AFCAT 02/2025: (23 August 2025 Shift 2) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

A retail fruit vendor buys a score of apples for ₹400 and retails them for ₹264 at a dozen. (a score = 20 no’s)

Concept:

To find the profit or loss percentage, we need to compare the cost price (CP) and selling price (SP) of the apples.

Formula Used:

Profit or Loss Percentage = [(SP - CP) / CP] × 100

Calculation:

We have,

⇒ Cost Price (CP) of 20 apples = ₹400

⇒ Selling Price (SP) of 1 dozen (12) apples = ₹264

⇒ Selling Price (SP) of 1 apple = ₹264 / 12 = ₹22

⇒ Selling Price (SP) of 20 apples = ₹22 × 20 = ₹440

⇒ Profit = SP - CP = ₹440 - ₹400 = ₹40

⇒ Profit Percentage = (Profit / CP) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = (₹40 / ₹400) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 10%

∴ The vendor makes a 10% profit.

Given:

Total time is taken whole journey = 10 hrs.

The speed at whole journey = 48 km per hr.

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Times 

Distance = 48 × 10 = 480 kms

Now, this distance of 480 km is to be covered in 8 hours. Hence, the required speed

⇒ 480/8 = 60 km pe hr

Increased speed = 60 - 48 = 12 km/h

∴ The speed of the car must be increased by 12 km/h

Given:

Radius of circle (r) = 7 cm

Formula used:

Circumference of circle = 2πr

Circumference = Perimeter of square = 4 × side of square

Calculation:

Circumference = 2πr

⇒ 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 = 44 cm

Perimeter of square = 44 cm

⇒ 4 × side of square = 44

⇒ Side of square = \(\frac{44}{4}\)

⇒ Side of square = 11 cm

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Given:

Volume of the tank = 256 litres

Depth = half of the length

Breath = 1/4 of the difference between length and depth

Formula used:

Volume of a cuboid = Length × Breadth × Depth

Calculation:

Let the length of the tank be 'L'.

Then, depth = L / 2

And, breadth = 1/4 × (L - L / 2) = 1/4 × (L / 2) = L / 8

Now, we use the volume formula:

Volume = L × (L / 8) × (L / 2)

256 = (L³) / 16

⇒ L³ = 256 × 16

⇒ L³ = 4096

⇒ L = ∛4096

⇒ L = 16 cm

∴ The length of the tank is 16 cm.

Given:

Difference between compound interest (CI) and simple interest (SI) for 1 year = Rs. 30

Compounded half-yearly

Rate of interest = 8% per annum

Formula used:

CI_halfyearly = P(1 + r/2)² - P

SI = P × r × t

Calculation:

The compound interest for half-yearly compounding:

r/2 = 8/2 = 4% = 0.04 and Time, t = 1 year (which is 2 half-year periods)

CIhalfyearly = P(1 + 0.04)² - P

⇒ P(1.04)² - P

⇒  P(1.0816) - P

⇒ P(1.0816 - 1) = P(0.0816)

Calculate the simple interest:

r = 8% = 0.08 and Time, t = 1 year

⇒ SI = P × 0.08 × 1

⇒ SI = 0.08P

Now, CI - SI = Rs. 30 

⇒ P(0.0816) - 0.08P = 30

⇒ P(0.0016) = 30

⇒ P = 30/0.0016 = Rs. 18750

∴ Option (3) is the correct answer.

Given:

a + b = 40

a² + b² = 116

Formula used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² + b² - ab)

Calculation:

First, we find the value of ab using the formula (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

⇒ 40² = 116 + 2ab

⇒ 1600 = 116 + 2ab

⇒ 1600 - 116 = 2ab

⇒ 1484 = 2ab

⇒ ab = 742

Now, we find the value of a³ + b³ using the formula a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² + b² - ab)

⇒ a³ + b³ = (40)(116 - 742)

⇒ a³ + b³ = 40 × (-626)

⇒ a³ + b³ = -25040

∴ The value of a³ + b³ is -25040.

Given:

A is 50% more efficient than B

(A + B) can do work in = 20 days

Formula used:

Efficiency ∝ Work rate

Work = Efficiency × Days

B’s days = Total Work ÷ B’s Efficiency

Calculation:

Let B’s efficiency = 2

⇒ A’s efficiency = 3

Total efficiency = 3 + 2 = 5 units/day

Total work = 5 × 20 = 100 units

B’s efficiency = 2 units/day

⇒ B’s days = 100 ÷ 2 = 50

∴ B alone can complete the work in 50 days.

Given:

A candidate was asked to multiply a number by 25 but mistakenly multiplied it by 52. Their answer was 324 more than the expected answer.

Formula used:

Difference in results = (Actual multiplier - Expected multiplier) × Number

Calculation:

324 = (52 - 25) × Number

⇒ 324 = 27 × Number

⇒ Number = 324 ÷ 27

⇒ Number = 12

Therefore, the number the candidate was asked to multiply was 12.

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

x : y = 12 : 5

z : y = 21 : 16

Formula used:

To find the ratio of x : z, we will make the value of y common in both ratios by finding the Least Common Multiple (LCM).

Calculations:

LCM of the y-values (5 and 16) is 80.

First ratio: x : y = 12 : 5

To make the y-value 80, multiply both terms by 16 (since 80/5 = 16).

x : y = (12 x 16) : (5 x 16)

⇒ x : y = 192 : 80

Second ratio: z : y = 21 : 16

To make the y-value 80, multiply both terms by 5 (since 80/16 = 5).

z : y = (21 x 5) : (16 x 5)

⇒ z : y = 105 : 80

Now, we can find the ratio of x : z from the adjusted ratios:

⇒ x : z = 192 : 105

To simplify, divide both terms by their Greatest Common Divisor (GCD), which is 3.

⇒ x : z = (192 / 3) : (105 / 3)

⇒ x : z = 64 : 35

∴ The value of x : z is 64 : 35.

Given:

Ratio of ages of father and son = 7 : 3

Product of their ages = 756

Formula used:

Age of father = 7x

Age of son = 3x

Calculation:

According to the given condition, we can set up an equation:

(7x) × (3x) = 756

⇒ 21x² = 756

⇒ x² = 756 ÷ 21

⇒ x² = 36

⇒ x = 6

Now, we find their current ages:

Father's current age = 7x = 7 × 6 = 42 years

Son's current age = 3x = 3 × 6 = 18 years

Next, we find their ages after 6 years:

Father's age after 6 years = 42 + 6 = 48 years

Son's age after 6 years = 18 + 6 = 24 years

Finally, we find the ratio of their ages after 6 years:

Ratio = 48 : 24

⇒ Ratio = 2 : 1

∴ The ratio of the ages of the father and the son after 6 years will be 2 : 1.

Given:

48 - 3 [ 5 + 8 { 4 - 4 (9 - 2) + 6} - 12] ÷ 3

Formula used:

Follow BODMAS 

Calculation:

48 - 3 [ 5 + 8 { 4 - 4 (9 - 2) + 6} - 12] ÷ 3

First, solve the innermost bracket (9 - 2):

⇒ 48 - 3 [ 5 + 8 { 4 - 4 × 7 + 6} - 12] ÷ 3

Next, solve the multiplication inside the curly braces { }:

⇒ 48 - 3 [ 5 + 8 { 4 - 28 + 6} - 12] ÷ 3

Now, solve the addition and subtraction inside the curly braces { } from left to right:

⇒ 48 - 3 [ 5 + 8 { -24 + 6} - 12] ÷ 3

⇒ 48 - 3 [ 5 + 8 { -18} - 12] ÷ 3

Then, solve the multiplication inside the square bracket [ ]:

⇒ 48 - 3 [ 5 + (-144) - 12] ÷ 3

⇒ 48 - 3 [ 5 - 144 - 12] ÷ 3

⇒ 48 - 3 [ -139 - 12] ÷ 3

⇒ 48 - 3 [ -151] ÷ 3

⇒ 48 - (-453) ÷ 3

⇒ 48 - (-151)

⇒ 48 + 151

⇒ 199

∴ The simplified value is 199.

Given:

A positive number is decreased by 4, and it is equal to 21 times the reciprocal of the number.

Formula used:

Let the number be x.

According to the question:

x - 4 = 21 × 1/x

Calculation:

⇒ x - 4 = 21/x

⇒ x(x - 4) = 21

⇒ x² - 4x = 21

⇒ x² - 4x - 21 = 0

Factorize the quadratic equation:

⇒ x² - 7x + 3x - 21 = 0

⇒ x(x - 7) + 3(x - 7) = 0

⇒ (x - 7)(x + 3) = 0

The roots are x = 7 and x = -3.

Since the problem states it's a positive number, we take the positive value.

⇒ x = 7

∴ The number is 7.

Given:

x is inversely proportional to y

y = 14, x = 8

Find x when y = 28

Formula used:

x × y = k (constant)

Calculation:

k = x × y

⇒ k = 8 × 14

⇒ k = 112

When y = 28:

⇒ x × y = k

⇒ x × 28 = 112

⇒ x = 112 ÷ 28

⇒ x = 4

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

A number is increased by 30% and then decreased by 30%. Finally, the number changes.

Formula used:

Final value = Initial value × (1 + Increase%) × (1 - Decrease%)

Calculation:

Let the initial number = 100

After 30% increase:

⇒ 100 × (1 + 30/100) = 100 × 1.3 = 130

After 30% decrease:

⇒ 130 × (1 - 30/100) = 130 × 0.7 = 91

Change in number:

⇒ 100 - 91 = 9

Percentage decrease:

⇒ (9/100) × 100 = 9%

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Shortcut Trick

The third proportional of two numbers a and b is given by b² ÷ a.

For finding it quickly, calculate the multiplier between the first and second term.

Multiplier = 0.52 ÷ 0.13 = 4

Third proportional = Second term × Multiplier = 0.52 × 4 = 2.08

∴ The correct answer is 2.08.

Alternate Method

Continuous Proportion: a : b :: b : x

0.13

:

0.52

::

0.52

:

x

× 4

× 4

Given:

First number (a) = 0.13

Second number (b) = 0.52

Formula Used:

If three terms a, b, and c are in continuous proportion, then a : b = b : c.

⇒ a ÷ b = b ÷ c

⇒ c = b² ÷ a

Calculations:

⇒ c = (0.52 × 0.52) ÷ 0.13

⇒ c = 0.52 × (0.52 ÷ 0.13)

⇒ c = 0.52 × 4

⇒ c = 2.08

∴ The correct answer is 2.08.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two given numbers a and b is √(a × b). It acts as the geometric mean.

Fourth Proportional

For three separate numbers a, b, and c, the fourth proportional x satisfies a : b :: c :

x. It is calculated using the formula x = (b × c) ÷ a.

Compound Ratio

When two or more ratios are combined by multiplying their corresponding antecedents and consequents term by term, it creates a compound ratio. For a : b and c : d, it is ac : bd.

Given:

The ratio of males and females of a village is 5 : 3.

Number of males in the village = 800

Formula used:

Females = (Females Ratio / Males Ratio) × Number of Males

Calculation:

Females = (3/5) × 800

⇒ Females = 3 × 160

⇒ Females = 480

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Alloy 1, Zinc(Z) : Copper(C) : Lead(L) = 2 : 3 : 1

Alloy 2, Zinc : Copper : Lead = 5 : 4 : 3

Concept used:

To find the proportion of Zinc, Copper, and Lead in the third alloy, which is formed by mixing equal quantities of the first two alloys.

Calculation:

According to the question,

Alloy 3 = Alloy 1 +  Alloy 2

In Alloy 3,

Z : C : L = (4 + 5) : (6 + 4) : (2 + 3) = 9 : 10 : 5

 ∴ The third alloy contains lead, copper and zinc in the ratio 5 : 10 : 9.

Given:

Selling Price of the watch = Rs. 212568

Two successive discounts = 15% and 20%

Formula Used:

Marked Price = Selling Price / [(1 - Discount1) × (1 - Discount2)]

Calculation:

Discount1 = 15% = 0.15

Discount2 = 20% = 0.20

Marked Price = 212568 / [(1 - 0.15) × (1 - 0.20)]

Marked Price = 212568 / [0.85 × 0.80]

⇒ Marked Price = 212568 / 0.68

⇒ Marked Price = 312600

The marked price of the watch is Rs. 312600.

Given:

Fractions: (11)/(12), (12)/(13), (13)/(14), (14)/(15)

Formula used:

Compare the fractions directly by finding their decimal values.

Calculation:

(11)/(12) = 11 ÷ 12 = 0.9167

(12)/(13) = 12 ÷ 13 = 0.9231

(13)/(14) = 13 ÷ 14 = 0.9286

(14)/(15) = 14 ÷ 15 = 0.9333

⇒ Largest fraction = (14)/(15)

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Given:

The speed of a boat in still water is 25 km/h.

The speed of the stream is 3 km/h.

Concept used:

Time = Distance/speed

Upstream = Speed of the object - Speed of the stream

Downstream = Speed of the object + Speed of the stream

Calculation:

Upstream speed = 25 - 3

⇒ 22 km/h

Downstream speed = 25 + 3

⇒ 28 km/h

Now,

x = (112/28) + (44/22)

⇒ x = 6

y = (112/22) + (44/28)

⇒ y = 513/77

Now,

x + y = 6 + 513/77

⇒ (6 + 513)/77

⇒ (975)/77

∴ The value of x + y in hours is \(\frac{975}{77}\).

The correct answer is United Arab Emirates (UAE).

In News

• Exercise Desert Flag-10 is being hosted by the United Arab Emirates (UAE) Air Force, with participation from various countries, including the Indian Air Force.
• The exercise aims to undertake complex fighter engagements and exchange operational knowledge with several capable air forces from around the world.

Key Points

• Exercise Desert Flag-10 will continue till the 8^th of the next month and involves the air forces of Australia, Bahrain, France, Germany, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Republic of Korea, Turkey, UAE, United Kingdom, and the United States of America, in addition to India.
• The exercise focuses on fighter engagements, operational knowledge exchange, and the sharing of best practices among some of the most capable air forces globally.

Additional Information

• Exercise Desert Flag-10
• A multinational air exercise aimed at enhancing combat readiness and improving interoperability between different air forces.
• Indian Air Force (IAF)
• The IAF is participating in this exercise alongside several other air forces, showcasing India's air combat capabilities and enhancing operational cooperation with global partners.

The correct answer is Option 1 - Only (A) is correct.

Key Points

• International Days are indeed designated by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA), which is the main deliberative organ of the UN.
• The purpose of designating International Days is to raise awareness about global issues and mobilize efforts to address them.
• Examples of International Days include the International Day of Peace (September 21) and the International Women's Day (March 8).
• Statement (B) is incorrect because any UN Member State, not just the permanent members of the Security Council, can propose the designation of an International Day.
• The process involves submitting a draft resolution to the UNGA, where it is debated and adopted by all member states.

Additional Information

• United Nations General Assembly (UNGA):
• The UNGA is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations and comprises all 193 Member States of the UN.
• It serves as the main platform for multilateral discussion on a wide range of international issues covered by the UN Charter.
• Process of Designation:
• Any member state or group of states can propose a draft resolution for an International Day.
• The resolution is debated in relevant committees before being submitted for a vote in the General Assembly.
• Permanent Members of the UN Security Council:
• The five permanent members are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
• They hold veto power in the Security Council but do not have exclusive privileges for proposing International Days.
• UN Observances:
• UN observances are a tool to educate the public, advocate for policy changes, and celebrate achievements.
• For example, the World Environment Day (June 5) raises awareness about environmental challenges.

The Correct Answer is ​Six teams.

In News

• LA 2028: Cricket to feature six teams each in men’s & women’s events.

Key Points

• Cricket in LA 2028: Cricket will be played in the T20 format at the Los Angeles 2028 Olympic Games.
• Men’s and Women’s Tournaments: There will be six teams competing in both the Men’s and Women’s tournaments.
• Athlete Quotas: A total of 90 athlete quotas have been allocated for each gender, allowing each team to field a 15-member squad.
• New Sports at LA 2028: Cricket is one of the five new sports included in the 2028 Olympics.
• Other new sports include baseball/softball, flag football, lacrosse (sixes), and squash.
• Approval: The event programme and athlete quotas were approved by the Executive Board of the International Olympic Committee (IOC).

The correct answer is Kumram Bheem Conservation Reserve.

In News

• Telangana government notified the tiger corridor connecting Kawal Tiger Reserve with Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve as Kumram Bheem Conservation Reserve in May 2025.

Key Points

• Location: The reserve covers 1492.88 sq km across Asifabad and Kagaznagar divisions in Kumram Bheem Asifabad district, Telangana.
• Wildlife Protection Act: The notification is under the provisions of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, ensuring legal protection.
• Corridor Connectivity: It connects Kawal Tiger Reserve in Telangana with Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra, facilitating tiger movement.
• Geographical Scope: Encompasses multiple mandals and 78 reserve forest blocks including Garlapet, Manikgarh, Bejjur, and others.

Additional Information

• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: A key legislation in India aimed at protecting wildlife and their habitats through legal frameworks.
• Tiger Corridors: Essential for genetic diversity and movement of tigers between fragmented habitats, reducing human-wildlife conflict.
• Kawal Tiger Reserve: A significant tiger habitat in Telangana, known for its rich biodiversity.
• Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve: One of Maharashtra's largest and oldest tiger reserves, playing a vital role in tiger conservation.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Cripps Mission (1942):
• Headed by Sir Stafford Cripps, this British initiative aimed to secure Indian cooperation during WWII by promising Dominion Status after the war. It was rejected by Indian leaders, especially the Congress.
• Royal Indian Navy Mutiny (1946):
• A spontaneous uprising by Indian naval ratings in Bombay and other ports protesting racial discrimination, food shortages, and colonial policies. It was one of the last major acts of defiance before independence.
• Mountbatten Plan (1947):
• Also known as the 3^rd June Plan, it laid the roadmap for Indian independence and Partition. It was implemented through the Indian Independence Act of 1947.

Additional Information

• The Cripps Mission's failure directly led to the launch of the Quit India Movement.
• The RIN Mutiny, though lacking political backing, reflected the growing nationalist unrest within the armed forces.
• The Mountbatten Plan marked the formal beginning of the end of British rule in India.

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Not correctly matched.

Key PointsExplanation of each

Statement:

• Statement I: Yakshagana - Rajasthan

This is incorrect. Yakshagana is a traditional folk dance and theatre form of Karnataka, not Rajasthan. It is performed with a combination of dance, music, dialogue, and colorful costumes.

• Statement II: Kaikottikal – Kerala

This is correct. Kaikottikal is a folk dance of Kerala, usually performed during temple festivals. It involves clapping and rhythmic movements, typically by women.

• Statement III: Koli – Maharashtra

This is correct. Koli is a traditional dance of the Koli fishermen community, predominantly performed in Maharashtra. It is an energetic dance performed by women to the rhythm of traditional drums.

• Statement IV: Himachali – Kullu Valley

This is correct. Himachali folk dances are traditional to Himachal Pradesh, and the Kullu Valley is known for its distinct folk dances, including the famous Kullu Nati.

The Correct Answer is T Rabi Sankar.

In News

• RBI's T Rabi Sankar joins 16^th Finance Commission as part-time member.

Key Points

• T Rabi Sankar, Deputy Governor of RBI, has been appointed as a part-time member of the 16^th Finance Commission (XVIFC).
• He replaces Ajay Narayan Jha, who stepped down due to personal reasons.
• The 16^th Finance Commission was constituted on December 31, 2023.
• It is headed by Arvind Panagariya, former Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog.
• The commission is expected to submit its report by October 31, 2025.
• Recommendations will apply for five years starting April 1, 2026.
• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that advises on Centre–State financial relations.
• The 15^th Finance Commission (headed by NK Singh) had recommended 41% share of the divisible tax pool to states — the same as the 14^th Commission under YV Reddy.

The incorrect statement is His legal and regulatory audits are discretionary, but his propriety audit is obligatory.

Key Points

Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India:

Constitutional Provisions:

• Article 148: The Constitution of India provides for the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
• Guardian of Public Purse: The CAG is responsible for overseeing the entire financial system of the country at both the central and state levels.

Appointment and Term:

• Appointment: The CAG is appointed by the President of India by a warrant under his hand and seal.
• Oath/Affirmation: Before taking office, the CAG swears an oath to uphold the Constitution, sovereignty, and integrity of India, and to perform his duties faithfully.
• Term: The CAG serves for 6 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• Resignation and Removal: The CAG can resign at any time by addressing the resignation to the President. He can only be removed on grounds of misbehavior or incapacity through a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority, similar to the procedure for removing a Supreme Court judge.

Independence of the CAG:

The Constitution ensures the CAG's independence through the following provisions:

1. Security of Tenure: The CAG cannot be removed at the pleasure of the President; removal is governed by a specified procedure.
2. No Further Office: After leaving office, the CAG is not eligible for any further office under the Government of India or any state.
3. Salary and Service Conditions: The salary of the CAG is equal to that of a Supreme Court judge and cannot be altered to his disadvantage after appointment.
4. Administrative Expenses: The administrative expenses of the CAG’s office, including salaries and pensions, are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India and do not require Parliament’s vote.
5. No Ministerial Responsibility: No minister is responsible for the actions of the CAG in Parliament.

Duties and Powers:

• Audit of Accounts:
• Audits the accounts of the Union Government, State Governments, and Union Territories with legislative assemblies.
• Audits the Consolidated Fund of India, Contingency Fund, and Public Accounts.
• Audits accounts of Government Companies and Corporations substantially financed by the government.
• Receipts and Expenditures:
• Ensures that revenue and expenditure are correctly allocated and that funds are used in accordance with legal provisions.
• Certifications:
• Certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty, which is considered final.
• Advisory Role: The CAG acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.
• Audit Reports: Submits audit reports on:
• Appropriation Accounts: Compares actual expenditure with approved expenditure.
• Finance Accounts: Shows the annual receipts and disbursements of the Union government.
• Public Undertakings: Conducts audits of government-owned corporations.

Role of CAG:

• Constitutional and Legal Compliance: The CAG ensures that government expenditure is in line with the Constitution and parliamentary laws.
• Independence in Audit: The CAG has the freedom to decide the scope of audit for government expenditure. However, in audits of receipts, stores, and stock, the approval of the executive government is required.
• Propriety Audit: The CAG can review the wisdom, economy, and faithfulness of government expenditures (propriety audit), though this is discretionary, not obligatory.
• His legal and regulatory audits are obligatory, but his propriety audit is discretionary.
• Hence, statement 3 is INCORRECT.

 Limitations:

• Secret Service Expenditure: The CAG does not audit secret service expenditure. Instead, he relies on a certificate from the concerned authority.
• Comptroller Role: Unlike the CAG of Britain, the CAG of India is only an Auditor-General and does not control the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund. In India, the executive can withdraw money without the CAG’s prior approval.

Audit of Public Corporations and Companies:

1. Direct Audit: Some corporations, like ONGC, Air India, and Damodar Valley Corporation, are directly audited by the CAG.
2. Supplementary Audit: The CAG may conduct a supplementary audit of certain corporations that are audited by private professional auditors (e.g., Central Warehousing Corporation, Industrial Finance Corporation).
3. Private Audit: Some corporations are audited entirely by private auditors without CAG involvement, such as LIC, RBI, SBI, and Food Corporation of India.
4. Government Companies: The CAG may conduct supplementary or test audits for government companies that are privately audited.

Establishment of Audit Board (1968):

• An Audit Board was created to handle specialized audits, such as those related to engineering, iron and steel, and chemicals.
• The board consists of a Chairman and two members appointed by the CAG.

The correct answer is Rabi crops.

Key Points

• Zaid crops are short-season crops grown between the Rabi and Kharif seasons, typically during the summer months of March to June in India.
• These crops are sown after the harvest of Rabi crops and before the onset of the Kharif season.
• Zaid crops require warm, dry weather during growth and longer daylight hours for better yield.
• Examples of Zaid crops include watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, fodder crops, and vegetables.
• They contribute significantly to the agricultural economy by utilizing the idle period between major cropping seasons.

Additional Information

• Rabi Crops:
• Sown in winter (October to December) and harvested in spring (April to June).
• Examples include wheat, barley, mustard, gram, and peas.
• Kharif Crops:
• Sown during the monsoon season (June to July) and harvested in autumn (September to October).
• Examples include rice, maize, cotton, jowar, and bajra.
• Climatic Requirements:
• Zaid crops thrive in regions with adequate irrigation facilities as they are grown in relatively dry conditions.
• They require a combination of warm weather and sufficient water supply for optimal growth.
• Economic Importance:
• By growing Zaid crops, farmers can maximize land usage and earn additional income between the Rabi and Kharif seasons.
• These crops also help in meeting the demand for seasonal fruits and vegetables.

The correct answer is option 2.

In News

• A recent study highlighted that the vegetation cover of Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary, home to species like spotted deer, blackbucks, and Olive Ridley turtles, has declined significantly over the years.

Key Points

• Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Puri district of Odisha, not Andhra Pradesh. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Olive Ridley sea turtles have been observed nesting along the coastal areas of the Balukhand-Konark Sanctuary. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• The sanctuary was notified in 1984 and covers an area of approximately 71.71 sq km.
• It is famous for species like spotted deer, blackbucks, jungle cats, striped hyenas, and monitor lizards.
• The sanctuary plays a critical role in coastal protection, freshwater conservation, and agricultural productivity of the surrounding hinterland.
• Major threats to the sanctuary include human encroachments, vehicular traffic, tourism projects, and poaching.
• Efforts like the Wild Orissa Initiative aim to sensitize local communities, rescue wildlife, and promote biodiversity conservation.

The Correct answer is -273.15 °C.

Key Points

• -273.15 °C represents absolute zero, which is the lowest possible temperature in the universe.
• At absolute zero, all molecular and atomic motion ceases in a classical sense.
• This temperature corresponds to 0 Kelvin on the Kelvin scale, which is commonly used in scientific contexts.
• The concept of absolute zero was first introduced by scientists such as Lord Kelvin and later refined through thermodynamic principles.
• Absolute zero is significant because it represents the point at which a system has minimal energy, as defined by thermodynamics.
• This temperature is theoretically unattainable, but scientists have been able to approach it in controlled laboratory conditions.
• Absolute zero is critical in fields such as cryogenics, quantum mechanics, and material sciences, as it helps in understanding the behavior of matter at extremely low temperatures.

Additional Information

• 273.15 °C
• 273.15 °C refers to the freezing point of water when expressed in Celsius.
• It is equivalent to 0 Kelvin on the Kelvin scale and is used as a reference point in temperature measurements.
• This temperature is not related to absolute zero but is used as a standard in defining temperature scales.
• 0 °C
• 0 °C is the freezing point of water under normal atmospheric pressure.
• It is widely used in daily life and weather forecasts but does not represent absolute zero.
• -100 °C
• -100 °C is a very cold temperature but does not have any specific scientific significance related to absolute zero.
• Such temperatures are commonly encountered in cryogenic applications or polar regions but are far above absolute zero.

The correct answer is Brazil.

In News

• The 11^th BRICS Labour & Employment Ministers' Meeting 2025 was held under Brazil’s presidency in Brasília.

Key Points

• The meeting focused on two major themes: AI and the Future of Work, and the Impacts of Climate Change on Work.
• India's contributions were praised for promoting ethical AI adoption, workforce upskilling, and green job creation.
• The meeting concluded with the adoption of a declaration committing to inclusive AI policies, fair climate transitions, and strengthened South-South cooperation.
• Brazil's presidency played a central role in facilitating discussions on these key global labour challenges.

Additional Information

• India's National Strategy for AI
• Focuses on ethical AI adoption, workforce upskilling, and applications in agriculture, healthcare, and education.
• Initiatives like FutureSkills Prime aim to create tech-enabled livelihoods, especially for rural women and youth.
• Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment)
• India’s initiative to promote sustainable living and eco-friendly practices, contributing to green job creation.
• Green Jobs and SSCGJ
• Sector Skill Council for Green Jobs (SSCGJ) focuses on upskilling workers in green industries.
• BRICS Labour & Employment Ministers’ Declaration
• The declaration promotes inclusive AI policies, fair climate transitions, and strengthened cooperation for green job creation.

The correct answer is Walther Flemming

Key Points

• Walther Flemming was the first person to conduct a systematic study of chromosomes during cell division.
• He coined the term mitosis to describe the process of cell division.
• Flemming's work laid the foundation for the field of cytogenetics, which studies the structure and function of chromosomes.
• His meticulous observations and detailed drawings of dividing cells provided critical insights into the mechanisms of heredity and cell reproduction.

Additional Information

• Antonie van Leeuwenhoek is known for his pioneering work in microscopy and for being the first to observe and describe microorganisms.
• Thomas Hunt Morgan was a geneticist who won the Nobel Prize for his work on the role of chromosomes in heredity.
• Friedrich Miescher is credited with the discovery of nucleic acids, which he initially called "nuclein."
• Mitosis is a critical process for growth, development, and tissue repair in multicellular organisms.
• Understanding mitosis has significant implications for cancer research, as uncontrolled cell division is a hallmark of cancer.

The correct answer is National Commission for Scheduled Castes.

Key Points

• The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) was established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 338 empowers the NCSC to investigate and monitor matters related to the safeguards provided for Scheduled Castes under the Constitution.
• The Commission was initially constituted as the Special Officer for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in 1950 and later evolved into the NCSC.
• The NCSC is tasked with advising on the planning process and evaluating the development of Scheduled Castes.
• The Commission submits annual reports to the President of India, detailing its findings and recommendations.

Additional Information

• Article 338 of the Indian Constitution:
• This Article provides for the establishment of a National Commission for Scheduled Castes to safeguard their rights.
• It specifies the duties, powers, and functions of the Commission, including investigating complaints and monitoring safeguards.
• Evolution of NCSC:
• The Commission was initially set up in 1978 as a combined body for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• In 2004, it was bifurcated into two separate bodies: the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
• Functions of NCSC:
• Investigate and monitor safeguards against discrimination.
• Advise the government on socio-economic development initiatives for Scheduled Castes.
• Participate in the planning and evaluation of programs for Scheduled Castes.
• Other Constitutional Bodies for Social Justice:
• National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Article 338A).
• National Commission for Backward Classes (Article 338B).

The correct answer is Western Ghats.

Key Points

• The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri Hills, are one of the eight "hottest hot spots" of biological diversity in the world.
• It is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and stretches across the states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
• The Western Ghats are home to an extraordinary range of flora and fauna, many of which are endemic to this region.
• Major ecosystems include tropical rainforests, moist deciduous forests, and montane forests, which are critical for biodiversity conservation.
• This region is also an important water catchment area, feeding numerous rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri.

Additional Information

• Hot Spots of Biodiversity:
• Hot spots are regions that harbor a significant amount of biodiversity and are under threat due to human activities.
• Globally, there are 36 biodiversity hot spots, and India is home to four: the Himalayas, Western Ghats, Indo-Burma region, and Sundaland (Nicobar Islands).
• Endemic Species in the Western Ghats:
• The region is home to unique species like the Malabar Civet, Lion-tailed Macaque, Nilgiri Tahr, and several endemic amphibians and reptiles.
• Threats to Biodiversity:
• Deforestation, habitat fragmentation, climate change, and invasive species are major threats to biodiversity in the Western Ghats.
• Unregulated tourism and agricultural expansion further exacerbate the challenges.
• Conservation Efforts:
• Several national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves, such as the Periyar Tiger Reserve and Silent Valley National Park, are located in the Western Ghats.
• Programs like the National Biodiversity Action Plan and UNESCO's recognition have contributed to its preservation.

The correct answer is option 4.

In News

• India has approved a ₹63,000-crore deal for the procurement of 26 Rafale-M fighter jets from France for the Indian Navy to enhance its carrier-based airpower.

Key Points

• The Rafale-M is a 4.5 generation fighter aircraft (not sixth-generation). It is capable of multi-role operations such as air superiority, deep strike, reconnaissance, and nuclear deterrence. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Rafale-M jets are capable of anti-ship missionsandnuclear payload delivery. One of Rafale’s key features is its ability to serve as part of a nuclear deterrence force for France, and this capability is also available for Rafale-M variants. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The Rafale-M is equipped with an AESA radar, the SPECTRA electronic warfare suite, and supercruise capability via SNECMA M88 engines.
• The 26 Rafale-M jets deal includes 22 single-seat variants and 4 twin-seat trainer variants.
• The aircraft will operate from India’s two aircraft carriers: INS Vikramaditya and INS Vikrant.

The correct answer is Stomata.

Key Points

• Stomata are microscopic pores present on the surface of leaves, primarily on the lower epidermis.
• They facilitate the exchange of gases, allowing oxygen to exit and carbon dioxide to enter during respiration and photosynthesis.
• The opening and closing of stomata are regulated by guard cells, which respond to environmental conditions like light and water availability.
• Besides gas exchange, stomata play a crucial role in transpiration, helping plants maintain water balance.
• Stomata density and distribution vary depending on the plant species and environmental factors.

Additional Information

• Guard Cells: Specialized kidney-shaped cells that surround stomata and control their opening and closing by changing shape based on turgor pressure.
• Transpiration: The process by which plants lose water vapor through stomata, aiding in nutrient transport and cooling the plant.
• Photosynthesis: Stomata allow the entry of carbon dioxide, which is essential for the photosynthesis process to produce glucose and oxygen.
• Adaptations: Xerophytes (plants adapted to dry environments) often have fewer stomata or stomata that are sunken to reduce water loss.
• Stomatal Index: A metric used to calculate the ratio of stomata to epidermal cells, which helps in understanding plant adaptations and responses to environmental stress.

The Correct Answer is ESPS Reina Sofia & ITS Antonio Marceglia.

In News

• Joint Exercise at Sea, between Indian Navy and EUNAVFOR.

Key Points

• Spanish Navy ship ESPS Reina Sofia and Italian Navy ship ITS Antonio Marceglia are visiting Mumbai from 26 May to 01 June 2025.
• Both ships operate under the European Union Naval Force (EUNAVFOR).
• This is the first official visit to India by naval ships under the EU's banner.
• The Indian Navy and EUNAVFOR plan to hold joint naval exercises.
• Exercise will involve Spanish and Italian ships along with Indian Navy ships and aircraft.
• Focus: Lawful trade protection, and combating piracy, smuggling, and IUU fishing.
• The first India-EUNAVFOR exercise took place in the Gulf of Aden in 2021.
• Operation ATALANTA is the EU’s naval operation started in December 2008, focused on the Western Indian Ocean and Red Sea.

The correct answer is Anirudh Kanisetti.

Key Points

• Anirudh Kanisetti is the author of the book "Lords of the Deccan: Southern India from the Chalukyas to the Cholas".
• The book explores the history of Southern India, focusing on the period between the 6^th and 12^th centuries CE.
• It provides an in-depth account of the rise and fall of the Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas, and Cholas, among other dynasties.
• The work is based on extensive research and combines historical narrative with cultural and political insights into medieval South India.
• Published in January 2022, the book has been widely praised for its detailed analysis and engaging storytelling.

Additional Information

• Chalukyas:
• The Chalukyas were a prominent dynasty that ruled large parts of Southern and Central India between the 6^th and 12^th centuries.
• They are known for their contributions to art, architecture, and temple-building, including the iconic cave temples of Badami.
• Rashtrakutas:
• The Rashtrakutas succeeded the Chalukyas and were known for their patronage of art and culture, especially the Kailasa temple at Ellora.
• They played a crucial role in the political and cultural development of medieval India.
• Cholas:
• The Chola dynasty was one of the longest-ruling dynasties in South Indian history, renowned for its naval power and administrative innovations.
• They built the famous Brihadeeswarar Temple in Thanjavur, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Medieval South India:
• The period between the 6^th and 12^th centuries was marked by significant developments in political, economic, and cultural domains in Southern India.
• It witnessed the rise of powerful empires, flourishing trade, and remarkable achievements in art, literature, and architecture.

The correct answer is Aakraman.

In News

• The Indian Air Force is conducting Exercise Aakraman in the central sector, involving Rafale and Su-30 fighter jets.

Key Points

• Exercise Aakraman involves complex ground attack and electronic warfare drills.
• Rafale aircraft from Ambala and Hashimara bases are participating.
• The exercise enhances operational capabilities across plains and mountainous terrains.
• It aims to strengthen India’s regional air power advantage amid rising tensions.

Additional Information

• Rafale Aircraft: Advanced fighter jets equipped with Meteor missiles, enhancing India’s air combat capabilities.
• Meteor Missile: A beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile providing superior interception capabilities.
• Rampage and Rocks Missiles: Long-range precision strike weapons for ground attack missions.
• S-400 Air Defence System: Advanced system capable of countering airborne threats, strengthening India's defensive and offensive posture.

The Correct Answer is S. Mahendra Dev.

In News

• S Mahendra Dev Appointed New Chief of EAC-PM.

Key Points

• S. Mahendra Dev has been appointed as Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM).
• He resigned as independent director of Axis Bank after this appointment.
• Suman Bery, Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog, currently heads EAC-PM.
• Dev is an expert in agriculture and rural economy.
• He is editor of Economic and Political Weekly and chairs the Institute for Development Studies, Andhra Pradesh.
• Former Director of Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research (IGIDR).
• Holds a PhD from Delhi School of Economics and did post-doc at Yale University.
• EAC-PM is an independent body that advises the PM on economic and policy issues.
• Functions include: analyzing macroeconomic issues, providing advice, and undertaking tasks referred by the PM.

The correct answer is option 2.

In News

• The 100^th launch from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) in Sriharikota will be conducted with the GSLV-F15 mission, marking a significant milestone for ISRO.

Key Points

• Chandrayaan-3 – LVM3 M4 – First successful Moon landing on the south pole:
• Launched in 2023, this mission made India the first country to land on the Moon’s south pole successfully.
• Demonstrated ISRO’s advancements in lunar exploration and soft landing technology.
• GSLV-F15/NVS-02 mission – GSLV – 100^th launch from Sriharikota:
• The 100^th launch from SDSC, scheduled for 2024, carrying an advanced payload.
• Highlights ISRO’s progress in geosynchronous satellite launches.
• Aditya-L1 – PSLV-C57 – India’s first solar mission:
• Launched in 2023, Aditya-L1 is India’s first mission to study the Sun.
• Placed in L1 (Lagrange Point 1) orbit for uninterrupted solar observations.
• Cartosat-2 series (2017) – PSLV-C37 – Record 104 satellites in a single launch:
• Launched in 2017, this mission set a world record for launching 104 satellites in a single flight.
• This record was later broken by SpaceX Falcon 9 in 2021 with 143 satellites.
• Hence, option 2 is correct.

Additional Information

• Why Sriharikota was chosen as a Spaceport:
• Good launch azimuth corridor for different mission types.
• Near the equator, aiding eastward satellite launches.
• Large uninhabited safety zone for launch failures or debris.
• Major ISRO Achievements:
• First Moon Mission (Chandrayaan-1, 2008) via PSLV-C11.
• First Solar Mission (Aditya-L1, 2023) via PSLV-C57.
• First Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) test and Gaganyaan test vehicle for India's human spaceflight program.

The correct answer is Jagadguru Rambhadracharya and Gulzar.

In News

• President Droupadi Murmu conferred the 58^th Jnanpith Award to Jagadguru Rambhadracharya and Gulzar for their exceptional contributions to literature.

Key Points

• Jagadguru Rambhadracharya and Gulzar were honored with the 58^th Jnanpith Award for their significant contributions to Indian literature.
• Gulzar was unable to attend the ceremony due to health reasons, but both laureates were praised by the President for their impact on literary heritage.
• The President emphasized the role of literature in uniting society and its importance in shaping national identity.

Additional Information

• Jnanpith Award
• India's highest literary honor, given annually for exceptional contributions to literature.
• Recognizes writers for their outstanding works in any Indian language.
• Jagadguru Rambhadracharya
• Famous for his work in philosophy, literature, and his role as a spiritual leader.
• Gulzar
• A renowned poet, lyricist, and filmmaker, known for his contributions to Hindi literature and cinema.

The correct answer is Option 1.

In News

• Nepal observed its first-ever ‘National Yak Day’ on April 20, 2025, to honour the cultural, ecological, and economic significance of the yak in the Himalayan region.

Key Points

• The Himalayan Yak is endemic to the Tibetan Plateau and adjacent high-altitude regions, including Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Ladakh, Jammu, and Kashmir. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• According to the IUCN Red List, the Wild Yak is classified as Vulnerable, not Critically Endangered. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Protection Status:
• IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
• CITES: Appendix I
• Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Listed under Schedule I
• Threats: Climate change and inbreeding.
• Rearing: Yaks are reared under a transhumance system, a traditional practice involving seasonal livestock migration, often considered unorganised and harsh.

The correct answer is Jharkhand.

In News

• Jharkhand plans to establish its first tiger safari in the fringe area of the Barwadih Western Forest Range, part of the Palamau Tiger Reserve.

Key Points

• Jharkhand’s tiger safari will comply with Supreme Court directives by being located outside core and buffer tiger reserve zones.
• The safari will house conflict-prone, injured, or orphaned tigers rescued from reserves and zoos, with no wild animals introduced.
• The project aims to boost tourism, serve as a conservation and education center, and create jobs for local communities.
• Approvals from the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and Central Zoo Authority (CZA) are required before construction.

Additional Information

• Tiger Safari refers to enclosures within or near reserves where rescued or conflict tigers are housed for viewing, differing from wild safaris.
• National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) issues guidelines for tiger safaris, including restrictions on animal types and locations.
• Central Zoo Authority (CZA) oversees animal welfare and enclosure standards in safari projects housing zoo animals.
• Supreme Court has directed tiger safaris to be outside core and buffer areas to avoid disturbing natural habitats.
• Palamau Tiger Reserve is one of India’s tiger reserves located in Jharkhand, rich in biodiversity and tribal population.
• Local tribal communities often depend on forest resources, and displacement or restrictions can affect their livelihoods.

People: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V.

1. Q is sitting fourth to the left of T.

2. Only one person is sitting in the immediate left of Q.

(So, T is sitting second from the right end.)

3. Neither Q nor T is an immediate neighbour of P.

4. V is sitting fourth to the right of S.

5. Neither U nor V is sitting at any of the extreme ends.

Thus, we get the final seating arrangement as follows:

Hence, S and R are sitting at extreme ends.

Using the symbols in the table given below, we can draw the following family tree:

1. J and L are sisters of K.

2. L has a son M who is married to U.

3. J has a daughter Y who is married to W.

4. M is brother-in-law of T. J and L have only one child each.

Therefore, U is the sister of T.

We cannot determine the gender of K and T.

So, K is either uncle or aunt of M.

Hence, the correct answer is either uncle or aunt.

The pattern for the code is as follows,

Similarly,

Hence, KNOWLEDGE will be written as NOKELWEDG.

Both milk and Rivers Water are liquids.

So, the liquid should contain two items milk and river water which do not have anything common, so are separated by a distance.

So, the correct option is B.

We use formula,

Angle =│(60H -11M)/2│ Where, H = hours and = minutes

30 minutes past 7 = 7:30

Angle =│60x7 – 11x30)/2│

Angle = 90˚/ 2 → 45˚

This is the smaller angle, bigger angle will be:

360˚ – 45˚ = 315˚.

Hence, the correct answer will be 315˚.

Impartial and Unbiased have same meaning. Both Impartial and Unbiased means showing no prejudice for or against something.

In the same way, both Apathetic and Uninterested means feeling no interest.

Hence, “Uninterested” is the correct answer.

i) Point B is 3m North of point A.

ii) Point C is 3m West of point B.

iii) Point D is 5m South of point C.

iv) Point E is 7m East of point D.

Drawing the Diagram as per the given information:

Thus we can se direction of E is South-East with reference to point B.

Hence, the correct is "South-East".

The image will be flipped horizontally.

Hence, option 1 is the correct mirror image for the given image.

Given series: 38, 40, 83, 253, 1017, ?

The logic is:

(38 × 1) + 2 = 40

(40 × 2) + 3 = 83

(83 × 3) + 4 = 253

(253 × 4) + 5 = 1017

(1017 × 5) + 6 = 5091

Hence, ‘5091’ is the correct answer.

In figure (X), one of the dots lies in the region which is common to all the three figures and the other dot lies in the region common to the pentagon and rectangle only.

Only figure (B) consists of these types of regions.

Hence, 'figure (B)' is the correct answer.

PPQP/PQQP/QQ PP/QP PP    (No pattern formed)

PQQP/PQQP/QP PP/QP PQ    (No pattern formed)

PPQP/PPQP/QQ PP/QQ PP    (pattern formed)

PPQP/PQQP/QP PP/QQ PP    (No pattern formed)

We can see that PPQP/PPQP/QQ PP/QQ PP    forms a pattern.

hence PPQQP is missing letters

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Lines in all the images represent the number of angles of each figure inside the images except image C.

So, figure 'C' is different from the other.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this code is as follows

Similarly;

Hence, the required term is JLOS.

Let the age of Aman, Binni, Chitra and DInesh be a,b,c and d.

Given

Average of Aman and Chitra is 35 yr = (a + c)/2 = 35 = a + c = 70 yr     ----(1)

Average age of Binni and Dinesh is 40yr = (b + d)/2 = 40yr = b + d = 80 yr     ----(2)

Average age of Binni, Chitra and Dinesh is 40 yr = (b + c + d)/3 = 40yr = b + c + d = 120 yr     ----(3)

Also,sum of the ages of Aman and Dinesh is equal to that of Binni and Chitra

a + d = b + c     ----(4)

If Adding equation 1 and 2 → a + c + b + d = 70 + 80 = 150 yr.

But as (a + d = b + c) → 2 (b + c) = 150

→ b + c = a + d = 75 yr    ----(5)

Put equation 5 in 3 then,

→ b + c + d = 120

→ d = 120 – 75 = 45 yr.

From 2 → b = 80 – 45 = 35 yr.

From 5 → a + d = 75 → a = 75 – 45 = 30 yr.

From 5 → b + c = 75 → c = 75 – 35 = 40 yr.

Solving all four equation we will get a = 30; b = 35; c = 40; d = 45

Hence, ages (in yr) of Aman, Binni, Chitra and Dinesh. Will be 30, 35, 40, 45.

In figure (X), one of the dots lies in the region which is common to all the three figures and the other dot lies in the region common to the square and rectangle only.

Only figure (D) consists of these types of regions.

Hence, 'figure (D)' is the correct answer.

Here is the diagram which represent the given question

So, 'Q' is the tenth letter from the right end and 'D' is the seventh letter to the left of 'Q'.

Hence, the correct answer is option(1), D

The pattern followed here is:

According to the alphabetical positions of the letters,

Similarly,

Hence, ‘FACEBI’ is the correct answer.

BODMAS RULE

Given equation: 18 p 6 q 4 s 6 r 2

The equation become: 18 – 6 + 4 × 6 ÷ 2

= 18 – 6 + 4 × 3

= 18 – 6 + 12

= 18 + 12 - 6

= 30 - 6

= 24

Hence, the correct answer is "24".

1. BURAD → DABUR

2. LESTEN → NESTLE

3. SGKOLLEG → KELLOGGS

4. NAMZAO → AMAZON

Except ‘AMAZON’ all are food companies.

Hence, “AMAZON” is the odd one out.

The pattern followed here is:

Circle 1: 9 × 3 = 27; 27 - 8 = 19;

Circle 2: 8 × 4 = 32; 32 - 9 = 23;

Circle 4: 6 × 4 = 24; 24 - 3 = 21;

Similarly,

7 × 3 = 21; 21 - 5 = 16;

Hence, 16 will be placed at the question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

The pattern follow here is,

21² - 21 = 420;

22² - 22 = 462;

23³ - 23 = 506;

24² - 24 = 552;

25² - 25 = 600;

26² - 26 = 650;

27² - 27 = 702;

Hence, “702” is the correct answer.

The logic is shown below –

A + 4 = E

E + 5 = J

J + 6 = P

P + 7 = W

W + 8 = E

D + 7 = K

K + 6 = Q

Q + 5 = V

V + 4 = Z

Z + 3 = C

Hence, EC is the correct answer.

A kilogram is a unit of mass.

Similarly,

A kilobyte is a unit of data, which shows the speed of the internet.

Hence, “Unite of Data” is the correct answer

The diagram for the given family tree is as follows:

1. Dhruv is the brother of Sunmain → False (as Dhruv is the brother-in-law of Sunmain)

2. Hitesh is the grandfather of Sunmain → False (as Hitesh is the father-in-law of Sunmain)

3. Hitesh is the father-in-law of Monika → False (as Hitesh is the father of Monika)

4. Geetika is married to Hitesh → True (as shown in the diagram)

Hence, statement 4 is the correct one.

From the diagram lets take P as the initial  position of  Arun, first he goes 90 ° clockwise direction and reaches Q, then from Q he goes 180 ° anticlockwise and reaches R. From R he goes again anticlockwise direction and reaches S, which is the final position and he is facing southeast.

Hence, "South-East" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. cancel.

The word 'nullify' refers to make something invalid, to make something useless or neutralizing it.

The word 'cancel' refers to neutralizing or negating something.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Here's the meaning of the other words:

Perturb: To make someone anxious or disturbed

Obstruct: Means to block something or come in the way of something

Oblige: To make someone legally bound to do something

Option 4 is the right answer - Cautious.

• Reckless means rash or impetuous.
• Cautious means someone who is cautious and avoids risks.
• Brash means showing little respect and too much confidence
• Heedless means not attentive, careless

So, the opposite/ antonym of 'reckless' is 'cautious'.

The correct answer is: Pleasant.

Key Points

• The word "congenial" means pleasant because of a personality, qualities, or interests that are similar to one's own. (अनुकूल)
• Example: She found the company of her friends to be congenial and uplifting.
• "Pleasant" refers to giving a sense of happy satisfaction or enjoyment. (सुहावना)
• Example: The weather was pleasant, making it perfect for a day out in the park.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'congenial' is 'pleasant'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Pleasant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Trivial (तुच्छ): Of little value or importance.
• Example: The issue seemed trivial compared to the larger problems we were facing.
• Ignorant (अज्ञानी): Lacking knowledge or awareness in general; uneducated or unsophisticated.
• Example: He was ignorant of the local customs and unintentionally offended the villagers.
• Ethical (नैतिक): Relating to moral principles or the branch of knowledge dealing with these.
• Example: The company prides itself on its ethical business practices.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The word "Pacify" means to bring peace to a situation or person, often by calming them down or resolving their concerns. (शांत करना)
• Example: She tried to pacify the crying baby by rocking him gently.
• "Enrage" refers to making someone very angry or infuriated. (���्रोधित करना)
• Example: His rude comments were enough to enrage everyone in the room.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Pacify' is 'Enrage'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Restore (पुनर्स्थापित करना): To bring back to a previous state or condition.
• Example: The government plans to restore the old building to its former glory.
• Negate (नकारना): To deny the existence or truth of something.
• Example: The evidence negates his claim of innocence.
• Amuse (मनोरंजन करना): To entertain or make someone laugh.
• Example: The clown at the party managed to amuse all the children.

Connoisseur means an expert judge in matters of taste, kennel means a place where dogs reside, linguistic means relating to anyone’s language, fervent means displaying intensity. Hence the correct option here is (c). Synonyms for connoisseur are specialist, savant, cognoscenti.

The correct answer is "Dermatology."

 Key Points

• The word 'dermatology' is a noun that refers to the study of skin and its diseases. (चर्म-रोग-विज्ञान, त्‍वचा-विज्ञान)
• Example: His test is usually carried out in dermatology departments in hospitals.
• It comes from the Greek words 'derma' (skin) and 'logia' (study of).
• The field of dermatology includes the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of skin conditions.
• The correct answer is Option 1.

 Additional Information

• Option 2, Cytology, is the study of the structure and function of plant and animal cells. (पौधों और पशुओं की कोशिकाओं का वैज्ञानिक अध्ययन; कोशिका विज्ञान)
• Option 3, Congenital, refers to a condition that is present at birth. ((रोग) जन्‍म से विद्यमान; जन्‍मजात)
• Option 4, Dementia, is a neurological disorder that affects cognitive function. (एक तंत्रिका संबंधी विकार जो संज्ञानात्मक कार्य को प्रभावित करता है)