AFCAT 02/2025: (24 August 2025 Shift 1) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

First distance (d₁) = 375 km, Speed (s₁) = 50 km/hr

Second distance (d₂) = 315 km, Speed (s₂) = 70 km/hr

Third distance (d₃) = 575 km, Speed (s₃) = 57.5 km/hr

Formula used:

Average speed = \(\dfrac{\text{Total distance}}{\text{Total time}}\)

Total distance = d₁ + d₂ + d₃

Total time = t₁ + t₂ + t₃, where t = \(\dfrac{\text{Distance}}{\text{Speed}}\)

Calculations:

Total distance = 375 + 315 + 575 = 1265 km

t₁ = \(\dfrac{375}{50}\) = 7.5 hours

t₂ = \(\dfrac{315}{70}\) = 4.5 hours

t₃ = \(\dfrac{575}{57.5}\) = 10 hours

Total time = t₁ + t₂ + t₃ = 7.5 + 4.5 + 10 = 22 hours

Average speed = \(\dfrac{1265}{22}\)

⇒ Average speed = 57.5 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Principal (P) = ₹8,06,465

Rate (R) = 20% p.a. (Simple Interest)

Time = 2 years

First year repayment towards principal = ₹25,590

Formula used:

SI = \(\dfrac{P \times R \times T}{100}\)

Total Dues = Remaining Principal + Interest

Calculation:

Year 1 interest = (806465 × 20 × 1) ÷ 100 = 161293

After 1 year, he repays ₹25,590 principal.

Remaining principal = 806465 - 25590 = 780875

Year 2 interest = (780875 × 20 × 1) ÷ 100 = 156175

Total interest payable = 161293 + 156175 = 317468

Total principal pending = 780875

⇒ Final payment at end of 2^nd year = 780875 + 317468 = 1098343

∴ Sohan pays ₹10,98,343 at the end of the second year.

Given:

Rate of milk = Rs 29 per litre

Rate of mixture = Rs 25 per litre

Formula Used:

Cost of mixture = Total Cost / Total Quantity

Solution:

We know that price of water is zero.

Cost of milk = Rs 29 per litre

Cost of water = Rs 25 per litre

Let the ratio of milk and water be x : 1

Then,

(1 × 0) + (x × 29) = (1 + x) × 25

0 + 29x = 25 + 25x

29x - 25x = 25

4x = 25

x = 25 / 4

The ratio of milk and water will be 25 / 4 : 1 = 25 : 4

Alternate Method By Alligation method:- 

The ratio of milk and water will be 25 : 4

Shortcut Trick

Equate Selling Price (SP) in terms of Cost Price (CP) and Marked Price (MP):

66% of MP = 110% of CP (since 10% profit is made)

⇒ 1% of MP = (110 / 66)% of CP = (5 / 3)% of CP

⇒ 80% of MP = (5 / 3) × 80% of CP = (400 / 3)% of CP = 133 1/3% of CP

⇒ New Profit % = 133 1/3% − 100% = 33 1/3%

∴ The correct answer is 33 (1)/(3) %.

Alternate Method

Given: SP₁ = 66% of MP, Profit = 10%, SP₂ = 80% of MP.

Formula: Cost Price (CP) = [Selling Price (SP) / (100 + Profit %)] × 100

⇒ Let Marked Price (MP) = ₹100

⇒ Case 1: SP₁ = 66% of 100 = ₹66

⇒ CP = (66 ÷ 110) × 100 = ₹60

⇒ Case 2: SP₂ = 80% of 100 = ₹80

⇒ Profit = SP₂ − CP = 80 − 60 = ₹20

⇒ Profit % = (20 ÷ 60) × 100 = (1/3) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 33 1/3%

∴ The correct answer is 33 (1)/(3) %.

Additional Information

CP and MP Relationship

The ratio of Marked Price to Cost Price is given by: MP/CP = (100 + Profit %)/(100 − Discount %).

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100, and Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100. Profit or Loss is always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁% and d₂% are given, the Equivalent Discount is [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100]%.

Given:

The value of (17 + 15) ÷ 2 - 11 + 16 × 4 - 28 + 13 (-16 + 13) is:

Formula used:

Order of operations (PEMDAS/BODMAS): Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication and Division (from left to right), Addition and Subtraction (from left to right)

Calculation:

(17 + 15) ÷ 2 - 11 + 16 × 4 - 28 + 13 (-16 + 13)

⇒ 32 ÷ 2 - 11 + 16 × 4 - 28 + 13 (-3)

⇒ 16 - 11 + 64 - 28 + 13 (-3)

⇒ 16 - 11 + 64 - 28 - 39

⇒ 5 + 64 - 28 - 39

⇒ 69 - 28 - 39

⇒ 41 - 39

⇒ 2

∴ The correct answer is option 3.

Given:

Let the third number be 100.

The first number is 61% less than the third number, so the first number = 100 - 61 = 39.

The second number is 35% less than the third number, so the second number = 100 - 35 = 65.

Formula used:

Percentage of the first number relative to the second number = (First number / Second number) × 100

Calculation:

⇒ Percentage = (39 / 65) × 100

⇒ Percentage ≈ 60%

∴ The first number is 60% of the second number.

Given:

In an election between two candidates, Ananth and Aravind, Ananth got 55% of the total valid votes, and 20% of the votes were invalid. If the total number of votes was 30,000, find the number of valid votes that Aravind got.

Formula used:

Total Valid Votes = Total Votes × (1 - Invalid Vote Percentage)

Aravind's Votes = Total Valid Votes - Ananth's Votes

Calculation:

Total Votes = 30,000

Invalid Votes Percentage = 20%

Ananth's Vote Percentage = 55%

Total Valid Votes = 30,000 × (1 - 0.20)

⇒ Total Valid Votes = 30,000 × 0.80

⇒ Total Valid Votes = 24,000

Ananth's Votes = 24,000 × 0.55

⇒ Ananth's Votes = 13,200

Aravind's Votes = Total Valid Votes - Ananth's Votes

⇒ Aravind's Votes = 24,000 - 13,200

⇒ Aravind's Votes = 10,800

∴ The correct answer is option 4.

Shortcut Trick

Initial Ratio (Milk : Water) = 7 : 5

Final Ratio (Milk : Water) = 7 : 9

Since Milk remains constant (7 units), the change in Water is 9 − 5 = 4 units.

4 units → 9 litres ⇒ 1 unit = 2.25 litres.

Initial Milk = 7 units = 7 × 2.25 = 15.75 litres.

Correction based on replacement logic: If 9 litres of mixture was replaced, but here 9 litres of milk is replaced by water, total volume remains same.

Initial Milk = 7x, after removing 9L milk and adding 9L water: (7x − 9) / (5x + 9) = 7/9 ⇒ 63x − 81 = 35x + 63 ⇒ 28x = 144 ⇒ x = 36/7. Initial Milk = 7 × (36/7) = 36 litres.

∴ The correct answer is 36 litres.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Ratio = 7 : 5 | Final Ratio = 7 : 9 | 9 litres Milk replaced by Water.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial quantity of Milk be 7x and Water be 5x.

⇒ According to the question, 9 litres of Milk is replaced by 9 litres of Water.

⇒ New quantity of Milk = 7x − 9

⇒ New quantity of Water = 5x + 9

⇒ New Ratio = (7x − 9) / (5x + 9) = 7 / 9

⇒ 9 × (7x − 9) = 7 × (5x + 9)

⇒ 63x − 81 = 35x + 63

⇒ 63x − 35x = 63 + 81

⇒ 28x = 144

⇒ x = 144 / 28 = 36 / 7

⇒ Initial Milk = 7x = 7 × (36 / 7) = 36 litres.

∴ The correct answer is 36 litres.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion

If a : b = c : d, then product of extremes equals product of means (a × d = b × c).

Mixture Replacement Rule

When a specific quantity of one component is replaced by another, the total volume of the mixture remains constant.

Alligation Cross Method

Used to find the ratio in which two ingredients are mixed to produce a mixture of a desired price or concentration.

Given:

A costs thrice as much as B. A is sold at a loss of 10%, and B is sold at (5/4) of its own price. If the selling price of A is Rs. 5,800 more than the selling price of B, then the cost price of A is:

Formula used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) - Loss

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × Profit Factor

Calculation:

Let the cost price of B be Rs.

x. Then, the cost price of A = 3x.

Selling price of A = 3x - 0.1 × 3x = 3x - 0.3x = 2.7x

Selling price of B = 5/4 × x = 1.25x

Given: Selling price of A is Rs. 5,800 more than the selling price of B.

⇒ 2.7x - 1.25x = 5800

⇒ 1.45x = 5800

⇒ x = 5800 / 1.45

⇒ x = 4000

Cost price of A = 3x = 3 × 4000 = 12000

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

The average weight of 40 apples = 33 kg

The average weight of 32 apples = 60 kg

Formula used:

Average weight =Total weight of all apples / Total number of apples

Calculations:

Total weight of 40 apples = 40 × 33 = 1320 kg

Total weight of 32 apples = 32 × 60 = 1920 kg

Total weight of all apples = 1320 + 1920 = 3240 kg

Total number of apples = 40 + 32 = 72

⇒ Average weight = 3240 / 72

⇒ Average weight = 45 kg

∴ The correct answer is option 4.

Given:

A man walking at the speed of 4 km/h covers a certain distance in 6 hours and 15 minutes. If he covers the same distance by cycle in 5 hours and 10 minutes, then the speed of the cycle in km/h is:

Formula used:

Speed = Distance / Time

Calculation:

Walking speed = 4 km/h

Walking time = 6 hours 15 minutes = 6 + 15/60 hours = 6.25 hours

⇒ Distance = Speed × Time

⇒ Distance = 4 km/h × 6.25 hours = 25 km

Cycling time = 5 hours 10 minutes = 5 + 10/60 hours = 5.1667 hours

⇒ Speed of the cycle = Distance / Time

⇒ Speed of the cycle = 25 km / 5.1667 hours ≈ 4.84 km/h

⇒ Speed of the cycle in fraction form = 4 (26/31) km/h

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Given:

Ratio of red to green sweets = 3:4

Number of green sweets = 120

Formula Used:

Number of red sweets = (Ratio of red sweets / Ratio of green sweets) × Number of green sweets

Calculation:

Number of red sweets = (3 / 4) × 120

⇒ Number of red sweets = 3 × (120 / 4)

⇒ Number of red sweets = 3 × 30

⇒ Number of red sweets = 90

The number of red sweets in the bag is 90.

Given:

Cash price of the laptop charger = Rs. 2,540

Down payment = Rs. 1,340

Amount to be paid after one month = Rs. 1,205

Formula Used:

Simple Interest formula: SI = (P × R × T) / 100

Where:

• P = Principal amount (Rs. 1,200)
• R = Rate of interest per annum
• T = Time (1 month = 1/12 year)

Calculation:

Correct Principal amount P = 2,540 - 1,340 = 1,200

Interest amount I = 1,205 - 1,200 = 5

Using the Simple Interest formula:

5 = (1,200 × R × 1/12) / 100

⇒ 5 = (1,200 × R) / 1,200

⇒ R = 5%

The rate of interest charged in the instalment scheme is 5% p.a.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of P's present age to age at marriage = 1(3/5) = 8 : 5.

Difference of 3 parts = 15 years ⇒ 1 part = 5 years.

P's present age = 8 × 5 = 40 years.

Son's present age = 40 × (1/5) = 8 years.

4 years ago, Son = 4 years and P = 36 years. Required fraction = 4 / 36 = 1/9.

∴ The correct answer is 1/9.

Alternate Method

Given:

P's present age = 1(3/5) × (P's age 15 years ago) = 8/5 × (P's age 15 years ago)

Son's present age = 1/5 × (P's present age)

Age Timeline

Present Age
P = 40 yrs
Son = 8 yrs

4 Years Ago
P = 36 yrs
Son = 4 yrs

− 4 years

Ratio = 4 / 36 = 1 / 9

Calculations:

⇒ Let P's present age be x.

⇒ Age of P 15 years ago = x − 15

⇒ x = (8/5) × (x − 15)

⇒ 5x = 8x − 120

⇒ 3x = 120

⇒ x = 40 years

⇒ P's present age = 40 years.

⇒ Present age of son = (1/5) × 40 = 8 years.

⇒ 4 years ago, P's age = 40 − 4 = 36 years.

⇒ 4 years ago, Son's age = 8 − 4 = 4 years.

⇒ Required fraction = 4 / 36 = 1 / 9.

∴ The correct answer is 1/9.

Additional Information

Ratio of Ages

If the ratio of ages of two persons is a:b, their ages can be represented as ax and bx. The age difference between two persons always remains constant over time.

Fractional Relationships

A relationship given as 1(3/5) times means a multiplying factor of 8/5. Expressing conditions as fractions directly yields a simple linear equation.

Problems on Ages

It is highly recommended to always calculate the present ages first. This establishes a fixed reference point before finding any past or future ages.

Given:

A dishonest dealer sells an article at a 10% loss on the cost price but uses a weight of 40 g instead of 50 g.

Formula used:

Profit Percentage = \(\left(\dfrac{S.P. - C.P.}{C.P.}\right) \times 100\)

Calculation:

Let the cost price of 50 g be ₹100.

Selling price of 50 g at a 10% loss = ₹100 - 10% of ₹100

⇒ S.P. = ₹100 - ₹10

⇒ S.P. = ₹90

But dealer uses 40 g instead of 50 g, so he sells 40 g at ₹90.

Cost price of 40 g = \(\dfrac{100}{50} \times 40 = ₹80\)

Profit = S.P. - C.P.

⇒ Profit = ₹90 - ₹80

⇒ Profit = ₹10

Profit Percentage = \(\left(\dfrac{10}{80}\right) \times 100\)

⇒ Profit Percentage = 12.5%

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

The ratio of the outer circumference to the inner circumference of a circular path is 7:6.

The width of the path is 45 meters.

Formula Used:

Ratio of circumferences = Ratio of radii

Outer circumference = 2πR

Inner circumference = (2 π (r))

Where (R) is the radius of the outer circle and (r) is the radius of the inner circle.

Width of the path = (R - r)

Calculation:

Let the radius of the inner circle be (r) meters.

Then, the radius of the outer circle is (r + 45) meters.

Given the ratio of the outer circumference to the inner circumference is 7:6:

(2 π (r + 45))/(2 π r) = 7/6

(r + 45)/(r) = 7/6

Cross-multiply to solve for rrrrr :

6 (r + 45) = 7r

6r + 270 = 7r

270 = 7r - 6r

270 = r

The radius of the inner circle is 270 meters.

Shortcut Trick

Number of Sundays in a 30-day month starting with Sunday = 5 (1^st, 8^th, 15^th, 22^nd, 29^th).

Remaining days = 30 − 5 = 25 days.

Using deviation method: Assume base average = 230.

Extra attendance on 5 Sundays = 5 × (410 − 230) = 5 × 180 = 900.

Net increase in average = 900 ÷ 30 = 30.

Average attendance = 230 + 30 = 260.

∴ The correct answer is 260.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average attendance on Sundays = 410

Average attendance on other days = 230

Total days in the month = 30 (Starts with Sunday)

Formula Used:

Average = (Total sum of attendance) ÷ (Total number of days)

Calculations:

⇒ Total attendance on Sundays = 5 × 410 = 2050

⇒ Total attendance on other days = (30 − 5) × 230 = 25 × 230 = 5750

⇒ Total attendance for 30 days = 2050 + 5750 = 7800

⇒ Average attendance per day = 7800 ÷ 30

⇒ Average attendance per day = 260

∴ The correct answer is 260.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

When a group is divided into two parts with counts n₁, n₂ and averages a₁, a₂, the combined average is (n₁a₁ + n₂a₂) / (n₁ + n₂).

Occurrence of Days in a Month

In a month of 30 days, any day that falls on the 1^st or 2^nd will occur 5 times; all other days will occur 4 times.

Deviation Method for Averages

New Average = Old Average + (Total Deviation / Total Number of terms). This is useful for large numbers to simplify multiplication.

Given:

Cost of 21 pencils and 9 pens = Rs. 276

Cost of 6 pencils and 3 pens = Rs. 84

Concept:

We need to form and solve a system of linear equations to find the individual cost of one pencil and one pen.

Calculation:

Let the cost of one pencil be x and the cost of one pen be y.

We have the equations:

⇒ 21x + 9y = 276      ...(1)

⇒ 6x + 3y = 84      ...(2)

Divide equation (2) by 3:

⇒ 2x + y = 28      ...(3)

Multiply equation (3) by 9:

⇒ 18x + 9y = 252      ...(4)

Subtract equation (4) from equation (1):

⇒ (21x + 9y) - (18x + 9y) = 276 - 252

⇒ 3x = 24

⇒ x = 8

Substitute x = 8 into equation (3):

⇒ 2(8) + y = 28

⇒ 16 + y = 28

⇒ y = 12

Hence, the cost of one pencil and one pen is:

⇒ x + y = 8 + 12

⇒ x + y = 20

∴ The cost of one pencil and one pen is Rs. 20.

Given:

What is the smallest number that must be added to 19487161 so that it is divisible by 11?

Formula used:

Divisibility Rule of 11: A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of the digits in the odd positions and the sum of the digits in the even positions is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Calculation:

Number: 19487161

Sum of digits in odd positions: 1 + 4 + 7 + 6 = 18

Sum of digits in even positions: 9 + 8 + 1 + 1 = 19

Difference: 19 - 18 = 1

To make the number divisible by 11, we need to make the difference 0 or a multiple of 11.

⇒ The smallest number = 11 - 1 = 10

Hence, Smallest number is 10.

∴ The correct answer is option 4.

Shortcut Trick

Downstream Speed = 18 + 50% of 18 = 27 kmph

Speed of stream = (Downstream Speed − Upstream Speed) ÷ 2

Speed of stream = (27 − 18) ÷ 2 = 4.5 kmph

∴ The correct answer is 4.5 kmph.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of boat upstream (U) = 18 kmph

Speed of boat downstream (D) is 50% greater than upstream speed.

Formula Used:

Downstream Speed (D) = U + (U × Percentage Increase)

Speed of Stream (v) = (D − U) ÷ 2

Calculation:

⇒ D = 18 + (18 × 50 ÷ 100)

⇒ D = 18 + 9 = 27 kmph

⇒ v = (27 − 18) ÷ 2

⇒ v = 9 ÷ 2 = 4.5 kmph

∴ The correct answer is 4.5 kmph.

Additional Information

Speed in Still Water

The speed of a boat in still water is the average of its downstream and upstream speeds: u = (D + U) ÷ 2.

Downstream vs Upstream

Downstream speed occurs when the boat moves in the direction of the stream (u + v). Upstream speed occurs when the boat moves against the stream (u − v).

Relative Speed Ratio

The ratio of the speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the stream can be directly found using (D + U) : (D − U).

The correct answer is 'Labour market, insufficient protection of linguistic right and ideologies'.

Key Points

• The labor market often favors speakers of the dominant language, leading to economic incentives for monolingualism in that language.
• Insufficient protection of linguistic rights can lead to the marginalization of non-dominant languages and pressure on their speakers to shift to the dominant language.
• Certain ideologies, such as the belief in the superiority of the dominant language or the impracticality of maintaining multiple languages, can also contribute to the normalization of monolingualism.
• While migration and political assertion can influence language dynamics, they are not the only or primary factors leading to the normalization of monolingualism in dominant languages.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is 'Leaning another language without harming the mother tongue.'.

Key Points

• Additive language learning refers to a situation where a second (or subsequent) language is learned without negatively affecting the first language or mother tongue.
• In contrast to subtractive language learning, here the acquisition of a new language adds to the learner's linguistic repertoire rather than replacing or undermining the existing language.
• This form of learning is often seen as more balanced and can contribute to cognitive benefits associated with bilingualism or multilingualism.
• This does not necessarily have to involve learning through the mother tongue or with the support of another language.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

The correct answer is 'Parents have choice, but choose the dominant language to the mother tongue'.

Key Points

• In many parts of the world, parents have the choice of what language(s) their children learn and use. However, due to factors such as social prestige, economic opportunities, and educational policies, parents often choose for their children to learn the dominant language.
• This is not the same as having no choice. Rather, it's a decision often made based on perceived benefits associated with the dominant language.
• This does not mean that parents do not choose the mother tongue at all. It's possible for bilingual or multilingual learning to occur, but the dominant language is often prioritized, which can lead to subtractive language learning situations.
• The government's role varies widely by context. While some governments may impose a dominant language, others might promote multilingualism or protect minority languages.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

The correct answer is 'Homogenisation of certain instruments of society leads to language hierarchies.'.

Key Points

• Language hierarchies often emerge when certain languages are given more importance and visibility in key societal instruments like the media, education, administration, and law.
• This homogenization leads to dominance by a single or a few languages at the expense of other languages, thereby establishing a hierarchy.
• It is not necessarily the case that the mother tongue is always the dominant language in a society. Similarly, language superiority or inferiority is a subjective judgment usually based on social power dynamics rather than inherent features of the languages themselves.
• While political interference can influence language domination, it is not the only factor. Other social, cultural, and economic factors play significant roles as well.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

The correct answer is 'Learning the dominant language which undermines the mother tongue'.

Key Points

• Subtractive language learning refers to a scenario where learning a new or dominant language leads to a loss of the native or mother tongue.
• This can happen in situations where there is significant pressure to learn and use a dominant language, such as in many educational systems, workplaces, or social contexts.
• The term "subtractive" is used because the acquisition of the new language is at the expense of the first language, leading to its decline or even complete loss over time.
• The process is often driven by social, cultural, or economic factors, where the dominant language has greater prestige or offers more opportunities.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Answer: C. greater multilingualism.

Explanation: The passage discusses the importance of preserving linguistic diversity and mentions how multilingualism can help sustain a more connected and interdependent world. The author argues against monolingualism and supports the idea of linguistic diversity, which is consistent with promoting greater multilingualism. The emphasis on the survival of languages, especially through modern means like digital media, also aligns with the idea of encouraging multilingualism to protect cultural heritage.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

• A. “language shifts” across languages:

The author does not support “language shifts,” which often lead to the decline or extinction of languages. Instead, the passage highlights the negative impact of language shifts on linguistic diversity and the importance of preserving languages.

• B. cultural homogenisation:

The passage actually critiques cultural homogenisation, particularly as it relates to language. The author is concerned about the loss of linguistic diversity and does not support the idea of cultural homogenisation, which would lead to a reduction in the variety of languages and cultural expressions.

• D. an expanded state role in the preservation of languages:

While the passage does mention the role of the state in language preservation (e.g., the revival of Welsh), it does not explicitly advocate for an expanded state role. The emphasis is more on the importance of multilingualism and community efforts, including the use of digital media, rather than solely relying on state intervention.

Answer: B. languages can revive even after their speakers have gone through a “language shift”.

Explanation: The passage uses Welsh as an example of a language that has experienced significant decline but has rebounded despite a history of stigma and disparagement. This indicates that languages can indeed revive even after a "language shift," where speakers initially abandoned the language for another.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

• C. vulnerable languages can rebound with state effort:

While this is true in some cases, the passage specifically emphasizes the revival of Welsh despite past stigmatization and does not solely attribute its rebound to state efforts.

• D. while often pilloried, globalisation can, in fact, support linguistic revival:

The passage does not directly suggest that globalization supports linguistic revival. It mentions globalization as a factor often criticized for threatening linguistic diversity but does not tie it to the revival of Welsh.

• A. efforts to integrate Welsh speakers in the English-speaking fold have been fruitless:

The passage does not suggest that efforts to integrate Welsh speakers into the English-speaking community have been entirely fruitless; rather, it focuses on the resurgence of the Welsh language despite historical challenges.

Answer: D. the focus on only a few languages as a result of widespread internet use.

Explanation: The passage does not attribute the decline of languages to the focus on only a few languages due to widespread internet use. Instead, it emphasizes other factors like war, famine, cultural and political reasons, and state coercion. The internet, in fact, is discussed as a tool that can help in the preservation of languages by providing a platform for documentation and communication.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

• B. a catastrophic event that entirely eliminates a people and their culture:

The passage mentions that war, famine, and natural disasters can destroy entire communities, leading to the extinction of their languages.

• A. governments promoting certain languages over others:

The passage discusses how languages are often marginalized due to state policies that promote certain languages over others, leading to language decline.

• C. people shifting away from their own language to study or work in another language:

The passage refers to "language shift" as a process where people abandon their language in favor of another, often due to economic, cultural, or educational reasons.

Answer: D. their vocabulary and grammatical constructs have been challenging to document.

Explanation: The passage emphasizes the importance of indigenous languages as repositories of traditional knowledge and discusses efforts to document these languages using modern technology. It also mentions the vulnerability of these languages, especially those that are primarily oral. However, it does not specifically mention any challenges related to documenting vocabulary and grammatical constructs, making option C the correct choice for what cannot be inferred.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

• A. they are repositories of traditional knowledge about the environment and culture:

The passage clearly states that indigenous languages function as vehicles for transmitting cultural traditions, environmental understandings, and knowledge about medicinal plants. This supports the idea that these languages are repositories of valuable knowledge.

• B. people are increasingly working on documenting these languages:

The passage highlights the role of modern digital media in preserving and documenting endangered languages, especially among mobile communities. This indicates that there is indeed an effort to document these languages.

• C. they are in danger of being wiped out as most can only be transmitted orally:

The passage discusses the fragility of languages that are transmitted orally, especially those without a widely established written form, and the risk of their disappearance as a result of various factors, such as the death of elders and the disruption of traditional ways of life.

The correct answer is **'**B-C.'

Key Points

• The given sentence talks about Malavika’s son who begged her to willingly accept her daughter-in-law, but Malavika refused to agree to or accept their marriage.
• Let us explore the meaning of the highlighted words:
• Begged - To ask somebody for something strongly, or with great emotion. (बहुत भावुक होकर या दृढ़ता के साथ कुछ माँगना)
• Refused - To say or show that you do not want to do, give, or accept something. (इनकार करना या बात नामंज़ूर होना)
• Embrace - To accept willingly and enthusiastically. (स्वेच्छा एवं उत्साहपूर्वक स्वीकार करना)
• Approve - To officially agree to or accept as satisfactory. (किसी को पसंद करना या उससे संतुष्‍ट होना; स्‍वीकार्य समझना)
• Thus, (B) and (C) must be interchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Sentence: Malavika’s son begged her to embrace her daughter-in-law, but she refused to approve of their marriage.

The correct answer is 'C-D.'

Key Points

• The given sentence talks about Sonam who was so thankful when a stranger helped her in changing her punctured tire.
• Let us explore the meaning of the highlighted words:
• Stranded - Left in a place that you cannot get away from. (असहाय, संकटग्रस्‍त, ऐसे स्‍थान पर फँसा हुआ जहाँ से निकलना मुश्किल)
• Thankful - Pleased and grateful. (प्रसन्‍न और चिंतामुक्त)
• Changing - To take, have, or use something instead of something else. (एक चीज़ छोड़कर दूसरी चीज़ लेना, बदलना)
• Assisted - To help. (सहायता करना)
• Thus, (C) and (D) must be interchanged.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Sentence: After being stranded for an hour, Sonam was so thankful when a stranger assisted her in changing her flat tire.

The correct answer is 'No change required.'

Key Points

• The given sentence talks about modern brides who have turned to artificial flowers for their bouquets because artificial flowers are much cheaper and always available.
• Let us explore the meaning of the highlighted words:
• Modern - Relating to the present or recent times as opposed to the remote past. (वर्तमान या हाल का; आधुनिक)
• Artificial - Not genuine or natural but made by people. (मानव द्वारा बनाय�� गया, न कि प्राकृतिक; कृत्रिम, नक़ली; अप्राकृतिक)
• Cheaper - Low in price, costing little money. (सस्‍ता, कम क़ीमत का)
• Available - Able to be used or obtained. (उपलब्‍ध)
• Thus, no change is required in the sentence.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Sentence: Modern brides have turned to artificial flowers for their bouquets because they are much cheaper and always available.

The correct answer is: B-C

Key Points  Let us look at the sentence in the following way:

• No one is trying to _______(A) the _______​(B) of a good education but we all know that it is _______(C) for _______(D).
• The points below let us know the meaning of the words in bold.
• In (B) crucial and in (C) importance both are incorrectly placed words according to the meaning of the sentence.
• The sentence tells us that no one is attempting to minimise the value of a quality education, but we can all agree that it is essential for success.
• So, Crucial in (B) and Importance in (C) should be interchanged to make the sentence correct and meaningful.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: No one is trying to denigrate the importance of a good education but we all know that it is crucial for success.

The correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information  To understand which word belongs to which blank we need to know its meaning as enlisted below.

• Denigrate: To treat or represent as lacking in value. (मूल्य में कमी के रूप में व्यवहार या प्रतिनिधित्व करना)
• Crucial: Decisive or critical, especially in the success or failure of something. (निर्णायक या आलोचनात्मक, विशेषकर किसी चीज की सफलता या असफलता में)
• Importance: The state or fact of being of great significance or value. (बहुत महत्व या मूल्य होने की अवस्था या तथ्य)
• Success: The accomplishment of an aim or purpose. (किसी लक्ष्य या उद्देश्य की सिद्धि)

The correct answer is: A-D

Key Points  Let us look at the sentence in the following way:

• Now the big question is how to ______(A) the ______(B) of corruption and ______(C) much needed ______(D) in public life.
• The points below let us know the meaning of the words in bold.
• In (A) probity and in (D) curb both are incorrectly placed words according to the meaning of the sentence.
• The sentence tells us that the key concern right now is how to stop the corruption plague and bring back the badly needed integrity in public affairs.
• So (A) and (D) should be interchanged to make the sentence correct and meaningful.

Therefore, the correct sentence is: Now the big question is how to curb the canker of corruption and restore much needed probity in public life.

The correct answer is option 4.

Additional Information   To understand which word belongs to which blank we need to know its meaning as enlisted below.

• Probity: The quality of having strong moral principles; honesty and decency. (ईमानदारी)
• Canker: Something evil that spreads through a person's mind, an organization, or a society. (कुछ बुराई जो किसी व्यक्ति, संगठन या समाज के माध्यम से फैलती है)
• Restore: Bring back or re-establish a previous right, practice, or situation. (पुनर्स्थापित करना)
• Curb: Control or limit something harmful. (किसी हानिकारक चीज को नियंत्रित या सीमित करना)

The correct answer is '2' i.e. Sonu always preferred coffee over tea.

Key Points

• In the second part of the given sentence, the usage of the word "over" is incorrect.
• The standard expression is "prefer something to something else" rather than "prefer something over something else".
• Therefore, the sentence should be corrected as: "Sonu always preferred coffee to tea".

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct sentence: Sonu always preferred coffee to tea.

The correct answer is "Don't talk so loud".

Key Points

• The incorrect sentence among the given options is "Don't talk so loud."
• In the sentence, the word "loud" is used incorrectly and it should be replaced with "loudly".
• "Loud" means strongly audible and having an exceptional volume or intensity. It is used as an adjective.
• For example: She spoke in a very loud voice.
• "Loudly" means making a lot of noise. It is used as an adverb.
• For example: She was speaking very loudly.
• In general loud is the adjective and loudly the adverb. There are occasions when people use the adjective to act as an adverb, often in colloquial speech.
• If you wish to be formal and correct, you should use loudly when you want an adverb.
• In the given sentence, there is a need of an adverb which will express more about the action word "talk".
• Hence, the adverb form "loudly" will be used.
• The correct sentence: Don't talk so loudly.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect use of the word "quite" in this context.
• "Quite" is not used in this manner to describe the frequency of meetings.
• The correct phrases should be "They hardly meet each other", "They often meet each other", or "They always meet each other".
• Thus, the error is located in option 3 of the given sentences.
• Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "They quite meet each other." is not grammatically correct. Instead, you could say "They frequently meet each other."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "They hardly meet each other." – This sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 2: "They often meet each other." – This sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 4: "They always meet each other." – This sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 5 – This option is not provided in the question, hence not applicable.

The correct answer is 'Women are not treated as equals'.

Key Points

• A sentence is in active or passive voice depending on whether its verb is in the active or passive voice.
• A verb is in active voice when its form shows that the subject does something or some action.
• A verb is in passive voice when something is done to the subject.
• In passive voice, the doer of the action may appear in the phrase, "by ___". However, in some cases, this phrase (here, by men) is omitted.
• Therefore, the second and the fourth options can be omitted and also the subject-verb agreement in the third option is incorrect.
• The passive format "'are + not + V3 (treated)" is used in the first option.
• This is the active and passive voice rule for the present simple tense.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Additional Information

• Verbs of passive format have a different set of tenses (*V3 - Past participle or Third form of the Verb) as given below in the table:

 

The correct answer is option 1.

Rules of conversion from active to passive voice-

1. Identify the subject, verb, and object. (S+V+O)
2. The subject of the active voice becomes the object of the passive voice and the object of the active voice becomes the subject of the passive voice.
3. Put the suitable helping verb or the auxiliary verb.
4. Change the verb into the past participle of the verb.
5. Add the preposition 'by'.
6. The manner of the tense (indefinite, continuous, perfect, perfect continuous) remains unchanged when we convert from direct to the indirect mode of narration.

Looking at all the options one by one-

• Option 1 is correct as 'been' is used with 'has/had/have'.
• Option 2 is incorrect as 'being' is used with 'is/are/was'.
• Similarly, options 3 and 4 are also incorrect as 'being' and 'been' are incorrectly used.

The correct answer is "RPSQ"

Key Points

• Sentence S1 introduces the concept of unity in diversity as a unique feature of India.
• Sentence R explains that those who fail to see the underlying unity in the apparent diversity of India fail to understand the country properly.
• Sentence P and S advise that in order to understand India properly, one should try to know the mind and spirit of India, the "Indian-ethos," and look for strands of common heritage running through the differences in language, dress, food, and method of worship.
• Sentence Q mentions that Jawaharlal Nehru, India's first prime minister, has referred to this unity very feelingly in his book "The Discovery of India." Sentence S6 recommends reading this book as a way to gain a better understanding of India.
• When these sentences are put in this order, they form a coherent and logical paragraph about the importance of understanding the unity in diversity of India in order to properly understand the country.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Correct paragraph: S1 Unity in diversity is a unique feature of India R Those who do not see this underlying unity in apparent diversity fail to understand this country properly. P They should, therefore, first try to know the mind and spirit of India - the Indian-ethos, so to say. S Then, they will discern strands of common heritage running all through the differences of language, dress, food, method of worship etc. Q Nehru has referred to this unity very feelingly in 'The Discovery of India'. S6 Have you read this book ? If not, you should do so now.

The correct answer is "RPSQ".

Key Points 

• The passage starts with the difficulty of English pronunciation for a foreign learner.
• Sentence R expands on the reason why it's difficult: English is un-phonetic or doesn't strictly follow pronunciation rules.
• Sentence P gives a detailed explanation about what is highlighted in sentence R: words being spelled one way and pronounced in a different way.
• Sentence S further expands the issue, indicating that the same letters can give different sounds in different words.
• Sentence Q provides examples about what is stated in sentence S - how the letter 'u' can be pronounced differently.
• S6 concludes that even if English pronunciation is tricky, knowing Phonetics can drastically aid in learning it.

So, the sequence is RPSQ.

Additional Information 

The correct sequence for the middle four sentences should be:

R: The English language is notoriously un-phonetic. P: Words are spelled in one way and pronounced in another. S: The same letters give different sounds in different words. Q: For instance 'u' has different pronunciations in 'but', 'put', 'build' and 'bury'.

The correct answer is "SPQR"

Key Points

• The correct sequence for the given sentences is SPQR.
• Sentence S1 mentions that there was something about the smile of Mr. Acton that betokened disaster.
• Sentence S describes the interaction between Mr. Acton and Sharma, where the head of the firm came over to Sharma's table, fawned upon him, and said something about bringing something for Sharma from London.
• Sentence P explains that this interaction was flattering for Sharma, as Mr. Acton rarely came down the corridor where the Indian staff worked.
• Sentence Q mentions that Mr. Acton was not known for smiling too much and was generally a morose, hard-working person.
• Sentence R explains that Sharma was unable to surmise the real meaning of Mr. Acton's remark because of the smile on his face.
• When the sentences are put in this order, they form a coherent and logical paragraph about the interaction between Mr. Acton and Sharma and the implications of Mr. Acton's smile.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

Correct paragraph: S1 There was something about the smile of Mr. Acton, when he came over to Sharma's table, which betokened disaster. S But as the Sahib had only said, "Mr. Sharma, I have brought something for you specially from London, you must come into my office on Monday and take it". Sharma could not surmise the real meaning of the General Manager's remark. P The fact that Mr. Acton should come over to his table at all, fawn upon him and say what he had said was, of course, most flattering. Q  For, very rarely did the head of the firm condescend to move down the corridor, where the Indian staff of Henry King and Co., worked. R  But that smile on Mr. Acton's face! S6 Specially, since Mr. Acton was not known to smile too much, being a morose, old Sahib, hard-working and conscientious.

The correct answer is "RPSQ"

Key Points

• Sentence S1 mentions that Arun suddenly found himself in the streets.
• Sentence R explains that at first, he could hardly understand the full significance of this collapse.
• Sentence P mentions that there was a little money in the bank and he had some stock on hand.
• Sentence S describes how the stock moved out slowly.
• Sentence Q explains that the prices were going down and Arun could hardly realize a few hundred rupees from the sale of his stock.
• Sentence S6 mentions that when Arun applied for the refund of his security, there was hardly anyone at the other end to receive his application.
• When the sentences are put in this order, they form a coherent and logical paragraph about Arun's financial situation and the difficulties he faced in trying to sell his stock and get a refund of his security.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Correct paragraph: S1 Arun suddenly found himself in the streets. ​R  At first he could hardly understand the full significance of this collapse. P There was a little money in the bank and he had some stock on hand. S But the stock moved out slowly. Q The prices were going down, and he could hardly realize a few hundred rupees. S6 When he applied for the refund of his security, there was hardly anyone at the other end to receive his application

The correct answer is "SQRP"

Key Points

• Sentence S1 states that we should enable all individuals to live a full, free, rich life.
• Sentence S mentions that certain minimum cultural and economic conditions must be provided for this to happen.
• Sentence Q emphasizes the importance of helping to bring up the "buried treasure" in each individual without breaking any of it.
• Sentence R explains that this is the reason why we have universal education as a target in our Constitution.
• Sentence P notes that we often talk about a socialistic pattern of society.
• Sentence S6 clarifies that this does not mean the regimentation of the individual.
• When the sentences are put in this order, they form a coherent and logical paragraph about the importance of providing the necessary conditions for individuals to live a full and rich life, and the role of education in this process.

Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

Correct paragraph: S1 It follows that we should enable all individuals to live a full, free, rich life. S For this, certain minimum cultural and economic conditions must be provided. Q We must help to bring up the buried treasure in each individual without breaking any of it. R That is why we have universal education as a target In our Constitution. P We talk often of a socialistic pattern of society. S6 This does not mean the regimentation of the individual.

The correct answer is 'QSPR'.

Key Points

• Sentence Q logically follows S1 because it explains why scientific advancement may appear mysterious.
• Sentence S comes next as it elaborates on how scientific achievements suddenly appear in headlines after years of silence.
• Sentence P follows naturally because it explains that the public is unaware of the years of experiments and failures behind such discoveries.
• Sentence R fits after P because the pronoun "he" refers to the layman mentioned earlier, continuing the same idea logically.
• Finally, S6 concludes the passage by describing the layman’s reaction toward science.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Correct Sequence: "Q → S → P → R"

Additional Information

• A coherent paragraph maintains:
• Logical explanation
• Proper reference of pronouns
• Cause-and-effect relationship
• Smooth transition between ideas

The correct answer is: Option 2)

Key Points

• The word "allusion" means an indirect or passing reference. (संकेत)
• Example: His speech made an allusion to the recent economic crisis.
• "Illusion" refers to a false idea or belief, something that deceives by producing a false or misleading impression of reality. (भ्रम)
• Example: She had the illusion that she could win the lottery without buying a ticket.

Therefore, the correct answer is: illusion.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Vision (दृष्टि): The ability to think about or plan the future with imagination or wisdom.
• Example: His vision for the company's future is very promising.
• Hallucination (भ्रम): An experience involving the apparent perception of something not present.
• Example: He suffered from hallucinations due to high fever.
• Unreality (अवास्तविकता): The quality of being imaginary or not real.
• Example: The story was filled with a sense of unreality.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. apology.

Key Points

• The word "mistake" means an action or judgment that is misguided or wrong. (गलती)
• Example: Leaving the door unlocked was a mistake.
• "Apology" refers to a regretful acknowledgment of an offense or failure. (माफी)
• Example: He offered a heartfelt apology for his behavior.
• Hence, the correct word to substitute "a letter of mistake" is "a letter of apology".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. apology.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Circumstance (परिस्थिति): A fact or condition connected with or relevant to an event or action.
• Example: We found ourselves in a difficult circumstance.
• Gratitude (आभार): The quality of being thankful; readiness to show appreciation for and to return kindness.
• Example: She expressed her gratitude to the host for the wonderful evening.

The correct answer is: outdated.

Key Points

• The word "obsolete" means something that is no longer in use or has become out of date due to being replaced by something newer and more efficient. (अप्रचलित)
• Example: Typewriters have become obsolete with the advent of computers.
• "Outdated" refers to something that is old-fashioned or no longer useful because it has been replaced by something newer and more modern. (पुराना)
• Example: The software was outdated and needed to be upgraded to the latest version.
• Hence, we can infer that the word "outdated" is an appropriate substitute for "obsolete".

Therefore, the correct answer is: outdated.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Modern (आधुनिक): Relating to the present or recent times as opposed to the remote past.
• Example: The building features a modern design with sleek lines and large windows.
• Advanced (उन्नत): Far on or ahead in development or progress.
• Example: Advanced technology has enabled us to connect with people across the globe instantaneously.
• Current (वर्तमान): Belonging to the present time; happening or being used or done now.
• Example: The current trend in fashion is leaning towards sustainability.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. privilege.

Key Points

• The word "priviledge" is incorrectly spelled.
• ​"Privilege" refers to a special right, advantage, or immunity granted or available only to a particular person or group. (विशेषाधिकार)
• Example: It was a privilege to meet the finance minister of the country last week.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained:

• Privledge: This is an incorrect spelling and does not have a meaning.
• Previledge: This is another incorrect spelling and does not have a meaning.
• Privilage: This is also an incorrect spelling and does not have a meaning.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The terms "male dog" and "female dog" can be substituted with "dog" and "bitch" respectively for precision and correctness.
• The word "bitch" specifically refers to a female dog, whereas "dog" is generally used for a male dog.
• Using these terms ensures clarity and proper terminology in the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "He is feeding a dog and a bitch."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "a dog and puppy" – This option changes the meaning of the sentence and is incorrect.
• Option 3: "a male dog and lady dog" – The term "lady dog" is not a standard term in English.
• Option 4: "No substitution" – This option is incorrect as the substitution improves clarity and precision.

The correct answer is National Security Guard.

Key Points

• National Security Guard (NSG)
• The NSG is a counter-terrorism unit that formally came into existence in 1986 by an act of Parliament- ‘National Security Guard Act, 1986’.
• The idea behind raising such force came in the aftermath of Operation Blue Star (an Indian military action carried out to remove the militant religious leader from the Golden Temple, Amritsar) in 1984, the Akshardham Temple attack, and the assassination of former PM Indira Gandhi, for ‘combating terrorist activities to protect states against internal disturbances.’
• It operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs and is a task-oriented force that has two complementary elements in the form of:
• Special Action Group (SAG) comprising of the Army personnel- is the main offensive or the strike wing of the NSG, and
• Special Ranger Groups (SRG) comprising of personnel drawn from the Central Armed Police Forces/State Police Forces. They generally handle VIP securities.
• The head of NSG- designated as Director General (DG), is selected and appointed by the Minister of Home Affairs.
• The motto of 'Sarvatra, Sarvottam, Suraksha' has always been upheld by it with a focus on its basic philosophy of swift and speedy strike and immediate withdrawal from the theatre of action. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• National Security Guard has been given the specific role to handle all facets of terrorism in any part of the country as a Federal Contingency Force.
• The NSG is trained to conduct counter-terrorist tasks including counter hijacking tasks on the land, sea, and air; Bomb disposal (search, detection, and neutralization of IEDs), Post Blast Investigation (PBI), and Hostage Rescue missions.
• The NSG personnel is often referred to in the media as Black Cat Commandos because of the black outfit and black cat insignia worn on their uniform.

Additional Information

• ​The BSF
• It was raised in 1965 after the India-Pakistan war.
• It is deployed on Indo-Pakistan International Border, Indo-Bangladesh International Border, Line of Control (LoC) along with the Indian Army, and in Anti-Naxal Operations.
• It has an air wing, marine wing, an artillery regiment, and commando units.
• BSF has been defending Sir Creek in the Arabian Sea and Sundarban delta in the Bay of Bengal with its state-of-the-art fleet of Water Crafts.
• BSF has an instrumental role in helping state administration in maintaining Law and Order and conduct the peaceful election.
• BSF has been crusading against natural calamity to save precious human lives as and when warranted.
• India Air Force
• It is the fourth largest in the world after the USA, China, and Russia.
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• The motto of the IAF is ‘Touch the Sky with Glory’ and it was taken from the eleventh chapter of the Bhagavad Gita.
• The President of India holds the rank of Supreme Commander of the air force.
• The Chief of Air Staff, an air chief marshal is responsible for the operational command of the air force.
• The Sikh Light Infantry
• It is a light infantry regiment of the Indian Army.
• The regiment is the successor unit to the 23^rd, 32^nd, and 34^th Royal Sikh Pioneers of the British Indian Army.
• The regiment recruits from the Sikh community of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana states of India.

The correct answer is Lieutenant Colonel.

Key Points

• Comparative Ranks of all three forces are as follows-

The correct answer is Squadron Leader.

Key Points

• Lieutenant Commander (Indian Navy) is equivalent to Squadron Leader (Indian Air Force) in the tri-service rank equivalence.
• Both ranks are mid-level commissioned officer grades, senior to Lieutenant/Flight Lieutenant and junior to Commander/Wing Commander.
• Typical responsibilities include unit/flight or department leadership, operational planning, training supervision, and staff appointments.
• In the Army, the equivalent rank at this level is Major, completing the Major = Lt Cdr = Sqn Ldr mapping across services.

Additional Information

• Equivalent Rank (Terminology)
• Refers to inter-service parity where officer ranks of the Army, Navy, and Air Force align by seniority, authority, and responsibility.
• At this level: Major (Army) = Lieutenant Commander (Navy) = Squadron Leader (Air Force).
• Lieutenant Commander (Indian Navy)
• Mid-tier commissioned officer, above Lieutenant and below Commander.
• Often heads ship departments, leads specialized teams, or serves in staff/operational roles.
• Squadron Leader (Indian Air Force)
• Commands a flight/section within a squadron or holds key operations, training, or staff responsibilities.
• Bridges junior leadership and senior operational command (next step: Wing Commander).
• Why other options are incorrect
• Flight Lieutenant: One rank junior to Squadron Leader; equivalent to Navy Lieutenant.
• Wing Commander: One rank senior to Squadron Leader; equivalent to Navy Commander.
• Group Captain: Two steps senior to Squadron Leader; equivalent to Navy Captain.

The correct answer is Ayushmann Khurrana.

In News

• Union Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya announced Ayushmann Khurrana as the ‘Fit India Icon’ during the inaugural ceremony of the Fit India Movement in New Delhi.

Key Points

• Ayushmann Khurrana has been officially named the ‘Fit India Icon’, recognizing his influence to promote fitness.
• He will champion fitness and mental well-being, urging citizens to adopt an active lifestyle.
• The actor has joined hands with the Fit India Movement, aligning with its national mission to inspire healthier living.
• At 40 years of age, his celebrity reach is expected to motivate youth participation in fitness initiatives.

Additional Information

• Fit India Movement: A nationwide campaign launched by the Prime Minister on August 29, 2019 to foster a culture of fitness and healthy living.
• Objectives: Encourage healthier lifestyles, promote simple daily physical activity, and make fitness accessible to all.
• Activities: Conducts awareness campaigns, fitness challenges, and community events emphasizing physical and mental well-being.
• ‘Fit India Icon’: A public figure designated to amplify messaging, drive youth engagement, and increase participation in the campaign.
• Union Sports Minister: The minister responsible for national sports and fitness initiatives; per the summary, Mansukh Mandaviya made the announcement.
• Inaugural Ceremony (New Delhi): The ceremonial launch setting the tone for long-term participation and outreach under the movement.

The Correct Answer is ​Opal Suchata Chuangsri.

In News

• Thailand’s Opal Suchata Wins 72^nd Miss World Title.

Key Points

• Miss Thailand Opal Suchata Chuangsri was crowned Miss World 2025.
• The 72^nd Miss World Pageant was held in Hyderabad, India.
• She was crowned by Miss World 2024 Krystyna Pyszková.
• This is Thailand’s first-ever win at the Miss World pageant.
• The Runner-up title went to Hasset of Ethiopia.
• India has won the Miss World title 6 times.
• The last Indian winner was Manushi Chhillar in 2017.

The Correct Answer is It is associated with a single eye.

 

Key Points

• Tropical cyclones are associated with a single eye.
• The tropical cyclone forms in middle or high thermal origin, exclusively over the tropical seas.
• The development of the cyclone over the tropical region lying between the tropic of cancer to Capricorn is called a Tropical Cyclones.
• Generally, tropical cyclones are formed along the zone of the confluence of south-east and north-east trade winds.
• Tropical cyclone becomes more vigorous and moves with high velocity over the ocean but over land, it becomes feeble as it reaches an interior portion of the continents.
• It is not generated near the equator as the Coriolis force is negligible at the equator.

The correct answer is Assam Rifles.

Key Points

• Operation Dudhi (May 1991) was conducted by a small team of Assam Rifles personnel in Jammu & Kashmir.
• The column of 15, led by Nb Sub Padam Bahadur Chhetri, engaged a large militant group near the Dudhi post.
• The operation neutralized 72 militants and captured 13, making it one of India’s most successful CI missions.
• Assam Rifles later commemorated the heroes of the mission, underscoring its historic significance.

Additional Information

• Assam Rifles
• India’s oldest paramilitary force, under operational control of the Indian Army and administrative control of the MHA; widely deployed in CI/CT roles. :contentReference[oaicite:4]{index=4}
• In Operation Dudhi, a 15-member team led by Nb Sub Padam Bahadur Chhetri executed the action from 7 Assam Rifles. :contentReference[oaicite:5]{index=5}
• Operation Dudhi (1991)
• Dates referenced: patrol set out on May 3, 1991; firefight peaked around May 5–6, 1991.
• Outcome: 72 militants killed, 13 captured, and a large cache of AK-series weapons seized (about 118 firearms reported).
• Recognitions: team members received gallantry awards; the operation is frequently cited as a benchmark CI success.
• Counter-Insurgency (CI)
• Operations undertaken to detect, disrupt, and dismantle armed insurgent groups through intelligence-led, small-team tactics and area domination.
• Emphasizes minimal collateral damage, precision engagements, and follow-on stabilization measures.

The correct answer is Achieving Gender Equality, Action by Action.

In News

• The theme for the International Day of Parliamentarism 2025 is “Achieving Gender Equality, Action by Action”
• The theme focuses on enhancing women’s participation in legislative bodies worldwide.
• This theme underscores the importance of gender equality in political decision-making processes.

Key Points

• The theme for 2025 emphasizes gender equality and women's increased participation in parliaments globally.
• The day highlights parliaments’ role in upholding democratic values such as accountability and human rights.
• The International Day of Parliamentarism provides a platform for reviewing the progress of parliaments on modern democratic standards.
• The day also marks the anniversary of the founding of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) on June 30, 1889.

Additional Information

• Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU)
• Founded on June 30, 1889, in Paris, France
• The world's first political multilateral organization
• Promotes democracy, peace, and sustainable development globally
• Gender Equality in Politics
• Increasing female representation in legislatures is a global priority
• Encourages the establishment of policies that promote equal participation
• UN’s Role in Gender Equality
• The United Nations plays a crucial role in advocating for women's rights and gender equality
• Various UN bodies focus on gender equality in political participation, leadership, and policymaking

The correct answer is ​Australia - Whirlpool.

Key Points

• Cyclones:
• Cyclones are rapid inward air circulation around a low-pressure area.
• The air circulates in an anticlockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere.
• Cyclones are usually accompanied by violent storms and bad weather.
• The word Cyclone is derived from the Greek word Cyclos meaning the coils of a snake.
• It was coined by Henry Paddington because the tropical storms in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea appear like coiled serpents of the sea.
• There are two types of cyclones:
• Tropical cyclones
• Extra-Tropical cyclones (also called Temperate cyclones or middle-latitude cyclones or Frontal cyclones or Wave Cyclones).
• In Australia, Cyclones are called willy-willy.
• In America, It was called a Hurricane.
• In China, It was called a Typhoon.

The correct answer is Great Nicobar Island.

Key Points

• Great Nicobar Island lies in the southernmost part of India’s territory, making it the closest island to the Equator within the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.
• Its southern tip, Indira Point, is around 6°45′ N latitude, substantially nearer to the Equator than other islands in the chain.
• At roughly 6.75 degrees north, the island is about 750 km from the Equator (1 degree ≈ 111 km), underscoring its equatorial proximity.
• Relative positions: Car Nicobar (~9°N), Little Andaman (~10.7°N), and North Andaman (~13°N) all lie farther north than Great Nicobar.

Additional Information

• Andaman vs Nicobar Groups
• The archipelago is divided by the 10° Channel: Andaman Islands to the north, Nicobar Islands to the south.
• Nicobar Islands are closer to the Equator; hence their climate is more uniformly tropical and humid.
• Indira Point
• The southernmost tip of India located on Great Nicobar Island.
• Serves as a geographical reference for India’s southern maritime limits in the Bay of Bengal–Andaman Sea region.
• Latitude and Distance
• Latitude measures angular distance north or south of the Equator.
• Approximate conversion used in geography: 1° latitude ≈ 111 km, enabling quick estimates of equatorial proximity.
• Why Other Options Are Incorrect
• Car Nicobar Island: Around 9°N, farther from the Equator than Great Nicobar.
• Little Andaman Island: Near 10.7°N, significantly north of Great Nicobar.
• North Andaman Island: Near 13°N, the farthest north among the given options.

The correct answer is Abhinav Bharat Society.

Key Points

• Abhinav Bharat Society was a secret society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in 1904.
• The society was initially named Mitra Mela before being renamed to Abhinav Bharat Society in 1906.
• It aimed at promoting revolutionary activities to overthrow British rule in India through armed rebellion.
• The society played a significant role in the Indian independence movement, inspiring many young revolutionaries.

Additional Information

• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, commonly known as Veer Savarkar, was an Indian independence activist, politician, lawyer, writer, and the formulator of the Hindutva philosophy.
• He was born on May 28, 1883, in Bhagur, a village near Nashik in Maharashtra.
• He was a prominent figure in the Indian independence movement and was known for his radical views and activities against British rule.
• He was arrested in 1909 by the British authorities for his involvement in revolutionary activities and sentenced to life imprisonment in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Jugantar
• Jugantar was a Bengali revolutionary organization that operated in the early 20^th century against British rule.
• It was a part of the larger Anushilan Samiti and was involved in various revolutionary activities, including armed attacks and bombings.
• Indian Independence League
• The Indian Independence League was a political organization formed in 1927 in India and overseas to organize and promote the Indian independence movement.
• It played a crucial role during World War II in collaboration with the Indian National Army (INA) led by Subhas Chandra Bose.
• Free India Society
• The Free India Society was an organization formed by Indian students in England in the early 20^th century to promote the cause of Indian independence.
• It was associated with prominent Indian leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai, Mahatma Gandhi, and V. D. Savarkar.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

• A consumer price index (CPI) measures changes in the price level of a market basket of consumer goods and services purchased by households.
• The CPI is a statistical estimate constructed using the prices of a sample of representative items whose prices are collected periodically.
• Wholesale Price Index (WPI) represents the price of goods at a wholesale stage i.e. goods that are sold in bulk and traded between organizations instead of consumers.
• WPI is used as a measure of inflation in some economies.
• It does not include services. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Additional Information

• Wholesale Price Index WPI
• It is the most widely used inflation indicator in India.
• Published by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• All transactions at the first point of bulk sale in the domestic market are included.
• Major criticism for this index is that the general public does not buy products at wholesale price.
• The base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in 2017.
• Consumer Price Index CPI
• It measures price changes from the perspective of a retail buyer.
• It measures changes over time in the level of retail prices of selected goods and services on which consumers of a defined group spend their incomes.
• Four types of CPI are as follows:
• CPI for Industrial Workers (IW).
• CPI for Agricultural Labourer (AL).
• CPI for Rural Labourer (RL).
• CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined).
• Of these, the first three are compiled by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour and Employment. Fourth is compiled by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

Base Year for CPI is 2012.

CPI vs. WPI

• WPI, tracks inflation at the producer level and CPI captures changes in prices levels at the consumer level.
• Both baskets measure inflationary trends (the movement of price signals) within the broader economy, the two indices differ in which weightages are assigned to food, fuel and manufactured items.
• WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
• In April 2014, the RBI had adopted the CPI as its key measure of inflation.

The correct answer is Dhruv.

• The Advanced Light Helicopter designed and developed by HAL is also known as Dhruv.

Key Points

• Hal Dhruv:
• It is an Advanced Light Helicopter designed and developed by HAL.
• The helicopter entered into service in 2002.
• The helicopter is so designed to meet the requirement of both military and civil operators.
• It is primarily being used by the Indian Army, Indian Air Force and Indian Navy.

 

Additional Information

• HAL Tejas is an indigenously developed multi-role light fighter aircraft.
• HAL Chetak is a Light Utility Helicopter.
• HAL Rudra is an armed version of HAL Dhruv.

The correct answer is Lausanne.

Key Points

• The Olympic Museum was opened in 1993 in Ouchy, a district of Lausanne.
• It reflects the spirit of the sports games which bring nations together.
• The museum is the largest information center on the subject of the Olympic Games in the world.

• Ancient Olympic Games were started in 776 BC at Olympia city of Greece.
• Olympic was first played in The Honour of Greek God Zeus.
• Modern Olympic games started in 1894 by the efforts of Baron Pierre de Coubertin from France.
• International Olympic Committee was established on 23^rd June 1894 in Saxon, Switzerland.
• The Olympic flag was proposed in 1913, officially inaugurated in 1914 in Paris, and was hoist in 1920 at the Antwerp Olympic Games.

The correct answer is The Comptroller and Auditor General of India shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Key Points

• Chapter 5 of Part 5 of the Constitution describes the Comptroller and Auditor General.

• After independence, Article 148 of the Indian Constitution provided for the appointment of a Comptroller and Auditor General by the President of India.

• Article 148-151 deals with the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

• He will be removed in the same way that a Supreme Court judge is removed.

• ​Process: Based on the resolution passed by a special majority of both houses.

• Proven malpractice and incapability

• Tenure: 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.

• He submits its resignation to President.

• Not eligible for re-appointment.

• The Office of the Accountant General was established in the year 1858, the same year when the British took administrative control of India from the East India Company.

• Sir Edward Drummond was appointed as the first Auditor-General in 1860.

• In the year 1866, the post was renamed as Comptroller and Auditor General and in the year 1884, it was re-designated as Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

• The Auditor-General was relieved of government control under the Government of India Act, 1919 as the post was given statutory status.

• The Government of India Act, 1935 gave further power to the post of Auditor General by making provisions for Provincial Auditors in the federal structure.

• The salary and service conditions of CAG will be decided by the law of Parliament.

• The constitution does not mention the eligibility, tenure, salary, service conditions, and duties and powers of the CAG.

• The Parliament has the right to decide these through legislation.

• Act of 1971 has been made in this regard.

• The Central Government passed the CAG (Duties, Powers, Conditions of Service) Act 1971.

• Under this Act, the CAG is entrusted with the responsibility of both accounting and auditors for the Central and State Governments.

• Amended the Act in 1976 and freed the CAG from accounting-related obligations and limited its functions to audit only.​

Additional Information

• P Narhari Rao was the first CAG of India.
• The present CAG of India is Girish Chandra Murmu.

The correct answer is option 3 i.e Rowing.

Key Points

• Regatta:
• The regatta is nothing but a boat race.
• Any race with boats, be it rowing boats, motorboats, paddleboard, etc is termed as Regatta.
• The Admiral's Cup Sailing Regatta is a trophy associated with Regatta sport.

 

The Correct Answer is Baht.

• The Currency of Thailand is Thai Baht.

Key Points

• The baht is the official currency of Thailand.
• It is divided into 100 satangs.
• The issuance of currency is the responsibility of the Bank of Thailand.
• According to Bloomberg, the Thai baht was the world's best-performing currency in 2018.
• The Mesopotamian shekel is the first known form of currency which emerged nearly 5,000 years ago.
• The earliest known mints date to 650 B.C. and 600 B.C.

Additional Information

• The Indian Rupee is the official currency of India.
• The word rupee has been derived from the Sanskrit word 'Rupayakam'.
• The Renminbi is the official currency of China and one of the world's reserve currencies.
• The Yuan is the basic unit of the renminbi.
• The yen is the official currency of Japan.
• It is the third most traded currency in the foreign exchange market
• The first Indian coins were coined in the 6^th Century BC by the Mahajanpadas known as Puranas, Karshapanas or Panas.
• In the 18^th Century, the Bank of Hindostan, General Bank in Bengal and the Bengal Bank became the first banks in India to issue paper currency.
• The Reserve Bank of India was set up in 1935 and empowered to issue Government of India notes.

Earthquake: 

• An earthquake (also known as a quake, tremor, or temblor) is the shaking of the surface of the Earth resulting from a sudden release of energy in the Earth's lithosphere that creates seismic waves
• There are two types of earthquake, 
• Body wave: 'P' wave and 'S' wave
• Surface wave: 'L' wave and 'R' wave

The Indian Constitution, the longest of any sovereign nation in the world, provides a comprehensive framework to guide and govern the country, keeping in view its social, cultural, and religious diversity.

Important Points

• The constitution contained 395 articles divided into 22 parts and 12 schedules.
• Indian Constitution originally had eight schedules. Four more schedules were added by different amendments, now making a total tally of twelve.
• Presently, there are 448 articles in the Indian Constitution.
• Each set of articles covers important parts of the Constitution including, Legislatures, Executive, Schedules, Parts of Indian Constitution, Constitutional Bodies, Statutory Bodies, Fundamental Rights, and more.

Thus, we can say that 395 Articles and 12 Schedules are there in the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is European Union.

• The Global Climate Change Alliance is an initiative of the European Union.

Key Points

• The Global Climate Change Alliance​:
• The objective of the initiative is to build a new alliance on climate change between the European Union and the poor developing countries that are most affected and that have the least capacity to deal with climate change.
• It was created in 2007.
• After the Paris Agreement on Climate Change in 2015, the GCCA became the GCCA+ initiative and has expanded to include middle-income countries and supporting the implementation of Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
• The eight sectors in which GCCA/GCCA+ operates are:
• Agriculture and food security which includes fisheries.
• Economic development and tourism
• Education and research
• Environment and natural resources which includes forestry.
• Water and sanitation
• Disaster risk reduction DRR
• Energy
• Infrastructure, transport, waste management, and information and communication technology (ICT).

Additional Information

Some of the World organizations:

The correct answer is Lala Hardayal.

Key Points

• The Ghadar Party, initially the Pacific Coast Hindustan Association, was formed in 1913 in the United States under the leadership of Lala Har Dayal, Sant Baba Wasakha Singh Dadehar, Baba Jawala Singh, Santokh Singh, and Sohan Singh Bhakna as its president.
• The members of the party were Indian immigrants, largely from Punjab.

Additional Information

• In 1904, V.D. Savarkar had organized the Abhinava Bharat, a secret society of revolutionaries.
• After the partition of Bengal, several developments came to fore by the revolutionary leaders, Abhinav Bharat was one of the beginnings in this direction.
• Other major initiatives were adopted like several newspapers had begun to advocate revolutionary terrorism, The Sandhya and the Yugantar in Bengal and the Kal in Maharashtra were the most prominent among them.
• Rash Bihari Bose founded another Indian Independence League in 1942 at Tokyo, Japan to remove the colonial rule of Britishers.
• In 1909, Colonel William Curzon Wyllie was shot dead by Madan Lal Dhingra.

The correct answer is Ramanujacharya.

• The first Bhakti Movement was organised by Ramanujacharya.

Key Points

• Bhakti movement 
• The Bhakti Movement originated in the seventh century in Tamil, South India (now parts of Tamil Nadu and Kerala), and spread northwards.
• It swept over east and north India from the 15^th century onwards reached its peak between the 15^th and 17^th centuries CE.
• The first Bhakti Movement was organised by Ramanujacharya.​
• ​He was an exponent of the Vishitadvaita philosophy.
• Founders of the Bhakti Movement in different parts of the country:

Additional Information

• Guru Nanak was the founder of the Sikh faith in India.
• He named the formless God as Akal Purush.
• His teachings are compiled in Adi‑Granth.
• Meerabai was a contributor to the Bhakti movement by her music.
• Ramdas was an exponent of Bhakti Yoga in the Bhakti movement.