AFCAT 02/2025: (23 August 2025 Shift 1) Memory-Based Paper (Previous Year Paper)

The correct answer is option 1.

In News

• The Seven Summits Challenge requires climbing the highest peaks on each continent, a feat recently achieved by Hyderabad teenager Vishwanath Karthikey Padakanti, making him the youngest Indian to do so.

Key Points

• Kilimanjaro is the highest peak in Africa (5,892 m).
• Elbrus is the highest peak in Europe (5,642 m).
• Aconcagua is the highest peak in South America (6,962 m).
• Denali is the highest peak in North America (6,194 m).
• Kosciuszko is the highest peak in Australia (2,228 m), part of the ‘Bass list’.
• Mount Vinson is the highest peak in Antarctica (4,892 m).
• Mount Everest is the highest peak in Asia and the world (8,848 m).

Additional Information

• The Seven Summits Challenge was first completed by Richard Bass in 1985.
• There are two recognized lists: the Bass list (including Kosciuszko) and the Messner list (including Puncak Jaya in Oceania).
• Puncak Jaya, in Indonesia, is a more challenging climb compared to Kosciuszko due to its elevation and terrain.
• Mount Everest lies on the border between Nepal and China (Tibet) and is the tallest mountain on Earth.
• Climbers must overcome diverse climates, from the tropical slopes of Kilimanjaro to the icy expanse of Mount Vinson.
• Completing the Seven Summits is considered one of the highest achievements in global mountaineering.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• Statement (1):
• Incorrect. Tropical dry deciduous forests generally occur in regions receiving 75 to 150 cm of rainfall annually.
• Regions with rainfall between 25 and 75 cm usually have tropical thorn forests or semi-arid vegetation.
• Statement (2):
• Correct. Tropical dry deciduous forests do occur in a wide irregular belt at the foothills of the Himalayas (e.g., parts of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Jharkhand).

The correct answer is Mars and Jupiter.

Key Points

• The majority of the asteroids in the Solar System are located within the Asteroid Belt, which is situated between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
• This region contains millions of rocky objects ranging in size from tiny dust particles to dwarf planets like Ceres.
• The gravitational influence of Jupiter prevents these objects from coalescing into a larger planetary body.
• These asteroids are remnants from the early Solar System, dating back about 4.6 billion years.
• The Asteroid Belt plays a crucial role in providing insights into the formation and evolution of the Solar System.

Additional Information

• Asteroid Belt:
• The Asteroid Belt lies between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter at a distance of approximately 2.1 to 3.3 astronomical units (AU) from the Sun.
• It contains a wide range of objects, including carbon-rich, silicate-rich, and metallic asteroids.
• Ceres:
• Ceres is the largest object in the Asteroid Belt and is classified as a dwarf planet.
• It has a diameter of about 940 km and was the first asteroid to be discovered (in 1801 by Giuseppe Piazzi).
• Trojan Asteroids:
• These are a group of asteroids that share an orbit with a planet, particularly Jupiter, around its Lagrange points (L4 and L5).
• They are not located in the Asteroid Belt but are closely related to asteroids in their composition and origin.
• Kuiper Belt vs. Asteroid Belt:
• The Kuiper Belt is a region beyond Neptune that contains icy bodies and dwarf planets, such as Pluto, whereas the Asteroid Belt contains rocky and metallic objects.
• The Kuiper Belt is much larger and more distant than the Asteroid Belt.
• Formation of Asteroids:
• Asteroids are considered to be planetesimals—small bodies that never formed into planets due to gravitational disruptions, primarily caused by Jupiter.
• They provide valuable information about the early Solar System because they have remained relatively unchanged for billions of years.

The correct answer is Option 1.

In News

• Exercise KHAAN QUEST 2025 is being conducted in Mongolia with participation from the Indian Army and multiple international contingents to enhance peacekeeping capabilities.

Key Points

• Statement I: The exercise started as a bilateral event between the USA and Mongolia in 2003, and evolved into a multinational exercise from 2006. It is not a bilateral exercise between India and Mongolia. Hence, Statement I is incorrect.
• Statement II: The 2025 edition is indeed the 22^nd iteration, counting from the start in 2003. Hence, Statement II is correct.
• Statement III: The exercise aims to prepare forces for peacekeeping operations under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter, which allows for military enforcement actions to restore international peace and security. Hence, Statement III is correct.

Additional Information

• The Indian contingent includes personnel from the Kumaon Regiment and other units, including women officers.
• The exercise enhances joint planning, tactical drills, and interoperability.
• Participating countries share best practices in peace support operations, increasing global military cooperation.

The correct answer is Yashasvi Solanki.

In News

• Yashasvi Solanki, a Lieutenant Commander in the Indian Navy from Haryana, has become the first woman Aide-de-Camp (ADC) to the President of India.

Key Points

• Yashasvi Solanki was appointed as ADC to President Droupadi Murmu, becoming the first woman officer from the Indian Navy to hold the prestigious position.
• She was selected in April and began her duties as ADC on May 1, 2025, after a month-long orientation.
• She hails from Haryana and joined the Indian Navy in 2012, serving under the Short Service Commission in the Logistics Branch.
• Her role as ADC involves managing schedules, high-level engagements, and acting as a key liaison for the President.

Additional Information

• Squadron Leader Manisha Padi
• Manisha Padi was the first woman to be appointed as ADC to the Governor of Uttarakhand, another milestone in women's participation in such roles.
• Lt. Gen. Punita Arora
• Lt. Gen. Punita Arora was the first woman to hold the rank of Lieutenant General in the Indian Army and Vice Admiral in the Navy, a pioneering figure in Indian military history.
• Air Marshal Padmavathy Bandopadhyay
• Padmavathy Bandopadhyay was the first woman Air Marshal in the Indian Air Force and a noted aviation medicine expert.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement

• Established by: SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)
• Signed on: 11 December 1993
• Came into force: 7 December 1995
• Objective: To promote intra-regional trade and economic cooperation among SAARC member countries through preferential tariffs.
• SAPTA Member Countries (All SAARC Members):
• India
• Pakistan
• Bangladesh
• Nepal
• Bhutan
• Sri Lanka
• Maldives
• Afghanistan (joined SAARC in 2007, became a part of trade discussions later). Hence, option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• The Partition of Bengal was carried out by Lord Curzon on October 16, 1905.
• It divided Bengal into:
• Eastern Bengal and Assam (Muslim-majority)
• Western Bengal (Hindu-majority)
• The move was widely opposed by Indian nationalists, who saw it as an attempt to "divide and rule" by separating Hindus and Muslims.
• The Swadeshi Movement was launched in protest.
• Massive protests, boycotts of British goods, and national awakening followed.
• Due to intense opposition and growing nationalist sentiment, the British annulled the partition in 1911 during the Delhi Durbar. Hence, option 4 is correct.
• At the same time, it was announced that the capital of British India would be shifted from Calcutta to Delhi.

The Correct answer is President.

Key Points

• As per Article 78 of the Indian Constitution, it is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
• This ensures that the President, who is the nominal executive head of the state, remains informed of all significant governmental actions and decisions.
• The provision allows the President to exercise their right to seek information and give advice to the Council of Ministers.
• This clause strengthens the relationship between the President and the Prime Minister, ensuring smooth functioning of the government.
• The Prime Minister may also submit for the consideration of the President any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister, but which has not been considered by the Council of Ministers.
• This constitutional duty highlights the principle of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the President.

 Additional Information

• Chief Justice of India
• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the head of the judiciary system in India and is the highest-ranking judge in the Supreme Court of India.
• The CJI does not have a constitutional role in the communication of decisions by the Council of Ministers.
• The primary function of the CJI is to interpret laws and uphold the Constitution of India.
• Speaker of Lok Sabha
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is responsible for the conduct of business in the House of the People and ensuring its smooth functioning.
• They preside over debates and have no role in receiving communications from the Prime Minister or the Council of Ministers.
• Vice President
• The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and does not have a constitutional provision to be communicated with about decisions of the Council of Ministers.
• The Vice President’s role is primarily legislative and not executive.

The Correct Answer is ​Talisman Sabre.

In News

• India joins bilateral military exercise in Australia.

Key Points

• India has participated for the first time in Exercise Talisman Sabre, Australia’s largest bilateral military drill.
• The exercise was launched in 2005 as a biennial joint military exercise between the United States and Australia.
• In 2025, it involves over 35,000 personnel from 19 countries.
• Participating nations include: United States, Australia, India, Canada, Fiji, France, Germany, Indonesia, Japan, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Papua New Guinea, Philippines, South Korea, Singapore, Thailand, Tonga, and the United Kingdom.
• Malaysia and Vietnam are attending as observers.
• The exercise will be held over three weeks, covering joint operations across land, sea, and air domains.
• India’s participation marks a step forward in strengthening Indo-Pacific defence ties and interoperability.

The correct answer is Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• The Nilgiri hills are a mountain range located at the borders of three Indian states: Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
• Nilgiris is well known for its hill stations, such as Ooty, which is a popular tourist destination. It offers numerous experiences and scenic views of the surrounding mountains.
• The range gets its name, 'Nilgiris' or 'blue mountains', due to the presence of Strobilanthes flowers, which bloom once every 12 years, giving the hills a blueish tint.
• The Nilgiris region is rich in cultural diversity, home to various indigenous tribal groups like the Toda, Kota, Kurumba, Irula, and Badagas, who have lived there for centuries.

Additional Information

• Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan – These states are not home to the Nilgiri hills. They are located in northern and central India, far from the Nilgiris.
• Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa – While Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Goa have their own notable hills and mountains, they do not share the Nilgiri range.
• Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu – Tamil Nadu is part of the Nilgiri region, but Andhra Pradesh and Telangana are not part of this mountain range.

The Correct Answer is Bihar.

In News

• Bihar to get its first nuclear power plant as part of national SMR rollout.

Key Points

• Bihar will soon host its first nuclear power plant, under the National Nuclear Energy Mission.
• It is among the first six states selected for this initiative.
• The goal is to diversify India’s energy mix and boost regional energy security.
• The project will involve advanced technologies like Small Modular Reactors (SMRs).
• SMRs are compact nuclear reactors with up to 300 MW capacity—about one-third of traditional nuclear plants.
• A separate 1,000 MW battery storage project has also been approved in Bihar.
• The government will provide ₹18 lakh per MW as viability gap funding for the battery storage project.
• Announced in the Union Budget 2025-26 with a Rs 20,000 crore allocation, the Nuclear Energy Mission aims at expanding clean and reliable nuclear power across the country and strengthen regional energy security.

The correct answer is option 3.

In News

• The United States has entered Israel's war with Iran, reportedly launching precision strikes on Iran's nuclear facilities using Tomahawk cruise missiles and GBU-57 bunker busters.

Key Points

• The Tomahawk is a long-range, subsonic cruise missile developed by the United States Navy.
• It is launched from ships or submarines via a Vertical Launch System.
• The missile can travel 1,550 to 2,500 km, flying at low altitudes to avoid radar, and is guided by GPS and inertial systems.
• Its path is non-linear, which helps in avoiding interception.
• Each missile costs approximately $2 million and is known for high precision (10-meter margin of error).

Additional Information

• First used in 1991 during Operation Desert Storm, and later in Syria in 2017.
• Powered by a solid booster during launch and a turbofan engine for sustained flight with low infrared signature$.

The correct answer is Light year.

Key Points

• A light year is a unit of astronomical distance that refers to the distance light travels in one year.
• It is approximately 9.46 trillion kilometers (or about 5.88 trillion miles).
• Light years are primarily used to measure distances between celestial objects such as stars, galaxies, and other astronomical entities.
• This unit is significant because the immense distances in space make conventional units like kilometers or miles impractical for measurement.
• For example, the nearest star system to the Sun, Alpha Centauri, is about 4.37 light years away.

Additional Information

• Angstrom (Å): A unit used to measure wavelengths of light, equal to 10^-10 meters. It is not suitable for measuring astronomical distances.
• Weber: The SI unit of magnetic flux, used in physics to describe the strength of magnetic fields. It has no relevance to distance measurement.
• Lux: The SI unit of illuminance, used to measure light intensity. It is unrelated to distance measurements.
• Parsec: Another unit of astronomical distance, where 1 parsec equals approximately 3.26 light years. It is commonly used in professional astronomy.
• Speed of Light: Light travels at a speed of approximately 299,792 kilometers per second (in a vacuum), which is the basis for the definition of a light year.

Correct Answer: He took the title Vatapikonda after defeating Pulakesin II and conquering Vatapi.

Key Points

❌ Option (a): He was a Chalukya ruler who defeated the Pallavas at the Battle of Manimangalam. Incorrect.

• Pulakesin II, a Chalukya ruler, defeated Mahendravarman I (father of Narasimhavarman I).
• But it was Narasimhavarman I who avenged his father’s defeat by defeating Pulakesin II in the Battle of Manimangalam (642 CE).
• He ultimately invaded Vatapi, the Chalukya capital, leading to Pulakesin II's death.
• Hence, this option reverses the actual historical event and is factually wrong.

✅ Option (b): He took the title Vatapikonda after defeating Pulakesin II and conquering Vatapi. Correct.

• After three major battles, including the one at Manimangalam, Narasimhavarman I defeated Pulakesin II, the powerful Chalukya ruler.
• He captured the capital city Vatapi (present-day Badami in Karnataka).
• Following this victory, he assumed the title "Vatapikonda", meaning "Conqueror of Vatapi".
• This was a major political and military achievement of his reign.

❌ Option (c): He was the founder of Nalanda Mahavihara and promoted only Buddhism in Kanchi. Incorrect.

• Nalanda Mahavihara was established much earlier, during the Gupta period, not by Narasimhavarman I.
• During his reign, Kanchi was a flourishing center of Hinduism, but Buddhism and Jainism also co-existed peacefully.
• Chinese traveler Hiuen Tsang noted the religious harmony and intellectual vibrancy of Kanchi during his visit.
• Therefore, this statement is both factually incorrect and misleading.

❌ Option (d): He visited Sri Lanka as a Buddhist monk and built the Pancha Rathas temple there. Incorrect.

• Narasimhavarman I did intervene in Sri Lanka, but as a military ally, not a monk.
• He helped Sinhalese prince Manavarman reclaim his throne.
• The Pancha Rathas (Rock-cut temples) were built during his reign, but they are located in Mamallapuram (Tamil Nadu), not in Sri Lanka.
• Hence, this statement is inaccurate in both context and location.

The correct answer is option 3.

 Key Points Statement 1: It represents more than 40 percent of the global population.

• True
• The BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) together account for over 40% of the world’s population, mainly due to the large populations of India and China.

Statement 2: It represents around 24 percent of the World GDP.

• True
• According to recent estimates by international institutions like the World Bank and IMF, BRICS accounts for around 24–26% of global GDP, depending on whether it is measured in nominal terms or Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).

Statement 3: It represents around 46 percent of Global trade.

• Not True (Correct Answer)
• BRICS countries account for approximately 15–20% of global trade, not 46%.
• While they are significant players in global trade, they do not contribute nearly half of the total global trade volume.

Statement 4: First BRICS Summit was held in 2009 in Russia.

• True
• The first formal BRICS Summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia in 2009.
• Before that, the countries had informal interactions under the name BRIC (before South Africa joined in 2010).

The correct answer is option 1.

In News

• India recently criticized the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) for making "unwarranted" and "factually incorrect" remarks under the influence of Pakistan.

Key Points

• I is correct. The OIC comprises 57 member states and aims to promote peace, security, and safeguard Islamic values.
• II is incorrect. India is not a member of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC).

Additional Information

• The OIC was founded in 1969 in Rabat, Morocco, with its headquarters in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. It is the collective voice of the Muslim world.

The correct answer is Antacid.

Key Points

• Antacids are medicines that help neutralize stomach acid, providing relief from indigestion, heartburn, and acid reflux.
• They work by increasing the pH level in the stomach, thereby reducing acidity and soothing the digestive tract.
• Common examples of antacids include compounds like calcium carbonate, magnesium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide, and sodium bicarbonate.
• Antacids are available in various forms such as tablets, liquids, and chewable tablets, making them convenient for different patient preferences.
• They are typically used for mild cases of indigestion and provide immediate relief, but prolonged use should be monitored by a healthcare professional.

Additional Information

• Indigestion (Dyspepsia):
• It refers to discomfort or pain in the upper abdomen, often associated with symptoms like bloating, nausea, and burping.
• Common causes include overeating, spicy or fatty foods, stress, and certain medications.
• Types of Medicines for Digestive Issues:
• Antacids: Neutralize stomach acid to relieve heartburn and indigestion.
• Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs): Reduce acid production for long-term management of GERD or ulcers.
• H2 Receptor Blockers: Decrease acid production and are used for more persistent symptoms.
• Side Effects of Antacids:
• Overuse can lead to side effects like constipation (from aluminum compounds) or diarrhea (from magnesium compounds).
• Long-term use may interfere with the absorption of nutrients like calcium and magnesium.
• Difference Between Antacids and Other Medicines:
• Antacids provide immediate relief by neutralizing stomach acid.
• PPIs and H2 blockers act more slowly but provide longer-lasting effects by reducing acid production.

The correct answer is At the poles of the magnet.

Key Points

• The magnetic field strength is maximum at the poles of a magnet. These are the regions where the magnetic field lines are most densely packed.
• Magnetic poles are the points near the ends of the magnet where the magnetic force is concentrated and acts strongest.
• The magnetic field lines emerge from the north pole and enter the south pole, forming a closed loop around the magnet.
• The density of magnetic field lines corresponds to the strength of the magnetic field. This density is highest at the poles.
• The poles are the regions that interact most strongly with other magnetic materials or magnets.
• This property makes the poles useful for applications such as magnetic compasses, where the strength and orientation of the field are critical.

 Additional Information

• Equidistant from the poles
• The magnetic field strength is not maximum at points equidistant from the poles because the field lines are more spread out in this region, leading to a weaker magnetic force.
• This region typically represents the middle area of the magnet, where the field is not concentrated as it is near the poles.
• At infinity
• At infinity, the magnetic field strength is virtually zero as the distance from the magnet increases significantly, and the magnetic field weakens with distance.
• This concept is based on the inverse square law, which states that the intensity of a physical quantity decreases with the square of the distance.
• At the centre of the magnet
• The magnetic field at the center of a magnet is weaker because the field lines are more uniformly distributed and not concentrated in this region.
• The central region of the magnet is generally characterized by neutral zones, where the magnetic forces from opposite poles cancel each other out.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The ASEAN Secretariat is headquartered in Jakarta, Indonesia. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• It serves as the main administrative and coordinating body for ASEAN activities.
• Jakarta was chosen as the location to reflect Indonesia's significant role in the founding and development of ASEAN.

The Correct Answer is Amanda Anisimova.

In News

• Unforgiving Swiatek crushes Anisimova 6-0 6-0 to win maiden Wimbledon crown.

Key Points

• Iga Swiatek wins her first Wimbledon title in dominant fashion.
• Defeated Amanda Anisimova 6-0, 6-0 in the women’s singles final.
• Anisimova became the first woman since 1911 to lose a Wimbledon final 0-6, 0-6.
• Also the first 0-6, 0-6 loss in any Grand Slam final since 1988 (Steffi Graf vs Zvereva).
• Swiatek now holds major titles on all three surfaces:
• Clay (French Open – 4 titles)
• Hard (U.S. Open)
• Grass (Wimbledon 2024)
• She is the youngest woman since Serena Williams (2002) to win Slams on all surfaces.
• Became the first player since Monica Seles (1992) to win her first six major finals.

The correct answer is Swami Vivekananda.

Key Points

• National Youth Day is celebrated annually on 12^th January to commemorate the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.
• The Government of India declared Swami Vivekananda's birthday as National Youth Day in 1984 to honor his contributions towards inspiring youth.
• Swami Vivekananda, a key figure in introducing Indian philosophies like Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world, believed in the power of youth for nation-building.
• His teachings focused on self-confidence, self-reliance, and spirituality, making him an ideal role model for Indian youth.
• Various programs, including speeches, seminars, cultural performances, and competitions, are organized across India on National Youth Day to spread awareness about his life and ideals.

Additional Information

• Swami Vivekananda:
• Born on 12^th January 1863 in Kolkata, India, he was originally named Narendranath Datta.
• He was a disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and went on to establish the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897.
• Swami Vivekananda is best known for his speech at the 1893 Parliament of the World's Religions in Chicago, where he introduced Hinduism to the global audience.
• His famous quote, "Arise, awake, and stop not till the goal is reached," continues to inspire millions worldwide.
• National Youth Day Themes:
• Every year, National Youth Day is celebrated with a particular theme to engage the youth in constructive activities.
• The themes are centered around topics like youth empowerment, innovation, and spirituality.
• Significance of National Youth Day:
• The day serves to highlight the role of youth in shaping the future of the nation.
• It encourages young people to imbibe the teachings of Swami Vivekananda and work towards self-development and societal progress.
• Global Recognition:
• Swami Vivekananda's ideas on religious harmony, universal brotherhood, and the empowerment of youth resonate globally.
• His contributions to philosophy and spirituality have earned him recognition as one of India's greatest cultural ambassadors.

The correct answer is Shalbhanjika.

Key Points

• Shalbhanjika is a type of sculpture representing a tree goddess or yakshi, widely associated with fertility and nature worship in ancient Indian art.
• It is considered part of Hindu and folk traditions rather than being directly inspired by Buddhist ideas.
• Yakshis like Shalbhanjika are often depicted in sensual poses, highlighting their connection to fertility and prosperity.
• While the Sanchi Stupa contains depictions of Buddhist symbols such as the Empty Seat, Wheel, and Tree, the Shalbhanjika sculptures are ornamental additions influenced by non-Buddhist traditions.
• Such sculptures were integrated into Buddhist architecture to reflect the cultural amalgamation and appeal to a broader audience beyond the Buddhist community.

Additional Information

• Sanchi Stupa:
• Located in Madhya Pradesh, it is one of the oldest stone structures in India and a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• Built during the Mauryan dynasty under Emperor Ashoka in the 3^rd century BCE.
• It serves as a significant site for Buddhist art and architecture.
• Buddhist Symbols:
• The Empty Seat symbolizes Buddha's enlightenment and absence following nirvana.
• The Wheel (Dharmachakra) represents the teachings of Buddha and the cycle of life.
• The Tree often symbolizes the Bodhi Tree under which Buddha attained enlightenment.
• Yakshis and Yakshas:
• Yakshis are female nature spirits, while Yakshas are their male counterparts in ancient Indian mythology.
• They are considered guardians of treasures hidden in the earth and are frequently depicted in Hindu, Jain, and Buddhist art.
• Cultural Syncretism:
• The incorporation of Shalbhanjika into Buddhist monuments like Sanchi reflects the blending of Buddhist and non-Buddhist traditions.
• This syncretism aimed to make Buddhist teachings accessible to followers of other religions and cultural practices.

The Correct Answer is Sonbhadra.

In News

• Salkhan Fossils Park makes it to UNESCO’s tentative list of World Heritage Sites.

Key Points

• Salkhan Fossils Park, in Sonbhadra (Uttar Pradesh), is now on UNESCO’s tentative World Heritage list.
• Location: Near Salkhan village, ~15 km from Robertsganj.
• It’s one of the oldest fossil sites in the world.
• A key step: Signing of MoU (June 26, 2024) between:
• UP Eco-Tourism Development Board
• Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeosciences, Lucknow
• The institute’s studies confirmed the presence of:
• 1.4 billion-year-old stromatolites
• Algae fossils — some of the earliest known evidence of life on Earth
• These findings played a crucial role in the UNESCO nomination.

The correct answer is Option 1: 1, 2, 3, 4.

Key Points

• The USA granted universal adult franchise in 1920 with the adoption of the 19^th Amendment, granting voting rights to women.
• Sri Lanka granted universal adult franchise in 1931, becoming one of the first Asian countries to do so.
• Japan adopted universal adult franchise in 1945, following the end of World War II and the establishment of democratic reforms under Allied occupation.
• India implemented universal adult franchise in 1950, following the adoption of its Constitution on January 26, 1950.
• The chronological order of the countries based on granting universal adult franchise is: USA (1920), Sri Lanka (1931), Japan (1945), India (1950).

Additional Information

• Universal Adult Franchise: Refers to the right of citizens to vote regardless of their gender, race, wealth, or social status, ensuring democratic equality.
• 19^th Amendment (USA): Ratified in 1920, this amendment granted women the right to vote, marking a significant milestone in the suffragette movement.
• Sri Lanka's Milestone: Sri Lanka introduced universal adult franchise in 1931 under the Donoughmore Constitution, setting a precedent in Asia.
• Post-War Reforms in Japan: The 1945 democratic reforms in Japan under Allied supervision included granting universal suffrage to men and women.
• India's Constitution: The Indian Constitution enshrined universal adult franchise as a fundamental principle of democracy, making voting rights a cornerstone of the Republic of India.

The Correct Answer is Heart Lamp.

In News

• ‘Heart Lamp’ becomes 1^st Kannada title shortlisted for International Booker Prize 2025.

Key Points

• Banu Mushtaq’s short story collection, ‘Heart Lamp’, has been shortlisted for the International Booker Prize 2025.
• The collection has been translated from Kannada to English by Deepa Bhasthi.
• This is the first time a Kannada title has been shortlisted for the International Booker Prize.
• The collection consists of 12 stories, originally published between 1990 and 2023.
• Mushtaq’s work is praised for its witty, vivid, colloquial, moving, and excoriating style in capturing portraits of family and community tensions.
• The collection is one of six titles shortlisted for the International Booker Prize 2025.

Given:

Decrease in length = 3%

Decrease in breadth = 3%

Formula used:

% change in area = % change in length + % change in breadth + (product of changes ÷ 100)

i.e. = (−a) + (−b) + (a × b ÷ 100)

Calculations:

⇒ a = 3, b = 3

⇒ % change = −3 − 3 + (3 × 3 ÷ 100)

⇒ % change = −6 + 0.09

⇒ % change = −5.91%

∴ % decrease in area = 5.91%.

Shortcut Trick

Let the annual installment be 100 units.

Total amount for 4 years = (100 × 4) + [12 × (3 + 2 + 1 + 0)]

⇒ 400 + (12 × 6) = 472 units.

Given, 472 units = ₹3,658

⇒ 1 unit = 3,658 ÷ 472 = 7.75

⇒ 100 units = 7.75 × 100 = ₹775

∴ The correct answer is ₹775.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Debt (A) = ₹3,658 | Time (n) = 4 years | Rate (r) = 12% p.a.

Formula Used:

A = n × x + [x × r × n(n − 1)] ÷ (2 × 100), where x is the annual installment.

Calculations:

⇒ 3,658 = 4x + [x × 12 × 4(3)] ÷ 200

⇒ 3,658 = 4x + [x × 12 × 12] ÷ 200

⇒ 3,658 = 4x + 144x ÷ 200

⇒ 3,658 = 4x + 0.72x

⇒ 3,658 = 4.72x

⇒ x = 3,658 ÷ 4.72

⇒ x = 775

∴ The correct answer is ₹775.

Additional Information

Simple Interest Installment Logic

In SI, the first installment earns interest for (n−1) years, the second for (n−2) years, and the last installment earns 0 interest.

Debt vs Principal

Debt refers to the Amount (Principal + Interest) due at the end of the specified period.

Direct Formula for Installment

Installment = (100 × A) ÷ [100n + rt(n−1)/2], where A is the total debt.

Shortcut Trick

For a number to be divisible by 36, it must be divisible by its co-prime factors, 4 and 9.

Rule for 4: Last two digits must be divisible by 4 → 47502 is eliminated (02 is not divisible by 4).

Rule for 9: Sum of digits must be a multiple of 9.

Checking remaining options: Sum of digits for 29412 = 2 + 9 + 4 + 1 + 2 = 18 (Divisible by 9).

∴ The correct answer is 29412.

Alternate Method

Given:

Numbers to check: 47502, 29412, 54732, 87064

Concept Used:

Since 36 = 4 × 9 and gcd(4, 9) = 1, any number divisible by 36 must be divisible by both 4 and 9.

Divisibility by 4: The number formed by the last two digits is divisible by 4.

Divisibility by 9: The sum of the digits of the number is divisible by 9.

Calculations:

⇒ Step 1: Check divisibility by 4 (Last two digits)

⇒ 47502 → 02 is not divisible by 4.

⇒ 29412 → 12 is divisible by 4.

⇒ 54732 → 32 is divisible by 4.

⇒ 87064 → 64 is divisible by 4.

⇒ Step 2: Check divisibility by 9 for the remaining numbers (Sum of digits)

⇒ 29412 → 2 + 9 + 4 + 1 + 2 = 18 (18 is divisible by 9)

⇒ 54732 → 5 + 4 + 7 + 3 + 2 = 21 (21 is not divisible by 9)

⇒ 87064 → 8 + 7 + 0 + 6 + 4 = 25 (25 is not divisible by 9)

⇒ Hence, only 29412 satisfies both conditions.

∴ The correct answer is 29412.

Additional Information

Divisibility by Composite Numbers

If a number is divisible by a composite number, it must be completely divisible by all of its co-prime factors (e.g., for 72, check 8 and 9).

Divisibility Rule of 8

A number is divisible by 8 if the number formed by its last three digits is divisible by 8.

Divisibility Rule of 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of its digits at odd places and the sum of its digits at even places is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Given:

Initial ratio A : B = 17 : 18

140 L of mixture taken out and replaced with 140 L of B

New ratio = 7 : 8

Formula used:

Use ratio and proportion with mixture concept:

Initial A = 17x, B = 18x

Total = 35x

After removing 140 L, proportion remains same in removed part

Then add 140 L of B and form new ratio

Calculations:

⇒ Initial A = 17x, B = 18x

⇒ After removing 140 L, A removed = (17/35) × 140 = 68 L

⇒ B removed = (18/35) × 140 = 72 L

⇒ Remaining A = 17x − 68, B = 18x − 72

⇒ Add 140 L of B → New B = 18x − 72 + 140 = 18x + 68

New ratio: (17x − 68) : (18x + 68) = 7 : 8

⇒ (17x − 68)/ (18x + 68) = 7/8

⇒ 8(17x − 68) = 7(18x + 68)

⇒ 136x − 544 = 126x + 476

⇒ 10x = 1020

⇒ x = 102

Initial B = 18x = 18 × 102 = 1836 L

∴ Initial quantity of B = 1836 litres.

Given:

Two dice are thrown.

Concept:

The number of ways in which a sum of 7 can be obtained from two dice.

Solution:

To get a sum of 7, the possible combinations are (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), and (6,1).

There are 6 ways in which two dice can be thrown, so the probability of getting a sum of 7 is 6/36 or 1/6.

Therefore, the number of ways in which the sum can be 7 is 6.

Therefore, the answer is option 3.

Given:

Ratio of two numbers = 7:3

HCF = 34

Formula used:

Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

Calculation:

Let the two numbers be 7x and 3x. HCF = x = 34

Numbers = 7 × 34 and 3 × 34

⇒ Numbers = 238 and 102

Product of numbers = 238 × 102 = 24276

HCF × LCM = Product of the two numbers

⇒ 34 × LCM = 24276

⇒ LCM = 714

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

List Price = ₹10,000

Trade Discount = 15%

Cash Discount = 5%

Formula used:

Final Price = (List Price - Trade Discount) - Cash Discount

Trade Discount = List Price × (Trade Discount % / 100)

Cash Discount = (List Price - Trade Discount) × (Cash Discount % / 100)

Calculations:

Trade Discount = ₹10,000 × (15 / 100) = ₹1,500

Price after Trade Discount = ₹10,000 - ₹1,500 = ₹8,500

Cash Discount = ₹8,500 × (5 / 100) = ₹425

Final Price = ₹8,500 - ₹425 = ₹8,075

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Given:

Speed for first part = 60 km/hr

Speed for second part = 90 km/hr

Speed for third part = 120 km/hr

Total Distance = 360 km

Formula used:

Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time

Total Time = Time for first part + Time for second part + Time for third part

Calculation:

Time for first part = \(\dfrac{120}{60}\) = 2 hours

Time for second part = \(\dfrac{180}{90}\) = 2 hours

Time for third part = \(\dfrac{60}{120}\) = 0.5 hours

Total Time = 2 + 2 + 0.5 = 4.5 hours

Average Speed = \(\dfrac{360}{4.5}\) = 80 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Given:

Original length of the field = L

Original breadth of the field = B

New length of the field = 70% of L = 0.7L

New breadth of the field = 90% of B = 0.9B

Formula Used:

Percentage Decrease in Area = ((Original Area - New Area) / Original Area) × 100

Calculation:

Original Area = L × B

New Area = 0.7L × 0.9B

New Area = 0.63LB

Percentage Decrease in Area = ((L × B - 0.63LB) / L × B) × 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease in Area = ((LB - 0.63LB) / LB) × 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease in Area = (0.37LB / LB) × 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease in Area = 0.37 × 100

⇒ Percentage Decrease in Area = 37%

The percentage decrease in the area of Rakesh's field is 37%.

Given:

(√26.01 ÷  √2.89 ×√46.24 ÷ √2.89)+ (√26.01 ÷ √2.89 ×√46.24 ÷  √2.89) = ? 

Formula Used:

√a ÷ √b = √a/b and √a × √b = √(a × b)

Calculation:

(√26.01 ÷  √2.89 ×√46.24 ÷ √2.89)+ (√26.01 ÷ √2.89 ×√46.24 ÷  √2.89) = ? 

(5.1 ÷ 1.7 × 6.8 ÷ 1.7) + (5.1 ÷ 1.7 × 6.8 ÷ 1.7) = ?

⇒ (3 × 4) + (3 × 4)

⇒ 12 + 12

⇒ 24

The correct answer is 24.

Given:

A + B can do work in = 12 days

A alone can do work in = 20 days

Formula used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Days

B's Efficiency = (A + B) - A

B's Days = Total Work ÷ B's Efficiency

Calculation:

let the Total Work = 60 units

A's 1 day work = 60 ÷ 20 = 3 units

(A + B)'s 1 day work = 60 ÷ 12 = 5 units

⇒ B's 1 day work = 5 - 3 = 2 units

⇒ B's days = 60 ÷ 2 = 30 days

∴ B alone can finish in 30 days.

Given:

Ratio of students in three classes (A : B : C) = 3 : 7 : 8

After transferring 10 students from C to B, B has 80 students.

Formula Used:

Total students in all classes = Total ratio × Common multiple

Students in each class = Ratio × Common multiple

Calculation:

Let the common multiple be x.

Students in A = 3x, Students in B = 7x, Students in C = 8x.

After transferring 10 students from C to B:

B becomes 7x + 10, and C becomes 8x - 10.

It is given that B now has 80 students:

⇒ 7x + 10 = 80

⇒ 7x = 80 - 10

⇒ 7x = 70

⇒ x = 10

Students in A = 3x = 3 × 10 = 30

Students in B = 7x = 7 × 10 = 70

Students in C = 8x = 8 × 10 = 80

Total students = 30 + 70 + 80 = 180

The total number of students in the three classes is 180.

Given:

Milk quantities:

1^st quality = 493 liters

2^nd quality = 551 liters

3^rd quality = 609 liters

Formula Used:

To find the least possible number of bottles of equal size, we calculate the HCF (Highest Common Factor) of the given quantities.

Calculation:

Find the HCF of 493, 551, and 609:

Prime factorization:

493 = 17 × 29

551 = 19 × 29

609 = 3 × 29 × 7

Common factor = 29

HCF = 29 liters (bottle size)

Number of bottles required:

⇒ Total bottles = (493 / 29) + (551 / 29) + (609 / 29)

⇒ Total bottles = 17 + 19 + 21

⇒ Total bottles = 57

The least possible number of bottles is 57.

Shortcut Trick

Let the Selling Price (SP) of 1 chair be ₹1.

Total Selling Price of 153 chairs = ₹153

Profit = Selling Price of 68 chairs = ₹68

Cost Price (CP) of 153 chairs = SP − Profit = 153 − 68 = ₹85

Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 = (68 ÷ 85) × 100 = 80%

∴ The correct answer is 80%.

Alternate Method

Total SP of 153 chairs = 153 units

CP = 85 units

Profit = 68 units

Profit % = (68 / 85) × 100 = 80%

Given:

Number of chairs sold = 153

Gain = Selling price of 68 chairs

Formula Used:

Profit = SP − CP

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Profit on 153 chairs = SP of 153 chairs − CP of 153 chairs

⇒ SP of 68 chairs = SP of 153 chairs − CP of 153 chairs

⇒ CP of 153 chairs = SP of 153 chairs − SP of 68 chairs

⇒ CP of 153 chairs = SP of (153 − 68) chairs = SP of 85 chairs

⇒ Let SP of 1 chair be ₹1

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = ₹85

⇒ Profit = ₹68

⇒ Profit % = (68 ÷ 85) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (4 ÷ 5) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 80%

∴ The correct answer is 80%.

Additional Information

Calculation Base for Profit/Loss

Unless otherwise explicitly stated in the question, the profit or loss percentage is always calculated over the Cost Price (CP).

Selling Price Relation

Selling Price (SP) can be derived directly using CP and profit percentage as: SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100.

Loss in Terms of SP

If there is a loss equal to the SP of some items, then the CP becomes greater than the SP: CP of sold items = SP of sold items + SP of loss items.

Shortcut Trick

Total weight of Chetan, Vipul and Mohan = 46 × 3 = 138 kg

Combined weight of (Chetan + Vipul) and (Vipul + Mohan) = (40 × 2) + (44 × 2) = 168 kg

Since Vipul's weight is counted twice in the above combined sum, we can find his exact weight by subtraction:

Weight of Vipul = 168 − 138 = 30 kg

∴ The correct answer is 30 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average weight of Chetan, Vipul and Mohan = 46 kg

Average weight of Chetan and Vipul = 40 kg

Average weight of Vipul and Mohan = 44 kg

Formula Used:

Total Sum = Average × Number of persons

Total (Chetan + Vipul + Mohan) = 138 kg

Chetan + Vipul = 80 kg

Chetan

Vipul

Mohan

Vipul + Mohan = 88 kg

Vipul = (80 + 88) − 138 = 30 kg

Calculations:

Let the weights of Chetan, Vipul, and Mohan be C, V, and M respectively.

⇒ Total weight of all three = C + V + M = 46 × 3 = 138 kg --- (1)

⇒ Total weight of Chetan and Vipul = C + V = 40 × 2 = 80 kg --- (2)

⇒ Total weight of Vipul and Mohan = V + M = 44 × 2 = 88 kg --- (3)

Adding equations (2) and (3):

⇒ (C + V) + (V + M) = 80 + 88

⇒ C + 2V + M = 168 kg --- (4)

Subtracting equation (1) from (4):

⇒ (C + 2V + M) − (C + V + M) = 168 − 138

⇒ V = 30 kg

∴ The correct answer is 30 kg.

Additional Information

Average Formula

Average is mathematically defined as the sum of all observations divided by the total number of observations. Formula: Average = Sum of Observations ÷ Number of Observations.

Overlapping Groups Concept

When one individual or item is counted simultaneously in two separate sub-groups, the sum of those two sub-groups will strictly exceed the actual combined group total. The exact value of the overlapping item is determined by the difference between the sum of the sub-groups and the actual total sum.

Weighted Average

Used when dealing with multiple groups of different sample sizes. Formula: Combined Average = (n₁ × A₁ + n₂ × A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n represents the number of elements and A represents their respective averages.

Given :

Rate of interest, R = 5% and Time, T = 3 years

Simple interest (S. I.) = Rs. 1200

Formula used:

C.

I. = \(P;\left[ {{{\left( {;1 + \frac{R}{{100}}} \right)}^T} - 1} \right]\)

Calculation :

Let the principal be P

S.

I. = (P × R × T)/100

⇒ 1200 = (P × 5 × 3)/100

⇒ P = 8000

For C.

I. C.

I. = \(P;\left[ {{{\left( {;1 + \frac{R}{{100}}} \right)}^T} - 1} \right]\)

⇒ C.

I. = 8000 × \(\left[ {{{\left( {;1 + \frac{5}{{100}}} \right)}^3} - 1} \right]\)

⇒ C.

I. = Rs. 1261

∴ The compound interest is Rs. 1261

Given:

A can do the work alone in 9 days

B can do the work alone in 12 days

C can do the work alone in 18 days

A, B, and C started together, but A and C worked for only 3 days

Calculation:

Let Total Work = 72 units

A's efficiency = 72 / 9 = 8 units/day

B's efficiency = 72 / 12 = 6 units/day

C's efficiency = 72 / 18 = 4 units/day

Total efficiency for 3 days = (A + B + C) = 8 + 6 + 4 = 18 units/day

Work done in 3 days = 18 × 3 = 54 units

Remaining work = 72 − 54 = 18 units

Now only B continues the work (efficiency = 6 units/day)

Time to complete remaining 18 units = 18 / 6 = 3 days

Total time to complete the work = 3 (initial) + 3 (B alone) = 6 days

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Given:

Number of black balls = 5

Number of white balls = 3

Number of red balls = 2

Concept Used:

Permutation and Combination

Calculation:

Total number of balls in the bag = 5 + 3 + 2 = 10

P (first ball red) = 2/10

P (second ball black) = 5/9

P (third ball white) = 3/8

So, Overall Probability = 2/10 × 5/9 × 3/8 = 1/24

∴ The Probability of the first ball being red, the second ball being black and the third ball being white is 1/24.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of original to new ticket price = 10 : 13.

Price increase per ticket = 13 − 10 = 3 units.

Since 10 units = ₹250 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹25 ⇒ 3 units = ₹75.

Total revenue increase = Increase per ticket × Total tickets sold.

Revenue increase = ₹75 × 3600 = ₹2,70,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,70,000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Original price of a movie ticket = ₹250

Ratio of original price to increased price = 10 : 13

Total number of tickets sold = 3600

Original Price: 10 units = ₹250

10 units = ₹250

+3 units

₹75 Increase
Total Revenue Increase = 3600 tickets × ₹75
= ₹2,70,000

Formula Used:

Total Revenue = Price per ticket × Number of tickets sold

Calculations:

⇒ Let the original price be 10x and increased price be 13x.

⇒ Given, 10x = 250 ⇒ x = 25

⇒ Increased price = 13 × 25 = ₹325

⇒ Original Revenue = 250 × 3600 = ₹9,00,000

⇒ New Revenue = 325 × 3600 = ₹11,70,000

⇒ Increase in revenue = 11,70,000 − 9,00,000 = ₹2,70,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,70,000.

Additional Information

Total Revenue Formula

Revenue = Price per item × Quantity sold. Any percentage or proportional change in price or quantity directly impacts the overall revenue.

Percentage Change in Revenue

If price changes by a% and quantity changes by b%, the net percentage change in revenue is given by: (a + b + ab/100)%.

Ratio and Proportion Application

If two quantities are in the ratio a : b and the first quantity is known to be x, then 1 unit equals x/a. The second quantity or any difference can be calculated directly by multiplying units with x/a.

Given:

Initial population = Unknown (let it be P).

15% of the initial population left the town.

60% of the remaining population left the town.

Current population = 3400.

Formula Used:

Remaining population after percentage change = Initial population × (1 - Percentage change).

To find the ratio of initial population to present population:

Ratio = Initial population / Current population.

Calculation:

Remaining population after 15% left = P × (1 - 15/100)

Remaining population = P × 85/100

Remaining population after 60% of above left = (P × 85/100) × (1 - 60/100)

Remaining population = (P × 85/100) × 40/100

Current population = (P × 85 × 40) / 10000

3400 = (P × 85 × 40) / 10000

⇒ P = (3400 × 10000) / (85 × 40)

⇒ P = 34000000 / 3400

⇒ P = 10000

Initial population = 10000.

Ratio = Initial population / Current population

Ratio = 10000 / 3400

⇒ Ratio = 100:34

⇒ Ratio = 50:17

The ratio of initial population to present population is 50:17.

Given:-

Let the present age of Saksham's father be X.

Hence, as per given information, Saksham's age would be 'X/3'.

It is also given that 5 years before Saksham's father's age was half the age of Saksham's grandfather.

Saksham's grandfather will celebrate his 88^th birthday after 3 years

Hence, the present age of Saksham's grandfather = 88 - 3 = 85

5 years ago Saksham's father's age was half the age of Saksham's grandfather

5 years ago Saksham's grandfather's age was (85 - 5) = 80 years,

Hence, 5 years ago Saksham's father's age was (80 ÷ 2) = 40 years

Present age of Saksham's father(X) = 40 + 5 = 45 Years

And Saksham's present age (X/3) = 45/3 = 15 years.

Hence, Saksham's present age is 15 years.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2

The diagrammatic representation of the given data is as follows:

The distance between Saurabh’s college and the library.

Applying Pythagoras Theorem

Shortest distance² = Vertical distance² + Horizontal distance² 

AC² = AB² + BC²

= (20)² + (15 - 10 + 16)² 

= (20)² + (21)²

= 400 + 441

= 841

= 29²

Shortest distance = 29 km

Hence, the shortest distance between Saurabh’s college and library is 29 km.

In figure (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the rectangle and the triangle only and the other dot lies in the region of circle only.

Only figure (C) consists of both types of regions.

Hence, figure (C) is the correct one.

1. Four-person sits between Q and V and none of them sits at the extreme end position.

2. Two persons sit between R and Q.

3. P sits fourth to the right of W. 

4. Two persons sit between U and S who is an immediate neighbour of W.

Case 2 got eliminated as immediate position of W is already occupied

P and T sit at extreme ends.

Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

The logic is:

We are operating in Column wise-

Image1: 23 + 45 = 68→ 68 ÷ 4→ 17

Image 2: 34 + 50 = 84→ 84 ÷ 4→ 21

Image 3: 54 + 12 = 66→ 66 ÷ 6→ 11

Hence, the correct answer is 6

Logic: We have to make a family tree as per the above conditions.

Consider the below symbols.

Statements:

A) Q is son of P who is father of R.

B) R is daughter of O and O is daughter of N.

C) N is wife of M.

D) S is sister of N.

Statements:

i) M is father of O.→ True

ii) N is father of O. → False (N is the Mother of O).

iii) S is mother of P. → False

iv) Q is son of R. → False

Hence, 'M is father of O.' is true.

The logic followed here is:

'VIOLATES' is written as 'TALOVIES',

Similarly, for 'VELVETIN'

So, 'VELVETIN' will be written as 'TEVLVEIN'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The meaning of the words are given below:

Gullible : Credulous

Gullible - easily persuaded to believe something

Credulous - showing too great a readiness to believe things

These two words are synonyms of each other.

A. Harbinger : Herald

Harbinger - a person or thing that announces or signals the approach of another.

Herald - a person or thing viewed as a sign that something is about to happen.

These two words are synonyms of each other.

B. Succumb : Conquer

Succumb - fail to resist pressure; give in

Conquer - successfully overcome

These two words are not synonyms of each other.

C. Ominous : Auspicious

Ominous - giving the impression that something bad is going to happen

Auspicious - giving or being a sign of future success.

These two words are not synonyms of each other.

D. Erode : Preserve

Erode - gradually destroy

Preserve - maintain in its original or existing state

These two words are not synonyms of each other.

Hence, 'Harbinger : Herald' is the correct answer.

The series pattern followed here is:

 

• 136*5+5 = 685

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The Correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at the left side of  XY:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Mistake Points

• The mirror is placed on the left side of XY not right side of XY.
• The Letter adjacent to the mirror after the mirror image will be adjacent to it just with the left change to right and right change to left vice-versa. As here the letter B is adjacent to the mirror thus after mirror image B will only be adjacent to the mirror with it's mirror image.

Additional Information

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols:

Hence, Savita is grandmother of Charu.

The given information is:

1) A man is facing South

2) He turns 135° in the anti-clockwise direction

3. Then 180° in the clockwise direction

Draw the diagram as per the given information

From the above diagram, it is clear that a man is facing the South-West now.

Hence, the correct answer is South-West.

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The pattern for this is as follows;

Hence, "LGQ" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: All the images have a Five-Point star except B.

So, the figure 'B' is different from the other.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given :-  U V _ X X _ V W W _U V _ W X U V W 

By checking options and substituting accordingly.

1) W X U U V U → U V W X - X X V W - W U U V - U W X U - V V W U 

2) W X U V U X → U V W X - X X V W - W U U V - V W X U - U V W X 

3) W V U X U U → U V W X - X V V W - W U U V - X W X U - U V W U 

4) W U X V U X  → U V W X - X U V W - W X U V - V W X U - U V W X 

• Here, "UVWX" from starting with 'X' makes reverse cyclic order.
• Option (4) gives the pattern:- U V W X - X U V W - W X U V - V W X U - U V W X

Hence, the correct answer is "WUXVUX ".

In the given question figure, one of the dots lies in the region common to the hexagon and star and the other dot lies in the triangle.

Figure ‘c’ consist same type of the region . 

Hence, Figure ‘c’ is the correct option.

The pattern followed here is:

Each letter is increasing by +2, +3, +4, +5, +6.

Similarly,

Hence, “HEART” can be written as “JHEWZ”.

Study of birds is called Ornithology.

Similarly, Study of plants is called Botany.

Hence, “Botany” is the correct answer.

The pattern followed in this series is:

Similarly,

10.5 x 2.5 = 26.25

Thus the term to complete the series is 26.25.

The logic follow here is: 

Column wise: 

2 × 2^nd number - (1^st number - 2^nd number) = 3^rd number

Column 1 → 2 × 18 - (24 - 18) = 36 - 6 = 30,

Column 2 → 2 × 24 - (32 - 24) = 48 - 8 = 40,

Similarly,

Column 3 → 2 × 5 - (7 - 5) = 10 - 2 = 8

Hence, 8 is the correct answer.

Alternate MethodThe logic follow here is: 

Column wise: 

3 × 2^nd number - 1^st number = 3^rd number.

Column 1 → 3 × 18 - 24 = 54 - 24 = 30

Column 2 → 3 × 24 - 32 = 72 - 32 = 40

Similarly, 

Column 3 → 3 × 5 - 7 = 15 - 7 = 8

Hence, 8 is the correct answer.

KWAH is written as HAWK

EUPNGIN is written as PENGUIN

WCRO is written as CROW

AORSWPR is written as SPARROW

All the above are birds that can fly in the air except PENGUIN.

Hence, EUPNGIN is the odd one among the given options.

The logic followed here is :-  Sum of the opposite letter's position value according to English alphabetic series and number of letters within the word.

​So,

• ‘POLISH’ is written as ‘89’

​

And,

• ‘CLIP’ is written as ‘72’

Similarly,

• ‘CONTROL’ is written as :

Hence, the correct answer is "99".

According to the given conditions,

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2: South-West".

The students who are studious as well as players represented by common part of Triangle square and circle.

Hence, letter “C” represents studious students who are players.

The erroneous part is 'particularly both my father-in-laws'.

Key Points

• The error in the sentence lies in the incorrect plural form used for "father-in-law."
• When referring to more than one father-in-law, the plural form should be "fathers-in-law." This is a compound noun where "father" is the main noun, and "in-law" specifies the relationship.
• To indicate multiple individuals fitting this description, "fathers-in-law" is the appropriate plural form.
• For instance: 
• Singular: My father-in-law is a retired professor.
• Plural: Both my fathers-in-law are avid travelers.
• Therefore, in the sentence provided, the correct phrase should be "particularly both my fathers-in-law" to accurately refer to multiple individuals who are fathers-in-law within the context.

Correct Sentence: My partner's parents, particularly both my fathers-in-law, bring diverse perspectives and enriching stories to our family gatherings.

The correct answer is 'sometime next week.'

Key Points

• In the given sentence or italicized part, the use of the article 'the' is superfluous or not required.
• The definite article 'the' is used to give emphasis to something.​
• In the given sentence ''next week'' is not written emphatically.
• Therefore, there is no need to use 'the' before ''next week''.

Correct Sentence: Let’s have a party sometime next week.

Additional Information

• There are three articles: a, an, and the. Articles are used before nouns or noun equivalents and are a type of adjective.

 

 

Hinglish

• दिए गए वाक्य में article 'the' का प्रयोग आवश्यक नहीं है।
• Definite article 'the' का प्रयोग किसी चीज पर जोर देने के लिए किया जाता है।
• दिए गए वाक्य में ''next week'' पर जोर नहीं दिया गया है।
• इसलिए, ''next week'' से पहले 'the' का उपयोग करने की कोई आवश्यकता नहीं है।

अत: सही उत्तर विकल्प 1 है।

सही वाक्य: Let’s have a party sometime next week.

The erroneous part is 'this year it reflect badly'.

Key Points

• The given sentence is grammatically incorrect.
• Here, 'this year it will reflect badly' should be used instead of 'this year it reflect badly'.
• The given sentence is an example of a conditional sentence.
• The type 1 conditional is used to refer to the present or future where the situation is real.
• Type 1 conditional refers to a possible condition and its probable result.
• Let's look at the structure of these kinds of sentences: If + simple present, simple future
• Example: If you don't hurry, you will miss the train.
• Thus, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: If the economy fails this year it will reflect badly on the government.

The correct answer is: Kind.

Key Points

• The word "Benevolent" means well-meaning and kindly. (दयालु)
• Example: The benevolent teacher always helped her students with their problems, no matter how big or small.
• "Kind" refers to being friendly, generous, and considerate. (दयालु)
• Example: She was very kind to the new student, showing him around the school and introducing him to her friends.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Enthusiastic (उत्साही): Having or showing intense and eager enjoyment, interest, or approval.
• Example: The enthusiastic crowd cheered loudly for their favorite team.
• Mysterious (रहस्यमय): Difficult or impossible to understand, explain, or identify.
• Example: The detective was intrigued by the mysterious disappearance of the painting.
• Hostile (शत्रुतापूर्ण): Unfriendly; antagonistic.
• Example: The debate between the two politicians turned hostile quickly.

The correct answer is: Strength.

Key Points

• The word "bolster" means to support or strengthen; to provide with a reinforcement. (मजबूत करना)
• Example: The manager bolstered the team's confidence with a motivating speech.
• "Strength" refers to the quality or state of being strong; physical power or capacity. (शक्ति)
• Example: Her strength helped her lift the heavy box easily.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'bolster' is 'strength'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Strength.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Weaken (कमजोर करना): To make or become weak or weaker.
• Example: The disease gradually weakened his body.
• Undermine (खोखला करना): To weaken or damage something gradually.
• Example: Continuous criticism can undermine an individual's confidence.
• Discourage (हतोत्साहित करना): To cause someone to lose confidence or enthusiasm.
• Example: The harsh comments discouraged her from pursuing her dreams.

The correct answer is: extraneous.

Key Points

• The word "Pertinent" means relevant or applicable to a particular matter; apposite. (प्रासंगिक)
• Example: Please stick to the pertinent facts during your testimony.
• "Extraneous" refers to something that is irrelevant or unrelated to the subject being dealt with. (असंगत)
• Example: We removed any extraneous details from the report to keep it concise.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Pertinent' is 'extraneous'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- extraneous

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Relevant (प्रासंगिक): Closely connected or appropriate to the matter at hand.
• Example: Your comments were very relevant to the discussion.
• Appropriate (उपयुक्त): Suitable or proper in the circumstances.
• Example: It's important to choose appropriate attire for the event.
• Suitable (उपयुक्त): Well fitted or appropriate for a particular purpose or occasion.
• Example: This film is not suitable for young children.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "abolish" means to formally put an end to a system, practice, or institution. (समाप्त करना)
• Example: The government decided to abolish the outdated law.
• "Cancel" refers to deciding or announcing that a planned event will not take place or that an agreement is no longer valid. (रद्द करना)
• Example: The meeting was cancelled due to unforeseen circumstances.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'abolish' is 'cancel'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Assist (मदद करना): To help or aid someone.
• Example: She assisted her friend in completing the project.
• Subside (शांत होना): To become less intense, violent, or severe.
• Example: The storm began to subside after a few hours.
• Worship (पूजा करना): The feeling or expression of reverence and adoration for a deity.
• Example: The community gathered to worship at the temple.

The correct answer is: Ambivert

Key Points

• Ambivert is a term used to describe someone who possesses both extroverted and introverted qualities, falling somewhere in between the two extremes. (उभयमुखी)
• An ambivert can enjoy socializing and being around people but also values and needs periods of solitude and reflection.
• Example: Despite enjoying social events, Mark, an ambivert, occasionally seeks solitude to recharge and reflect on his thoughts.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

Additional Information

• Stoic: Enduring hardship or pain without showing emotion; maintaining a calm and uncomplaining demeanour. (उदासीन)
• Ambiguous: Having multiple possible meanings or interpretations; unclear or vague. (अस्पष्ट)
• Dual: Involving or consisting of two parts, elements, or aspects. (दोहरा)

The correct answer is- 'Meek.'

Key Points

• Let's understand the meaning of the given word:
• Intrepid means fearless and adventurous. Meek means quiet and easily scared. (Intrepid का अर्थ है निडर और साहसी। Meek का अर्थ है शांत और आसानी से डरा हुआ)
• Example: Three intrepid explorers head out into the unknown.
• By the meaning and example, we can say that 'Meek' is the opposite word for 'Intrepid.'
• Hence option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

• Synonyms of the given word Intrepid are:
• Courageous, Heroic, Fearless
• Let's understand the meaning of the given options:
• Greed: Excessive desire to acquire or possess more (अधिक प्राप्त करने या रखने की अत्यधिक इच्छा)
• Kind: Generous, helpful, and thinking about other people's feelings (उदार, मददगार और अन्य लोगों की भावनाओं के बारे में सोचने वाला)
• Sigh: Breath deeply and heavily (गहरी और भारी सांस लेंना)