field.
  • Bholanath Guin was a recipient of the Arjuna Award in 1973. This prestigious award is bestowed upon outstanding athletes in recognition of their exceptional performance and contribution to sports in India.

Question 13

Which prestigious award has Indian environmentalist Madhav Gadgil received in 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nobel Prize for Environmental Science

  2. BOption (b)

    UNEP's Lifetime Achievement Award

  3. COption (c)

    Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement

  4. DOption (d)

    Padma Bhushan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

UNEP's Lifetime Achievement Award

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is UNEP's Lifetime Achievement Award.

Key Points

  • Madhav Gadgil, a prominent Indian environmentalist, has received the UNEP's Lifetime Achievement Award in 2024.
  • This prestigious award is the highest environmental honor given by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  • Gadgil joins a select group of esteemed laureates, including David Attenborough and Joan Carling, for his significant contributions to environmental conservation.
  • He is known for his work on the Gadgil Report, which advocated for the protection of India's ecologically sensitive Western Ghats mountain range.

Additional Information

  • Madhav Gadgil has authored seven books and over 200 scientific papers, contributing significantly to environmental science.
  • He founded the Centre for Ecological Sciences at the Indian Institute of Science and played a key role in establishing India's first biosphere reserve, the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve in 1986.
  • Gadgil has also contributed to India's Biological Diversity Act and the Forest Rights Act, empowering forest communities to monitor local biodiversity.
  • His work has earned him some of India's highest civilian honors, including the Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement, and the Volvo Environment Prize.

Question 14

Where did Prime Minister Modi inaugurate the Bharat Mobility Global Expo 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mumbai

  2. BOption (b)

    Bengaluru

  3. COption (c)

    New Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Ahmedabad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

New Delhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is New Delhi

In News

  • PM Narendra Modi will inaugurate the Bharat Mobility Global Expo 2025 on 17 January at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.

Key Points

  • The expo will be held from January 17-22, 2025 across three venues: Bharat Mandapam, Yashobhoomi in Delhi, and India Expo Center and Mart in Greater Noida.
  • The event will feature nine concurrent shows, 20+ conferences and pavilions, and state sessions showcasing policies and initiatives in the mobility sector.
  • The theme of the expo is “Beyond Boundaries: Co-creating Future Automotive Value Chain”, focusing on sustainability and technological innovation in the automotive and mobility industry.
  • The expo aims to unite the entire mobility value chain and is positioned as India's largest mobility exhibition.
  • This year's event will highlight global significance with participation from exhibitors and visitors worldwide.
  • The expo is an industry-led and government-supported initiative, coordinated by the Engineering Export Promotion Council of India with support from various industry bodies and partners.
  • PM Modi had previously expressed pride in the event for showcasing India’s automotive innovation, and announced a Rs 1 lakh crore investment in research and innovation for the mobility sector, along with expanding tax exemptions for startups.

Additional Information

  • India’s automobile sales surged by 11.6% in 2024, reaching a record 2.5 crore units, with two-wheeler sales leading the growth at 14.5%.
  • Passenger vehicles and three-wheelers also posted their highest-ever sales, contributing to India's position as the world’s third-largest car market.

Question 15

Who introduced Panchayati Raj in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jawahar Lal Nehru

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahatma Gandhi

  3. COption (c)

    Indira Gandhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Gulzarilal Nanda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Jawahar Lal Nehru

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Jawahar Lal Nehru.

Key Points

  • Panchayati Raj was first envisioned by Mahatma Gandhi as part of democratic decentralization.
  • It was introduced by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru on 2nd October 1959 in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan.
  • Balvant Rai Mehta is known as the "father of Panchayati Raj" in India.

Question 16

The term 'Sanyukt Vimochan 2024', recently seen in the news, is associated with:

  1. AOption (a)

    A military exercise focused on counter-terrorism

  2. BOption (b)

    A multilateral joint exercise on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR)

  3. COption (c)

    An annual naval exercise in the Indian Ocean

  4. DOption (d)

    A bilateral defense technology agreement between India and Japan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A multilateral joint exercise on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

In News

  • The Indian Army successfully conducted the Sanyukt Vimochan 2024.

Key Points

  • The Indian Army successfully conducted the Sanyukt Vimochan 2024, a multilateral joint Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) exercise, showcasing India's disaster response capabilities and multilateral cooperation. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • Conducted by the Konark Corps of Southern Command of the Indian Army.
  • Focused on a simulated cyclone scenario affecting the Gujarat coastline.
  • Attended by nine foreign countries, including members from the Gulf Cooperation Council, Indian Ocean Region, and SouthEast Asia.

Question 17

Consider the following pairs of wildlife sanctuaries and their respective states:

S.No.Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger ReserveLocation
1.Achanakmar Tiger ReserveChhattisgarh
2.Udanti Sitanadi Tiger ReserveMadhya Pradesh
3.Barnawapara Wildlife SanctuaryChhattisgarh
4.Indravati Tiger ReserveJharkhand

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only one

  2. BOption (b)

    Only two

  3. COption (c)

    Only three

  4. DOption (d)

    All four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only two

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only two.

In News

  • Barnawapara Wildlife Sanctuary in Chhattisgarh has received a young male tiger recently.

 Key Points

  • Achanakmar Tiger Reserve is in Chhattisgarh.
  • Udanti Sitanadi Tiger Reserve is in Chhattisgarh, not Madhya Pradesh.
  • Barnawapara Wildlife Sanctuary is in Chhattisgarh.
  • Indravati Tiger Reserve is in Chhattisgarh, not Jharkhand. Hence, option 2 is correct.

Question 18

Recently held Joint Military Exercise SHAKTI was conducted between which of the following two countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    India and Russia

  2. BOption (b)

    India and France

  3. COption (c)

    India and Germany

  4. DOption (d)

    India and USA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

India and France

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

In News

 

Key Points

Exercise SHAKTI:

  • Exercise SHAKTI is a biennial military exercise conducted between India and France. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • The exercise includes personnel from India's RAJPUT Regiment and France's 13th Foreign Legion Half-Brigade, showcasing the strong military cooperation between the two nations.
  • The 7th edition of this exercise commenced in Meghalaya, India, emphasizing joint military capabilities in multi-domain operations.

Question 19

What is ‘Padam’ in Carnatic Music?

  1. AOption (a)

    A lullaby

  2. BOption (b)

    A love poem

  3. COption (c)

    A poem about courage

  4. DOption (d)

    A patriotic poem

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A love poem

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a love poem

Key Points

  • In Carnatic music, a "Padam" is a type of song that typically expresses love or longing.
  • They are often set in a slow tempo and feature intricate musical embellishments.

Additional Information

  • A lullaby
  • While there are musical pieces in Carnatic music that can be considered lullabies, they are typically referred to as "Thillana" or "Tillana."
  • A poem about courage
  • While there are Carnatic songs that express heroic themes, they are generally referred to as "Virutham" or "Virutham Kritis."
  • A patriotic poem
  • While there are Carnatic songs that express nationalistic sentiments, they are typically referred to as "Desha Bhakti Geethe" or "Desha Bhakti Kritis."

Question 20

Who used to be the chairman of Planning Commission?

  1. AOption (a)

    Comptroller and Auditor General

  2. BOption (b)

    Commerce Minister

  3. COption (c)

    Prime Minister

  4. DOption (d)

    Finance Minister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Prime Minister

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Prime Minister

Key Points

  • The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Planning Commission, which works under the overall supervision of the National Development Council
  • Planning Commission was replaced by a new institution – NITI Aayog on January 1, 2015, with emphasis on a ‘Bottom –Up’ approach to envisage the vision of Maximum Governance, Minimum Government, echoing the spirit of ‘Cooperative Federalism’.

Composition of NITI Aayog

  • Chairperson: Prime Minister
  • Vice-Chairperson: To be appointed by Prime-Minister
  • Governing Council: Chief Ministers of all states and Lt. Governors of Union Territories.
  • Regional Council: To address specific regional issues, Comprising Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors Chaired by Prime Minister or his nominee.
  • Adhoc Membership: 2 members in ex-officio capacity from leading Research institutions on a rotational basis.
  • Ex-Officio membership: Maximum four from the Union council of ministers to be nominated by the Prime minister.
  • Chief Executive Officer: Appointed by the Prime-minister for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.
  • Special Invitees: Experts, Specialists with domain knowledge nominated by the Prime-minister.

Additional Information Objectives of NITI AYOG

  • To evolve a shared vision for the development of national priorities, strategies, and sectors with the active involvement of the States.
  • To develop mechanisms at the village level to formulate credible plans and to aggregate these mechanisms progressively at the higher levels of government.
  • To foster cooperative federalism with the help of structured support mechanisms and initiatives on a continuous basis with the States, recognizing that strong States help in building a strong nation.
  • To pay special attention to those sections of our society which may be at risk of not being adequately benefitted from the economic progress
  • To ensure that the interests of national security are incorporated into economic policy and strategy.

Three plans spread over three different time periods

  • First is a 15-year “Vision” that encompasses the overall goals and objectives of the country for the next 15 years.
  • Second is a 7-year “Strategy” which lays the roadmap of development for the next seven years dividing those goals and objectives into two parts.
  • Third and Final are a “Three Year Action Agenda” which states the tasks and targets to be accomplished in the next three years time frame, further dividing the strategy into two parts.

Question 21

Match List I and List II

List I (Books)List II (Writers)
(A)A plea for the Reconstruction of Indian Polity(I)V.D. Savarkar
(B)India of my Dreams(II)Ram Manohar Lohia
(C)The Indian War of independence of 1857(III)M. K. Gandhi
(D)Marx, Gandhi and Socialism(IV)Jayaprakash Narayan
  1. AOption (a)

    A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

  2. BOption (b)

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

  3. COption (c)

    A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

  4. DOption (d)

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Explanation: "A Plea for the Reconstruction of Indian Polity" by Jayaprakash Narayan, "India of my Dreams" compiled from writings and speeches of M. K. Gandhi, "The Indian War of Independence of 1857" by V.D. Savarkar, and "Marx, Gandhi and Socialism" by Ram Manohar Lohia collectively provide diverse perspectives on Indian political thought and history.

 Key Points"A Plea for the Reconstruction of Indian Polity" by Jayaprakash Narayan:

  • Jayaprakash Narayan, also known as JP, was an Indian independence activist, social reformer, and political leader. He played a crucial role in the Indian independence movement and later became a prominent political figure. In "A Plea for the Reconstruction of Indian Polity," Narayan discusses his ideas and vision for the political structure of India. He emphasizes the need for a constructive and inclusive approach to address the challenges facing the nation. The book explores issues related to democracy, governance, and social justice, offering insights into how India's polity should be restructured for the betterment of society.

"India of My Dreams" by Mahatma Gandhi:

  • Mahatma Gandhi, also known as the Father of the Nation in India, was a key leader in the Indian independence movement and a proponent of nonviolent civil disobedience. "India of My Dreams" is a compilation of Gandhi's writings and speeches where he articulates his vision for an ideal India. Gandhi envisions a nation based on principles of truth, nonviolence, and communal harmony. The book delves into various aspects of social, economic, and political life, reflecting Gandhi's ideas on self-reliance, simplicity, and the importance of rural development.

"The First War of Indian Independence" by V.D. Savarkar:

  • Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, commonly known as Veer Savarkar, was an Indian independence activist, poet, writer, and politician. "The First War of Indian Independence" is a historical work by Savarkar that provides his perspective on the events surrounding the Indian Rebellion of 1857. Savarkar argues that the uprising was the first united attempt by Indians to gain independence from British rule. He emphasizes the role of Indian soldiers, civilians, and various communities in the rebellion, challenging the perception that it was merely a sepoy mutiny.

"Marx, Gandhi and Socialism" by Ram Manohar Lohia:

  • Ram Manohar Lohia was an Indian independence activist, socialist political leader, and a prominent figure in the post-independence era. In "Marx, Gandhi and Socialism," Lohia explores the intersection of Marxist and Gandhian ideologies, attempting to find common ground between socialism and Gandhian principles. Lohia delves into the socioeconomic challenges faced by India and proposes a synthesis of these two influential ideologies to address the country's issues. The book reflects Lohia's commitment to social justice, democracy, and the upliftment of marginalized sections of society.

 Additional Information

  • Each of these works contributes to the understanding of different aspects of Indian history, politics, and social thought, offering insights into the perspectives of these influential thinkers on the nation's development.

Question 22

Consider the following aircraft :

  1. Rafael
  2. MiG-29
  3. Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only one

  2. BOption (b)

    Only two

  3. COption (c)

    All three

  4. DOption (d)

    None

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

None

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • Rafael (Rafale): The Rafale is a French twin-engine, multirole fighter aircraft developed by Dassault Aviation. It is considered a 4.5 generation fighter aircraft, incorporating advanced avionics and stealth features but not meeting all the criteria for a fifth-generation fighter.
  • Hence, Rafale is not a fifth-generation fighter.
  • MiG-29: The MiG-29 is a fourth-generation jet fighter aircraft designed in the Soviet Union and is used by various countries. It does not have the advanced stealth, sensor fusion, and avionics of fifth-generation fighters.
  • Hence, MiG-29 is not a fifth-generation fighter.
  • Tejas MK-1: The Tejas MK-1 is an Indian single-engine, multirole light fighter developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). It is also considered a fourth-generation fighter aircraft.
  • Hence, Tejas MK-1 is not a fifth-generation fighter.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is option (4).

Additional Information Key details about 5th generation fighter aircraft:

  • Definition: Advanced military aircraft with stealth, advanced avionics, and superior performance.
  • Features:
  • Stealth: Reduced radar cross-section for evading detection.
  • Supercruise: Ability to sustain supersonic flight without afterburners.
  • Advanced Avionics: Integrated sensor systems for situational awareness.
  • Network-Centric Warfare: Enhanced data sharing capabilities.
  • Maneuverability: High agility with advanced flight control systems.
  • Examples:
  • F-22 Raptor (USA): First operational 5th generation fighter.
  • F-35 Lightning II (USA): Multi-role stealth fighter.
  • Sukhoi Su-57 (Russia): Advanced stealth capabilities.
  • Chengdu J-20 (China): Long-range and stealth features.

Question 23

The Uttar Pradesh government has declared the Maha Kumbh area of ​​Prayagraj a new district, which will be known as Maha Kumbh Mela district. With the creation of the 'Mahakumbh Mela district,' how many districts are now in the Prayagraj division?

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    6

  4. DOption (d)

    8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5

In News

  • The Sangam and surrounding areas in Prayagraj have been officially declared the ‘Mahakumbh Mela district’ in preparation for the Mahakumbh-2025, a 45-day religious event.

Key Points

  • With this, Uttar Pradesh now has 76 districts, up from the previous 75.
  • A notification by District Magistrate Ravindra Kumar Mandar on December 1, 2024, detailed the new district’s boundaries, which include Sangam, four tehsils, and 67 designated areas.
  • The decision was based on the November 25 state government order, establishing the Mahakumbh Mela area as a separate district under Section 12 of the Uttar Pradesh Revenue Code (Amendment) Act, 2016.
  • The declaration also allows for the appointment of additional district magistrates and managing cases within the new district.
  • The Mahakumbh Mela will be inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on December 13, 2024, with festivities beginning on January 13, 2025 (Paush Purnima) and concluding on February 26, 2025 (Magh Shivaratri).
  • The Prayagraj division now includes five districts: Prayagraj, Pratapgarh, Kaushambi, Fatehpur, and the newly created Mahakumbh Mela district.

Additional Information

  • Here Are The Key Dates For The Maha Kumbh Mela 2025
  • January 13, 2025: Paush Purnima
  • January 14, 2025: Makar Sankranti (First Shahi Snan)
  • January 29, 2025: Mauni Amavasya (Second Shahi Snan)
  • February 3, 2025: Basant Panchami (Third Shahi Snan)
  • February 4, 2025: Achla Saptami
  • February 12, 2025: Maghi Purnima
  • February 26, 2025: Maha Shivratri (Final Snan)

Question 24

The ribosomes are centres (sites) for.

  1. AOption (a)

    Respiration

  2. BOption (b)

    Protein synthesis

  3. COption (c)

    Photosynthesis

  4. DOption (d)

    Lipid synthesis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Protein synthesis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Protein synthesis

Explanation:

Ribosomes are small and complex structures within cells that are involved in one of the most vital processes needed for life i.e. protein synthesis. They link amino acids together in the order determined by messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules.

Structure: Ribosomes are made up of two subunits: a larger one and a smaller one. Both of these subunits are composed of a special class of RNA known as ribosomal RNA rRNA and proteins.

  • In eukaryotes, the larger subunit is known as the 60S subunit and the smaller one is the 40S subunit, together forming the complete 80S ribosome
  • In prokaryotes, the smaller subunit is the 30S subunit, and the larger one is the 50S subunit, making an overall smaller 70S ribosome.

Function: The main function of ribosomes is to carry out protein synthesis. This process is also known as translation and involves decoding mRNA which was previously transcribed from the cell's DNA to build a chain of amino acids, which will become a protein. This means ribosomes are the site where the cell's genetic information is used to create proteins.

Ribosomes are found both in the cytoplasm free ribosomes and attached to the endoplasmic reticulum ER, creating what is known as the rough ER. Free ribosomes typically synthesize proteins that function within the cytoplasm, while those associated with the ER synthesize proteins that are either exported from the cell, incorporated into the cell's membranes, or sent to lysosomes.

Question 25

In which country the headquarters of Interpol is located?

  1. AOption (a)

    Switzerland

  2. BOption (b)

    France

  3. COption (c)

    Belgium

  4. DOption (d)

    United State of America

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

France

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is France.

Key Points

  • T he International Criminal Police Organization, commonly known as Interpol, is an international organization that facilitates worldwide police cooperation and crime control.
  • Interpol aims to promote the widest-possible mutual assistance between criminal police forces and to establish and develop institutions likely to contribute to the prevention and suppression of international crime.
  • Headquarters: Lyon, France
  • President: Ahmed Naser Al-Raisi
  • Founded: 1923
  • India is one of the oldest members of INTERPOL & joined the organization in 1949.

Question 26

In a code language, 'SERIES' is coded as 87 and 'DISMAY' is coded as 91. How will 'SPRINT' be coded in the same language?

  1. AOption (a)

    66

  2. BOption (b)

    52

  3. COption (c)

    57

  4. DOption (d)

    71

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

66

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

'SERIES' is coded as 87

And,

'DISMAY' is coded as 91

Similarly,

'SPRINT' is coded as

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Question 27

What is the degree of the angle between hour and minute hands of a clock at 7 hours 15 minutes ?

  1. AOption (a)

    132°

  2. BOption (b)

    127.5°

  3. COption (c)

    125.5°

  4. DOption (d)

    120°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

127.5°

Why this answer is correct

Given: 7 hours 15 minutes on a clock.

To find the angle between the hour and minute hands, we use the following formulas:

Angle covered by hour hand in 12 hours = 360°

Angle covered by minute hand in 60 minutes = 360°

Now,

Angle covered by hour hand in 1 hour = 360° / 12 = 30°

Angle covered by hour hand in 7 hours = 7 * 30° = 210°

Also, hour hand moves 0.5° per minute.

Angle covered by hour hand in 15 minutes = 15 * 0.5° = 7.5°

Total angle covered by hour hand at 7:15 = 210° + 7.5° = 217.5°

Angle covered by minute hand in 1 minute = 360° / 60 = 6°

Angle covered by minute hand in 15 minutes = 15 * 6° = 90°

The angle between the hour and minute hands = |217.5° - 90°| = 127.5°

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 28

Find the missing number in given series:

5, 11, 17, 23, 31, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    14

  2. BOption (b)

    26

  3. COption (c)

    41

  4. DOption (d)

    37

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

41

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Series based on alternative prime number.

Prime numbers 5 to 50 =  5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47.

After Skipping the series is: 5, 11, 17, 23, 31, 41.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 29

Arpit started from his office and travelled 2 km towards west, then he turned right and travelled 2 km and then turned left and travelled 3 km. From there he took a bus which travelled straight towards north and he travelled 10 km by this Bus and reached his home. What is the shortest distance between his home and office?

  1. AOption (a)

    13 km

  2. BOption (b)

    12 km

  3. COption (c)

    14 km

  4. DOption (d)

    10 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

13 km

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information:

  1. Arpit started from his office and travelled 2 km towards west,
  2. then turned right and travelled 2 km and then turned left and travelled 3 km.
  3. From there he took a bus which travelled straight towards North and travelled 10 km by this bus and reached his home.

The following diagram can be deduced,

The shortest distance between his home and office:

  • The least distance will be the hypotenuse of triangles.
  • Shortest distance (?2) = 122 + 52 =144 + 25 = 169
  • So the total distance becomes = 13 km.

​Hence, the correct answer is "13 km".

Question 30

Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.

Planets, Mars, Venus

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given relation is as shown below :

  • Mars and Venus are planets in solar system.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 31

Complete the matrix:

91521
81726
?4335
  1. AOption (a)

    41

  2. BOption (b)

    60

  3. COption (c)

    47

  4. DOption (d)

    51

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

51

Why this answer is correct

The logic follows here is:​​

In Rows, 

(1st term + 3rd term)/2 = 2nd term

​→Row 1 = (9, 15, 21)

  • (9 + 21)/2 = 30/2 = 15

​→Row 2 = (8, 17, 26)

  • (8 + 26)/2 = 34/2 = 17

​→Row 3 = (?, 43, 35)

  • (? +  35)/2 = 43

? = 86 - 35

? = 51

​Thus, the missing term is '51'.

Hence, the correct answer is "51".

Question 32

In a class of fifty students, Geeta's rank is thirty-two from the left end. What is her rank from the right end?

  1. AOption (a)

    17

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    19

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

19

Why this answer is correct

As per the given information: 

In a class of fifty students, Geeta's rank is thirty-two from the left end."

Total students = Position of Geeta from left + Position of  Geeta from right - 1

Position of  Geeta from right =Total students - Position of Geeta from left + 1

= 50 - 32 + 1

= 19

Thus, the position of Geeta from right end is '19'.

Hence, the correct answer is "19".

Question 33

Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

97, 97, 82, 82, 67, 67, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    52

  2. BOption (b)

    54

  3. COption (c)

    60

  4. DOption (d)

    56

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

52

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is "52".

Question 34

From amongst the figures (A), (B), (C) and (D), select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in question figure.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B

Why this answer is correct

In question figure, one of the dots lies in the common region of star and diamond only, and the second dot lies in the common region of hexagon, circle and triangle only. Only figure (B) consists of these types of regions.

Figure (A), (C) and (D) do not have a common region of star and diamond only.

Hence, only figure (B) has all the types of figures required.

Hence, “B” is the correct answer.

Question 35

From amongst the figures (A), (B), (C) and (D), select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in question figure.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

In question figure, one of the dots lies in the common region of pentagon and moon only, and the second dot lies in the common region of octagon, heart, pentagon and rectangle only. Only figure (A) consists of these types of regions.

Figure (B) and (C) do not have the common region of pentagon and moon only.

Figure (D) does not have the common region of the heart and other figures except rectangle.

Hence, only figure (A) has all the types of figures required.

Hence, “A” is the correct answer.

Question 36

From amongst the figures (A), (B), (C) and (D), select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in question figure.

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

D

Why this answer is correct

In question figure, one of the dots lies in the common region of parallelogram and star only, and the second dot lies in the region of partial circle only. Only figure (D) consists of these types of regions.

In figure (A), (B) and (C), the partial circle is completely inside the parallelogram.

Hence, only figure (D) has all the types of figures required.

Hence, “D” is the correct answer.

Question 37

Which of the following best depicts the relationship between Children, Adult, Tall?

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Why this answer is correct

The Venn diagram that best depicts the relationship between Children, Adult, and Tall is shown below:

 

Both children and adults can be tall.

Children are a different category from adults.

Hence, "Option 4' is the correct answer.

Question 38

Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

WISE : YKUG :: ROOF : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    AFFT

  2. BOption (b)

    ZCCT

  3. COption (c)

    MIIT 

  4. DOption (d)

    TQQH

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

TQQH

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

For, WISE : YKUG

Similarly, 

 ROOF : ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 39

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the first letter-cluster is related to the second letter-cluster and the third letter-cluster is related to the fourth letter-cluster.

JRPI : FPLG :: WFPM : SDLK :: TIWO : ?

  1. AOption (a)

    QGSM

  2. BOption (b)

    PGSM

  3. COption (c)

    PHSN

  4. DOption (d)

    PGTM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

PGSM

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

JRPI : FPLG

And,

WFPM : SDLK

Similarly,

TIWO : ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 40

Eight players Anil, Kamal, Ram, Sanjay, Aakash, Vivek, Rahul and Ramu are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not neccesarily in the same order). Sanjay is second to the left of Anil. Rahul is fourth to the right of Anil. Ram is not the immediate neighbour of Rahul or Sanjay. Aakash is second to the right of Ram. Kamal is second to the right of Vivek. Who is the second to the right of Ramu?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kamal

  2. BOption (b)

    Vivek

  3. COption (c)

    Sanjay

  4. DOption (d)

    Rahul

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rahul

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight players Anil, Kamal, Ram, Sanjay, Aakash, Vivek, Rahul and Ramu are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not neccesarily in the same order).

  1. Sanjay is second to the left of Anil.

  2. Rahul is fourth to the right of Anil.

  3. Aakash is second to the right of Ram.

4) Ram is not the immediate neighbour of Rahul or Sanjay. 

  1. Kamal is second to the right of Vivek.

And, 'Ramu' will sit on the remaining place.

So, 'Rahul' is the second to the right of Ramu.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 41

Directions

In the question below are given few statements followed by few conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements :

All ropes are bottles

Some bottles are pictures

Conclusions :

I. All ropes are pictures

II. All bottles are ropes

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Either I or II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    None follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

None follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows :

Conclusions :

I. All ropes are pictures → False (There is no direct relation given between ropes and pictures so it can be possible, not definite)

II. All bottles are ropes → False (It is not possible as "All ropes are bottles" given so some bottles can be ropes it is definite)

Hence, the correct answer is "None follows".

 

When two or more statements are required to answer the correctness of the conclusion.

First, check whether all statements are aligned i.e. the subject of one statement should be the same as the predicate of the previous statement.

During the alignment or conversion of statements, the subject and predicate changes.

All A are B →  Some B are A

No A is B → No B is A

Some A are B → All B are A

Some A are not B → not convertible

Question 42

Rearrange the jumbled-up letters in their natural sequence and find the odd one out.

  1. AOption (a)

    RUOF

  2. BOption (b)

    TIEHG

  3. COption (c)

    EINN

  4. DOption (d)

    VEIIDD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

VEIIDD

Why this answer is correct

After rearranging the options we get following words

a) RUOF = FOUR

b) TIEHG = EIGHT

c) EINN = NINE

d) VEIIDD = DIVIDE

a, b and c are numbers and divide is operation.

Hence option d is different from other alternatives.

Question 43

Select the figure from the options that will replace the question mark (?) and continue the series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Why this answer is correct

The Logic here is as follows:

1.The Line with the Arrow mark is rotating clockwise direction.

  1. The arrow is skipping each position in the logic of +1 and +2.

Therefore, in the 4th box, the position of the Arrow will be skipped by +3.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Question 44

Three of the following four gases are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbon Dioxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Oxygen

  3. COption (c)

    Methane

  4. DOption (d)

    Nitrous Oxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Oxygen

Why this answer is correct

Given, the list of four gases present in the atmosphere.

Among these, Carbon dioxide, Methane and Nitrous Oxide are green house gases which contributes to the greenhouse effect by absorbing infrared radiation.

Oxygen is not a green house gas and it is the odd one here.

Hence Oxygen is the correct answer.

Question 45

Select the figure that will come next in the following series.

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

The pattern followed here is:

The arrows are rotated in multiple ways, that shows in the following figure:

 

Hence, the figure in option 3 is the next figure in the given series.

Question 46

In a certain code language, "POWER" is written as "NQWQF" and "DRIVE" is written as "QEIDW". How is "DRONE" written in that code language?

  1. AOption (a)

    QEPDO

  2. BOption (b)

    QCODO

  3. COption (c)

    QEODO

  4. DOption (d)

    QEODM

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

QEODO

Why this answer is correct

The pattern follows here is :

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is "QEODO".

Question 47

Select the set of relationships of classes that are best represented in the Venn diagram.

Metal, Copper, Sulphur

  1. AOption (a)

  2. BOption (b)

  3. COption (c)

  4. DOption (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Why this answer is correct

Copper is a metal element. Sulphur is a nonmetal element.

The correct Venn diagram representation is,

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Question 48

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

  1. All maps are books.
  2. No book is a pen.

Conclusions:

I. No pen is a map.

II. Some books are maps.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Both conclusions I and II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both conclusions I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

According to the given statement,

  1. All maps are books.
  2. No book is a pen.

The possible Venn diagram is as follows:

Conclusion:

I. No pen is a map → True (As all maps are books and no books are pens, So, no pen is map is true).

II. Some books are maps → True (As all maps are books, therefore, some books are maps is definitely true).

Hence, the correct answer is "Both conclusions I and II follow".

Question 49

In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Country: President :: State: ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chief Minister

  2. BOption (b)

    Governor

  3. COption (c)

    Deputy Chief Minister

  4. DOption (d)

    Prime Minister

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Governor

Why this answer is correct

President is head of the country.

Similarly;

Governor is head of state.

Hence, "Governor" is the correct answer.

Important PointsPresident:

  • The president of India, officially the President of the Republic of India, is the ceremonial head of the state of India and the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
  • Ram Nath Kovind is the 14th and current president.

Governer:

  • The Governors of the states of India have similar powers and functions at the state level as those of the President of India at the Central level.
  • Governors exist in the states while lieutenant-governors or administrators exist in union territories including the National Capital Territory of Delhi.

Question 50

In the following diagram, 3 classes of population are represented in 3 figures. Triangle represents school teachers, Square represents Married persons and Circle represents persons living in joint families. Based upon this, answer the question given.

<br>

Married persons living in joint families but not working as school teachers are represented by

  1. AOption (a)

    c

  2. BOption (b)

    f

  3. COption (c)

    d

  4. DOption (d)

    a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

d

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram from the given representation is as shown below :

∴ Here, 'd' represents married persons living in joint families but not working as school teachers.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3: d

Question 51

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Penchant

  1. AOption (a)

    Bitterness

  2. BOption (b)

    Liking

  3. COption (c)

    Sourness

  4. DOption (d)

    Disliking

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Liking

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Liking.

Key Points Let's see the meaning of the words with examples:

  • Penchant - A liking for, an enjoyment of, or a habit of doing something, especially something that other people might not like
  • Eg. Her penchant for disappearing for days at a time worries her family.
  • Liking -  A feeling that you like someone or something; the fact of liking someone or something:
  • Eg. She has a liking for fine wines.

Additional Information Here are the meanings of the other given synonyms with examples:

  • **Bitterness -**An unpleasantly sharp smell
  • ​Eg. The cake has some kind of bitterness in its  taste.
  • ​Sourness - The quality of having a sour taste
  • Eg. A mixture of sweetness, sourness, and saltiness all combined together to create this unforgettable flavour.
  • ​Disliking - To not like something or someone
  • ​Eg. Why do you dislike her so much?

Question 52

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To steal a march

  1. AOption (a)

    To act in a foolish way

  2. BOption (b)

    To break something

  3. COption (c)

    To outshine

  4. DOption (d)

    To see a hidden meaning  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To outshine

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer: To outshine  

‘To steal a march’ means to gain an advantage unexpectedly or secretly. From the given options, ‘to outshine’ is the closest in meaning and therefore, the correct answer.

An example sentence is: ‘The local retail store stole a march on the big brands during the sale time’.

Question 53

Pick the right idiom which fits into the sentence: I had to ______ because he was corrupt.

  1. AOption (a)

    Fall flat on

  2. BOption (b)

    Talk shop with him

  3. COption (c)

    Wash our hands

  4. DOption (d)

    Send him about his business

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Send him about his business

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Send him about his business'.

Key Points

  • The idiom "send him about his business" means to dismiss someone or to get rid of someone because they are causing problems.
  • Given the context that the person is corrupt, this is the most fitting idiom among the options.
  • The other options don't convey the right context of needing to remove or dismiss someone due to their corrupt behavior.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 54

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Blow your own trumpet

  1. AOption (a)

    Play on your instrument

  2. BOption (b)

    Practise playing music

  3. COption (c)

    Boast about one’s own qualities

  4. DOption (d)

    Keep away the dust from your instruments

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Boast about one’s own qualities

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Boast about one’s own qualities"

Key Points

  • The meaning of the given idiom is "talk boastfully about one's achievements".
  • We use the idiom "blow your own trumpet" to refer to a person who exaggerates his achievements often to show off among people.
  • Example: My mother said to me, "Don't blow your own trumpet among friends"

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Hinglish

  • The meaning of the given idiom is "अपनी उपलब्धियों के बारे में गर्व से बात करें".
  • We use the idiom "अपनी खुद की तुरही बजाओ" to refer to a person who exaggerates his achievements often to show off among people.

Question 55

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

AMPLE

  1. AOption (a)

    Sufficient

  2. BOption (b)

    Enough

  3. COption (c)

    Liberal

  4. DOption (d)

    Meagre

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Meagre

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'meagre'.

Key Points

  • Ample means generous or more than adequate in size, scope.
  • Example: She had saved ample money for the Florida trip.
  • The marked option 'meagre' means too small in amount.
  • Therefore, from the above meaning of the marked option and the meaning of the given word 'ample' , we are clear that they are antonyms of each other.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 56

One, who believes that all things and events in life are predetermined, is a/an

  1. AOption (a)

    fatalist

  2. BOption (b)

    puritan

  3. COption (c)

    egoist

  4. DOption (d)

    tyrant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

fatalist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fatalist. 

Key Points

  • Fatalist means a person who believes that all events are predetermined by fate. (भाग्यवादी)
  • Puritan means one who practices or preaches a more rigorous or professedly purer moral code. (नैतिकतावादी)
  • Egoist means one devoted to one's own interests and advancement. (अहंवादी)
  • Tyrant means an absolute ruler who governs without restrictions. (तानाशाह)

Therefore the correct answer is Fatalist.

Question 57

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.

Marine ecosystems provide essential services, including oxygen production, climate regulation and nutrient cycling.

  1. AOption (a)

    Insalubrious

  2. BOption (b)

    Implacable

  3. COption (c)

    Sumptuous

  4. DOption (d)

    Opulent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Insalubrious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: Insalubrious.

Key Points

  • The word "nutrient" means a substance that provides nourishment essential for growth and the maintenance of life. (पोषक तत्व)
  • Example: Vitamins and minerals are important nutrients that our body needs.
  • "Insalubrious" refers to something that is not conducive to health; unhealthy and lacking in nutrients. (अस्वास्थ्यकर)
  • Example: The insalubrious food served in some fast food restaurants is often high in calories but low in essential nutrients.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'nutrient' is 'insalubrious'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Insalubrious.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Implacable (असमाधान): Unable to be appeased or pacified.
  • Example: He has an implacable hatred for anyone who opposed him.
  • Sumptuous (भव्य): Splendid and expensive-looking.
  • Example: The royal palace was filled with sumptuous rooms and lavish decor.
  • Opulent (ऐश्वर्यशाली): Ostentatiously rich and luxurious or lavish.
  • Example: The billionaire's opulent mansion was the epitome of extravagance.

Question 58

Directions

Choose the word which best expresses the opposite meaning of the word.**

KLEPTOMANIA

  1. AOption (a)

    Generosity

  2. BOption (b)

    Hinder

  3. COption (c)

    Theft

  4. DOption (d)

    Eat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Generosity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Generosity.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'Kleptomania' refers to a recurrent urge to steal, typically without regard for need or profit. (चोरी करने की बार-बार उत्तेजना, आमतौर पर आवश्यकता या लाभ के बिना)
  • Generosity: The quality of being kind, understanding, and not selfish; the quality of being generous; especially, willingness to give money and other valuable things to others. (दयालु)
  • We can infer that the antonym of 'kleptomania' is 'generosity'

Therefore, the correct answer is: Generosity.

Comprehension:

The Celadon Tower was once a famous landmark in the city of Kytel. With its height of seventy stories, staggered balconies, and jade-tinted glass panels, the skyscraper was not just an architectural marvel but also a symbol of prosperity during the Technological Revolution in the late 21st century.

However, the grandeur of the Celadon Tower didn't last forever. In 2022, economic overextension led to the crash of the technologically reliant private sector that occupied a vast proportion of the Tower’s office space. Consequently, the building, which was once known for its hustle and bustle, fell silent and empty.

In the years following the downturn, the city council proposed to transform the Celadon Tower into a multifunctional space: integrating retail, residential, and green spaces. This innovative proposal was an attempt to bring life back to the landmark and to revitalize the city's economy. Nevertheless, the reactionary public sentiment combined with the hefty costs associated with such a makeover have impeded the proposal's progress.

As of today, the tower remains an imposing remnant of an optimistic past and a significant part of Kytel city's history. Future success in transforming the tower will hinge not only on overcoming economic hurdles but also on navigating public sentiment and achieving a configuration that harmoniously blends with the city's evolving landscape.

Question 59

What factors may affect the future success of the transformation of the Celadon Tower?

  1. AOption (a)

    The impact of the Technological Revolution

  2. BOption (b)

    Overcoming both economic hurdles and public sentiment, and achieving a configuration that fits the city's evolving landscape

  3. COption (c)

    The resurgence of the technologically reliant private sector

  4. DOption (d)

    It depends solely on acquiring sufficient funding

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Overcoming both economic hurdles and public sentiment, and achieving a configuration that fits the city's evolving landscape

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Overcoming both economic hurdles and public sentiment, and achieving a configuration that fits the city's evolving landscape".

Key Points

  • The proposed transformation of the Celadon Tower faces financial difficulties, demonstrating the economic barrier to be overcome.
  • In addition to the financial issues, negative public sentiment towards the redevelopment process could be a significant obstacle.
  • Furthermore, to be successful in the long run, the transformation must be congruent with the city's evolving urban landscape.
  • Thus, the project's success isn’t solely associated with financial factors, but also with public sentiment adjustment and holistic integration into the existing cityscape.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Question 60

What was the city council’s proposal for the Celadon Tower?  

  1. AOption (a)

    To sell it to the highest bidder

  2. BOption (b)

    To demolish it and rebuild a new one

  3. COption (c)

    To turn it into a multifunctional space blending retail, residential, and green areas

  4. DOption (d)

    To convert it into a technological innovation center

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To turn it into a multifunctional space blending retail, residential, and green areas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "To turn it into a multifunctional space blending retail, residential, and green areas".

Key Points

  • The city council saw potential in the vacant Celadon Tower and consequently brought forth the proposal.
  • The aim was to breathe new life into the landmark, transitioning it from a mere office space to a multifunctional complex.
  • The Council planned to integrate different utility spaces—retail, residential, and green spaces—into the tower.
  • This strategic transformation was not only designed to utilize the tower's unused space, but also to revitalize the city’s economy.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Question 61

Why did the Celadon Tower fall silent and empty in 2022? 

  1. AOption (a)

    The city council proposed to transform it

  2. BOption (b)

    It was destroyed by a natural disaster

  3. COption (c)

    It was affected by the Technological Revolution

  4. DOption (d)

    The crash of the technologically reliant private sector caused it

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The crash of the technologically reliant private sector caused it

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "The crash of the technologically reliant private sector caused it".

Key Points

  • A significant proportion of the Celadon Tower's occupants were from the technologically reliant private sector.
  • After 2022, an economic downfall led to the collapse of this sector.
  • As this collapse occurred, the number of occupants in the tower dwindled, ultimately leading to its abandonment.
  • This entire scenario demonstrates how the building's decline was directly due to the downfall of the private sector, not any other suggested cause.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Question 62

Direction: Find the Antonym of this word-

Persecute

  1. AOption (a)

    Harass

  2. BOption (b)

    Annoy

  3. COption (c)

    Encourage

  4. DOption (d)

    Molest 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Encourage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Encourage'

Key Points

  • Let us see the meaning of Persecute: 
  • Persecute: to deliberately annoy somebody and make his/her life unpleasant. (जान-बूझ कर किसी को परेशान करना और उसके जीवन को दूभर बना देना।) 
  • Example: Religious minorities were persecuted and massacred during the ten-year regime.​
  • Let us see the meanings of the given options:
  • Harass: to annoy or worry somebody by doing unpleasant things to him/her, especially over a long time. (किसी को (विशेषतः लंबे समय तक) बुरी लगने वाली बातें करके नाराज़ या चिंतित कर देना; सताना, तंग करना, उत्‍पीड़ित करना।)
  • Annoy: to make somebody angry or slightly angry. (किसी को क्रोधित या नाराज़ करना; परेशान या तंग करना; ग़ुस्‍सा दिलाना।)
  • Encourage: to give hope, support or confidence to somebody. ((किसी को) प्रोत्‍साहित करना; (किसी की) हिम्‍मत बढ़ाना।)
  • Molest: to attack somebody, especially a child, in a sexual way. (किसी के (विशेषतः बच्‍चे के) साथ कामुकतापूर्ण छेड़छाड़ करना।)
  • From the meanings of the given words, we can say that the word 'Persecute' is opposite in meaning to the option 'Encourage.'

\ 

Additional Information

  

 

  • Let us see the synonym of the given options:
WordSynonym
HarassAnnoy
AnnoyIrritate

Question 63

Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Devious

  1. AOption (a)

    Dishonest

  2. BOption (b)

    Crooked

  3. COption (c)

    Crafty

  4. DOption (d)

    Sincere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sincere

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Sincere"

Key Points

  • Let's see the meanings of the given words-
  • Devious- showing a skillful use of underhand tactics to achieve goals. लक्ष्यों को प्राप्त करने के लिए अंडरहैंड रणनीति का एक कुशल उपयोग दिखा रहा है।
  • Dishonest- behaving or prone to behave in an untrustworthy, deceitful, or insincere way. व्यवहार करना या एक अविश्वसनीय, धोखेबाज, या ईमानदार तरीके से व्यवहार करने के लिए प्रवण।
  • Crooked- dishonest; illegal. बेईमान; अवैध।
  • Crafty- clever at achieving one's aims by indirect or deceitful methods. अप्रत्यक्ष या कपटपूर्ण तरीकों से अपने लक्ष्यों को प्राप्त करने में चतुर
  • Sincere- free from pretense or deceit; proceeding from genuine feelings. ढोंग या कपट से मुक्त; वास्तविक भावनाओं से आगे बढ़ना।
  • Hence, according to the meanings of the given words, the correct answer is Option 4 i.e. "Sincere"

Question 64

Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Minuscule

  1. AOption (a)

    Dwarf

  2. BOption (b)

    Gigantic

  3. COption (c)

    Small

  4. DOption (d)

    Meager

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gigantic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Gigantic'. 

Key Points

  • The most appropriate antonym of the given word 'Miniscule' is 'Gigantic'.
  • Let's look at the meaning and examples of the given options:
WordsMeaningExample
Minusculeextremely smallAll she gave him to eat was two minuscule pieces of toast.
Giganticextremely largeThe cost has been gigantic.
Dwarfvery smallYou can grow dwarf conifers in pots on the patio.
Smalllittle in size or amount when compared with what is typical or averageElla is the smallest girl in her class.
Meager(of amounts or numbers) very small or not enoughThe prisoners existed on a meager diet.
  • Therefore, as per the points mentioned above, we find that the correct answer is Option 2.

​

  • आइए दिए गए शब्दों के अर्थ देखें:
WordMeaning
Minusculeअत्यंत छोटा
Giganticबहुत ही बड़ा
Dwarfबहुत छोटे से
Smallजब विशिष्ट या औसत के साथ तुलना की जाती है तो आकार या राशि में बहुत कम
Meager(मात्राओं या संख्याओं का) बहुत छोटा या पर्याप्त नहीं

Question 65

Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Cat's paw

  1. AOption (a)

    A person used as a tool by another

  2. BOption (b)

    The most important attribute

  3. COption (c)

    To attack someone

  4. DOption (d)

    Move at a fast pace

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A person used as a tool by another

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'A person used as a tool by another'.

Key Points

  • The most appropriate meaning of the given idiom 'Cat's paw' is 'A person used as a tool by another'.
  • Cat's paw: a person who is used by another to carry out an unpleasant or dangerous task. (एक व्यक्ति जो किसी अप्रिय या खतरनाक कार्य को करने के लिए दूसरे द्वारा उपयोग किया जाता है)
  • Example: He was merely a cat's paw of older and cleverer men.

Correct Answer: A person used as a tool by another.

Question 66

In the following question, there is a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed by four other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best expresses the relationship like the original pair.

Scant : Sparse

  1. AOption (a)

    Abundant : Scanty

  2. BOption (b)

    Perspicuous : Clear

  3. COption (c)

    Obfuscate : Enlighten

  4. DOption (d)

    Taciturn: Talkative

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Perspicuous : Clear

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Perspicuous : Clear'.

Key Points

  • Both "Scant" and "Sparse" mean that something is limited or not present in great quantity. The relationship between them is that they are synonyms.
  • "Perspicuous" and "Clear" share a similar relationship as both words relate to being easily understood or clear.
  • The relationship between these two pairs of words is synonymous in nature.
  • Other pairs provided either show antonymous relationships or are unrelated.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 Additional Information

  • Abundant : Scanty - These two words have opposite meanings.
  • Obfuscate : Enlighten - These two words are antonyms.
  • Taciturn: Talkative - These two words also are antonyms.

Question 67

In the following question there is a related pair of words given. Choose the pair from the given option the pair of words that best expresses the relationship like the original pair.

Elucidate : Clarify

  1. AOption (a)

    Fabricate : Build

  2. BOption (b)

    Diminish : Increase

  3. COption (c)

    Frugal : Lavish

  4. DOption (d)

    Ponderous : Light

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fabricate : Build

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Fabricate : Build'.

 Key Points

  • "Elucidate" and "Clarify" both mean to make something clear or to explain something in detail. The relationship is that they are synonymous.
  • "Fabricate" means to make or create something, and "Build" similarly refers to constructing or making something. Thus, they are synonyms.
  • The relationship between these two pairs is that they have similar or synonymous meanings.
  • The other options provide pairs that are antonyms or unrelated.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 Additional Information

  • Diminish : Increase - These words are antonyms.
  • Frugal : Lavish - These words are opposite in meaning.
  • Ponderous : Light - This pair consists of antonyms, where "Ponderous" refers to something heavy or clumsy and "Light" is the opposite.

Question 68

Directions

In these questions,  sentences are given with blanks to be  filled in with an appropriate word(s).  Four alternatives are suggested for  each question. Choose the correct  alternative out of the four alternatives.**

The  _______  were arrested for illegally hunting the bears.

  1. AOption (a)

    poachers

  2. BOption (b)

    rangers

  3. COption (c)

    soldiers

  4. DOption (d)

    villagers 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

poachers

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "poachers". 

Key Points

  • "Poachers" is the term used to refer to people who hunt animals illegally.
  • Therefore, in the context of the sentence provided, since the individuals were arrested for illegal hunting of bears, the correct term to use is "poachers".

Thus, the correct answer is "Option 2". 

Additional Information

  • "Rangers" refer to the custodians of parks or forest areas.
  • They are typically involved in the protection and preservation of wildlife rather than its illegal destruction.
  • Therefore, "rangers" wouldn't be arrested for hunting bears illegally.
  • "Soldiers" are members of the national armed forces, and they wouldn't typically be involved in illegal hunting activities, either.
  • Hence, this doesn't fit the context.
  • "Villagers" could technically be involved in such activities but the term itself does not imply illegal hunting.
  • Not all villagers would be involved in illegal hunting, so it's too broad and less specific for this sentence.

Question 69

Directions

In this question, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s).  Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.**

Do you prefer _____ or traditional art forms?

  1. AOption (a)

    archaic 

  2. BOption (b)

    contemporary

  3. COption (c)

     foreign

  4. DOption (d)

    simultaneous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

contemporary

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "contemporary". 

Key Points

  • This sentence asks about a preference about two types of art forms.
  • One of them is 'traditional', so the other type should provide contrast.
  • Contemporary refers to art created and produced at the current period in time.
  • Given that 'traditional' typically refers to older customs and styles, 'contemporary' provides a clear contrast.
  • The complete sentence then reads, "Do you prefer contemporary or traditional art forms?" This is the most logical choice, as it presents two contrasting types of art: contemporary, or modern, versus traditional.

Therefore, the correct answer is "Option 2". 

Additional Information

  • Archaic: This means very old or old-fashioned which doesn't serve as a contrast to 'traditional', since traditional art forms could themselves be described as 'archaic'.
  • Foreign: This implies art from another country which doesn't necessarily contrast with 'traditional' since traditional art forms can also be 'foreign' based on the point of view.
  • Simultaneous: This suggests happening or done at the same time, which doesn't make sense in this context.

Question 70

Direction: Fill in the blank in the following sentences with the help of given options.

Nitin as well as his friend Ramesh _________ coming to the party.

  1. AOption (a)

    is

  2. BOption (b)

    are

  3. COption (c)

    were

  4. DOption (d)

    have been

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

is

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '​is'.

Key Points

  • "Subject verb agreement" means that a singular subject (she, Raj, star) takes a singular verb (is, goes, shines), whereas a plural subject takes a plural verb.
  • When two subjects are joined by as well as, the verb agrees in number and person with the first one. 
  • Example: The employees of the organization, as well as the CEO, have an interest in the project’s success.
  • In the given sentence, the subject i.e. "Nitin" is singular.
  • Thus, we will use singular verb 'is'.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete sentence  -  Nitin as well as his friend Ramesh is coming to the party.

Question 71

Directions

Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).**

This dish is known(A)/ to be one of the most popular dishes (B)/ in the restaurants menu.(C)/ No error(D)

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    D

  4. DOption (d)

    B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "C"

Key Points

  • The error lies in part 'C' of the sentence because 'restaurants' is used without an apostrophe.
  • Here, we are talking about the menu of the restaurants, thus it should be possessive form (restaurant's).
  • Hence, 'restaurant's' must be used instead of 'restaurants' to make the sentence correct.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

Correct Sentence: This dish is known to be one of the most popular in the restaurant's menu.

Question 72

The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

The recently hike / in the price of petroleum products / will hit / household budget severely.

  1. AOption (a)

    The recently hike

  2. BOption (b)

    household budget severely

  3. COption (c)

    in the price of petroleum products

  4. DOption (d)

    will hit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The recently hike

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is 'The recently hike'.

Key Points

  • The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
  • Here, 'The recent hike' should be used instead of 'The recently hike'.
  • In the given sentence 'recently' is an adverb.
  • Here, the adjective 'recent' should be used instead because it modifies the noun 'the price'.
  • The adjectives are the words that modify 'the noun or pronoun'.
  • The adjective 'recent' means 'that happened or began only a short time ago'. (हालिया; कुछ ही देर पहले का, हाल का)
  • Example: In recent years there have been many changes.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sentence: The recent hike in the price of petroleum products will hit household budget severely.

Question 73

In the given sentence, identify the segment which contains a grammatical error.

Everyone have his own ideas about the best way to bring up children.

  1. AOption (a)

    Everyone have his

  2. BOption (b)

    own ideas about

  3. COption (c)

    the best way

  4. DOption (d)

    to bring up children.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Everyone have his

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is "Everyone have his"

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the usage of "Everyone have his" is incorrect instead of this we need to use "Everyone has his"
  • According to grammar, Whenever we have a singular noun as a subject then, we need to use a singular verb hence, "everyone" is a singular subject so we need to use "has"
  • Let's see an example-
  • Everyone knows who stole it, but they're all afraid to tell anyone.

So the correct sentence is- Everyone has his own ideas about the best way to bring up children.

Question 74

Select the segment of the sentence that contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, mark 'No error' as your answer.

David is superior and (A)/ richer than most B)/ of his friends in his village. C)/ No error D)

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1) i.e A.

 If different prepositions are needed with different adjectives, suitable prepositions must be used with each of them.

  • For example:

  • ​Sharman is junior and less experienced than him.

  • ​Sharman is junior to and less experienced than him*.*

  • ​​Hence according to the given rule and example, 'to' will be used before the conjunction 'and' in the 2nd part.

Let's look at an important rule regarding the usage of prepositions with some adjectives:

  • The following adjectives are always followed by 'to' and not 'than'.
  • ​Junior, senior, superior, inferior, prior, anterior, posterior.

Correct sentence- "David is superior to and richer than most of his friends in his village."

Question 75

Some parts of a sentence have been jumbled up, and labelled P, Q, R and S. Select the option that gives the correct sequence in which these parts can be rearranged to form a meaningful and grammatically sentence.

<br>

The area of artificial intelligence lies in _______________ farmhouses.

P. monitoring vital signs in healthcare to managing

Q. optimizing energy consumption in smart

R. its diverse applications ranging from

S. traditional human jobs like customer service.

  1. AOption (a)

    PSRQ

  2. BOption (b)

    PRSQ

  3. COption (c)

    RSPQ

  4. DOption (d)

    RPSQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

RPSQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “RPSQ”.

Key Points

  • The sentence starts with the general statement "The area of artificial intelligence lies in," which is then expected to be followed by the specificities. So 'R'- "its diverse applications ranging from" logically fits as it provides a generalized introduction.
  • P - "monitoring vital signs in healthcare to managing" suits the next place as it gives the first application of AI based on 'R'.
  • S- "traditional human jobs like customer service" is the next logical statement as it gives another application of artificial intelligence after healthcare.
  • Finally, Q -"optimizing energy consumption in smart farmhouses" works best as it connects the introductory phrase with the specific field in which AI is used.

Hence, the correct answer is ‘Option 4’.

Question 76

Some parts of a sentence have been jumbled up, and labelled P, Q, R and S. Select the option that gives the correct sequence in which these parts can be rearranged to form a meaningful and grammatically sentence.

<br>

The retail landscape has drastically changed _______________ pressures of economic slump.

P. as it is accelerated by the global pandemic and the

Q. due to the proliferation of e-commerce,

R. replacing traditional brick and mortar stores,

S. now people are opting for online shopping for convenience

  1. AOption (a)

    QRSP

  2. BOption (b)

    PRQS

  3. COption (c)

    PQRS

  4. DOption (d)

    QPSR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QRSP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “QRSP”.

Key Points 

  • The sentence starts with 'Q'- "due to the proliferation of e-commerce" as it introduces the main factor that has brought changes in the retail landscape.
  • R - "replacing traditional brick and mortar stores" provides the next logical connection as it says the increase in e-commerce has replaced traditional stores.
  • S - "now people are opting for online shopping for convenience" sequentially follows 'R' providing an insight into how e-commerce is changing the retail landscape.
  • Finally, P - "as it is accelerated by the global pandemic and the" suits the final place in the sequence as it provides the reasoning behind the switch to e-commerce.
  • Hence, the correct answer is ‘Option 1’.

Question 77

Some parts of a sentence have been jumbled up, and labelled P, Q, R and S. Select the option that gives the correct sequence in which these parts can be rearranged to form a meaningful and grammatically sentence.

<br>

My passion for astronomy originated from _______________ the cosmos.

P. the curiosity to understand the secrets of

Q. the nights spent gazing at starlit skies and

R. my interest in scientific phenomena,

S. particularly those related to outer space.

  1. AOption (a)

    QRSP

  2. BOption (b)

    PQRS

  3. COption (c)

    RQPS

  4. DOption (d)

    PRSQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

QRSP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is “QRSP”

Key Points

  • The sentence should start with 'Q'- "the nights spent gazing at starlit skies and" as it provides an initial insight into what originated the speaker's passion for astronomy.
  • 'R'- "my interest in scientific phenomena," then follows logically as an elaboration upon the interests stimulated by stargazing.
  • S - "particularly those related to outer space" provides more specific insight into which scientific phenomena the speaker is intrigued by, that being those relating to outer space.
  • And finally, 'P'- "the curiosity to understand the secrets of the cosmos" provides the final note creating a comprehensive conclusion to the sentence.

Hence, the correct answer is ‘Option 1’.

Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. 

Many barriers on the road to gender equality have been removed, but many roadblocks remain. Women have fought hard to get to the present when, thanks to higher education and work opportunities, they can dream of balancing work and home, though couple equity is still not a reality for many. The battle for rights related to reproductive health has been a hard-fought one but women have been successful at persuading governments to initiate policy changes to improve their health and well-being. In India, the Maternity Benefit Act that was enacted by Parliament in 1961 has been amended from time to time to give women better benefits; for instance, paid maternity leave has been extended from the earlier 12 weeks to 26 weeks. It is in this context that the Supreme Court of India’s directive to a petitioner to approach the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development to frame a policy on menstrual pain leave has to be 

seen. Pointing out that there are different “dimensions” to it, a three-judge Bench led by Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud said the biological process must not become a  “disincentive” for employers offering jobs to women. A petition had sought the Court’s direction to States to frame rules for granting menstrual pain leave for students and working women, but there are apprehensions that these could entrench existing stigma and also result in further discrimination. In India, Kerala and Bihar have menstrual pain leave; the food delivery app Zomato has also introduced it. Indonesia, Japan, South Korea, Spain, and Zambia have this policy included in labor laws. Many feminists have, however, decried the move, saying it will reinforce negative gender stereotypes. Also in India, there are other problems in need of addressing such as the lack of sanitation facilities in schools and at the workplace, especially in the informal sector. Between 2010 and 2020 the percentage of working women dropped from 26% to 19%, according to World Bank data. To encourage more women to join the workforce, it is imperative they have access to higher education and more opportunities. Sometimes, girls have to drop out from school simply because there are no toilets. In a world that should strive to become a better place for all, it is the responsibility of the wider society and governments to ensure that no section is left behind. Many countries are trying out four-day work days for a quality life, while others are offering paternity leave so that parenting can be, rightly, and equally shared, and also to ensure employers do not see recruiting women as a disadvantage. All constraints on the road to gender equality and equity must be done away with. 

Question 78

Based on the passage, what action does the Supreme Court of India recommend regarding the provision of menstrual pain leave?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Court suggests approaching the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development to frame a policy.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Court decides to directly frame rules for granting menstrual pain leave.

  3. COption (c)

    The Court is in favor of implementing it across all states.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Court outrightly rejects the petition seeking menstrual pain leave.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The Court suggests approaching the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development to frame a policy.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'The Court suggests approaching the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development to frame a policy'.

Key Points

  • The passage mentions the stance of the Supreme Court of India concerning menstrual pain leave.
  • It indicates that the Court's position revolves around recommending a particular course of action. Specifically, the Court directs a petitioner to approach the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development to formulate a policy on menstrual pain leave.
  • This suggestion is presented in the passage when it discusses a three-judge Bench, led by the Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud, advising the petitioner to seek the intervention of the Union Ministry to address the issue of menstrual pain leave. 

Correct Answer: The Court suggests approaching the Union Ministry of Women and Child Development to frame a policy.

Question 79

According to the passage, what measure is proposed to incentivize more women to enter the workforce?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mandating equal pay in all sectors

  2. BOption (b)

    Introducing menstrual pain leave

  3. COption (c)

    Implementing a four-day workweek

  4. DOption (d)

    Providing access to higher education and more opportunities

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Providing access to higher education and more opportunities

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Providing access to higher education and more opportunities'.

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the decline in the percentage of working women between 2010 and 2020 and suggests measures to encourage more women to join the workforce. It emphasizes the significance of providing women with access to higher education and increased opportunities as imperative factors.
  • The text highlights that for more women to enter the workforce, ensuring access to higher education and a broader array of opportunities is crucial.
  • This inference is drawn from the passage's focus on the decline in working women and the necessity of addressing barriers to their participation in the workforce. 

Correct Answer: Providing access to higher education and more opportunities.

Question 80

What viewpoint do certain feminists hold regarding the implementation of menstrual pain leave, as outlined in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    They oppose it because they believe it may reinforce negative gender stereotypes.

  2. BOption (b)

    They are indifferent to it as they believe there are more important issues to tackle.

  3. COption (c)

    They are against it as they believe it will help break down gender stereotypes.

  4. DOption (d)

    They support it wholeheartedly as it addresses an important aspect of women's health.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

They oppose it because they believe it may reinforce negative gender stereotypes.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'They oppose it because they believe it may reinforce negative gender stereotypes'.

Key Points

  • The passage discusses the Supreme Court of India's directive regarding menstrual pain leave and presents varying perspectives on this policy.
  • According to the passage, many feminists have opposed the introduction of menstrual pain leave, believing that it may reinforce negative gender stereotypes. The passage highlights their concerns that such a policy might entrench existing stigma and lead to further discrimination against women.
  • Specifically, the passage mentions that while some regions in India (such as Kerala and Bihar) and certain countries have implemented menstrual pain leave, there's opposition from feminists.
  • They argue that this move could reinforce negative gender stereotypes. Additionally, the concern raised by the Chief Justice of India about menstrual pain becoming a "disincentive" for employers offering jobs to women also hints at the apprehensions regarding how such policies might impact women's employment opportunities.

Correct Answer: They oppose it because they believe it may reinforce negative gender stereotypes.

Question 81

A bag contains 5 black and 6 white balls; two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that the balls drawn are white?

  1. AOption (a)

    10/11

  2. BOption (b)

    4/11

  3. COption (c)

    6/11

  4. DOption (d)

    3/11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3/11

Why this answer is correct

Given

Number of black balls = 5

Number of white balls = 6

Formula

Probability = Favorable events/Total possible events

Calculation

Favorable event = 6C2

Total possible events = 11C2

∴ Probability = 6C2/11C2 = (6 × 5)/(11 × 10) = 3/11

Question 82

A shopkeeper normally allows a discount of 10% on the marked price of each article. During a sale season, he decides to give two more discounts, the first being at a rate of 50% of the original and the second at a rate of 40% of the first. What is the percentage rate of the equivalent single discount (correct up to two decimal places)?

  1. AOption (a)

    14.85%

  2. BOption (b)

    11.25%

  3. COption (c)

    13.27%

  4. DOption (d)

    16.21%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16.21%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Discount percent on the marked price = 10%

Discount percent in the first case = 50% of 10  

Discount percent in the second case = 40% of the first case

Calculation:

Let the marked price be Rs 100

⇒ Discount = 10% = 1/10 = (10 - 1)/10 = 9/10

S.P = 9/10 × 100 = 90

Now, Discount percent in the first case = 50% of 10 

⇒ 50/100 × 10 = 5%

And, Discount percent in the second case = 40% of the first case

⇒ 40/100 × 5 = 2%

Now the selling price in season is, 

⇒ 90 × (100 - 5)/100 × (100 - 2)/100

⇒ 90 × 95/100 × 98/100 

⇒ 83.79

Hence the actual discount is, 

⇒ 100 - 83.79 = 16.21

∴ The percentage rate of the equivalent single discount 16.21%

Question 83

A wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 484 sq. cm. If the same wire is bent in the form of a circle, what is the area enclosed by it?

  1. AOption (a)

    264 sq. cm

  2. BOption (b)

    616 sq. cm

  3. COption (c)

    488 sq. cm

  4. DOption (d)

    492 sq. cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

616 sq. cm

Why this answer is correct

Area of the square = 484 sq. cm

Let each side b x cm

x2 = 484

⇒ x = √484 = 22 cm

∴ Length of the wire = 4 × 22 = 88 cm

∴ Circumference of the desired circle = 88 cm

⇒ 2 × (22/7) × radius = 88

⇒ radius = 14 cm

∴ Area = πr2 = (22/7) × 14 × 14 = 616 sq. cm

Smart Trick

Here, area of circle is a multiple of π and radius of the circle. Hence, answer must be a multiple of 11 and 7.

In all given options, we find 616 is the only option that is divisible by 7 and 11 both.

∴ Option 2 is the correct answer.

Question 84

The areas of a square and a rectangle are equal. The length of the rectangle is greater than the length of any side of the square by 4 cm and the breadth is less by 3 cm. find the perimeter of the rectangle.

  1. AOption (a)

    45 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    60 cm

  3. COption (c)

    38 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    50 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

50 cm

Why this answer is correct

As we see in the figure,

Let, side of the square = a cm.

∴ length of the rectangle = (a + 4) cm.

Breadth of the rectangle = (a – 3) cm.

According to problem,

⇒ a2 = (a + 4) (a – 3)

⇒ a2 = a2 + 4a – 3a – 12

⇒ a = 12

∴ length of the rectangle = 12 + 4 = 16 cm.

Breadth of the rectangle = 12 – 3 = 9 cm.

∴ Perimeter of the rectangle = 2 × (16 + 9) = 50 cm.

Question 85

A circular play ground has a circular path with a certain width around it. If the difference between the circumference of the outer and inner circle is 144 cm, then find the approximate width of the path. (Take π = 22/7)

  1. AOption (a)

    23 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    21.5 cm

  3. COption (c)

    22.5 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    22 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

23 cm

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A play ground has a circular path with a certain width around it.

Difference between the circumference of the outer and inner circle is 144 cm

Formula used:

Circumference of a circle = 2πr unit

where r → radius of the circle.

Calculation:

Let the inner radius and outer radius be r cm and R cm respectively.

The width of the path will be (R - r) cm

Difference between the circumference of the outer and inner circle = 144 cm

⇒ 2πR - 2πr = 144

⇒ 2π(R - r) = 144

⇒ R - r = (144 × 7)/44

⇒ R - r = 22.9 ≈ 23

∴ The width of the path is 23 cm.

Question 86

The diameter of the base of a right circular solid cylinder is 14 cm and its volume is 2002 cm3. The total surface area of the cylinder (in cm2) is (Take;π=227)\left( {Take;\pi = \frac{{22}}{7}} \right)

  1. AOption (a)

    440

  2. BOption (b)

    660

  3. COption (c)

    880

  4. DOption (d)

    1320

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

880

Why this answer is correct

Given that,

Diameter = 14 cm

∴ Radius = 7 cm

Volume = πr2h

⇒ 2002 = 22/7 × 7 × 7 × h

⇒ h = 13 cm

Total surface area of cylinder = 2πr (h + r)

⇒ 2 π × 7 (13 + 7)

⇒ 880 cm2

Question 87

The Average weight of some students in the class is 38 kg, when 4 new students are included, the average weight becomes 39.5 kg and the weight of those 4 students was 46, 52, 36 and 42 kg. find the total number of students in the class including 4 new students?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    16

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

16

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Average weight of old students = 38 kg

Average weight of total students (after including 4 new students) = 39.5 kg

Weight of new students = 46, 52, 36 and 42 kg

CALCULATION:

Let total student be x

⇒ total weight of x students = x × 38

⇒ 38x

→ total students after adding 4 new = x + 4

⇒ total weight after adding 4 new weight = (x + 4) × 39.5

⇒ 39.5x + 158

According to question

⇒ 38x + (46 + 52 + 36 + 42) = 39.5x + 158

⇒ 38x - 39.5x = 158 - 176

⇒ 1.5x = 18

⇒ x = 12

∴ Total number of student after adding 4 new student are 16

Average weight of new students = (46 + 52 + 36 + 42)/4 = 44

 1 unit = 4 students (new)

3 units = 12 students

Total = 12 + 4 = 16 students

Question 88

Two students appeared for an examination. One of them secured 22 marks more than the other and his marks were 55% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    121 and 99

  2. BOption (b)

    43 and 21

  3. COption (c)

    58 and 36

  4. DOption (d)

    86 and 64

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

121 and 99

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let the total marks be 100%.

One student got 55%, so the other student got (100% − 55%) = 45%.

Difference in percentage = 55% − 45% = 10%.

According to the question, 10% = 22 marks.

Therefore, 1% = 2.2 marks. Marks are 55 × 2.2 = 121 and 45 × 2.2 = 99.

∴ The correct answer is 121 and 99.

Alternate Method

Given: Difference between marks = 22. Marks of student A = 55% of total.

Let marks of student A be x and student B be y.

⇒ x − y = 22

⇒ x = 0.55(x + y)

⇒ x = 0.55x + 0.55y

⇒ 0.45x = 0.55y ⇒ x/y = 55/45 = 11/9

⇒ Let x = 11k and y = 9k

⇒ 11k − 9k = 22 ⇒ 2k = 22 ⇒ k = 11

⇒ x = 11 × 11 = 121

⇒ y = 9 × 11 = 99

∴ The correct answer is 121 and 99.

Additional Information

Percentage Difference Method

If one part is P% of the total, and the total is 100%, the other part is (100−P)%. The difference in value corresponds to the difference in percentages.

Ratio and Proportion

When values are given as percentages of a sum, they can be expressed as a ratio. Here, 55 : (100−55) = 55 : 45 = 11 : 9.

Question 89

In an election between two candidates, the winning candidate has got 70% of the votes polled and has won by 15400 votes. What is the number of votes polled for losing candidate?

  1. AOption (a)

    38500

  2. BOption (b)

    11550

  3. COption (c)

    26950

  4. DOption (d)

    13550

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

11550

Why this answer is correct

Let the voted poll be y

From the problems statement

⇒ 70 × y/100 - 30 × y/100 = 15400

⇒ y = (15400 × 100)/40

Votes polled for loosing party are (100 - 70)% of y

⇒ votes polled = (30 × 15400 × 100)/(100 × 40) = 11550

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage of votes won by winning candidate = 70%

Percentage of votes obtained by losing candidate = 30%

Concept used:

Difference between the two = votes by which winning candidate won

Calculation:

40% = 15400

1% = 385

Then, votes got by losing candidate = 30% = 11550

∴ The votes polled for losing party are 11550

Question 90

If Rs.11800 is divided among three friends A, B and C in such a way that 2A = 5B = 7C then find the share of A.

  1. AOption (a)

    1000

  2. BOption (b)

    7000

  3. COption (c)

    5000

  4. DOption (d)

    5470

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

To find the Ratio of A : B : C from 2A = 5B = 7C, use the LCM method.

LCM of 2, 5, and 7 is 70.

Ratio A : B : C = 70/2 : 70/5 : 70/7 = 35 : 14 : 10.

Share of A = (35 ÷ (35 + 14 + 10)) × 11800 = (35 ÷ 59) × 11800 = 35 × 200 = ₹7000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹7000.

Alternate Method

Given: Total Amount = ₹11800 and Condition 2A = 5B = 7C.

Formula Used: If pA = qB = rC, then A : B : C = (1/p) : (1/q) : (1/r).

⇒ Let 2A = 5B = 7C = k

⇒ A = k/2, B = k/5, C = k/7

⇒ A : B : C = (1/2) : (1/5) : (1/7)

⇒ Multiply by 70: A : B : C = 35 : 14 : 10

⇒ Sum of ratios = 35 + 14 + 10 = 59

⇒ 59 units = 11800

⇒ 1 unit = 11800 ÷ 59 = 200

⇒ Share of A = 35 × 200 = 7000

∴ The correct answer is ₹7000.

Additional Information

Inverse Proportionality

When coefficients are given (pA = qB), the ratio of the variables is inversely proportional to their coefficients, i.e., A : B = q : p.

Ratio & Proportion Basics

To divide a quantity X in ratio a:b:c, the share of A = [a ÷ (a+b+c)] × X.

Compound Ratio

The compound ratio of a : b and c : d is found by multiplying corresponding terms: (a × c) : (b × d).

Question 91

5 years ago the ratio of Ram and Mohan age was 1 : 2. 5 years hence their ratio would become 3 : 4. Then find the present age of Ramesh If Ram is 3 years older than Ramesh.

  1. AOption (a)

    10 years

  2. BOption (b)

    5 years

  3. COption (c)

    7 years

  4. DOption (d)

    13 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7 years

Why this answer is correct

Given,

5 years ago the ratio of Ram and Mohan age was = 1 : 2

5 years after the ratio of Ram and Mohan age will be = 3 : 4

Calculation:

5 years ago the ratio of Ram and Mohan age was = x : 2x

According to the question

(x + 10) / (2x + 10) = 3 / 4

⇒ 4 × (x + 10) = 3 × (2x + 10)

⇒ 4x + 40 = 6x + 30

⇒ 6x - 4x = 40 - 30

⇒ 2x = 10

⇒ x = 10 / 2

⇒ x = 5

Five years ago age of Ram = 5 years

Present age of Ram = 5 + 5 = 10 years

∴ Present age of Ramesh = 10 - 3 = 7 years

Question 92

If (1/3)A = 3B = (3/4)C, then what is the value of A ∶ B ∶ C?

  1. AOption (a)

    9 ∶ 3 ∶ 9

  2. BOption (b)

    9 ∶ 2 ∶ 4

  3. COption (c)

    9 ∶ 4 ∶ 4

  4. DOption (d)

    9 ∶ 1 ∶ 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

9 ∶ 1 ∶ 4

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Equate the given expression to 1: (1/3)A = 3B = (3/4)C = 1

⇒ A = 3, B = 1/3, C = 4/3

⇒ A : B : C = 3 : 1/3 : 4/3

Multiply by 3 to eliminate the denominators:

⇒ A : B : C = 9 : 1 : 4

∴ The correct answer is 9 : 1 : 4.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ (1/3)A = 3B = (3/4)C

Formula Used:

If xA = yB = zC = k, then A : B : C = (k/x) : (k/y) : (k/z)

Calculations:

Let (1/3)A = 3B = (3/4)C = k

⇒ A = 3k

⇒ B = k/3

⇒ C = 4k/3

Now, substitute the values of A, B, and C into the ratio form A : B : C:

⇒ A : B : C = 3k : k/3 : 4k/3

Divide the entire ratio by k:

⇒ A : B : C = 3 : 1/3 : 4/3

Multiply all terms by the least common multiple of the denominators (LCM of 3 is 3):

⇒ A : B : C = (3 × 3) : (1/3 × 3) : (4/3 × 3)

⇒ A : B : C = 9 : 1 : 4

∴ The correct answer is 9 : 1 : 4.

Additional Information

Compound Ratio

The compound ratio of two or more ratios is obtained by multiplying their antecedent and consequent terms respectively. For a : b and c : d, it is (a × c) : (b × d).

Inverse Ratio

The inverse ratio of a : b is b : a. If aA = bB, then the ratio A : B is equal to b : a.

Duplicate & Triplicate Ratios

The duplicate ratio of a : b is given as a2 : b2, and the triplicate ratio is a3 : b3.

Question 93

Find the value of 43;+;(321;÷;531;of;13;−;23;of;6).\frac{4}{3}; + ;\left( {3_2^1; \div ;5_3^1;{\rm{of;}}\frac{1}{3}; - ;\frac{2}{3};{\rm{of;}}6} \right).

  1. AOption (a)

    (-67)/96

  2. BOption (b)

    96/323

  3. COption (c)

    (-325)/96

  4. DOption (d)

    329/96

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(-67)/96

Why this answer is correct

Given:

We have to simplify 43;+;(321;÷;531;of;13;−;23;of;6).\frac{4}{3}; + ;\left( {3_2^1; \div ;5_3^1;{\rm{of;}}\frac{1}{3}; - ;\frac{2}{3};{\rm{of;}}6} \right).

Concept used:

Calculation:

43;+;(321;÷;531;of;13;−;23;of;6)\frac{4}{3}; + ;\left( {3_2^1; \div ;5_3^1;{\rm{of;}}\frac{1}{3}; - ;\frac{2}{3};{\rm{of;}}6} \right)

⇒;43;+;(321;÷;531;of;13;−;23;of;6)⇒ {\rm{;}}\frac{4}{3}; + ;\left( {3_2^1; \div ;5_3^1;{\rm{of;}}\frac{1}{3}; - ;\frac{2}{3};{\rm{of;}}6} \right)

⇒;43;+;(72;÷;163;×;13;−;23;×;6)⇒ {\rm{;}}\frac{4}{3}; + ;\left( {\frac{7}{2}; \div ;\frac{{16}}{3}{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}\frac{1}{3}; - ;\frac{2}{3}{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}6} \right)

⇒ 4/3 + (7/2 ÷ 16/9 – 4)

⇒ 4/3 + (7/2 × 9/16 – 4)

⇒ 4/3 + (63/32 – 4)

⇒ 4/3 + (63 - 128)/32

⇒ 4/3 - (65/32)

⇒ (-67)/96

∴ (-67)/96.

Question 94

If (65)2x+3 × (65)2=(65)x+4(\frac{6}{5})^{2x+3} \ \times \ (\frac{6}{5})^2 = (\frac{6}{5})^{x+4}, then the value of 'x' =

  1. AOption (a)

    -2

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    1

  4. DOption (d)

    -1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

-1

Why this answer is correct

Given

(65)2x+3 × (65)2=(65)x+4(\frac{6}{5})^{2x+3} \ × \ (\frac{6}{5})^2 = (\frac{6}{5})^{x+4}

Concept

xa × xb = x(a + b)

Calculation

(65)2x+3 × (65)2=(65)x+4(\frac{6}{5})^{2x+3} \ × \ (\frac{6}{5})^2 = (\frac{6}{5})^{x+4}

=(65)2x+3+2=(65)x+4=(\frac{6}{5})^{2x+3+2} = (\frac{6}{5})^{x+4}

=(65)2x+5=(65)x+4=(\frac{6}{5})^{2x+5} = (\frac{6}{5})^{x+4}

Comparing both powers, we get

2x + 5 = x + 4

⇒ x = -1.

Question 95

Cost price of an article is Rs. 5500. It was sold at a profit of 9.09%. If the article was sold at a discount of 20%, then what is the marked price (in Rs.) of the article?

  1. AOption (a)

    6000

  2. BOption (b)

    7500

  3. COption (c)

    6600

  4. DOption (d)

    6800

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7500

Why this answer is correct

Cost price of article = Rs. 5500

Profit = 9.09%

Profit% = (SP - CP)/CP × 100

9.09 = (SP - 5500)/5500 × 100 ⇒ SP = Rs. 6000

Discount % = (MP - SP)/MP × 100

Let the marked price be Rs. X and discount is 20%

20 = (X - 6000)/X × 100

(X - 6000) = X/5

⇒ X = Rs. 7500

Marked price = Rs. 7500

Shortcut Trick

 9.09% in fraction = 1/11

20% in fraction = 1/5

Ratio between C.P and S.P after 9.09% profit = 11 : 12

C.P = 11 unit = 5500

∴ S.P = 12 unit = Rs. 6000

Article was sold at discount of 20%

Ratio between Marked price and Selling price = 5 : 4

4 unit = Rs. 6000

∴ 5 unit = Marked price = Rs. 7500

Question 96

X, Y and Z can do a piece of work in 30 days, 45 days and 90 days respectively. In how many days can the work be completed if X is assisted by Y and Z together, on every second day?

  1. AOption (a)

    10 days

  2. BOption (b)

    20 days

  3. COption (c)

    15 days

  4. DOption (d)

    30 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

20 days

Why this answer is correct

Given- 

Time taken to do the complete work by X, Y, Z is 30 days, 45 days and 90 days respectively.

Concept Used-

Total Work = Efficiency of Worker × Total Time

Calculation- 

Let the total work be 90 units.

Efficiency of X = 90/30 = 3 units/day

Efficiency of Y = 90/45 = 2 units/day

Efficiency of Z = 90/90 = 1 unit/day

Let total time taken to complete the work be 2d days

Here X has worked for all the time but Y and Z has worked for only half the time.

According to the question -

(Efficiency of X) × 2d + (Efficiency of Y + Z) × d = 90

⇒ 3 × 2d + (2 + 1) d = 90

⇒ 9d = 90

⇒ 2d = 20 days

∴ The work can be completed in 20 days.

Question 97

The driver of a car driving at the speed of 88 km/h locates a bus 80 m moving ahead of him in the same direction. After 40 seconds, the bus is 120 m behind. The speed (in km/h) of the bus is:

  1. AOption (a)

    66

  2. BOption (b)

    78

  3. COption (c)

    70

  4. DOption (d)

    75

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

70

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Bus ahead of the car by = 80 m

After 40 seconds bus ahead of the car by = 120 m

Speed of Car = 88 km/hr

Formula:

Speed = Distance/Time

If speed of two persons be x km/hr and y km/hr respectively, where x > y,

Relative speed, if same directions = (x – y) km/hr

Calculation:

Let the speed of the bus be x km/hr

Speed of car = 88 km/hr

⇒ Relative speed = (88 – x) km/hr

Total distance covered in 40 seconds = 120 + 80 = 200 m

According to the question

(88 – x) × 40 × 5/18  = 200

Multiplying by 5/18 to convert the units into m/sec.

(88 – x) × 5/18 = 200/40

⇒ 88 – x = 5 × 18/5

⇒ 88 – x = 18

⇒ x = 88 – 18

⇒ x = 70 km/hr

∴ Speed of bus is 70 km/hr

Question 98

P and Q can do a piece of work in 15 days and 20 days respectively. They work for 5 days and P left then in how many days Q alone can finish the remaining work?

  1. AOption (a)

    8138\frac{1}{3} days

  2. BOption (b)

    7137\frac{1}{3} days

  3. COption (c)

    8128\frac{1}{2} days

  4. DOption (d)

    8 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

8138\frac{1}{3} days

Why this answer is correct

Given:

P can finish the work in 15 days and Q can finish the work in 20 days.

Concept used:

If time taken finish the work = x days

∴ Part of work completed in one day = 1/x

Calculation:

P can finish the work in 15 days.

∴ One day work of P = 1/15

 And, Q can finish the work in 20 days.

∴ One day work of Q = 1/20

Let P and Q together complete the work in x days.

∴ One day work of P and Q = 1/20 + 1/15 = 1/x

⇒ 1/x = 7/60

So, 5 days work of P and Q will be = 5 × 7/60 = 7/12

Now, remaining work = 1 – 7/12 = 5/12

∴ Number of days required by Q to finish the work = (5/12)/(1/20) = 8138\frac{1}{3} days

Question 99

A train can cross a platform of length 250 meters in 36 seconds. Train can also cross another train of length 150 meter running with speed 40 km/h in opposite direction in 18 seconds, then what is the time taken by first train to cross a pole?

  1. AOption (a)

    36 seconds

  2. BOption (b)

    21 seconds

  3. COption (c)

    27 seconds

  4. DOption (d)

    32 seconds

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

21 seconds

Why this answer is correct

Let the length of the first train be ‘x’ meters and its speed be ‘y’ km/h.

Now,

(x+250)=y×36×5/18=10y\left( {x + 250} \right) = y \times 36 \times 5/18 = 10y      ----(1)

(x+150)=(y+40)×18×5/18=5(y+40)\left( {x + 150} \right) = \left( {y + 40} \right) \times 18 \times 5/18 = 5\left( {y + 40} \right)      ----(2)

From (1) and (2):

10y = 5(y + 40) + 100

⇒ y = 60 km/h

⇒ x = 350 m

Let the time taken by first train to cross pole be ‘t’ seconds

⇒;350=60×t×518\Rightarrow {\rm{;}}350 = 60 \times t \times \frac{5}{{18}}

∴ t = 21 seconds

Question 100

Rahul can do a work in 20 days, while Rohit can do the same work in 25 days. They started the work jointly. Few days later Ravi also joined them and thus all of them completed the whole work in 10 days. If they were paid a total of Rs.3000 then find the share of Ravi.

  1. AOption (a)

    200

  2. BOption (b)

    400

  3. COption (c)

    100

  4. DOption (d)

    300

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

300

Why this answer is correct

Rahul complete the work in 20 days

Rohit complete the same work in 25 days

Total work = 100 units (LCM of 20 and 25)

One day work of Rahul = 100/20 = 5 units

One day work of Rohit = 100/25 = 4 units

10 day's work of Rahul and Rohit = (5 + 4) × 10

Work completed by both = [(5 + 4) × 10] = 90 units

Remaining work done by Ravi = 10 units

∴ Share of Ravi = (10/100) × 3000 = Rs. 300

100 questions in the full paper