Previous Year Paper

UGC NET Paper 2: Management 30th Nov 2021 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2021

100 questions120 minutes
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Question 1

A transportation problem with m origins and n destinations becomes a trans-shipment problem with

  1. AOption (a)

    (m+n) sources and (m+ n) destinations

  2. BOption (b)

    (m+n-1) sources and equal number of destinations

  3. COption (c)

    (m-n) sources and (m-n) destinations

  4. DOption (d)

    (m+n-2) sources and (m+n-2) destinations

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(m+n) sources and (m+ n) destinations

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is (m + n) sources and (m + n) destinations.

Key Points

  • In case of transportation problems, the amount to be sent from each origin, the amount to be received at each destination, and the cost per unit shipped from any origin to any destination are specified and transshipment is not considered.
  • Thus each point acts as a shipper only or as a receiver only. We may extend this problem to permit transshipment with the additional feature that shipments may go via any sequence of points rather than being restricted to direct connections from one origin to one of the destinations.
  • Suppose that, we have m origins and n destinations. Since in a transshipment problem, any origin or destination can ship to any other origin or destination it would be convenient to number them successively so that the origins are numbered from 1 to m and the destinations from m + 1 to m + n.

So, A transportation problem with m origins and n destinations becomes a trans-shipment problem with (m+n) sources and (m+ n) destinations.

Additional Information 

Transportation problems:

  • A transportation problem refers to a class of linear programming problems that involves the selection of the most economical shipping routes for the transfer of a uniform commodity from a number of sources to a number of destinations.
  • In case of an unbalanced transportation problem, the total availability is not equal the to total demand, thus some of the source and/or destination constraints are satisfied as inequalities.

Trans-shipment problems:

  • In the transshipment problem, all the sources and destinations can function in any direction.
  • Usually, in the absence of the transshipment, the transportation cost goes higher. Hence transshipment is also very useful for the transportation cost.
  • Both the transportation problem and the transshipment problem are also quite widely used for planning bulk distribution.

Hence, the correct answer is (m+n) sources and (m+ n) destinations.

Question 2

In statistical quality control, the expected process variation (natural tolerance) is commonly taken to be

  1. AOption (a)

    µ ± 1σ

  2. BOption (b)

    µ ± 2σ

  3. COption (c)

    µ ± 3σ

  4. DOption (d)

    µ ± s/√n

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

µ ± 3σ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is µ ± 3σ

Key Points

  • µ ± 3σ represents the expected process variation (natural tolerance) in Statistical Quality Control:
  • In statistical quality control, natural tolerance limits are typically set at µ ± 3σ to account for the majority of process variation.
  • This range covers approximately 99.73% of the process data, assuming a normal distribution.
  • This helps in determining whether a process is in control or if there are special causes of variation that need investigation and correction.

Additional Information

  • µ ± 1σ:
  • This range covers only about 68.27% of the process data. It is too narrow to account for the majority of natural process variations and is not typically used as the standard for process control.
  • µ ± 2σ:
  • This range covers about 95.45% of the process data. While more inclusive than µ ± 1σ, it still does not encompass the standard natural tolerance limits used in statistical quality control.
  • µ ± s/√n:
  • This is the formula for the standard error of the mean, not natural tolerance limits. It is used to estimate the precision of the sample mean as an estimate of the population mean, typically in hypothesis testing.

Question 3

The formula for calculating the Degree of Operating Leverage (DOL) is:

A. DOL= Percentage change in EBITPercentage change in sales\frac{ Percentage \ change \ in \ EBIT}{Percentage \ change \ in \ sales}

B. DOL = ContributionEBIT \frac{Contribution}{EBIT}

C. DOL= EBIT + FixedcostEBIT \frac{EBIT \ + \ Fixed cost}{EBIT}

D. DOL.= EBITContribution \frac{EBIT}{Contribution}

Choose the correct answer from the given options:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, C and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    A and B only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, B and C only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer isA, B and C only. 

Key Points Leverage:

 Leverage is an investment strategy of using borrowed money—specifically, the use of various financial instruments or borrowed capital—to increase the potential return of an investment. Leverage refers to the use of debt (borrowed funds) to amplify returns from an investment or project. Investors use leverage to multiply their buying power in the market.

Important Points

 Degree of Operating Leverage:

  • The degree of operating leverage measures how much a company's operating income changes in response to a change in sales.
  • The DOL ratio assists analysts in determining the impact of any change in sales on company earnings.
  • A company with high operating leverage has a large proportion of fixed costs, meaning a big increase in sales can lead to outsized changes in profits.
  • A company with high operating leverage has a large proportion of fixed costs, meaning a big increase in sales can lead to outsized changes in profits.
  • The formula for calculating Degree of Operating Leverage is -
  • Change in operating income is also known as a contribution. so the formula can also be written as (Contribution / EBIT).

Additional Information

 Financial Leverage- Financial leverage is the use of borrowed money (debt) to finance the purchase of assets with the expectation that the income or capital gain from the new asset will exceed the cost of borrowing.

 

Combined Leverage- Combined leverage is a leverage which refers to high profits due to fixed costs. It includes fixed operating expenses with fixed financial expenses. It indicates leverage benefits and risks which are in fixed quantity.

 

Hence, the correct answer is  Option 3.

Question 4

When is a firm not expected to prefer FDI to licensing?

  1. AOption (a)

    The firm has valuable know how that cannot be adequately protected by a contract

  2. BOption (b)

    The firm needs tight control over a foreign entity in order to maximise its market share and earnings in that country

  3. COption (c)

     The firm faces high transportation costs and tariffs

  4. DOption (d)

    The firm's skills and capabilities are difficult to replicate in a foreign market

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

 The firm faces high transportation costs and tariffs

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the firm faces high transportation costs and tariffs

Key Points **Foreign Direct Investment:**Foreign direct investment (FDI) is a category of cross-border investment in which an investor resident in one economy establishes a lasting interest in and a significant degree of influence over an enterprise resident in another economy.

Licensing: 

Licensing is defined as a business arrangement, wherein a company authorizes another company by issuing a license to temporarily access its intellectual property rights, i.e. manufacturing process, brand name, copyright, trademark, patent, technology, trade secret, etc. for adequate consideration and under specified conditions.

Important Points 

  • Firms will prefer FDI over exporting as a strategy to break into foreign markets when transportation costs or trade barriers make exporting unattractive, the firm will also favor
  • FDI over licensing (or franchising) when it wishes to maintain control over its technological know-how, or over its operations and business strategy, or when firm’s capabilities are simply not amenable to licensing, as may often be the case.
  • Exporting involves producing goods at home and then shipping them to the receiving country for sale. Licensing involves granting a foreign entity (the licensee) the right to produce and sell the firm’s product in return for a royalty fee on every unit the foreign entity sells.

Hence, the correct answer is The firm faces high transportation costs and tariffs.

Question 5

When is the finite population multiplier expected to be approximately equal to one?

  1. AOption (a)

    N ≥ 20n

  2. BOption (b)

    N ≥ 30n

  3. COption (c)

    N ≥ 10n

  4. DOption (d)

    N ≥ 40n

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

N ≥ 20n

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is N ≥ 20n.

Key Points Finite Population Multiplier:

  • A factor that is used to correct the standard error of the mean for studying a population oahe finite size that is small in relation to the size to the sample.
  • As the population becomes smaller and we sample a larger number of observations the sample observations are not independent of each other.
  • To correct for the impact of this, the Finite Correction Factor can be used to adjust the variance of the sampling distribution.
  • It is appropriate when more than 5% of the population is being sampled and the population has a known population size. There are cases when the population is known, and therefore the correction factor must be applied.
  • The issue arises for both the sampling distribution of the means and the sampling distribution of proportions.
  • The formula for calculating FPC is given by- FPC = ((N-n)/(N-1))1/2

where, N= population size

n= sample size

  • On the basis of the formula, we can say that the FPC is expected to be equal to one when  N ≥ 20n.

Additional Information

  • The finite population multiplier is approximately equal to one when the sample size is relatively small compared to the population size.
  • More specifically, it is considered close to one when the sample size is less than 5% of the population.
  • This assumption is based on the concept of "sampling without replacement," which means that once an element has been selected for the sample, it cannot be selected again.

Question 6

Who is widely credited for placing Japan as a world leader in the quality of its manufactured products?

  1. AOption (a)

    Deming W.E

  2. BOption (b)

    Goddard. W

  3. COption (c)

    T Juran J.M

  4. DOption (d)

    Schonberger R.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Deming W.E

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Deming W.E.

Key PointsWilliam Edwards Deming:

  • William Edwards Deming was born in 1900 in Sioux City, Iowa.
  • Deming became intrigued by the idea of using statistics to improve quality control.
  • His focus was on systematically collecting records of defects and then investigating and correcting root causes to improve production and eliminate future defects.
  • Deming was receiving international acclaim for his work by the 1950s.
  • In 1950, a group of Japanese businessmen invited him to come to Japan to teach them about his methodology, and as a result, Japanese manufacturing became world-renowned for its high-quality output.

Additional Information

  • Goddard. W- Goddard W was an American engineer, professor, physicist, and inventor who is credited with creating and building the world's first liquid-fueled rocket.  Goddard successfully launched his rocket on March 16, 1926, which ushered in an era of space flight and innovation.
  • T Juran J.M - Dr. Joseph M. Juran is widely regarded as the founding father of many of the key quality management programs used by organizations today.
  • Schonberger R.-Richard Schonberger, in his fourth and most important book yet, introduces a powerful new concept: that the many links between and within the four main business functions -- design, operations, accounting, and marketing -- form a continuous "chain of customers" that extends to those who buy the product or service.

Question 7

The salient features of Zero Base Budgeting are:

A. It is a decision oriented approach

B. The decision unit is broken into understandable decision packages which are ranked according to importance

C. The responsibility is shifted from top management to the manager of the decision unit 

D. It is an accounting oriented approach

E. Top management decides why a particular amount of money should be spent on a particular decision unit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    C, D and E only

  4. DOption (d)

    D and E only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, B and C only

Why this answer is correct

Budgeting is the process of designing, implementing and operating a budget. The main emphasis in the budgeting process is the provision of resources to support plans that are being implemented.

Key Points

Zero-based Budgeting is defined as a method of budgeting which requires each cost element to be specifically justified, though the activities to which the budget relates are not being undertaken for the first time. It is an activity-based budgeting system where budgets are prepared for each activity rather than functional departments.

 The salient features of Zero-Based Budgeting are:

  • It is a decision-oriented approach as it includes identification and description of decision packages for which the decision is required to be taken.
  • The decision unit is broken into understandable decision packages which are ranked according to importance because once decisions are identified and described their evaluation is done on the basis of priority of the activities. Due to this feature, it is also known as Priority-based Budgeting.
  • The responsibility is shifted from top management to the manager of the decision unit as it provides an opportunity to them to allocate resources for various activities only after having a thorough cost-benefit analysis.
  • Zero Based Budgeting very rational in nature.
  • It is in traditional budgeting that top management decides why a particular amount of money should be spent on a particular decision unit.

Thus, the correct answer is A, B and C only.

Additional Information

 Zero Based Budgeting is suitable for both corporate and non-corporate entities. For example: In case of corporate entities, it is best suited for discretionary costs like research and development cost, advertisement and in case of non-corporate entities like government departments, local bodies etc.

Question 8

Two statements are given below :

Statement I: A transactional analysis model is an effective tool for understanding why people behave in certain ways.

Statement II: Transactional analysis model cannot be used to improve communication In light of the above statements, select the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement I and Statement ​II are true

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Statement I: The Transactional Analysis Model is an effective tool to understand why people behave in certain ways.

Explanation:

  • People when interact with each other, the social transaction gets created which shows how people are responding and behaving with each other, the study of such transactions between people is called as the transactional analysis.
  • Transactional Analysis Model was originally developed by Dr. Eric Berne to study the personality of dynamics and self and its relationship with others which helped in determining the kinds of behaviours that an individual shows in real time situations as it includes identifying the ego states of each individual to understand their behaviours and altering them to solve the emotional problems.

Hence, Statement I is true

Statement II: The Transactional Analysis Model cannot be used to improve communication.

Explanation:

The Transactional Analysis refers to the psychoanalytic process wherein the interpersonal behaviours are studied that can be used to improve communication and understand your own way of behaving and communicating. As it is a model for explaining why and how:

  • People think like they do
  • People act like they do
  • People interact/communicate with others

So, Statement II is false

Therefore, the correct answer is Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

 Additional InformationThe Transactional Analysis gives birth to several models that help in explaining the relationship formed between the individuals as a result of their interactions.

Question 9

Theory of international trade promotes

A. Increase in demand for exportable products

B. Rise in prices and volumes

C. Improvement in quality of products

D. Reduction in prices and increase in quality for consumers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A and B only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

International Trade is the exchange of goods and services across international borders. It usually comes with additional risks caused by changes in exchange rates, government policies, laws, judicial systems and financial market. 

Important Points

Theory of international trade promotes:

  • Increase in demand for exportable products as it was believed in Mercantilism that government should promote exports and that governments should control economic activity and place restrictions on imports if needed to ensure an export surplus i.e. country should increase gold by promoting exports and discouraging imports.
  • Rise in prices and volumes as both the production and per-capital income increases which result in economic prosperity.

Thus, the correct answer is A and B only.

Additional Information

  • Economists have developed theories to explain the mechanisms of global trade.
  • The main historical theories are called classical or traditional and are from the perspective of a country, or country based. By the mid-twentieth century, the theories began to shift to explain trade from a firm, rather than a country, perspective.
  • These theories are referred to as ​modern and are firm-based or company-based. Both of these categories, classical and modern, consist of several international theories.

 

 

 Mistake Points

  • The theory of international trade promotes an increase in demand for exportable products.
  • This theory suggests that countries should specialize in producing goods and services that they can produce more efficiently or at a lower opportunity cost compared to other countries.
  • By doing so, countries can benefit from trade by exporting their specialized products and importing goods that other countries produce more efficiently.

Question 10

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.Erratic levels of customs serviceI.Inventory is in the wrong place at the wrong time
B.No vision of future demand and its impact on productionII.Lack of agreement between different departments, i.e., customer service, distribution, and manufacturing
C.Too many changeovers in productionIII.Production lacks confidence in the marketing department's forecast.
D.Too many stockoutsIV.Inventory is either too high or too low.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

  2. BOption (b)

    A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

  3. COption (c)

    A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

  4. DOption (d)

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Why this answer is correct

Important Points

Erratic levels of customs serviceJust in Time Management is a system of inventory management with an approach to have zero inventories in stores which is based on two principles: - Produce goods only when it is required and - The products should be delivered to customers at the time only when they want. Because of erratic levels of customs service inventory is either too high or too low.
No vision of future demand and its impact on productionMaterials Requirement Planning ensures that manufacturers must have accurate sales records to enable accurate planning of inventory needs and to communicate those needs with material suppliers in a timely manner because of Production lacks confidence in marketing department's forecast as there is no vision of future demand and its impact on production.
Too many changeovers in productionContinuity in production ensures that, without there being any danger of interruption of production for want of materials or stores, minimum investment will be made in inventories of stocks of materials or stocks to be carried. But too many changes in production are due to a lack of agreement between different departments i.e., Customer service, Distribution, and Manufacturing.
Stock outsA stock-out is a situation when the firm is not having units of an item in-store but there is a demand for that either from the customers or the production department. It refers to the demand for an item whose inventory level has already been reduced to zero or insufficient level, i.e., inventory is in the wrong place at the wrong time.

Thus, the correct answer is A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Question 11

At the business level, organisations need to position their business as being Low-cost leaders or Differentiated. The position when cost leadership is high in terms of lower prices/lower costs and differentiation is low, is called:

  1. AOption (a)

    Cost Leader

  2. BOption (b)

    Differentiators

  3. COption (c)

    Focused Cost Leaders

  4. DOption (d)

    Focused differentiators

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Focused Cost Leaders

Why this answer is correct

At the business level, organisations need to position their business as being Low-cost leaders or differentiated. The position when cost leadership is high in terms of lower prices/lower costs and differentiation is low, is called Focused Cost Leaders.

Key Points

Porter's Generic Strategies is a group of four categories of competitive strategy:

Differentiation: This means making one's product unique or special, compared to other competitors or substitute products in the market. For example: Apple, Harley-Davidson, Starbucks are good examples of companies following such a strategy.

Cost Leadership: It means minimizing the costs incurred in providing value to a customer or client which serves one of two purposes at any stage of execution

  • It produces higher profit margins for the business at a given price, or
  • It allows for an overall lower price to consumers, which can be used to increase market share.
  • For example: Southwest Airlines and Wal -Mart are good examples of companies following such a strategy.

Cost Focus: It means minimizing costs in focused market i.e., a firm targets a niche market and offers products or services at the lowest price.

Differentiation Focus: It means an orientation toward differentiation from other competitors/products within a focused market. For example: Rolls Royce, the car company is good example of company following such a strategy.

Thus, the correct answer is Focused Cost Leaders.

Question 12

The best level of output for a perfectly competitive firm in short run is a point where P = MR = MC, provided that

  1. AOption (a)

    P > AVC

  2. BOption (b)

    P ≥ AVC

  3. COption (c)

    P < AVC

  4. DOption (d)

    P = AVC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P > AVC

Why this answer is correct

Profit maximisation can be defined as a process in the long run or short run to identify the most efficient manner to increase profits. It is mainly concerned with the determination of price and output level that yield the maximum profit.

  • The total profit (Π) of a business organisation is calculated by taking the difference between Total Revenue (TR) and Total Cost (TC). Thus,
  • Π =TR-TC
  • Profit is maximum when the difference between the total revenue and total cost is maximum.
  • We know Π =TR-TC
  • Taking its derivative with respect to Q,
  • ∂Π / ∂Q = ∂TR/ ∂Q-∂TC/ ∂Q= 0
  • This condition holds only when
  • ∂TR/ ∂Q = ∂TC/∂Q
  • ∂TR/ ∂Q =slope of the TR curve = MR.
  • ∂TC/ ∂Q =slope of the TC curve = MC. Thus, the first-order condition for profit maximisation is
  • MR = MC = Price

Key Points

Level of output for a perfectly competitive firm in the short run:

  • A firm maximises its profits by choosing to supply the level of output where its marginal revenue equals its marginal cost. When marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost, the firm can earn greater profits by increasing its output. Consequently, it must reduce its output when marginal revenue is below marginal cost. Profits are therefore maximised when the firm chooses the level of output where its marginal revenue equals its marginal cost.
  • Under perfect competition, since an individual firm cannot influence the market price by raising or lowering its output, the firm faces a horizontal demand curve, that is, the demand curve of any single firm is perfectly elastic—its elasticity is equal to infinity at all levels of output.
  • If a firm charges a price slightly higher than the prevailing market price, demand for that firm will fall to zero because there are many other sellers selling exactly the same product. On the other hand, if a firm reduces its price slightly, its demand will increase to infinity, and thus other firms will match the low price.
  • A firm under perfect competition is a price-taker and not a price-maker. Because an individual firm’s demand or Average Revenue (AR) curve is horizontal under perfect competition, the Marginal Revenue (MR) curve of the firm is also horizontal and coincides with the AR curve. In other words, AR and MR are constant and equal at all levels of output.

See the following figure below:

So here are three cases that occur:

Case 1:

  • When the market price is at P1, demand and marginal revenue facing the firm are D1 and MR1.  and MC=MR=Price>ATC Average Total Cost (ATC) is less than the price and the firm makes an economic profit. In perfectly competitive markets, when MC = MR = Price > ATC firms make an economic profit, but it happens in the short run only.

Case 2:

  • Suppose the market price falls to P2, at point C, where
  • MC = MR = Price < ATC But ATC > AVC When MC = MR = Price < ATC but ATC > AVC
  • The loss here would thus be equal to the total fixed cost associated with the firm's decision to produce just to make fewer losses than it would have incurred on shutting of its operations, i.e., the firm will be in a position to cover all its variable costs and still have CD times the number of units produced (Q2) left over to pay part of its fixed cost, so it is still a steal deal to produce at this stage.

Case 3:

  • At market price P3, demand is given by D3 = MR3.
  • MC = MR = Price < ATC and
  • MC = MR = Price < AVC at MC = MR = Price < ATC and MC = MR = Price<AVC
  • The firm would not only lose all its fixed costs but would also lose Rs. ST per unit on its variable costs as well. The firm could improve its earnings situation by producing zero output and losing only fixed costs.
  • That is when this firm should temporarily shut down its operation until market conditions improve.
  • To reiterate, the profit-maximizing output for a perfectly competitive firm in the short run is to set MC= MR=Price.
  • In the short run, it is possible for the firm to make an above-normal or economic profit. i.e when ATC>P. On the other hand, it is also possible for the firm to make losses, as long as those losses are less than its total fixed costs.
  • In other words, the firm will continue to produce as long as P>AVC in the short run because this is a better strategy than shutting down. The firm will shut down only MC=MR=Price< AVC.

The conclusion from the above 3 cases is that:

  • For the output level where marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost, check if the market price is greater than the average variable cost of producing that output level.
  • If P > AVC but P< ATC, then the firm continues to produce in the short run, making economic losses.
  • If P < AVC, then the firm stops producing and only incurs its fixed costs.

​Therefore, we conclude that the correct answer is P > AVC/P > AVC

Question 13

In case of agency problem, the actions of managers are very likely to be directed towards the goal of

  1. AOption (a)

    Profit maximisation

  2. BOption (b)

    Self-sufficiency

  3. COption (c)

    Survival and self-sufficiency

  4. DOption (d)

    Wealth maximisation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Survival and self-sufficiency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Survival and self-sufficiency.

Key Points

Agency problem:

  • An agency problem is a conflict of interest inherent in any relationship where one party is expected to act in another's best interests.
  • In corporate finance, an "agency problem" usually refers to a conflict of interest between a company's management and its stockholders.
  • For example, an advisor might have several investment funds that are available to offer a client, but instead only offer the ones that pay the advisor a commission for the sale.

Important Points

Why do agency problems occur and what is the behavior of managers when they arise?

  • Broadly, the goals of financial management are to increase shareholders' wealth, maximize profits, minimize costs, and increase market share.
  • In the case of agency problems, these goals are left behind and the managers choose self-interest above them.
  • Shareholders of the firm always want to take on projects that give them an opportunity to improve their share prices. They also want managers to finance those projects through external debts.
  • To avoid such a conflict, shareholders demand an increase in the amount of dividend that they expect to be received in the future. Similarly, management always wants to avoid takeovers, even if such actions benefit shareholders.
  • It is because the management has its own interests and they want to minimize employment terminations.
  • In addition, management always pursues their own goals of achieving sales targets, and survival and self-sufficiency become the end goal for them.
  • By doing this, they compromise the shareholders' wealth while making decisions that increase the level of sales.

How to tackle agency problems?

  • To avoid conflict of interest or agency problems and to make sure that management is taking decisions in the best interest of shareholders, they are given bonuses and other incentives. Similarly, shareholders also give them several shares in the company.
  • The reason is when management has shares ownership, they will take decisions that will increase share prices. This will directly benefit the shareholders of the company.

Hence, the correct answer is Survival and Self-sufficiency.

Question 14

Following information is available for the year 2018 and 2019 of ABC Ltd:

Year20182019
SalesRs. 32,00,000Rs. 57,00,000
Profit/(Loss)(Rs. 3,00,000)Rs. 7,00,000

Calculate P/V ratio

  1. AOption (a)

    12%

  2. BOption (b)

    16%

  3. COption (c)

    28%

  4. DOption (d)

    40%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

40%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 40%.

Key PointsPV Ratio: Profit-volume ratio, which is usually stated as a percentage, shows how contributions and sales are related. It is influenced by sales and variable or marginal cost. If the sale price increases without a corresponding increase in marginal cost, the contribution increases—and the profit-volume ratio improves.

Important Points

The P/V ratio is arrived at by using the following formula:

P/V Ratio = (Change in Profit / Change in Sales) × 100

In the above question,

Change in Sales = 57,00,000 − 32,00,000 = ₹25,00,000

Change in Profit = 7,00,000 − (−3,00,000) = ₹10,00,000

P/V Ratio = (10,00,000 / 25,00,000) × 100

P/V Ratio = 40%

• The change in sales is calculated by subtracting the sales of 2018 from the sales of 2019 = 57,00,000 − 32,00,000.

• The change in profit is calculated by subtracting the profit (loss) of 2018 from the profit of 2019 = 7,00,000 − (−3,00,000).

Question 15

Sequence the innovation adoption process that consists of five stages which potential consumers pass through while attempting to arrive at a decision to try or not to try an innovative product.

A. Consumer tries the innovation

B. Consumer undertakes a "mental trial" of the innovation

C. Consumer decides to use the innovation repeatedly

D. Consumer becomes interested in the innovative product

E. Consumer gets aware about the existence of the innovation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    B, D, A, E, C

  2. BOption (b)

    C, A, B, E, D

  3. COption (c)

    D, B, A, C, E

  4. DOption (d)

    E, D, B, A, C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

E, D, B, A, C

Why this answer is correct

The Consumer Adoption Process is a five-step mental process that all customers go through while adopting a product, from learning about a new product to becoming a happy, loyal user of that product or declining/rejecting the product completely.

Key Points

Philip Kotler considers five steps in the consumer adoption process, that are

  1. Product Awareness
  2. Product Interest
  3. Product Evaluation
  4. Product Trial
  5. Product Adoption

Important Points

1. Product Awareness

  • The consumer becomes aware of the new product but lacks information about it.
  • Initially, the consumer must become aware of the new product.
  • Awareness leads to interest, and the customer seeks information about the new product.
  • Whether an innovation is continuous or not, people are either little aware or aware of it initially.
  • The innovator, therefore, has to inform the adopters about the innovation. In the awareness stage, individuals become aware that the product exists, but they have little information about it and are not concerned about getting more.
  • So here mainly consumers get aware of the existence of the innovation.

2. Product Interest :

  • The consumer seeks information about the new product. Once the information has been gathered, the consumer enters the evaluation stage and considers buying the new product.
  • By this time, the innovation is introduced.
  • It is now the time for the decision-makers to determine whether the innovation relates to their needs.
  • They enter the interest stage when they are motivated to get information about its features, uses, advantages, disadvantages, price, or location.
  • So basically, consumers become interested in the innovative product.

3. Product Evaluation:

  • Next, in the trial stage, the consumer tries the product on a small scale to improve its value estimate. The consumer considers whether trying the new product makes sense.
  • Adopters of the innovation have to establish some evaluation measures to compare the new product with existing ones.
  • During the evaluation stage, individuals consider whether the product will satisfy certain critical criteria for meeting their specific needs.
  • The potential adopters consider the innovation’s benefits and determine whether to try it.
  • The consumer undertakes a "mental trial" of the innovation.

4. Product Trial

  • The consumer tries the new product on a small scale to improve their estimate of its value.
  • If the consumer is satisfied with the product, they enter the adoption stage, deciding to use the new product thoroughly and regularly.
  • At this stage, the potential adopters examine, test, or try the innovative product to determine its usefulness.
  • So here, consumers try the innovation.

5. Product Adoption:

  • The consumer decides to make full and regular use of the new product.
  • The "new product" is a good, service, or idea perceived by some potential customers as new. Individuals move into the adoption stage when choosing that specific product when they need a product of that general type. Here, the buyers purchase the new product and can be expected to use it to solve problems.
  • So, this final stage of the process is indicated most directly by sales, but the innovation’s visibility is also a success measure.
  • So here, the consumer decides to use the innovation repeatedly.

Therefore, the correct answer is E, D, B, A, C.

Question 16

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.Snob effectI.If firms are disproportionately powerful, the market leader makes the first move and captures two-thirds of the market.
B.Small-world modelII.When some people demand a smaller quantity of a commodity as more people consume it, in order to be different and exclusive
C.Stackelberg modelIII.Oligopolistic firms seek to maximise sales after an adequate rate of profit has been earned to satisfy stockholders.
D.Sales maximisation modelIV.Theory that a corporate giant can be made to operate as a small firm by linking well connected individuals from each level of the organisation to one another.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

  2. BOption (b)

    A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

  3. COption (c)

    A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

  4. DOption (d)

    A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

Why this answer is correct

Key Points 

TermDescription
Snob effectIt is an effect that discourages an individual from buying that good as the consumer demand for those goods increases since they are available to everyone. It occurs when some people demand a smaller quantity of a commodity as more people consume it, in order to be different and exclusive.
Small-world model- Watts and Strogatz came up with a model of how to construct Small World Networks. - Small-world networks are designed to generate networks that are similar to real-world networks to provide a mathematical explanation of real-world networks. - It is a theory that states that a corporate giant can be made to operate as a small firm by linking well-connected individuals from each level of the organization to one another.
Stackelberg model- It is a leadership model that allows the dominant firm to set its price first. Subsequently, the following firms optimise their production and costs. It was formulated by Heinrich Von Stackelberg in 1934. - If firms are disproportionately powerful, the market leader makes the first move and captures two-thirds, of the market.
Sales maximisation model- It is a theoretical objective of a firm that involves selling as many units of a good or service as possible, without making a loss. This means sacrificing some short-term profit with a view to achieving a longer-term gain. - Oligopolistic firms seek to maximise sales after an adequate rate of profit has been earned to satisfy stockholders.

 

Therefore the correct answer is A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III.

Question 17

What is the role of advertisements and selling costs in perfectly competitive markets?

  1. AOption (a)

    Enlarging market size

  2. BOption (b)

    Influencing buyer behaviour

  3. COption (c)

    Informative to intimate product/service availability

  4. DOption (d)

    Very essential for survival of the firm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Enlarging market size

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Enlarging market size.

Key Points

Perfectly competitive markets and the role of advertising:

  • In economic theory, perfect competition occurs when all companies sell identical products; market share does not influence price; companies are able to enter or exit without barriers; buyers have perfect or full information; and companies cannot determine prices.
  • There is no need for a firm working under perfect competition to undertake advertisement expenditure or to incur other types of selling costs, since, by assumption, the product produced by all firms in the perfectly competitive industry is homogeneous, and an individual firm can sell as much quantity of the product as it likes at the given price.
  • If a perfectly competitive firm advertises the product, the consumers who are influenced by it may purchase the product from other firms in the industry since all are selling homogeneous products**.**
  • Of course, the whole perfectly competitive industry, that is, all firms together or their association, may advertise to promote the sales of their product at the expense of the products of other industries.

Additional Information

  • By investing in advertising and selling efforts, firms can increase awareness about their products or services, attract new customers, and potentially expand their market share.
  • This can lead to an enlargement of the overall market size as more consumers are exposed to the offerings of different firms.
  • Enlarging the market size can benefit firms in a perfectly competitive market by creating opportunities for increased sales and profits.
  • However, it's important to note that the impact of advertising and selling costs on market size may vary depending on the specific market conditions, the nature of the products or services being offered, and the competitive dynamics at play.

Hence it eventually leads to the enlargement of the market size for the same product.

Question 18

Arrange the following to describe the sequence involved in Cost Volume Profit Analysis (CVP)

A. Establishing the fixed and variable costs related to the product

B. Drawing up break even charts which establish the point at which sales start to produce profit

C. Working out P/V ratio by calculating contribution as a proportion of sales revenue

D. Determining the cumulative effect of each product on profitability to assess the effects of change in product mix

E. Calculating the relationship between sales volume and sales revenue by actual or assumed unit prices

Choose the correct  answer from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, E, C, D

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, B, E, D

  3. COption (c)

    A, E, B, C, D

  4. DOption (d)

    A, E, C, B, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A, E, C, B, D

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

​Cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis

  • It is a way to find out how changes in variable and fixed costs affect a firm's profit.
  • Companies can use CVP to see how many units they need to sell to break even (cover all costs) or reach a certain minimum profit margin.
  • Cost-Volume-Profit Analysis (CVP analysis), also commonly referred to as Break-Even Analysis, is a way for companies to determine how changes in costs (both variable and fixed) and sales volume affect a company’s profit.
  • With this information, companies can better understand overall performance by looking at how many units must be sold to break even or to reach a certain profit threshold or the margin of safety.

Important Points

The sequence of steps involved in this is as follows:

  1. Establishing the fixed and variable costs related to the product
  2. Calculating the relationship between sales volume and sales revenue by actual or assumed unit price.
  3. Working out the P/V ratio by calculating contribution as a proportion of sales revenue
  4. Drawing up break even charts which establish the point at which sales start to produce profit
  5. Determining the cumulative effect of each product on profitability to assess the effects of a change in product mix.

See the following example for the above illustration:

A. Establishing the fixed and variable costs related to the product

E. Calculating the relationship between sales volume and sales revenue by actual or assumed unit prices

C. Working out P/V ratio by calculating contribution as a proportion of sales revenue

B. Drawing up break-even charts which establish the point at which sales start to produce a profit

D. Determining the cumulative effect of each product on profitability to assess the effects of a change in product mix

Therefore, the correct answers are A, E, C, B, D.

Question 19

To gain sustainable competitive advantage in low cost manufacturing, Indian businesses are expected to

A. Reduce production cost, sacrifice profits and advertise more

B. Support MSMEs, to strengthen the supply chain

C. Adopt product differentiation and focus more on innovations

D. Bridge trust deficit and gain support from the public, workers and policy markers

Choose the correct  answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B, C and D only

Why this answer is correct

A brand using its assets, its abilities, or its unique features can gain a competitive advantage over its competitors. It’s when a company consistently outperforms its competition due to a specific attribute. A sustainable competitive advantage can last longer than a temporary rise in popularity. It means building products, services, a brand, and a reputation that attracts consumers continually over time.

Key Points

To gain a sustainable competitive advantage in low-cost manufacturing, Indian businesses are expected to

  • Support raw material sourcing or extraction to manufacturing, transportation, use, and end of life of the product, understanding the product life cycle of a company to identify the boundaries of influence and responsibilities for the business and its clients.
  • Set up a baseline assessment of current activities' boundaries and identify key social, economic, and environmental impacts. Set up a monitoring and reporting system that can enable this in an effective manner.
  • Leverage product life cycle analysis to identify the main environmental impacts of a company’s products and packaging and focus on the real issues. define the boundaries of a company’s supply chain and increase traceability to help identify possible alternatives, via green procurement and sustainable sourcing practises.
  • Communicate constantly with the clients to better anticipate the direction taken and alignment with the client’s mandate and/or expectations.
  • Support MSMEs to strengthen the supply chain.
  • Adopt product differentiation and focus more on innovation.
  • Bridge the trust deficit and gain support from the public, workers, and policymakers.

​Hence, the correct answers are B, C and D only.

Question 20

Out of the following, which are the most common error committed by Entrepreneurs?

A. To anticipate roadblocks

B. No commitment or dedication

C. Proposing market niche (Segment)

D. Lack of demonstrated experience

E. No realistic goals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, D and E only

  3. COption (c)

    B, D and E only

  4. DOption (d)

    C, D and E only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B, D and E only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

The most common error committed by Entrepreneurs:

  • No commitment or dedication:
  • A dedicated entrepreneur is self-motivated to outperform and constantly source business opportunities. Along with this, dedication helps in sailing easily through dark times and always ensures that the entrepreneur is consistent with his/her work.
  • Not spending enough money or spending too much money.
  • Thinking that the have no direct competitors.
  • The excitement about a new product or business can often lead new entrepreneurs to think they really have no direct competition, or that their product is so head-and-shoulders above those of their rivals that they're in a category of their own.
  • Making hiring decisions based on cost.
  • This is closely tied to number one, but is so important it deserves to be mentioned separately. When funds are tight, it's tempting to skimp on the cost of new hires. The problem with this strategy, however, is that you'll end up paying in the long run.
  • Not setting attainable goals.
  • New entrepreneurs can be so enraptured by their "big idea," they work without a solid plan. But the reality is that you must set realistic and attainable goals in order to succeed. Make a point of setting both short-and long-term goals, and make sure they're specific.
  • Not thinking about marketing. "If you build it, they will come." This is a common belief (sometimes conscious, sometimes not) among new entrepreneurs. They think that their products are so revolutionary that they can just rely on free PR and word of mouth. In reality, the vast majority of startups will need to invest heavily in marketing. This may include SEO, content marketing, PR and paid advertising.
  • Having too small margins.
  • Having a healthy profit margin will be critical to your success. Setting it too low now will make life infinitely more difficult for you in the future -- your customers likely won't be thrilled when you need to raise your prices later on.
  • Being incapacitated by fear of "what if's." Robert F. Kennedy said, "Only those who dare to fail greatly can ever achieve greatly." Starting a new business is scary, and isn't for the faint-hearted. Being scared of failure and rejection is understandable, but letting yourself become incapacitated by this fear can significantly hinder your progress.
  • Putting your product first and people last.
  • When creating your product and determining your business model, it's critical that you have a customer-first mentality. Yet many new entrepreneurs are so concerned about making money (understandably) that they forget the key to having a sustainable business -- having satisfied, loyal customers who will buy over the long term.
  • Lack of demonstrated experience:
  • The study found that entrepreneurs with less experience tend to produce fewer ideas that were deemed novel when asked to assume the role of a businessperson, whereas experienced entrepreneurs were able to maintain their ability to generate creative ideas even when they were in salesman mode.
  • With a lack of skilled employees, productivity can also decline and lead to slower production times, increased operation costs, and other performance issues.

Therefore, the correct answer is B, D and E only.

Question 21

________ usually have intensive distribution because sales of these products tend to have a direct relationship to their availability.

  1. AOption (a)

    Convenience Goods

  2. BOption (b)

    Shopping Goods

  3. COption (c)

    Speciality Goods

  4. DOption (d)

    Unsought Goods

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Convenience Goods

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Convenience Goods.

A consumer good is a final product ready for sale that is used by the consumer to satisfy current wants or needs, unlike an intermediate good, which is used to produce other goods.

Important Points

Convenience goods

  • These are those that the customer purchases frequently, immediately, and with minimum effort.
  • Soaps and newspapers are considered convenience goods, as are common staples like ketchup or pasta.

Additional Information

Shopping goods

  • These are those consumer goods that the customer in the process or selection and purchase characteristically compares on such bases as suitability, quality, price, and styles.
  • Shopping goods may be considered to be those commodities whose selection is of such importance that buyers devote considerable time to their selection.
  • Such products are purchased only after a comparison of several products. Quality, style, suitability, and price are the common units of comparison.
  • Examples of shopping goods typically include women’s apparel, furniture, jewellery, rugs, millinery, and televisions. radio, costly watches, fashionable shoes, cars, refrigerators, musical instruments, piece goods, dishwashers, automobiles,

Specialty goods

  • These have particularly unique characteristics and brand identifications for which a significant group of buyers are willing to make a special purchasing effort.
  • Examples include specific brands of fancy products, luxury cars, professional photographic equipment, and high-fashion clothing.
  • Specialty products have very limited distribution, a small target market, are more expensive, and are status-oriented.

Unsought Goods

  • These are goods that the consumer does not know about or does not normally think of buying, and the purchase of which arises due to danger or the fear of danger and lack of desire.
  • The classic examples of unsought goods are funeral services, encyclopaedias, fire extinguishers, and reference books.

Question 22

As per the Anglo-Saxon Model of Corporate Governance, the authority lies with the following. Arrange these in decreasing order of authority.

A. Board of Directors

B. Managers

C. Shareholders

D. Employees (Company)

E. Trade unions

Choose the correct sequence from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D, E

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, B, E, D

  3. COption (c)

    C, A, B, D, E

  4. DOption (d)

    C, B, E, A, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C, A, B, D, E

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

The Anglo-Saxon model of corporate governance

  • It is a system of supervision and control over corporations, functioning in the United States, Canada, Australia and the United Kingdom.
  • This model presents the board of directors and shareholders as the controlling parties.
  • The managers and chief officers ultimately have secondary authority.
  • Managers derive their authority from the board, which is (theoretically) beholden to voting shareholders' approval. However, most companies with Anglo-US corporate governance systems have legislative controls over shareholders' ability to assert practical, day-to-day control over the company.
  • The capital and shareholder structures are highly dispersed in the Anglo-US markets. Moreover, regulatory authorities, such as the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), explicitly support shareholders over boards or managers.1
  • The main feature of this model is that it relies on the capital market as the primary means of control over the corporation.
  • Supervision is exercised mostly by investors who express their favour or disapproval of the actions of management by buying or selling shares of the company and voting during the general meetings of shareholders.
  • Due to the high liquidity of the market, the management will not be subject to the strict control within the organisation.

Therefore, as per the Anglo-Saxon Model of Corporate Governance, the authority lies in Shareholders> Board of Directors>Employees (Company)>Managers> Trade union.

Question 23

Arrange the team member's behaviour in the group building process in the proper sequence

A. Lot of competition and hostilities

B. Upset and depressed

C. Eager, anxious, gather impressions and data about the similarities and differences among members

D. Interdependence in personal relations

E. Less dissatisfied and a feeling of belongingness to the group

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, D, C, E

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, A, D, E

  3. COption (c)

    C, A, D, B, E

  4. DOption (d)

    C, A, E, D, B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

C, A, E, D, B

Why this answer is correct

Researcher Bruce Wayne Tuckman published “Tuckman's Stages” in 1965. It talked about the four stages of development all teams move through over time: forming, storming, norming, and performing. In 1977, Tuckman and doctoral student Mary Ann Jensen added a fifth stage called adjourning to make it the “five stages of team development.”

Key Points

Here’s how the five stages of team development work:

  • Forming:
  • This is where team members first meet. It’s important for team leaders to facilitate the introductions and highlight each person’s skills and background.
  • Team members are also given project details and the opportunity to organise their responsibilities.
  • Here, members get excited and anxious and gather impressions and data about the similarities and differences among members.
  • Storming:
  • At this stage, team members openly share ideas and use this as an opportunity to stand out and be accepted by their peers.
  • Team leaders help teams in this stage by having a plan in place to manage competition among team members, make communication easier, and make sure projects stay on track.
  • Lots of competition and hostilities are seen at this stage.
  • Norming:
  • By now, teams have figured out how to work together.
  • There’s no more internal competition, and responsibilities and goals are clear.
  • Each person works more efficiently because he or she has learned how to share their ideas and listen to feedback while working toward a common goal. Interdependence in personal relations.
  • Less dissatisfied and a feeling of belonging to the group
  • Performing:
  • There’s a high level of cohesion and trust between team members.
  • Teams are functioning at peak efficiency with less oversight from team leaders. Issues still come up, but at this point, teams have strategies for resolving problems without compromising timelines and progress.
  • He might feel upset and depressed if his performance did not go well.
  • Adjourning:
  • Teams complete their project and debrief on what went well and what could be improved for future projects.
  • Afterward, team members move on to new projects.
  • Now let’s look at how to use this model to amplify the strengths within your remote marketing team so that projects are successful and completed on time.

Important Points 

C. Eager, anxious, gather impressions and data about the similarities and differences among members: At the beginning of the group building process, team members are typically eager and anxious. They are curious about their fellow team members, trying to gather information and form initial impressions. They observe the similarities and differences among the members.

A. Lot of competition and hostilities: As the group starts to form and work together, there can be a lot of competition and hostilities among team members. This may be due to differences in opinions, conflicts, or a desire to establish dominance within the group.

E. Less dissatisfied and a feeling of belongingness to the group: As the group progresses and interacts more, team members start to feel less dissatisfied and begin to develop a sense of belongingness to the group. They start to recognize and appreciate each other's contributions and find their place within the group dynamics.

D. Interdependence in personal relations: As the group builds stronger relationships, team members realize the importance of interdependence. They understand that they rely on each other and their personal relations become more interconnected. Collaboration and cooperation become key aspects of the group dynamics.

B. Upset and depressed: Despite the progress made in building the group, there can still be moments of upset and depression. This could occur due to setbacks, conflicts, or challenges faced by the group. These moments can temporarily affect team members' emotions and morale.

Therefore, the correct answer is C, A, E, D, B

Question 24

Portfolio theory provides a normative approach to investing based on which of the following assumptions?

A. Risk-return spread is uniform for all asset classes

B. Investors are risk-averse

C. Market risk pricing is identical for all investors

D. Return on assets are normally distributed

E. Uniform investment horizon

Choose the correct  answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C and E only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    C, D and E only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B, C and D only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Markowitz Theory of Portfolio Management:

  • It is a theoretical framework for the analysis of risk and return and their inter-relationships.
  • As per this, an efficient portfolio is expected to yield the highest return for a given level of risk or the lowest risk for a given level of return.

Important Points

Assumptions of Markowitz's Theory:

  • Investors are rational and behave in a manner to maximise their utility with a given level of income or money.
  • Investors have free access to fair and correct information on returns and risks.
  • The markets are efficient and absorb information quickly and perfectly.
  • Investors are risk averse and try to minimise the risk and maximise return.
  • Investors base decisions on expected returns and the variance, or standard deviation, of these returns from the mean.
  • Returns on assets are normally distributed.
  • Investors choose higher returns than lower returns for a given level of risk.

Therefore, the correct answers is B, C and D only

Question 25

Which one of the following is NOT a part of the current account of a country's balance of payments?

  1. AOption (a)

    Export of Goods

  2. BOption (b)

    Import of Goods

  3. COption (c)

    Investment income

  4. DOption (d)

    Portfolio Investment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Portfolio Investment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is - Portfolio Investment

Key Points

  • Portfolio Investment
  • Falls under the capital account of a country's Balance of Payments (BoP).
  • Refers to investment in financial assets such as stocks and bonds by foreign investors.
  • Involves ownership without control, unlike foreign direct investment (FDI).
  • It does not affect the current account, which deals with trade and income flows.

Additional Information

  • Current Account
  • Records the flow of goods, services, and income between a country and the rest of the world.
  • Main components include:
  • Export of Goods – Earnings from selling goods to other countries.
  • Import of Goods – Expenditure on purchasing goods from other countries.
  • Investment Income – Earnings from foreign investments (interest, dividends).
  • Transfers – One-way transfers such as remittances and foreign aid.
  • Capital Account
  • Includes portfolio investment, foreign direct investment (FDI), and loans.
  • Represents movement of financial capital into and out of the country.
  • Key for financing current account deficits.

Question 26

Which one of the following tasks is NOT expected to be performed in Sales Management?

  1. AOption (a)

    Designing sales territories

  2. BOption (b)

    Determining the selling price of the firm's products

  3. COption (c)

    Formulating sales policies

  4. DOption (d)

    Selecting and recruitment of salesforce

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Determining the selling price of the firm's products

Why this answer is correct

Sales management is the art of meeting and exceeding the sales goals of an organisation through effective planning, controlling, budgeting, and leadership**.** Sales management helps the organisation achieve its sales targets efficiently.

Key Points

Tasks involved in sales management:

The tasks under sales management are classified under three broad categories:

Sales operations

  • Set sales targets.
  • Assign sales territories for them to manage.
  • Establish goals and quotas.
  • Setting sales goals and quotas
  • Motivating and mentoring the team
  • Creating sales plans and workflows
  • Hiring and onboarding
  • Organizing sales training programs
  • CRM and pipeline management
  • Ensuring coordination with the sales enablement and marketing teams
  • Overall team management

Sales strategy

  • Lead generation, scoring and qualification
  • The number of sales calls, follow-up emails, social media messages and other outreach activities they undertake
  • Market research on new products, new segments and other relevant information
  • Product knowledge
  • Formulating sales policies

Sales analysis:

  • It involves reporting.
  • Reporting helps you understand how your current strategy affects your company’s success and gives your insight into what you can do to increase your efforts, whether it’s hiring more salespeople or redistributing tasks.
  • Successful reporting involves using sales metrics, or quantifiable indicators, that tell you how each aspect of your sales operations is performing and whether you are achieving your targets.

Therefore, determining the selling price of the firm's products is not a task that is expected to be performed under sales management.

Question 27

Information regarding "personal job demands" (human expenditure involved in work, such as energy expenditure)' collected in job analysis falls in which one of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Job Context

  2. BOption (b)

    Personal Requirements 

  3. COption (c)

    Work Activities

  4. DOption (d)

    Worker-Oriented Activities

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Worker-Oriented Activities

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "worker-oriented activities."

A Job Analysis is a systematic exploration, study, and recording of the responsibilities, duties, skills, accountabilities, work environment, and ability requirements of a specific job. It also involves determining the relative importance of the duties, responsibilities, as well as physical and emotional skills, for a given job.

Important Points

Worker-oriented procedures

  • These aim to examine the human attributes needed to perform the job successfully.
  • These human attributes have been commonly classified into four categories: knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAO). Knowledge is the information that people need in order to perform a job.
  • Worker-oriented techniques examine broad human behaviours involved in work activities. A job scan is a measurement instrument which defines the personality dynamics within a specific type of job.
  • The Fleishman Job Analysis System (F-JAS), developed by Edwin A. Fleishman, represents a worker-oriented approach.
  • His system of 73 specific scales measures three broad areas: cognitive (Verbal Abilities; Idea Generation & Reasoning Abilities; Quantitative Abilities; Memory; Perceptual Abilities; Spatial Abilities; and Attentiveness); psychomotor (Fine Manipulative Abilities; Control Movement Abilities; and Reaction Time and Speed Abilities), and physical (Physical Strength Abilities; Endurance; Flexibility, Balance, and Coordination; Visual Abilities; and Auditory and Speech Abilities).

Additional Information

Job context

  • It refers to the conditions under which the work is performed and the demands that such jobs impose on the worker.
  • "Job Content" means a summary of all the detailed functions and responsibilities of a post.
  • Job context refers to the situation or condition under which an employee performs a particular job.
  • The information collected will include:
  • Working Conditions
  • Risks involved
  • Whom to report
  • Who all will report to him or her
  • Hazards
  • Physical and mental demands
  • Judgment

Work-related activities:

  • ​This category captures time spent working, doing activities as part of one's job, engaging in income-generating activities (not as part of one's job), and looking for jobs and interviewing.
  • " Work-related activities" include activities that are not obviously working but are done as part of one's job, such as having a business lunch or playing golf with clients.
  • Activities are identified as done as part of the job by the respondent during the interview.
  • "Other income-generating activities" are activities often done "on the side" or under informal arrangement that are not part of the respondent's regular job.

Question 28

As per Walter's model, the market value of a growing firm will increase if the dividend payout ratio is

  1. AOption (a)

    100%

  2. BOption (b)

    Constant

  3. COption (c)

    Decreased

  4. DOption (d)

    Increased

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Decreased

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Walter’s Model is based on the model of dividend.

  • It was introduced by Prof. James E. Walter.
  • The model is based on share valuation and postulates that both prices of shares and dividends are interdependent. On the other hand, this model is based on the statement that investment and dividend are interrelated.
  • Many organizations use the model for maintaining the share prices in the market.
  • According to Walter’s Model Formula, the market value of a share can be given as:
  • P = D + (E-D) ( r/k ) / k
  • Here,
  • P = The value of the share price on every equity (price per equity share)
  • D = The dividend value on every share (dividend per share)
  • E = The value of earning on every share (earnings per share)
  • (E-D) = The value that comes after subtracting the dividend of share from earning (retained earnings per share).
  • r = The value of return on every investment (rate of return on investments)
  • K = It is the cost of equity.
  • As per Walter’s Model, the rate of return (r), and cost of return have the following impact on the firm’s values:
RelationIf the payout of dividends increasesIf the payout of dividends decreases
r > kThe firm’s value decreasesFirm’s value increases
r = kNo effectNo effect
r < kFirm’s value increasesThe firm’s value decreases

 

Additional Information According to the model, when a firm retains a higher proportion of its earnings and reinvests them into profitable projects, it leads to increased future earnings and growth opportunities. This, in turn, enhances the market value of the firm.

Therefore by looking at the above table we can conclude that As per Walter's model, the market value of a growing firm will increase if the dividend payout ratio is Decreased

Question 29

In the context of Data Mining, which one of the following is a method of Data Reduction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Data Compression

  2. BOption (b)

    Multiple Regression

  3. COption (c)

    Normalization 

  4. DOption (d)

    Outlier Analysis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Data Compression

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Data Compression.

Data mining is the process of sorting through large data sets to identify patterns and relationships that can help solve business problems through data analysis. Data mining techniques and tools enable enterprises to predict future trends and make more-informed business decisions.

Data reduction is a process under data mining that reduces the volume of original data and represents it in a much smaller volume. ​

Important Points

  • Few Methods of data reduction are explained below::
  • Data Cube Aggregation: 
  • This technique is used to aggregate data in a simpler form
  • Dimension reduction: 
  • Whenever we come across any data which is weakly important, then we use the attribute required for our analysis. It reduces data size as it eliminates outdated or redundant features.
  • Data Compression: 
  • The data compression technique reduces the size of the files using different encoding mechanisms (Huffman Encoding & run-length Encoding).
  • We can divide it into two types based on their compression techniques.
  • Lossless Compression – 

Encoding techniques (Run Length Encoding) allows ample and minimal data size reduction. Lossless data compression uses algorithms to restore the precise original data from the compressed data.

  • Lossy Compression – 

Methods such as Discrete Wavelet transform technique, PCA (principal component analysis) are examples of this compression. For e.g., JPEG image format is a lossy compression, but we can find the meaning equivalent to the original .

Additional Information

  • Multiple regression:
  • Regression refers to a data mining technique that is used to predict the numeric values in a given data set. For example, regression might be used to predict the product or service cost or other variables.
  • Multiple regression generally explains the relationship between multiple independent or multiple predictor variables and one dependent or criterion variable.
  • Data normalization:
  • Data normalization (also referred to as data pre-processing) is a basic element of data mining. It means transforming the data, namely converting the source data in to another format that allows processing data effectively.
  • The main purpose of data normalization is to minimize or even exclude duplicated data.
  • Outlier Analysis:
  • An outlier is an object that deviates significantly from the rest of the objects.
  • They can be caused by measurement or execution errors.
  • The analysis of outlier data is referred to as outlier analysis or outlier mining.

Hence, the correct answer is Data Compression.

Question 30

The term 'Flexible Manufacturing Technology' or 'Lean Production', covers a range of manufacturing technologies designed to:

A. Become compliant with government regulations

B. Reduce setup times for complex equipment

C. Increase utilization of individual machines through better scheduling

D. Improve quality control at all stages of the manufacturing process

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B, C and D only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Lean manufacturing
  • It is a production process based on an ideology of maximising productivity while simultaneously minimising waste within a manufacturing operation.
  • The lean principle sees waste is anything that doesn’t add value that the customers are willing to pay for.
  • It covers a range of manufacturing technologies designed to:
  • Reduce lead times and better service in providing products quickly to customer
  • Reduce waste in time and resources and removing unnecessary processes can save the costs in energy and fuel use which has an obvious environmental benefit, as does the use of more energy efficient equipment, which can also offer cost savings.
  • Reduce Inventory
  • Reduce Labor cost
  • Reduce Space
  • Increase Production
  • Improve Quality improvement
  • Reduce rework and scrap
  • Reduce Throughput time
  • Reduce setup times for complex equipment
  • Increase utilization of individual machines through better scheduling
  • Improve quality control at all stages of the manufacturing process
  • Specify the value desired by the customer. "Form a team for each product to stick with that product during its entire production cycle"​.
  • Make the product flow continuously through the remaining value-add ed steps

Therfore we conclude that the correct answer is B, C and D only.

Question 31

Which one of the following information type is NOT included in a skill inventory?

  1. AOption (a)

    Employee's personal data

  2. BOption (b)

    Employee's potential

  3. COption (c)

    Organization's training schedule 

  4. DOption (d)

    Salary and Job history

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Organization's training schedule 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Organization's training schedule.

 Key Points

Skill Inventory:

  • A skills inventory is a compilation of the skills, education, and experiences of current employees.
  • It is based on employees’ self-assessments, skills assessments conducted by the organization, or a combination of these methods.
  • Organizations use these inventories to assess whether current staff can meet company goals.
  • It is an internal company resource used by the human resources department.
  • It's a database that documents and tracks the capabilities and experience of employees within a company.
  • Skills inventories help organizations understand if the current employee skills are sufficient to meet their goals and where the skills gaps are.

The following information type is included in a skill inventory:

  • Technical skills
  • Education
  • list of an individual’s professional competencies or skills
  • Professional experience
  • Employee's potential
  • Employee's personal data
  • Salary and Job History

Question 32

"Moments of Truth" in services marketing was given by:

  1. AOption (a)

    Gary Armstrong

  2. BOption (b)

    Jan Carlzon

  3. COption (c)

    Parasuraman and Zeithamal

  4. DOption (d)

    Rosser Reeves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jan Carlzon

Why this answer is correct

A "moment of truth" is typically defined as a situation in which the customer and the organisation come into contact with one another in such a way that the customer has the opportunity to form or change an opinion about the firm.

 Key Points

  • In a bullfight, the bull's or the matador's (or potentially both) lives are on the line.
  • When it comes to customer-company relationships, the message in a service environment is that everything is on the line at the crucial moment.
  • Each service business faces similar challenges in defining and managing the moments of truth its customers will encounter.
  • The former Chief Executive of Scandinavian Airlines System, Jan Carlzon, used the moment of truth metaphor as a reference point for transforming the airline system from an operations-driven business into a customer-driven business.

Thus, the correct answer is Jan Carlzon.

Question 33

Which of the following are creative problem solving characteristics of effective managers?

A. Cognitive style

B. Conceptual blocks

C. Divergent thinking

D. Activity balance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B and C only

Why this answer is correct

A manager is someone who coordinates and supervises the work of others in order to achieve organisational goals. Even when a good answer has been identified to an issue, creative problem solving fosters a willingness to keep seeking alternative methods.

Key PointsConceptual blocks and divergent thinking are creative problem-solving characteristics of effective managers.

Conceptual blocks are either pre-established techniques or customary human behaviours that might provide dull or inadequate solutions. The four major conceptual blocks are:

  • Constancy
  • Commitment
  • Compression
  • Complacency

Divergent thinking, also known as lateral thinking, is the act of coming up with several, original ideas or solutions that are connected to an issue the organisation is attempting to address. In that sense, it entails generating numerous ideas to address a single issue. Divergent thinking is comparable to brainstorming.

Important Points

B. Conceptual blocks: Effective managers are aware of conceptual blocks, which are mental barriers that can hinder creativity and problem-solving. They actively work to overcome these blocks by challenging assumptions, thinking outside the box, and embracing diverse perspectives.

C. Divergent thinking: Effective managers demonstrate divergent thinking, which involves generating multiple ideas, exploring different possibilities, and considering various perspectives. They encourage creativity and innovation in problem-solving by exploring unconventional approaches and encouraging team members to think creatively.

Thus, the correct answers are B and C only.

Question 34

The computer system most likely to be used by a large bank for the savings account of a customer would be:

  1. AOption (a)

    A batch processing system

  2. BOption (b)

    A direct access database system

  3. COption (c)

    A generalized utility system

  4. DOption (d)

    An on-line, real-time system

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

An on-line, real-time system

Why this answer is correct

The computer system most likely to be used by a large bank for the savings account of a customer would be an on-line, real-time system.

Key Points

  • An online, real-time system helps in making communication possible in the whole world at a faster speed, as being real-time, these systems do not lag and respond instantly.
  • System implementation in such computer systems is complex, and designing such systems is a difficult task.
  • The performance of such systems is high.
  • Such systems are designed to meet specific needs like national and defence security. These are priority-based and include a sense of real physical time to pass information from one system to another.

Question 35

It is believed that employees' attitudes influence their perception of work, but the employees' experiences at work may also modify or shape their attitudes. This is an example of

  1. AOption (a)

    Contingency Approach

  2. BOption (b)

    Democratic Approach

  3. COption (c)

    Interactional Approach

  4. DOption (d)

    Socio-technical system Approach

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Interactional Approach

Why this answer is correct

It is believed that an employee's attitude affects how they view their job, but an employee's work experience may also change their attitudes. This is an example of an interactional approach.

Key PointsInteractional Approach

  • This is an approach to social cognition, or how one understands other people, known as interaction theory (IT).
  • It places more emphasis on physical behaviour and contextual settings than it does on mental processes.
  • For example, it is believed that an employee's attitude affects how they view their job, but an employee's work experience may also change their attitudes.

Thus, the correct answer is the interactional approach.

Additional Information

  • The idea behind the socio-technical system approach is that by combining social and technical aspects of an organisation and viewing them as interdependent components of a complex system, it is possible to better understand the structure and performance of the organisation.
  • According to the contingency method (also known as the situational approach), businesses are unique, confront unique circumstances, and necessitate unique management strategies.
  • The transfer of power and authority inside an organisation between managers and the employees is a democratic approach. It aims to promote employee involvement in the company's decision-making process.

Question 36

Technical feasibility analysis will include which of the following?

A. Crucial technical specifications with respect to the design and product safety

B. Engineering requirements

C. Product development

D. Product testing

E. Plant location

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B, C, D and E

  3. COption (c)

    A, C, D and E only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C, D and E only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, B, C, D and E

Why this answer is correct

Feasibility literally means whether some idea will work or not.  A feasibility study aims to provide an independent assessment that examines all aspects of a proposed project, including technical, economic, financial, legal, and environmental considerations.

Key Points

  • Technical feasibility
  • It study helps organizations determine whether they have the technical resources to convert the idea into a fully functional and profitable working system
  • The technical feasibility section outlines several operational factors that influence the success of your business The technical feasibility section outlines several operational factors that influence the success of your business
  • Technical feasibility analysis includes
  • Crucial technical specifications with respect to the design and product safety
  • Engineering requirements
  • Labor Requirements
  • Transportation and Shipping Requirements
  • Plant location
  • Method of production
  • Production techniques
  • Determination of tools and equipment needed for the project such as drinkers and feeders or pumps or pipes ...etc.
  • Determination of projects' requirements of constructions such as buildings, storage, roads ...etc.
  • in addition to internal designs for these requirements.
  • Determination of projects' requirements of skilled and unskilled labor and managerial and financial labor.
  • Determination of construction period concerning the costs of designs and consultations and the costs of construction and other tools.
  • Determination of minimum storage of inputs, and cash money to cope with operating and contingency costs.
  • Product development
  • Product testing
  • Availability of land (proper acreage and reasonable costs).
  • The impact of the project on the environment and the approval of the concerned institutions for a license.
  • The costs of transporting inputs and outputs to the project's location (i.e., the distance from the markets).
  • Availability of various services related to the project such as availability of extension services or veterinary or water or electricity or good roads

Important Points

  • In this case, technical feasibility analysis encompasses a broader range of factors, including technical specifications, engineering requirements, product development, product testing, and plant location considerations.
  • These elements are essential for assessing the feasibility of implementing a project or developing a product from a technical perspective.

Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is A, B, C, D and E.

Question 37

Out of the following, which are the CORRECT forms of Product Life Cycle:

A. Bell-shaped PLC

B. Scalloped PLC

C. Cycle-Recycle PLC

D. Growth-Slump PLC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B, C and D

  3. COption (c)

    A, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B, C and D only

Why this answer is correct

The product life cycle is the progression of a product through 5 distinct stages—development, introduction, growth, maturity, and decline. The concept was developed by German economist Theodore Levitt, who published his Product Life Cycle model in the Harvard Business Review in 1965

Key Points

Various forms of Product Life Cycle:

  • There are various forms of PLCs For example cycle-recycle pattern,growth-slump-maturity pattern.,scalloped pattern, Style, Fashion, and Fad Life Cycles.
  • We are discussing here only here three Types of PLC -cycle-recycle pattern,growth-slump-maturity pattern and,scalloped pattern

Growth-slump-maturity pattern Pattern:

  • This kind of pattern usually encounters rapid growth in the beginning and later sales decline with stabilization at a certain level.
  • One of the examples of such a product group is kitchen appliances where the late adopters purchase a new product while the early adopters end up replacing their old appliances.

Cycle-recycle Pattern:

  • This pattern usually starts with a period of growth which is followed by decline.
  • Another phase of growth is triggered by the promotion of the product which see a lesser growth as compared to the primary cycle.
  • A typical example of this pattern can be seen in the pharmaceutical industry where sales start declining the company gives the drug another push, which produces a second cycle.

Scalloped pattern.

  • Sales observe a succession of growth periods based on the discovery of new product characteristics, uses, or users.
  • Nylon sales, for example, display a scalloped pattern because, over time, new and a new uses have been discovered -parachutes, hosiery, shirts, carpeting, etc

Important Points

B. Scalloped PLC: This form describes a product life cycle that goes through a series of cycles of growth and decline. It signifies repeated periods of growth and decline with intermittent revitalization efforts.

C. Cycle-Recycle PLC: This form represents a product life cycle that experiences a decline phase followed by a revival or re-introduction phase. It signifies the potential for a product to be repositioned or rejuvenated after its initial decline.

D. Growth-Slump PLC: This form describes a product life cycle that experiences a period of significant growth followed by a sharp decline or slump. It represents a product that quickly loses market appeal after an initial successful growth phase.

Therefore the correct answer is B, C and D only

Question 38

Creativity is the process of generating a novel idea. The five steps of the creative process in sequence are:

A. Elaboration

B. Preparation

C. Evaluation

D. Insight

E. Incubation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    B, D, E, A, C

  2. BOption (b)

    B, E, D, C, A

  3. COption (c)

    D, E, A, B, C

  4. DOption (d)

    E, D, C, B, A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B, E, D, C, A

Why this answer is correct

Idea generation is a continuous, meticulous search for new, viable product development opportunities. It is an important part of the new product development process. 

Key Points

  • The five steps of the creative process in sequence are
  • Stage One: Preparation
  • The preparation stage is the brainstorming stage.
  • By letting your mind wander and finding inspiration, you can plant the seeds for your great ideas.
  • Your inspiration can be as specific as looking at work from other artists or writers who you admire or as abstract as simply taking in the world around you.
  • This is where you gather the material to put together your ideas.
  • Stage Two: Incubation
  • While it may seem counterproductive at first, the second stage of the creative process is walking away from all of the brainstorming that you have just done.
  • While you take a break from your ideas and do something else, your subconscious continues to mold all of the prepared information into your new idea.
  • Stage Three: Illumination Or Insight
  • This is the stage that everyone likes the most: the “Eureka!” moment.
  • This is the moment where your solution or idea moves from your subconscious to the forefront of your mind. Contrary to many stories we hear, this doesn’t have to be anything dramatic.
  • Your idea may come to you while you are eating breakfast, doing laundry, or even studying for an exam.
  • Suddenly, you know what the next verse of your song should be, how your book should end, or what the solution is to your problem.
  • Stage Four: Evaluation
  • After the initial idea has been generated, this stage involves thinking critically about the new idea and weighing it against other solutions. You may seek feedback from peers, conduct marketing research to test the idea, or compare it to the original problem to see if it really works as a solution.
  • After this stage, you will either return to stages one and two if the idea does not hold up or continue ahead with confidence in this idea.
  • Don’t stress though! Not every idea is going to be great, but that doesn’t mean the next one won’t be.
  • Stage Five: Verification or Elaboration
  • The final stage of the process is where you bring your idea to fruition.
  • This is where you actually write your story, paint your picture, or create your new invention. You are finally ready to share your new idea with the world.

Important Points B. Preparation: This step involves gathering information, conducting research, and setting the stage for the creative process. It includes exploring the problem or topic, defining goals, and acquiring relevant knowledge.

E. Incubation: In this step, the individual takes a break from actively thinking about the problem or idea. It is a period of subconscious processing where the mind continues to work on the challenge without conscious effort.

D. Insight: Insight refers to the "aha" moment when a new and innovative idea or solution suddenly comes to mind. It is often characterized by a sudden realization or breakthrough that emerges after the incubation phase.

C. Evaluation: After having an initial insight or idea, the evaluation step involves critically assessing and analyzing the concept. This includes determining its feasibility, exploring its potential impact, and considering its alignment with the desired goals.

A. Elaboration: Elaboration involves developing and expanding upon the initial idea or insight. It includes refining the concept, generating more detailed plans, and considering different perspectives and possibilities.

Therefore the correct answer is B, E, D, C, A.

Question 39

When companies offer products in small packages or charge on a pay-per-use basis, then such strategies are part of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Regionalisation strategies

  2. BOption (b)

    Strategies for competing with global companies

  3. COption (c)

    Strategies for internationalisation

  4. DOption (d)

    Strategies for the Bottom-of-the Pyramid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Strategies for the Bottom-of-the Pyramid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Strategies for the Bottom-of-the Pyramid.

 Key Points

  • Strategies for the Bottom-of-the Pyramid
  • It refers to a market-based model of economic development that promises to simultaneously alleviate widespread poverty while providing growth and profits for multinational corporations (MNCs).
  • One example of the "bottom of the pyramid" is the growing microcredit market in South Asia, particularly in Bangladesh
  • Another example of it is Pay per use model:
  • Pay per use model:
  • ​Under the pay-per-use model, the ownership and responsibility of the product/service lie with the company itself, and the customer pays a fee for usage on demand.
  • Many customers prefer this model because they like the idea of paying only for the services they require and use.
  • For a printing press manufacturer charging for use of his press by the printed page or can even offer a discount on it. So a student from lower strata who only wish to print his/her college notes of a few pages can pay accordingly.
  • Strategies for internationalization:
  • An Internationalization strategy is when an organization seeks to expand to foreign markets.
  • An internationalization strategy can be broken down into the following three strategies:
  • This strategy customizes produce and service offerings to a foreign country Global Strategy
  • This strategy offers the same product or service in foreign nations. transnational Strategy This strategy is a middle-ground between multi-domestic and global strategies.
  • Regionalization strategies:
  • Regionalization strategies involve reorganizing manufacturing into smaller blocks belonging to more localized economies.
  • The main feature of the strategy is to move production closer to where products are sold.
  • Strategies for competing with global companies
  • It involves Strategic options for a company entering and competing in a foreign market that decides to expand outside its domestic market and compete internationally or globally.
  • Important strategic options for a company competing in the international market are listed below:
  • Export strategies
  • Licensing strategies
  • Franchising strategies
  • l Strategic alliances and joint ventures

Question 40

Arrange the following economic identities in a sequential evolution to understand consumer demand.

A. Law of Demand

B. Utility analyses

C. Demand Elasticity analysis

D. Indifference curve analysis

E. Demand Forecasting

Choose the correct  answer from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, D, C, E

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C, D, E, A

  3. COption (c)

    B, D, A, C, E

  4. DOption (d)

    C, D, B, E, A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B, D, A, C, E

Why this answer is correct

Consumer demand is an economic measure of a group's desire for a product or service based on availability. It represents the buying habits of consumers and helps determine the purchasing trends of specific populations.

Key Points

To understand consumer demand following steps in the sequence is taken:

  1. Carry out Indifference Utility analysis:
  • Utility analysis is a quantitative method that estimates the dollar value of benefits generated by an intervention based on the improvement it produces in worker productivity.
  1. Carry out indifference curve analysis:
  • ​​An indifference curve is used by economists to explain the tradeoffs that people consider when they confront two goods that they wish to buy.
  • Because people are constrained by a limited budget, they cannot purchase everything.
  • Instead, a cost-benefit analysis must be considered. Indifference curves visually depict this trade-off by showing which quantities of two goods provide the same utility to a consumer (i.e., where they remain indifferent).
  1. Check for Law of Demand
  • :The law of demand is a fundamental principle which states that there is an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded
  1. Carry out Demand Elasticity analysis
  • “Elasticity of demand is the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a commodity to changes in one of the variables on which demand depends.
  • In other words, it is the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage in one of the variables on which demand depends.”
  1. Search for Demand Forecasting:
  • Demand forecasting is known as the process of making future estimations in relation to customer demand over a specific period. Generally, demand forecasting will consider historical data and other analytical information to produce the most accurate predictions.

Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is B, D, A, C, E.

Question 41

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: The main reason for companies to move to global markets is to take advantages of the economies of scope.

Reason R: Economies of production arise due to the Competitiveness Index of the country in which the companies produce.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    A is false but R is true

  2. BOption (b)

    A is true but R is false

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A is true but R is false

Why this answer is correct

Key PointsAssertion A: The main reason for companies to move to global markets is to take advantages of the economies of scope.

  • Economies of scope
  • It is an economic principle in which a business's unit cost to produce a product will decline as the variety of its products increases.
  • In other words, the more different-but-similar goods you produce, the lower the total cost to produce each one will be.
  • For example, a gas station that sells gasoline can sell soda, milk, baked goods, etc.
  • It on the average total cost of production of a variety of goods.
  • A company that benefits from economies of scope has lower average costs because costs are spread over a variety of products
  • Globalization is a result of economies of scale, which is the cost advantage that arises with the increased output of a product.
  • Economies of scale arise because of the inverse relationship between the quantity produced and per-unit fixed costs; i.e. the greater the quantity of a good produced, the lower the per-unit fixed cost because these costs are spread out over a larger number of goods.
  • Take rival markets China and the US for example, China produces various types of clothing, Medical and technical equipment, Plastics, Vehicles, Iron or steel products, and Footwear. While the United States’ top exports are Machinery, electronic equipment, aircraft, and vehicles.
  • China has a comparative advantage in producing clothing because labor and textiles are cheaper there, while the US has a comparative advantage in producing aircraft because they have a more robust technology sector.
  • If the US were to produce it’s own clothing, which it does not have a comparative advantage in, clothing prices in the US would be much higher than they are now because we wouldn’t be able to purchase Chinese products without international trade.
  • Conversely, China would have an extremely difficult time accessing aircraft because the cost to them would be astronomical, given that their comparative advantage lies in producing clothing.
  • Because we have globalization, we are able to produce the goods that our geographic location and market structures allow us to have a competitive advantage in, and then ship those products out to the rest of the world.

Hence Assertion (A) is correct.

Reason R: Economies of production arise due to the Competitiveness Index of the country in which the companies produce.

  • The World Economic Forum, which has been measuring competitiveness among countries since 1979, defines it as “the set of institutions, policies and factors that determine the level of productivity of a country”.
  • A nation's competitiveness depends on the capacity of its industry to innovate and upgrade.
  • Companies can gain an advantage against the world's best competitors because of pressure and challenge.
  • They benefit from having strong domestic rivals, aggressive home-based suppliers, and demanding local customers leading to an increase in production
  • In case the companies are not innovative they lack behind and might wipe out of the market.

Hence Reason (R) is incorrect.

Important Points

  • Assertion A states that the main reason for companies to move to global markets is to take advantage of the economies of scope. This is a valid statement.
  • Economies of scope refer to the cost savings and efficiency gains that result from producing a variety of products or offering a range of services within the same company or industry.
  • By expanding into global markets, companies can leverage their resources, capabilities, and expertise across different markets, achieving economies of scope.
  • Reason R states that economies of production arise due to the Competitiveness Index of the country in which the companies produce. This statement is incorrect.
  • While a country's competitiveness index can have an impact on the overall business environment and competitiveness of companies operating within it, it is not directly related to economies of production.
  • Economies of production typically arise from factors such as scale of production, specialization, technology, and efficient resource allocation.

Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is A is true but R is false

Question 42

Identify the drivers for increased Foreign Institutional Investment flows in Indian stock markets in recent times

A. Covid-19 pandemic driven liquidity outflows from the western capital markets

B. Geopolitical supply chain relocations

C. Increased India weightage in MSCI Emerging Market Index

D. Steep decline in interest rates in large market friendly economies

E. Favourable risk-reward ratios in Indian stock markets

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    C, D and E only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, B, C and D only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

The drivers for increased Foreign Institutional Investment flows in Indian stock markets in recent times are :

  • The results of the study show foreign institutional investments have shown an increasing trend in Indian stock market.
  • This is due to the strong fundamentals of the Indian economy and positive global investor sentiment.
  • Further, the relaxation in norms for investments by FIIs by the government has boosted the confidence in Indian economy which has added to the rising FII inflows.
  • The COVID-19 period stands out due to the extremely high frequency of large daily stock market movements, making the financial market highly volatile and unpredictable and Covid-19 pandemic-driven liquidity outflows from the western capital markets.
  • The Indian stock market witnessed a sharp recovery in the post-COVID-19 period owing to the sweeping investor enthusiasm. The event studies show that the 2020 lockdown and announcement of the first fiscal package had a significant impact on the stock returns.
  • At the end of August 2022, India moved to the second spot in the MSCI emerging market (EM) index with a weight of 14.483% replacing Taiwan according to the data from Bloomberg
  • The uncertainty from the intensifying Russia-Ukraine conflict and the West's response in the form of economic sanctions have weighed on foreign portfolio investors (FPIs), who pulled out as much as ₹ 17,537 crores from Indian markets in just three trading sessions in March.The market sentiments have been impacted globally by the uncertainty triggered by the war and the surge in crude
  • FPI flows are expected to be volatile in the coming months due to the ongoing Russian invasion of Ukraine and its fallout in the form of sanctions, high inflation, and likely increase in interest rates by the US Federal Reserve
  • The risk/reward ratio marks the prospective reward an investor can earn for every dollar they risk on an investment. Many investors use risk/reward ratios to compare the expected returns of an investment with the amount of risk they must undertake to earn these returns.
  • An appropriate risk-reward ratio tends to be anything greater than 1:3.risk-reward ratios
  • In Indian stock markets, the risk reward ratio is currently unfavorable.
  • The rise in inflation, coupled with high valuations, has triggered rating agency like Nomura to downgraded= Indian equities to “neutral” from “overweight”, citing unfavorable risk-reward.

​Therefore the correct answer is A, B, C and D only.

Question 43

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Option strategiesDescription(s)
A.Protective putI.Buying an asset along with a put on it
B.Covered callII.Buying a call as well as put options on an asset at the same exercise price
C.Long straddleIII.Combining two or more options on the same asset with differing exercise prices or times to maturity
D.SpreadIV.Writing a call position on an asset along with buying the asset

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

  2. BOption (b)

    A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

  3. COption (c)

    A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

  4. DOption (d)

    A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

Why this answer is correct

In finance, an option is a contract that conveys to its owner, the holder, the right, but not the obligation, to buy or sell a specific quantity of an underlying asset or instrument at a specified strike price on or before a specified date, depending on the style of the option.

There are four basic options positions: buying a call option, selling a call option, buying a put option, and selling a put option.

A call option is a contract that gives the option buyer the right to buy an underlying asset at a specified price within a specific time period.

A put option is a financial market derivative instrument that gives the holder the right to sell an asset, at a specified price, by a specified date to the writer of the put. 

 Key Points

Option strategiesDescription(s)
Protective put- It  is created by buying (or owning) stock and buying put options on a share-for-share basis. - In the example, 100 shares are purchased (or owned) and one put is purchased. If the stock price declines, the purchased put provides protection below the strike price.
Covered call- It refers to a financial transaction in which the investor selling call options owns an equivalent amount of the underlying security. - It is Writing a call position on an asset along with buying the asset - When you sell a covered call, you get paid in exchange for giving up a portion of future upside. For example, let's assume you buy XYZ stock for 50pershare,believingitwillriseto50 per share, believing it will rise to 60 within one year. You're also willing to sell at $55 within six months, giving up further upside while taking a short-term profit.
Long straddle- It is an options strategy that involves purchasing both a long call and a long put on the same underlying asset with the same expiration date and strike price. - The goal of a long straddle is to profit from a very strong move, usually triggered by a newsworthy event, in either direction by the underlying asset.
Spread- It refers to buying a call on a strike, and selling another call on a higher strike of the same expiry. - A put spread refers to buying a put on a strike, and selling another put on a lower strike of the same expiry

Therefore the correct answer is A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III$.

Question 44

The product hierarchy stretches from basic needs to particular items in some sequence. Identify the CORRECT sequence or levels of the product hierarchy

A. Product type

B. Product family

C. Product class

D. Need family

E. Product line

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D, E

  2. BOption (b)

    D, B, C, E, A

  3. COption (c)

    D, E, C, A, B

  4. DOption (d)

    E, D, C, B, A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

D, B, C, E, A

Why this answer is correct

A product hierarchy is a modeling of the hierarchical relationships between products in a tree structure. A product hierarchy enables the grouping of products and defines the relationship between products and groups at different hierarchy levels (for example, food – frozen food – pizza)

Key Points

Product hierarchy Levels:

  • Product Need or Need Family :
  • Firstly, the product hierarchy example is product need which symbolizes the reason for which a product exists.
  • For product hierarchy example: people need products for their health care. Now here is the basic product need that Colgate satisfies.
  • Product Family :
  • Secondly, the product family is from the point of view of the business market and is company-specific.
  • So this level refers to the basic need that the company’s product satisfies.
  • There is a bigger picture viewing a business market rather than an individual market. For product hierarchy example: In oral hygiene of Colgate there can be a variety of options like toothpaste, toothbrushes, floss, and mouthwash.
  • Product Class :
  • The terms product class and product family are close and can be used interchangeably for many companies. It describes the group under the specific product family having a unique function also called the product subcategory.
  • For product hierarchy example: Colgate with its whitening category or sensitivity factor (Sensodyne) is called product class.
  • Product Line :
  • This area deals with various products that fall under the umbrella of one product class that are closely associated due to the same function performed by them marketed to the same channels, sold to the same customers, or have similar price ranges.
  • For product hierarchy example: Colgate Sensodyne has three varieties which are termed as product line as they perform the same function of dealing with sensitive areas in our teeth. So the product line here is
  • Product Type :
  • This level now describes the items which are present in a specific product line that shares one specific function.
  • For product hierarchy example: Colgate Sensodyne has three flavours namely normal whitening, mint, and Ayurveda. So the individual products are referred to as product types.

Therefore we conclude that the correct sequence is D, B, C, E, A

Question 45

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.Markovian propertyI.Rule of determining the order in which members of the queue are selected to begin service
B.Waiting time in systemII.The time of next arrival is completely uninfluenced by when the last arrival occurred
C.Steady state conditionIII.The queueing is in after operating for some time with a fixed utilisation factor less than one
D.Queue disciplineIV.Elapsed time that an individual customer spends in queue, both before service and during service

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

  2. BOption (b)

    A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

  3. COption (c)

    A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

  4. DOption (d)

    A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

Why this answer is correct

Queuing theory is the study of queues and the random processes that characterize them. It deals with making mathematical sense of real-life scenarios. For example, a mob of people queuing up at a bank or the tasks queuing up on your computer's back end.

Key Points

List IList II
Markovian property- It  means that evolution of the Markov process in the future depends only on the present state and does not depend on past history. - The Markov process does not remember the past if the present state is given. Hence, the Markov process is called the process with memoryless property. - In this The time of next arrival is completely uninfluenced by when the last arrival occurred
Waiting time in system- Elapsed time that an individual customer spends in queue, both before service and during service
Steady state condition- The steady state of a queuing system is the state where the probability of the number of customers in the system is independent of time t. - The queueing is in after operating for some time with a fixed utilization factor less than one
Queue discipline- It represents the way the queue is organized (rules of inserting and removing customers to/from the queue). - There are these ways: - 1) FIFO (First In First Out) also called FCFS (First Come First Serve) - orderly queue. - 2) LIFO (Last In First Out) also called LCFS (Last Come First Serve) - stack. - In short, it is the Rule of determining the order in which members of the queue are selected to begin service

Therefore the correct answer is A-II, B - IV, C - III, D - I.

Question 46

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Entrepreneur typeFeatures based on Entrepreneurial Competency
A.PassengerI.Ability to do and no will to do
B.Star/IdealII.No ability to do and no will to do
C.Dead woodIII.Ability to do and will to do
D.May runIV.No ability to do and will to do

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  2. BOption (b)

    A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

  3. COption (c)

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

  4. DOption (d)

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Why this answer is correct

Key Points 

Entrepreneur typeFeatures based on Entrepreneurial Competency
PassengerThey are identified as the entrepreneurs who have No ability to do and will to do
Star/Ideal- They are the brand. Charismatic personalities with compelling product offerings that inspire deep customer loyalty. - Star entrepreneurs are powerful brand ambassadors who place a premium on the customer experience, build strong corporate cultures and rarely compete on price and efficiency. - They have Ability to do and will to do
Dead woodThey drain resources. They are identified as those who have No ability to do and no will to do
May runThey are identified as the entrepreneurs who have the Ability to do but no will to do

Therefore the correct answer is A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I.

Question 47

Arrange the following key roles in the inverse order of their involvement in the process of organisational change.

A. Chief implementer

B. Task forces

C. Corporate management

D. Implementation team

E. Consultant

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. AOption (a)

    A, E, C, B, D

  2. BOption (b)

    C, A, E, D, B

  3. COption (c)

    C, E, A, D, B

  4. DOption (d)

    E, A, C, B, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

C, E, A, D, B

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Organisational Change:

  • Organizational change is the process through which a firm or business changes a key aspect of its structure, such as its culture, the operational infrastructure or supporting technologies, or its internal procedures.
  • Changing structural linkages and employee roles are referred to as organizational change.

Important PointsC. Corporate management: Corporate management plays a crucial role in driving and initiating organizational change. They provide strategic direction and support for the change initiatives. Corporate management is responsible for identifying the need for change, setting the overall vision and goals for the change, and allocating resources to support the change efforts.

A. Chief implementer: The chief implementer is typically a senior executive or a leader within the organization who oversees and manages the change process. They translate the strategic direction provided by corporate management into actionable plans and initiatives. The chief implementer is responsible for leading change management activities, coordinating different stakeholders, and ensuring effective execution of the change initiatives.

D. Implementation team: The implementation team consists of individuals or groups who are directly involved in executing the change plan. They are responsible for implementing specific actions, processes, or systems that bring about the desired changes. The implementation team may include employees from different departments or functions who work together to ensure the successful implementation of the change initiatives.

E. Consultant: Consultants are external experts or professionals who are brought in to provide specialized expertise, guidance, and support during the change process. They bring a fresh perspective, industry knowledge, and best practices to help the organization navigate through the complexities of change. Consultants often work closely with corporate management and the chief implementer to provide recommendations, develop change strategies, and assist with the implementation of change initiatives.

B. Task forces are temporary teams or groups formed to address specific change-related tasks or projects. They are often cross-functional and composed of individuals with diverse expertise and backgrounds. Task forces are responsible for analyzing specific aspects of the change, developing plans, and implementing initiatives related to their assigned tasks. They work closely with the implementation team and may collaborate with consultants to achieve the desired change outcomes.

Additional Information The following play important roles in the sequential process of organizational change:

1. Corporate management: It consists of the chief executive and a number of senior executives who are in charge of making policies.

2. Consultant: 

  • A consultant or team of consultants typically hails from outside the organization, but this is not a must.
  • The consultant plays the role of a professional with knowledge and experience in the area where change is being advocated.
  • Having outside experts for a while has certain benefits.
  • Even if they might possess the requisite skills, the inside people are probably inhabited by people who have their own perception of the issue.
  • Some of the tasks carried out by consultants include implanting, transcending, producing alternatives, operating process facilities, etc.

3. Chief implementer:

  • Organizational change needs to be carried out, and it doesn't necessarily have to be done by those who work in that field. In actuality, it is preferable to separate implementation from functional accountability in an organization.
  • The chairman of the implementation team typically serves as the lead implementer.
  • His accountability extends beyond simply outlining the issues and offering solutions.
  • He accepts accountability for overseeing and ensuring proper execution. Among the tasks carried out by the chief implementer are monitoring, diagnostic, and executive tasks.

4. Team in charge of implementation:

  • The team in charge of implementation is made up of individuals from various departments or sections of the organization and is charged with periodically monitoring, considering, and providing required recommendations.
  • Such a team makes sure that everyone in the organization is properly motivated and takes the essential actions to ensure effective implementation.
  • Collaboration-building, gatekeeping, reviewing, and creating policies are the major duties of the implementation team.

5. Task forces:

  • The task forces are organized for specific goals to prepare material, gather data, produce ideas, and take on certain responsibilities that are performed very quickly and within a given time frame.
  • There may be numerous task forces, each of which disbands once it has completed its assigned duty.
  • Utilizing the many types of knowledge and abilities that are available within the organization is made easier by the task forces.

Thus, the correct sequence is C, E, A, D, B.

Question 48

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Terms relate toOrganisation
A.Bali PackageI.UNCTAD
B.To assist developing countries in the area of trade and capitalII.IMF
C.International monetary cooperation among member countriesIII.World Bank
D.Providing loans for building capital infrastructure of a countryIV.WTO

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

  2. BOption (b)

    A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

  3. COption (c)

    A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

  4. DOption (d)

    A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Why this answer is correct

Important Points


List I
List II
OrganisationTerms related to
United Nations Conference on Commerce and Development- The General Assembly established the United Nations Conference on Commerce and Development (UNCTAD) in 1964 to handle development issues relating to international trade, a major force in sustainable development. - Through its three pillars of policy analysis, consensus building, and technical assistance, UNCTAD seeks to maximize developing countries' trade, investment, and growth possibilities and aid them in their efforts to fairly integrate into the global economy. - UNCTAD assist developing countries in the area of trade and capital
International Monetary Fund- An international financial institution known as the IMF was founded with the goal of fostering global monetary cooperation, ensuring financial stability, facilitating international trade, fostering high employment and long-term economic growth, and eradicating poverty worldwide. - It serves as a basis for International monetary cooperation among member countries
World Bank- The World Bank is a global lending and funding organization that assists governments of low- and middle-income countries with funding capital projects. - It provides loans for building capital infrastructure of a country - It aims to promote an atmosphere that is welcoming to investors. - It aims to reduce poverty in order to increase economic stability. It seeks to achieve long-term growth as a result.
World Trade Organization- The sole international body dealing with international trade regulations is the World Trade Organization (WTO). Indonesia's Bali played host to a ministerial conference. - The "Bali Package," a set of agreements agreed by the Conference, aims to facilitate trade, provide developing nations with more alternatives for ensuring food security, increase trade among least-developed nations, and support development more broadly. - A selection of topics from the more extensive Doha Round negotiations make up the Bali Package.

Thus, the correct match is A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Question 49

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Concept(s)Descriptions(s)
A.AnnuityI.Process of application of interest over interest, period after period, on a given sum at specific rate for specified time
B.Time value of moneyII.A fixed and equal amount of money payable or receivable at periodic intervals of time equal to the amount of loan (Principal) and interest at a given rate
C.CompoundingIII.Widely used in the field of finance in determination of equated monthly installments for recovery of loans in a specified time period at a given rate of interest
D.EMIIV.A fixed and equal amount of money payable or receivable at periodic intervals evenly spaced over time

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

  2. BOption (b)

    A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

  3. COption (c)

    A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

  4. DOption (d)

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Why this answer is correct

Key Points 

ConceptDescription
Annuity- An annuity is a series of payments made at equal intervals. - It is a fixed and equal amount of money payable or receivable at periodic intervals evenly spaced over time. - Examples of annuities are regular deposits to a savings account, monthly home mortgage payments, monthly insurance payments, and pension payments.
Time value of money- It is the concept that money today is worth more than money tomorrow. - It illustrates the effect of interest on the monetary value of your loan or investment. The basic premise of TVM states that, as long as money can earn interest, money is worth more the sooner it is received. - It is widely used in the field of finance in the determination of equated monthly instalments for the recovery of loans in a specified time period at a given rate of interest.
Compounding- It is the process whereby interest is credited to an existing principal amount as well as to interest already paid. - Examples are savings accounts, checking accounts, and certificates of deposit (CDs).
EMI- An equated monthly instalment (EMI) is a set monthly payment provided by a borrower to a creditor on a set day, each month. EMIs apply to both interest and principal each month, and the loan is paid off in full over some years. - It is a fixed and equal amount of money payable or receivable at periodic intervals of time equal to the amount of loan (principal) and interest at a given rate.

 

Therefore, the matching code is A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Question 50

Once a company has appointed dealers, the main elements of dealer motivation then are:

A. Territory of operation

B. Trade discount

C. Special incentives

D. Effective communication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B, C and D only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

The main elements of dealer motivation are:

1. Use proper segmentation:

  • The most common segmentation in distribution is geographic.
  • Thus, if a dealer is given the freedom to operate exclusively in a certain geography, then this can motivate the channel dealer because of the business he can generate from that geography.
  • But you can also alter the mode of segmentation based on your product. In the end, the dealer should get a fair share of the ground to play with.

2. Set targets:

  • A dealer is an entrepreneur and not an employee.
  • Thus, in general, they do not have targets. It is the work of the company to set targets for the dealers and ensure that they achieve them. Communication of these targets is important so that the channel dealer has a definite goal in his mind.

3. Fine tune channel operations

  • One of the most time-consuming and demotivating factors for your dealer is improper operations.
  • For example, deliveries arriving late, service not being given promptly, etc.
  • However, as a channel manager, you have to guide the dealer towards better operations.

4. Support dealers with schemes, incentives, and discounts.

  • The single most motivating factor in channel sales is the money your dealer earns from your brand.
  • If the money is good, he will run more. If the money is less, he will switch over to another brand.
  • And if the money is adequate, then he might keep multiple brands to keep his cash register going at all times. So to keep a dealer motivated, you have to offer him good schemes and discounts so that money goes into his pocket.

5. Have empathy and effective communication:

  • Empathy cannot be learned. It is a natural thing. But once you become empathetic towards your channel dealers, they too will disclose their problems to you. And learning about their problems can help you, as a company, solve them and keep the channel dealer motivated.

Therefore, the correct answers are B, C, and D only.

Question 51

An outlier does NOT affect which of the following statistical measures?

A. Quartile range

B. Standard deviation

C. Median

D. Regression coefficients

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    B and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A and C only

Why this answer is correct

An outlier is an observation that lies at an abnormal distance from other values in a random sample of a population. Outliers are important because they can have a large influence on statistics derived from the dataset. Outliers affect the mean value of the data but have little effect on the median or mode of a given set of data

 Key Points

Effect of outlier on following statistical measures:

Median:

  • The median is the middle value in a set of data. The median of 4, 1, and 7 is 4 because when the numbers are put in order (1, 4, 7), the number 4 is in the middle. Mean, median, and mode are measures of central tendency. The mean is the only measure of central tendency that is always affected by an outlier, and that's why the median is appropriate to know central tendency as it is not affected by an outlier.

Quartile range:

  • When a data set has outliers or extreme values, we summarise a typical value using the median as opposed to the mean.
  • When a data set has outliers, variability is often summarised by a statistic called the interquartile range, which is the difference between the first and third quartiles.
  • The Interquartile Range is not affected by outliers.
  • The interquartile range is a measure of where the “middle fifty” is in a data set.
  • Where a range is a measure of where the beginning and end are in a set, an interquartile range is a measure of where the bulk of the values lie.

Standard deviation:

  • ​A standard deviation (or σ) is a measure of how dispersed the data is in relation to the mean. Low standard deviation means data are clustered around the mean, and high standard deviation indicates data are more spread out. The more extreme the outlier, the more the standard deviation is affected. In general, an outlier pulls the mean towards it and inflates the standard deviation.
  • Let's examine what can happen to a data set with outliers. For the sample data set:
  • 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4
  • We find the following mean, median, mode, and standard deviation:
  • Mean = 2.58
  • Median = 2.5
  • Mode = 2
  • Standard Deviation = 1.08
  • If we add an outlier to the data set:
  • 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 400
  • The new values of our statistics are:
  • Mean = 35.38
  • Median = 2.5
  • Mode = 2
  • Standard Deviation = 114.74
  • As you can see, having outliers often has a significant effect on your mean and standard deviation. Because of this, we must take steps to remove outliers from our data sets.

Regression coefficients:

  • The regression coefficients are a static measure which is used to measure the average functional relationship between variables.
  • In regression analysis, one variable is dependent and the other is independent.
  • Also, it measures the degree of dependence of one variable on the other(s).
  • An outlier is a data point that does not fit with the rest of the data.
  • An outlier can be higher or lower than expected or displaced more to the right or left than expected. Outliers can affect regression lines, making the regression lines less accurate in predicting other data.

Therefore, we conclude that the correct answers are A and C only.

Question 52

Out of the following, which are the IMF facilities available to member countries?

A. Extended Fund Facility (EFF)

B. Structural Adjustment Lending (SAL)

C. Compensatory Financing Facility (CFF)

D. Stand-by Arrangements (SBA)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, C and D only

Why this answer is correct

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an agency of the United Nations, and an international financial institution, headquartered in Washington, D.C., consisting of 190 countries at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944. Its stated mission is "working to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, facilitate international trade, promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and reduce poverty around the world."

Various IMF facilities available to member countries include Reserve Tranche, Credit Tranches, Stand-By Arrangements, Extended Fund Facility (EFF), Compensatory and Contingency Financing Facility, Buffer Stock Financing Facility, Supplemental Reserve Facility (SRF) and Enhanced Structural Adjustment Facility (ESAF) etc.

Key Points

A few IMF facilities available to member countries are explained below:

1. Stand-By Arrangements. 

  • Stand-By Arrangements give members the right to draw up to a specified amount of IMF resources during a prescribed period.
  • Drawings are normally phased on a quarterly basis, with their release conditional upon meeting performance criteria and the completion of periodic reviews.
  • Stand-By Arrangements typically cover a 12–18-month period (although they can extend up to three years). Repayments are to be made within 3¼ to 5 years of each drawing.

2. Extended Fund Facility (EFF). 

  • The EFF provides assistance for adjustment programs over longer periods and with generally larger amounts of financing than understand-by arrangements.
  • Extended arrangements, which normally run for three years (and can be extended for a fourth), are designed to rectify balance of payments difficulties that stem largely from structural problems and require a longer period of adjustment.

3. Compensatory and Contingency Financing Facility.

  • The export compensatory element of the CCFF provides timely financing to members experiencing a temporary shortfall in export earnings or an excess in cereal import costs, attributable to factors largely beyond the member’s control.
  • This element of the facility has been used particularly by commodity exporters.
  • The contingency element helps members with IMF arrangements keep their adjustment programmes on track when faced with unexpected adverse external shocks.

Therefore, we conclude that the correct answers are A, C and D only

Additional Information

  • Structural adjustment programs (SAPs) :
  • A World Bank programme was established in 1980 to enhance a country's long-term economic growth through financing projects.
  • Structural adjustment programs (SAPs) consist of loans (structural adjustment loans; SALs) provided by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank (WB) to countries that experience economic crises.

Question 53

In theory, several levels of economic integration are possible. Arrange the following from the least to the most integrated:

A. Common Market

B. Free Trade Area

C. Economic Union

D. Political Union

E. Customs Union

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B, C, D, E

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C, D, E, B

  3. COption (c)

    B, E, A, C, D 

  4. DOption (d)

    C, B, A, E, D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B, E, A, C, D 

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Economic integration:

  • It is an agreement among nations to reduce or eliminate trade barriers and agree on fiscal policies.
  • Economic integration can be classified into five additive levels, each present in the global landscape:
  1. A free trade area 
  • ​This is the most basic form of economic cooperation. Member countries remove all barriers to trade between themselves but are free to independently determine trade policies with non-member nations.
  • An example is the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA).
  1. Customs union. 
  • This type provides for economic cooperation, as in a free-trade zone.
  • Barriers to trade are removed between member countries.
  • The primary difference from the free trade area is that members agree to treat trade with non-member countries in a similar manner.
  1. Common market. 
  • This type allows for the creation of economically integrated markets between member countries.
  • Trade barriers are removed, as are any restrictions on the movement of labour and capital between member countries.
  • Like customs unions, there is a common trade policy for trade with non-member nations.
  • The primary advantage for workers is that they no longer need a visa or work permit to work in another member country of a common market.
  • An example is the Common Market for Eastern and Southern Africa (COMESA).
  1. Economic union. 
  • This type is created when countries enter into an economic agreement to remove barriers to trade and adopt common economic policies.
  • An example is the European Union (EU).
  1. Political union.
  • It represents the potentially most advanced form of integration with a common government and where the sovereignty of a member country is significantly reduced.
  • This is only found within nation-states, such as federations, where a central government and regions (provinces, states, etc.) have a level of autonomy over well-defined matters such as education.

Therefore, the correct sequence is B, E, A, C, D.

Question 54

Which of the following is true with regard to the method of least squares used in simple regression analysis?

  1. AOption (a)

    It minimises the sum of squared differences between the values of independent variable and their mean

  2. BOption (b)

    It minimises the sum of squared values of the dependent variable

  3. COption (c)

    It minimises the sum of the squared differences between the actual values of dependent variable and the estimated values of the dependent variable as per regression equation

  4. DOption (d)

    It minimises the sum of the squared values of the independent variable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It minimises the sum of the squared differences between the actual values of dependent variable and the estimated values of the dependent variable as per regression equation

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Simple Regression Analysis:

A simple regression analysis is essentially a statistical technique used to quantify the relationship between a single independent variable and a single dependent variable based on historical observations.

Important Points

Least Squares method used in Simple Regression Analysis:

Finding a regression line or best-fitted line for any collection of data that is specified by an equation is done using the least square method. With this technique, the trend of the results is discovered quantitatively by reducing the sum of the squares of the residual sections of the points from the curve or line. When performing regression analysis, the least square method is used to fit equations to the data in order to derive the curve.

  • The primary goal of this methodology is to minimize the sum of squared errors. This explains why this approach is known as the least-squares approach.
  • A statistical technique called the least-squares method is used to determine which equation, such as y = mx + b, best fits the data. According to the regression equation, it minimizes the sum of the squared differences between the dependent variable's estimated values and actual values.
  • This approach is frequently used in data fitting, where the goal is to minimize the sum of squared errors, which is thought to represent the discrepancy between the observed values and the corresponding fitted values.
  • The behaviour of the dependent variable with respect to the independent variable is predicted using the least-squares method.
  • Variance is the product of the square of the errors.
  • The least-squares method's primary goal is to reduce the total squared errors.

Hence, it is true that least squares method used in simple regression analysis minimises the sum of the squared differences between the actual values of dependent variable and the estimated values of the dependent variable as per regression equation

Question 55

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.AS 11I.Revenue Recognition
B.AS 2II.The effect of change in exchange rate
C.AS 3III.Valuation of Inventories
D.AS 9IV.Cash flow statement

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  2. BOption (b)

    A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

  3. COption (c)

    A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

  4. DOption (d)

    A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

 Indian Accounting Standards:

  • Ind AS, or Indian Accounting Standards, govern the accounting and recording of financial transactions as well as the presentation of statements like a balance sheet and profit and loss account of a corporation in India.
  • The Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS), as notified under section 133 of the Companies Act 2013, have been formulated keeping the Indian economic & legal environment in view and with a view to converge with the IFRS Standards, as issued by and copyright of which is held by the IFRS Foundation.

Important Points

Accounting StandardsKey points regarding standards
AS 11- The reporting of foreign exchange transactions in the financial statements is covered by AS 11 The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates. - The primary concern with accounting for overseas operations and currency exchanges is addressed in the standard, along with recommendations on how to recognize the financial impact of exchange rate changes in financial statements and guidelines on choosing which exchange rate to employ. - Ind AS 11 relates to construction contracts, whereas AS 11 relates to the effects of changes in foreign exchange rates.
AS 2- This standard's goal is to outline the accounting treatment for inventories. - The information provided by Accounting Standard 2 is used to calculate the cost of inventories and to recognize them as an expense moving forward, including any write-downs to net realizable value. - AS 2 deals with the valuation of inventories, whereas Ind AS 2 with inventories
AS 3- An organization's inflows and outflows of cash and its equivalent during a given time period are shown on the cash flow statement. - For each period for which financial statements are provided, an organization prepares a cash flow statement in accordance with Revised Accounting Standard – 3 and presents it. - Ind AS 7 is called the Statement of Cash Flows, while AS 3 is the Cash Flow Statement.
AS 9- The bases/criteria for recognizing revenue in an enterprise's profit and loss statement are covered by this standard. - It focuses on the recognition of income from the sale of goods, the provision of services, and the usage by third parties of enterprise resources, producing interest, royalties, and dividends within the normal course of business. - AS 9 deals with revenue recognition, whereas Ind AS 18 deals with revenue.

 

Hence, the correct match is A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I.

Question 56

Which one of the following orientation programs seeks to ratify the usefulness of the characteristics that the person brings to the new job?

  1. AOption (a)

    Disjunctive Orientation

  2. BOption (b)

    Divestiture Orientation

  3. COption (c)

    Investiture Orientation

  4. DOption (d)

    Serial Orientation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Investiture Orientation

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Orientation, often known as on-boarding, is intended to provide new employees with the knowledge they need to work efficiently and comfortably within the company. Another word for orientation is induction.

Important Points

Investiture orientation:

  • Investiture orientation is to validate the value of the traits the individual brings to the new position.
  • This is how most high-level appointments work.
  • This orientation program aims to validate the person's personal qualities in their new position.
  • Even though the new employee was chosen for their performance potential, divestiture orientation aims to change some of their qualities.

Thus, the correct solution is Investiture orientation.

Additional Information

  • Disjunctive orientation: Due to the lack of tradition-related pressure on the newly employed, disjunctive orientation is likely to result in more original and creative personnel.
  • Divestiture orientation: Divestiture orientation is to manage slight changes in the new hire's qualities, even though they were chosen for their performance potential.
  • Serial orientation: When a seasoned worker onboards a new person, orientation turns into a serial process. The seasoned worker serves as a mentor and role model for the new hire.

Question 57

The process of converting a non-productive, inactive asset into a productive asset by selling receivables to a company that specialises in their collection and administration, is described as

  1. AOption (a)

    Credit administration

  2. BOption (b)

    Credit rating

  3. COption (c)

    Factoring 

  4. DOption (d)

    Receivables management

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Factoring 

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Factoring:

  • The process of converting a non-productive, inactive asset into a productive asset by selling receivables to a company that specializes in their collection and administration is described as factoring.
  • It is a kind of financial service in which a business organization sells its accounts receivable to another person called a factor at a discount in order to raise money.

Important Points

A factoring transaction involves the following three parties:

  • The factor who provides the factoring services,
  • The client, who is actually availing the services,
  • The customers, who purchase the goods and services on credit

Here, factoring means an arrangement between a factor and his client that includes at least two of the following services to be provided by the factor.

  • Finance
  • Maintenance of debt
  • Collection of debts
  • Protection against credit risk

Thus, the correct solution is factoring.

Additional Information

  • Credit Rating: A credit rating is a measurement of a person or business entity's ability to repay a financial obligation based on income and past repayment histories
  • Receivables management: Planning and managing the debt owed to the client on account of credit sales is referred to as managing receivables.
  • Credit Administration: The supervision of all credit-related activities by a bank helps to ensure the loan portfolio, which is its biggest balance sheet asset, remains valuable.

Question 58

Which one of the following measures better explains inflation in an economic ecosystem?

  1. AOption (a)

    Consumer Price Index (CPI)

  2. BOption (b)

    GNP deflator

  3. COption (c)

    Rate of change in GNP deflator 

  4. DOption (d)

    Wholesale Price Index (WPI)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rate of change in GNP deflator 

Why this answer is correct

Key PointsGNP Deflator and its rate of change:

  • A price index called the GNP deflator is used to convert monetary GNP values into real GNP values.
  • The GNP deflator is used to assess real GNP by removing the inflationary component of price level fluctuations from nominal GNP.
  • The greatest explanation for inflation in an economic ecosystem is rate of change in GNP deflator.
  • The higher the GNP deflator, the higher the rate of inflation for the period

Thus, the correct solution is Rate of change in GNP deflator.

Important Points 

  • The rate of change in the Gross National Product (GNP) deflator, also known as the inflation rate, measures the percentage change in the overall price level of goods and services produced by an economy over a specific period.

The formula to calculate the inflation rate using the GNP deflator is as follows:

Inflation rate = ((GNP deflator in the current period - GNP deflator in the previous period) / GNP deflator in the previous period) * 100

For example, if the GNP deflator in the current year is 110 and the GNP deflator in the previous year was 100, the inflation rate would be:

((110 - 100) / 100) * 100 = 10%

This means that there has been a 10% increase in the overall price level, as measured by the GNP deflator, between the two periods.

  • The rate of change in the GNP deflator is an important indicator of inflationary or deflationary pressures within an economy.
  • It provides insights into the purchasing power of consumers, the cost of production for businesses, and the overall health of the economy.
  • Central banks and policymakers closely monitor the inflation rate to make decisions regarding monetary policy and economic stability.

Additional Information

The Consumer Price Index:

  • The consumer price index is the index used to determine retail inflation in the economy by monitoring changes in the cost of the most frequently purchased products and services.
  • In other words, the consumer price index calculates the price change of a typical basket of goods and services.
  • It is used to determine price changes for fixed commodities and is also known as a market basket.

Wholesale price index:

  • The cost of a basket of wholesale items is represented by the wholesale price index.
  • WPI is focused on the price of goods that are traded between firms. It does not focus on consumer-purchased items.
  • The WPI is used in India to track changes in the prices of goods that are traded in the wholesale market.

Question 59

Which methods of risk analysis better serve lender's perspective in the capital budgeting decisions?

  1. AOption (a)

    Certainty Equivalent approach

  2. BOption (b)

    Decision Analysis

  3. COption (c)

    Risk Adjusted Discount Rate

  4. DOption (d)

    Simulation and Sensitivity analyses

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Certainty Equivalent approach

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Risk Analysis: Risk analysis offers firms with knowledge they may use to influence key decision-making elements and actionable information about some long-term investments.

  • The certainty equivalent approach involves adjusting the expected cash flows of a project to account for the level of risk involved. Lenders are typically more risk-averse than borrowers, and they require a higher return or compensation for taking on risk.
  • In the certainty equivalent approach, the lender assigns a risk premium or discount rate to the expected cash flows of the project to reflect the level of risk. The risk premium is based on the lender's risk tolerance and the perceived riskiness of the project.
  • By applying a higher discount rate to the cash flows, the lender can determine the certainty equivalent value, which represents the amount the lender would be willing to lend for the given level of risk.

Important Points

Certainty Equivalent approach

  • The Certainty Equivalent approach is a guaranteed return that the management would accept rather than accept a higher but uncertain return.
  • With this strategy, the decision-maker is able to include their utility function in the analysis.
  • It benefits lenders since it is simple to calculate for various risk levels that apply to various cash flows.
  • This approach allows the decision maker to incorporate his or her utility function into the analysis.
  • In this approach a set of risk less cash flow is generated in place of the original cash flows.

Thus, the correct solution is the Certainty Equivalent approach. 

Additional Information The risk-adjusted discount rate

  • The idea behind using a risk-adjusted discount rate is that investors expect larger profits from risky enterprises.
  • A free risk rate plus a risk premium are added to provide a risk-adjusted discount rate.

Simulation and sensitivity analyses

  • A modelling technique called simulation and sensitivity analysis is used to examine how changes in the variables affect the project's outcome.
  • This project's outcome is examined after only one variable's change has been considered. The variable is more crucial, the more sensitive the net present value is.

Question 60

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Brand conceptMeaning
A.Brand imageI.Customer's emotional response and reactions with respect to Brand
B.Brand feelingsII.Image of the Brand in the customer's mind, meeting their social/psychological needs
C.Brand positionIII.How customers think of the Brand under various purchase situations
D.Brand salienceIV.Deliberate attempt on the part of marketer of the Brand to create a unique position in the mind of customer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

  2. BOption (b)

    A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

  3. COption (c)

    A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

  4. DOption (d)

    A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

Why this answer is correct

Key Points                                                                                                                                                                                    

Brand conceptMeaning
Brand image- The customers' present perception of a brand is known as its brand image. - It can be characterized as a particular collection of associations held by the target audience. - It denotes the current values that the brand upholds. - It is a set of opinions people have regarding a particular brand. - Customer's mental representation of the brand that satisfies their psychological and social demands
Brand feelings- The term "brand feelings" refers to how consumers feel about a product or their emotional connection to it. - The brand might evoke feelings in the consumer related to enjoyment, security, self-respect, social acceptance, etc. - Customer reactions and emotional responses to the brand
Brand position- It can be characterized as a brand's positioning strategy with the intention of leaving a distinctive impression on consumers and in the marketplace. - It is a deliberate attempt on the part of marketer of the Brand to create a unique position in the mind of customer
Brand salience- How well the customer is informed about the product and how frequently is it evoked throughout the purchasing scenarios is referred to as brand salience. - The marketer should not only concentrate on raising consumer awareness of the goods; they should also consider how easily consumers can recall the brand and how readily they can do so in a variety of buying circumstances. - How customers think of the Brand under various purchase situations

the correct matching is A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

Question 61

Which phrase best completes the statement below?

One of the key tasks of a marketer is to ________ and to create a perception among consumers that the product is worth purchasing.

  1. AOption (a)

    Differentiate their products from those of competitors

  2. BOption (b)

    Do market surveys

  3. COption (c)

    Make products easily visible and available

  4. DOption (d)

    Promote sales of products

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Differentiate their products from those of competitors

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • A marketer is a person who solicits a reaction from another party, known as the prospect, such as their attention, a purchase, a vote, or a gift.
  • Consumers are persuaded by marketers to buy things they don't need.
  • To enable time for marketing research, analysis, management review, and departmental collaboration, marketers begin preparing far in advance of the implementation date.

Important PointsPositioning:

  • Positioning describes how your product (item or service) compares to competing goods and services on the market as well as in the minds of customers.
  • The objective of market positioning is to establish the image or identity of a brand or product so that consumers perceive it in a certain way.
  • One of a marketer's main responsibilities is to set their products apart from those of rivals and convince customers that they are worthwhile purchases.

Thus, the correct solution is to differentiate their products from those of competitors.

Question 62

Which of the following are types of foreign exchange risks or exposures?

A. Translation Exposure

B. Transaction Exposure

C. Social Exposure

D. Economic Exposure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and D only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, B, C and D 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, B and D only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Foreign Exchange Risk:

  • The danger of financial impact brought on by exchange rate variations is known as foreign exchange risk, sometimes referred to as exchange rate risk.
  • Foreign exchange risk, to put it simply, is the possibility that changes in currency exchange rates will have an influence on a business's financial situation or performance.

Important Points

The following are the types of foreign exchange risks:

Translation Exposure

  • The risk posed by a firm with a local headquarters that conducts business in a foreign country but reports its financial performance in that country's currency is known as translation risk, also known as translation exposure.
  • It alludes to foreign exchange exposure, which happens after the accounts are finalized.

Transaction exposure

  • Essentially, transaction risk is caused by the interval between a transaction and its settlement.
  • It speaks of the long-term financial risk attached to contracts that have already been signed. The risk a business takes on while doing financial transactions across borders is known as "transaction risk."

Economic exposure

  • The risk that an organization's market value will be impacted by its inevitable exposure to exchange rate swings is known as economic risk, often referred to as forecast risk.
  • It speaks of the repercussions of transaction exposure over the long term. It is the shift in a company's current position in the market when compared to its rivals as a result of fluctuations in foreign exchange rates. Macroeconomic factors like geopolitical instability and/or governmental rules frequently result in this kind of risk.

Thus, the correct solutions are A, B and D only.

Question 63

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Acquiring firms often are willing to pay a price higher than the status quo value of assets for the right to control management of target firms.

Reason R: The value of control stems from the changes that can be made to improve performance by debottlenecking capacity, streamlining and strengthening operations, managerial systems and processes.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    A is false but R is true

  2. BOption (b)

    A is true but R is false

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

Key Points Assertion A: Acquiring firms are often willing to pay a price higher than the status quo value of assets for the right to control the management of target firms.

  • Acquiring underperforming businesses and altering the management team, or at the very least the management policies or practises, should raise the value of the acquired business, enabling the acquirer to claim the value increase. This rise in value is frequently referred to as the value of control.
  • The market price of the acquisition should represent the current management of the company and their subpar business practises, or the status quo. There is minimal chance for the acquirer to obtain the control premium if the market price is already included in it.

Hence, the assertion is correct.

Reason R: The value of control stems from the changes that can be made to improve performance by debottlenecking capacity, streamlining and strengthening operations, managerial systems, and processes.

  • The flow of a system can be significantly impacted as well as the time and cost of production when the process that causes the bottleneck. The key to boosting manufacturing efficiency is to remove bottlenecks.
  • The value of control can also be strengthened by improving the managerial processes and streamlining the other operations that are required by the acquirer to pay a price higher than the status quo value of assets.

Hence, the reason is correct.

Therefore, both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 64

The holistic, integrated and goal-oriented process of planning, recruiting, selecting, developing, managing, and compensating employees is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Human Resource Planning

  2. BOption (b)

    Human Resource Management

  3. COption (c)

    Strategic Human Resource Management

  4. DOption (d)

    Talent Management

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Talent Management

Why this answer is correct

The holistic, integrated, and goal-oriented process of planning, recruiting, selecting, developing, managing, and compensating employees is known as talent management.

Key Points

  • **Talent management is the process of attracting, selecting, training, developing, retaining, and promoting the best people in an organisation.**The term came to prominence in the late 90's.
  • It seeks to align people with roles (treating roles as fixed and developing people to fit these jobs) or align roles with people (creating and adapting roles to satisfy the aspirations of people).
  • Talent management encompasses the comprehensive approach of attracting, developing, nurturing, and retaining talented individuals within an organization.
  • It focuses on identifying and cultivating individuals with high potential and aligning their skills and capabilities with the organization's strategic goals.

Thus, the correct answer is Talent Management.

Additional InformationStrategic human resource management refers to the process of developing practises, programs, and policies that help to achieve organisational goals. It is fully integrated with the strategy and the strategic needs of the firm.

Human Resource Management is a management function that helps managers plan, recruit, select, train, develop, remunerate, and maintain employees for an organisation. It is the latest nomenclature used to denote personnel management. Human Resource Management is a broad concept.

Human Resource Planning refers to the estimation of the number and type of people needed during the period. It is a five-step process:

  1. Defining organisational objectives and policies
  2. Forecast of personnel needs and supplies
  3. HR programming
  4. Human Resource Planning Implementation
  5. Control and evaluation of programs.

Question 65

The relationship between an investor's expectation of return on bonds with respect to the investment horizon is called

  1. AOption (a)

    Bond yield

  2. BOption (b)

    Risk immunization

  3. COption (c)

    Term structure of interest rates

  4. DOption (d)

    Yield to maturity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Term structure of interest rates

Why this answer is correct

Key Points 

Investment Horizon:

  • The holding period of the portfolio by investor is known as investment horizon.
  • It corresponds to the level of risk that an investor is ready to assume.
  • Investment horizons play a crucial role in portfolio management because they let investors decide how long they will hold their investments to make up for the risks they accept.

Important Points

Term structure of interest rates:

  • The term "interest rate structure" refers to the relationship between an investor's expected return on bonds and their investment horizon.
  • The graph that shows the correlation between interest rates (or yields on bonds) and a variety of different maturities is known as the interest rate structure.
  • The term structure of interest rates plays a significant role in every economy. It enables easy comparison of yields depending on time and anticipates the future trajectory of rates.

Thus, the correct answer is Term structure of interest rates.

Additional Information

Bond Yield:

  1. The amount of return an investor receives on a bond is known as the bond yield. The term "required yield" describes the yield that a bond issuer must provide in order to attract investors. The yield is the amount of money that investors make.
  2. The yield on a bond is calculated by dividing its coupon payments by its market price. Briefly put:
  • As bond prices rise, bond yields decrease.
  • When interest rates decline, bond prices increase, and bond yields decrease.
  • In contrast, higher interest rates lead to a decline in bond prices and an increase in bond yields.

Risk immunisation:

  • Multi-period immunisation is a risk-mitigation tactic that balances the duration of assets and liabilities, minimizing the long-term impact of interest rates on net value.
  • Pure immunisation refers to investing a portfolio for a specified return over a predetermined amount of time, irrespective of any external variables, such as changes in interest rates.

Yield to maturity:

  • Yield to maturity is the overall return an investor can anticipate from bond investments, assuming the investor holds the bond to maturity and reinvests all bond proceeds in the same security.
  • Bonds are the only thing that falls under this concept because equities don't have a maturity date. Total interest earned on the bond over the years divided by the bond's face value equals yield to maturity.

Question 66

The reasons why firms enter into strategic alliances are:

A. Enter new markets

B. Abide by government regulations

C. Reduce manufacturing costs

D. Developing and diffusing technology

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, C and D only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points 

Strategic alliance

  • A strategic alliance is an arrangement between two companies that have decided to share resources to undertake a specific, mutually beneficial project.
  • It’s a joint venture that bolsters a core business strategy, creates a competitive advantage, and abates competitors from moving in on a marketplace.

Important Points

The reasons why firms enter into strategic alliances are:

  1. Forming economies of scale:
  • Partnerships can generate economies of scale that will enable the participating companies to marshal a broad set of resources and achieve the critical mass needed for international success.
  • Companies with complementary skills can rely on each other’s proven expertise instead of spending time and resources to independently develop what has already been achieved.
  • It leads to a reduction in manufacturing costs as well.
  1. Enhancing competitiveness:
  • Many international trade projects require expertise from different fields.
  • Traditionally, companies have tried to develop or maintain all the required skills in-house.
  • However, as technological and administrative complexity increases, companies are learning that they cannot do everything by themselves.
  • As a result, the most competitive corporations are adopting a strategy of maintaining their core competencies only. Gaps in the skill base are then filled by partnering with a company that has the missing skills.
  • This strategy avoids the need to expend resources and runs the risks associated with developing the skills in-house.
  1. Setting new standards for technology:
  • The development of new technologies creates entirely new market opportunities.
  • The first company to create a new technology might set the standards for its industry simply because it is the first. However, several competitors might develop similar technologies at about the same time.
  • It is very difficult to predict whose technology will set the standard for the industry, so trying to be the first to enter the market with a new technology can be very risky. Forming alliances is one approach to establishing standards in an industry.
  1. Entering new markets:
  • Strategic global business alliances are effective ways of entering new foreign markets.
  • Partners can provide established marketing and distribution systems, as well as knowledge of the markets they serve, ensuring that products get to market faster and are more likely to be purchased.
  1. Developing and diffusing technology:
  • Strategic alliances are essential factors driving innovations, and help partner companies get access to essential resources, broaden their technological competencies, and build a reputation.
  • A strategic alliance is an arrangement between two companies that have decided to share resources to undertake specific, mutually beneficial projects.

Therefore, the correct answers are A, C and D only.

Question 67

A price ceiling below the equilibrium price of a commodity leads to

A. Commodity glut in market

B. Shortage of commodity

C. Demand erosion

D. Black marketing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and B only

  3. COption (c)

    B and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    B and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B and D only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Price Controls and Methods:

  • Laws enacted by the government to regulate prices are called price controls.
  • Price controls come in two flavours.
  • A price ceiling keeps a price from rising above a certain level—the “ceiling”.
  • A price floor keeps a price from falling below a certain level—the "floor.”
  • When government laws regulate prices instead of letting market forces determine prices, it is known as price control.
  • We can use the demand and supply framework to understand price ceilings.
  • In many markets for goods and services, buyers outnumber suppliers.
  • Consumers, who are also potential voters, sometimes unite to convince the government to hold down a certain price.
  • For example, when rents begin to rise rapidly in a city—perhaps due to rising incomes or a change in tastes—renters may press political leaders to pass rent control laws, a price ceiling that usually works by stating that rents can be raised by only a certain maximum percentage each year.

Important Points

  • When a price ceiling is set below the equilibrium price of a commodity, it creates an artificial constraint on prices, which can lead to a shortage of the commodity.
  • Suppliers may be unwilling or unable to supply the commodity at a reduced price, resulting in a situation where demand exceeds supply.
  • Additionally, when there is a shortage due to the price ceiling, it can create incentives for black market activities.
  • Black marketing refers to illegal or unauthorized activities where goods are sold at prices higher than the price ceiling.
  • This occurs because the artificially low price in the official market does not meet the demand, leading to a parallel market where the commodity is sold at higher prices.

Additional Information Why are price ceilings enacted?

  • Price ceilings are enacted in an attempt to keep prices low for those who demand the product—be it housing, prescription drugs, or auto insurance.
  • But when the market price is not allowed to rise to the equilibrium level, the quantity demanded exceeds the quantity supplied, and thus a shortage occurs.
  • Black marketing may be termed as a direct consequence of the price ceiling as it implies a situation where the commodity under the government's control policy is illegally sold at a price higher than the one fixed by the government.

Therefore, A price ceiling below the equilibrium price often leads to a shortage of commodities and black marketing.

Question 68

In which one of the following motives, relevant for organizational climate, there is an urge to be relevant and useful to large groups including society as a whole?

  1. AOption (a)

    Achievement

  2. BOption (b)

    Affiliation

  3. COption (c)

    Extension

  4. DOption (d)

    Influence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Extension

Why this answer is correct

Forehand and Gilmer defined OC as "a set of characteristics that describe the organization and distinguish it from other organizations; and such characteristics influence the behavior of people in the organization". Motives and needs suggested by McClelland included the need for power, the need for achievement, and the need for affiliation. for OC Based on some of the important frameworks and definitions proposed earlier, a more comprehensive framework and instrument for assessing OC from the viewpoint of motivation was developed by Pareek.

According to this framework, the climate can be characterized as having one of the following dominant motives.

Important Points

  • The extension motive refers to the desire to expand one's influence and impact beyond oneself and the immediate work context.
  • Individuals with a strong extension motive strive to make a broader and more significant contribution to society, organizations, or the community.
  • They seek to utilize their skills, knowledge, and resources to benefit others and drive positive change on a larger scale.

 Key Points

Pareek's Framework of Organisational Climate:

The Pareek Framework of Organizational Climate, developed by Udai Pareek, is a widely used model for understanding and analyzing the organizational climate. It identifies six dimensions that collectively contribute to the overall climate of an organization. These dimensions are:

Structure: This dimension refers to the formal and informal aspects of the organizational structure, including the division of work, reporting relationships, and hierarchical levels. It examines the clarity of roles, decision-making processes, and the degree of centralization or decentralization.

Responsibility: This dimension focuses on the extent to which individuals feel accountable for their work and have control over their tasks. It includes factors such as autonomy, empowerment, and the degree of authority granted to employees.

Reward Orientation: This dimension assesses the fairness and effectiveness of the organization's reward and recognition systems. It examines whether employees perceive that their efforts and performance are appropriately acknowledged and rewarded.

Risk and Conflict: This dimension explores the organization's tolerance for risk-taking and conflict resolution mechanisms. It evaluates the level of openness to new ideas, willingness to take calculated risks, and the presence of constructive conflict management approaches.

Support: This dimension looks at the extent of support provided by the organization to its employees, including emotional support, training and development opportunities, and resources necessary to perform their tasks effectively.

Clarity: This dimension assesses the clarity of communication within the organization, including the clarity of goals, expectations, policies, and procedures. It examines the extent to which employees understand what is expected of them and how well information is communicated throughout the organization.

Therefore, we can say that the correct answer is extension.

Question 69

To achieve its aims in Strategic Human Resource Management, an organisation formulates and execute Human Resources

A. Policies

B. Behaviours

C. Practices

D. Competencies

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B, C and D

  4. DOption (d)

    B and C only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A and C only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Strategic Human Resource Management:

  • ​Strategic human resource management involves a future-oriented process of developing and implementing HR programmes that address and solve business problems and directly contribute to major long-term business objectives.
  • It provides a framework linking people management and development practises to long-term business goals and outcomes. It focuses on longer-term resourcing issues within the context of an organisation's goals and the evolving nature of work.
  • A Strategic HR Plan is a tool to help businesses align their organisational goals with their HR capabilities, and every business should have one in place to support the growth outlined in their strategic plan.
  • It focuses on the following aspects of HR operations:
  • Ensuring practises that foster flexibility and give competitive advantage to the organisation.
  • Building a cultural fit for the organisation by formulating suitable policies.
  • Ensuring superior business performance

Therefore, the correct answers are A and C only.

Question 70

In the context of the International Monetary System, the case for a fixed exchange rate regime claims:

  1. AOption (a)

    Far from correcting trade imbalance, depreciating a currency in the foreign exchange market tends to cause price inflation

  2. BOption (b)

    Floating exchange rate regimes are vulnerable to speculative pressure

  3. COption (c)

    The goods and service manufactured in the country become more competitive in international markets

  4. DOption (d)

    The need to maintain a fixed exchange rate imposes monetary discipline on a country

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The goods and service manufactured in the country become more competitive in international markets

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The goods and services manufactured in the country become more competitive in international markets.

Key Points

Fixed exchange rate regime

  • A fixed exchange rate is a regime applied by a government or central bank that ties the country's official currency exchange rate to another country's currency or the price of gold.
  • Also known as a pegged exchange rate, it is a system of currency exchange in which the value of one currency is tied to another.
  • By pegging one currency to another, there’s less fluctuation when exchanging money or trading between countries.
  • Currencies with fixed exchange rates are therefore more stable and less influenced by market conditions than currencies with floating exchange rates.
  • A fixed exchange rate system is designed to ensure that the value of a currency stays within a very narrow range. This has several advantages, particularly for smaller or developing economies.
  • The advantages of a fixed exchange rate include:
  • Providing greater certainty for importers and exporters, therefore, encourages more international trade and investment that results in the goods and services manufactured in the country becoming more competitive in international markets.
  • Helping the government maintain low inflation, which can have positive long-term effects such as keeping down interest rates.
  • The disadvantages of a fixed exchange rate include:
  • Preventing adjustments for currencies that become under-or over-valued
  • Limiting the extent to which central banks can adjust interest rates for economic growth
  • Requiring a large pool of reserves to support the currency if it comes under pressure.

Additional Information Under a fixed exchange rate regime, the value of a country's currency is pegged or fixed to another currency or a basket of currencies. This means that the exchange rate between the domestic currency and other currencies remains relatively stable and does not fluctuate significantly.

Question 71

Entrepreneurs who are characterised by a refusal to adopt opportunities and make changes in production systems even if it affects the returns of the organisation are called

  1. AOption (a)

    Drone entrepreneurs

  2. BOption (b)

    Fabian Entrepreneurs

  3. COption (c)

    Imitative entrepreneurs

  4. DOption (d)

    Life timers entrepreneurs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Drone entrepreneurs

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • An entrepreneur is someone who starts a new firm, taking on most of the risks and reaping the majority of the gains.
  • Entrepreneurs are frequently regarded as innovators or sources of new ideas since they replace existing products with new ones to introduce new concepts to the market.

Drone entrepreneurs:

  • Entrepreneurs who are characterized by a refusal to adopt opportunities and make changes in production systems even if it affects the returns of the organization are called Drone entrepreneurs.
  • These business owners are very conservative and do not want to change anything about the company, so they are hesitant to change.
  • Even though they are losing money, they are content with their current business model and do not want to change it.
  • Entrepreneurs who use drones are individuals who vehemently oppose environmental changes as they take place.
  • They used to work in a specialised industry.

Thus, the correct answer is Drone entrepreneur.

Additional InformationFabian Entrepreneurs:

  • These entrepreneurs have reservations about the proposed modifications to the company.
  • They don't come up with any inventions; instead, they merely adopt them once they are happy with their chances of success.
  • They wait a while until the innovation is thoroughly tried by others and does not incur a significant loss in the event of failure.

Imitative entrepreneurs:

  • Entrepreneurs who only replicate the new inventions created by innovative entrepreneurs are known as "imitative entrepreneurs."
  • These only copy the technology, procedures, and methodologies invented by others; they don't actually create any advances of their own.

Lifetimer entrepreneurs:

  • Such business-people view their profession as a vital aspect of who they are.
  • Family businesses that rely primarily on the use of individual talent fall under this category.

Question 72

Which one of the following performance appraisal methods prevents supervisors from rating all or most employees "satisfactory" or "high"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Alternation Ranking Method

  2. BOption (b)

    Critical Incident Method

  3. COption (c)

    Forced Distribution Method

  4. DOption (d)

    Paired Comparison Method

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Forced Distribution Method

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Forced Distribution Method

  • This ranking method requires raters to assign a specific percentage of ratings to particular categories or percentiles. Performance appraisal design and format have an impact on both the number of categories and the proportion of employees assigned to each category.
  • The workers with the highest levels of merit may be ranked at the top 10% of the scale, while the remaining workers may be ranked as follows: 20% good, 40% exceptional, 20% fair, and 10% fair. This performance appraisal method prevents supervisors from rating all or most employees as "satisfactory" or "high".

Thus, the correct solution is the Forced Distribution Method.

Additional Information Alternation Ranking Method

  • The rating process involves the rater assigning a performance score to each of his subordinates. Simply placing a man in a rank order constitutes this.
  • This method compares an individual's ranking within a work group against that of another employee. Each employee's standing in relation to others is evaluated using his numerical rank. It can also be done by comparing a person's job performance to that of another competitor in the group.

Critical Incident Method

  • Under this method, the manager prepares lists of statements describing the very effective and ineffective behavior of an employee. These significant occurrences or incidents reflect the excellent or subpar performance of workers or the job.
  • The manager maintains logs for each employee, whereby he periodically records critical incidents of the workers' behavior. These documented critical incidents are taken into account when evaluating the worker's performance at the conclusion of the rating period.

The Paired Comparison Method

  • Making a chart of all possible employee pairs for each trait and identifying which employee is better in each pair allows the manager to rank the employees.
  • The ranking algorithm is improved by the paired comparison approach.  Manager pair and compare each subordinate to each feature (work quantity, work quality, etc.).

Question 73

Which one of the following employee behaviour is NOT true in case of high stress level?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anxiety

  2. BOption (b)

    Careless mistakes

  3. COption (c)

    Low and bad judgemental ability

  4. DOption (d)

    Nervousness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Careless mistakes

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Stress is an unpleasant psychological reaction to pressures outside the world. It is a dynamic situation in which a person is presented with a chance, a demand, or a resource that is relevant to what they want and for which they believe the outcome to be both important and unknown.

In the case of high stress levels, the employee's behavior may become

  • anxious that could develop as a result of a change in the level of economic uncertainty.
  • nervous as sometimes role overload occurs when the employee is expected to do more than time permits.
  • of low and bad judgmental ability i.e. pressure to avoid errors or complete tasks within a limited time.

Thus, the incorrect option is Careless mistakes.

Additional Information

Read the following passage and answer the questions

Well before the pandemic, some companies had already adopted the work from anywhere system. But the large-scale implementation happened in 2012 when the US federal government across departments including Agriculture, NASA and the US patent office allowed remote work for employees. The pandemic however had accelerated this phenomenon by 10 years. The acceptance of remote work by several companies globally, is one of the few blessings of an otherwise incredibly hard time. The companies pioneering its adoption will be the 'magnets for talent' as it enables them to attract the best as it grows.

The employees are expected to greatly benefit from remote work as their control over their own time increases. They do not have to commute and are able to work either in the day or at night, depending on their personal style, while enjoying geographical flexibility to live wherever they want. People could save more if they move to smaller towns. They could choose to move to a better climate or to a culturally preferred location.

Companies with a remote work system can hire talent globally with ease and increase productivity. In the US patent office, productivity went up by 4.4% when it moved to work from anywhere. Employees felt more loyal to the organization for giving them such flexibility and put more effort into their work.

Work from anywhere has the power to reshape our old understanding of work. Employees and companies connecting now in meetings of the mind have more fusion of creativity rather than continuing with the previous approach of physical attendance, hierarchical communication with all the hours spent inside office buildings.

Managers will however, need to be sensitive to bias against remote working. Even loneliness could be addressed by augmented reality. It is of significance that the pandemic does not represent normal times when schools, day cares and help will be available.

Remote work actually suits women employees as many women forego career opportunities if these involve relocation which is their family life constraint.

Work from anywhere system though adopted in stress, has in fact worked out so well that post-pandemic too, the world Economic Forum finds employers are ready to give at least 44% employees a work from anywhere option.

Question 74

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to the passage, which one of the following is the most significant challenge to employees working from remote places?

  1. AOption (a)

    Augmented reality

  2. BOption (b)

    Cloud data security

  3. COption (c)

    Promotional bias

  4. DOption (d)

    Work life constraints

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Promotional bias

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Promotional bias.

Key Points

  • The first line of the fifth paragraph says, "Managers will however, need to be sensitive to bias against remote working."
  • Employees who work remotely are not in the same physical space as their managers. This can make it difficult for managers to keep track of what their employees are doing. They might be concerned about how productive they are being. So, this Clearly states that the most significant challenge to employees working from remote places is the Promotional bias.
  • Further second line of the fifth paragraph says, "Even loneliness could be addressed by augmented reality. It is of significance that the pandemic does not represent normal times when schools, day cares and help will be available" This clearly states that Augmented reality can be used to overcome the issue to loneliness. Hence this option is eliminated.
  • The paragraph further states that providing work from option allows flexibility of employees to manage their time and provide better work life balance. Hence this option Work life constraints is eliminated
  • The paragraph does not mention anything about cloud security hence that option is eliminated.

Hence, it can be concluded that according to the passage, Promotional bias is the most significant challenge to employees working from remote places.

Question 75

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which one of the following is the most incipient benefit of adoption of work anywhere system?

  1. AOption (a)

    Better gender diversity

  2. BOption (b)

    Increased employee loyality

  3. COption (c)

    Lesser employee engagement cost

  4. DOption (d)

    Productivity improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Productivity improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Productivity improvement

Key Points

  • The first lines of the third paragraph says,"Companies with a remote work system can hire talent globally with ease and increase productivity. In the US patent office, productivity went up by 4.4% when it moved to work from anywhere. Employees felt more loyal to the organization for giving them such flexibility and put more effort into their work."
  • This clearly states that the most incipient benefit of adoption of work anywhere system is productivity improvement leading to more employee engagement and loyalty

Hence, it can be concluded that "Productivity improvement" is the most incipient benefit of adoption of work anywhere system.

Question 76

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which one of the following best describes the benefits of remote working for employees?

  1. AOption (a)

    Climate conditioning

  2. BOption (b)

    Cultural cohesiveness

  3. COption (c)

    Family bonding

  4. DOption (d)

    Temporal flexibility

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Temporal flexibility

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Temporal flexibility

Key Points

Temporal flexibility:

  • ​Employee temporal flexibility is a common strategy aimed at assisting workers to reduce conflict between work and family life.
  • Remote working promotes temporal flexibility as their control over their own time increases.
  • They do not have to commute and are able to work either in the day or at night and even they can enjoy geographical flexibility to live wherever they want. It also provides them the option to choose to move to a better climate or to a culturally preferred location.
  • Companies with a remote work system can hire talent globally with ease and increase productivity.

Question 77

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Faced with double shift of official and domestic work, in which perspective working women benefited from remote working?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bridges gender diversity

  2. BOption (b)

    Favours their soft-skill disposition

  3. COption (c)

    Offers equal opportunity

  4. DOption (d)

    Offers work-life balance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Offers work-life balance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Offers work-life balance.

Key Points

  • The second last line says, "Remote work actually suits women employees as many women forego career opportunities if these involve relocation which is their family life constraint."
  • This clearly states that remote work provides suitability to women juggling with domestic responsibilities as well as career opportunities alongside.
  • It offers them good work-life balance.so that they are not lagged behind careerwise.

Hence, it can be concluded that faced with double shift of official and domestic work offers work-life balance perspective working women benefited from remote working.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

XYZ company is in the business of FMCG products focusing on items like Atta, Besan, Maida etc. They are presently operating outside Delhi, in the state of Haryana. Looking at demand in Delhi, they want to market their products in Delhi, covering the entire Delhi. After going through various market reports and market surveys, they found that competition is very high in Delhi. They want to focus on the quality of their products and still want to fight the competition. They want to create a marketing strategy for their business at the time of entering the Delhi market. For doing so, they have appointed you as Manager Marketing (Incharge Delhi) to design a marketing strategy for them.

Question 78

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What basis can be used for segmenting the market for FMCG products like Atta, Besan, Maida etc?

  1. AOption (a)

    Behavioral segmentation

  2. BOption (b)

    Demographic bases segmentation

  3. COption (c)

    Geographic segmentation

  4. DOption (d)

    Psychographic segmentation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Behavioral segmentation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Behavioral segmentation​.

Important Points

Behavioral segmentation 

  • It is the process of sorting and grouping customers based on the behaviours they exhibit.
  • The four main types of behavioral segmentation are based around purchase behaviour, occasion-based purchases, benefits sought, and customer loyalty.
  • It can be used for segmenting the market for FMCG products like Atta, Besan, and Maida.

Additional Information

Psychographic segmentation

  • It has been used in marketing research as a form of market segmentation that divides consumers into sub-groups based on shared psychological characteristics, including subconscious or conscious beliefs, motivations, and priorities to explain and predict consumer behaviour.
  • For example, travel brands can use psychographic segmentation to drill down to identify individuals as 'novelty-seeking' versus 'familiarity-seeking' consumers, and then customize campaigns based on the most relevant travel style

​Geographic segmentation:

  • It involves segmenting your audience based on the region they live or work in. This can be done in any number of ways: grouping customers by the country they live in, or smaller geographical divisions, from region to city, and right down to postal code.

 

Demographic segmentation

  • It refers to the categorization of consumers into segments based on their demographic characteristics. It groups customers and potential customers together by focusing on certain traits that might represent useful markets for a business.
  • It divides the consumer market into smaller categories based on common demographic factors. These smaller segments help companies understand their prospective markets better, allowing them to utilize their resources and time more efficiently. The classification can be made on the basis of Income, age, occupation gender etc.

Question 79

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Once the market for FMCG products like Atta, Besan, Maida etc has been segmented, what targeting approach will you advocate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Market specialisation

  2. BOption (b)

    Product specialisation

  3. COption (c)

    Selective specialisation

  4. DOption (d)

    Single segment concentration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Market specialisation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Market specialisation

A target market strategy is a business plan focused on growing sales and brand awareness within a specific group of consumers. To do this, businesses strategize based on demographics that make up a market, which is an area or group specified for product sales.

Important Points

Market Specialisation: 

  • Here the company takes up a particular market segment for supplying all relevant products to the target group. In our example, the company X can implement Market Specialisation strategy by producing all sorts of home appliances like TV, washing machine, refrigerator and micro oven for middle class people.
  • Once the market for FMCG products like Atta, Besan, Maida etc has been segmented Market Specialisation has to be followed.

Additional Information

 Product specialization

  • It is a marketing technique where businesses focus their marketing or branding efforts on a specific product or product line. These marketing efforts often focus on the benefits and quality of the product that may attract potential customers.for example, a country can produce bananas at a lower cost than oranges, it can choose to specialize and dedicate all its resources to the production of bananas, using some of them to trade for oranges.

Selective Segment Specialisation:

  • This is known as multistage coverage because different segments are sought to be captured by the company. The company selects a number of segments each of which is attractive, potential and appropriate. There may be little or no synergy among the segments, but this strategy has the advantage of diversifying the firm’s risk.

Single-segment concentration strategy

  • It is also known as a concentrated strategy.
  • One market segment (not the entire market) is served with one marketing mix.
  • A single-segment approach often is the strategy of choice for smaller companies with limited resources.
  • Companies using a single-market strategy focus on just one segment within the market. The segment can be defined geographically or demographically. For instance, a local brewpub would be an example of a brewer targeting a single geographically defined market segment.

Question 80

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

For distribution of FMCG products like Atta, Baisan, Maida etc, what type of distribution strategy will you recommend?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dual level of distribution

  2. BOption (b)

    Exclusive distribution

  3. COption (c)

    Intensive distribution

  4. DOption (d)

    Selective distribution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Intensive distribution

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Intensive distribution

Important Points

 Intensive distribution

  • It is a marketing strategy that involves making a company's products available to customers in as many places as possible. This usually means selling the product in as many stores as you can.It s a form of marketing strategy under which a company tries to sell its product from a small vendor to a big store.
  • It often links a product's earning potential to the number of locations carrying the product.
  • For example, companies with limited resources (anything from financial resources to the ability to produce enough products) may not have the capacity to support an intensive distribution strategy.
  • Large stores, such as Walmart or Target, are often hard for companies to get their products into, which could limit a company's ability to distribute its products.
  • In the above example for distribution of FMCG products like Atta, Baisan, Maida etc the intensive distribution strategy would be suitable as the XYZ company is not a big one and is Just limited one state currently by using this strategy it can increase its network efficiently.

Additional Information

Exclusive distribution:

  • It is a kind of distribution a manufacturer or supplier authorizes only one distributor to carry out within a definite region.
  • Such a distributor becomes the sole authorized seller of the manufacturer's specific products.
  • It involves selling a product through one or very few outlets.
  • Businesses may also sell goods directly through their own branded stores, which is another example of exclusive distribution.
  • Businesses that carry luxury brands often utilize exclusive distribution as a method of enhancing their brand images. Other types of products that utilize exclusive distribution are automobiles, women's apparel, major appliances and furniture.

Dual level of distribution:

  • It a system of marketing channel organization in which a manufacturer uses two approaches simultaneously to get products to end-users; commonly, one approach is to use marketing intermediaries, while the other is to sell direct to end-users.Dual distribution is where a manufacturer sells its product directly to customers and indirectly through third-party distributors and retailers.
  • They use more than one distribution channel to reach the end customer and it allows the product to reach a larger market.

Selective distribution

  • It is a marketing strategy focusing on selling certain types of products via a select network of retailers, resellers, or wholesalers. Distributors take this approach as a middle road between intensive and exclusive forms of distribution.

Question 81

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

As the Marketing Manager of XYZ company, what type of pricing strategy would you recommend?

  1. AOption (a)

    Captive pricing strategy

  2. BOption (b)

    Complementary pricing

  3. COption (c)

    Image pricing

  4. DOption (d)

    Loss leader strategy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Captive pricing strategy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Captive pricing strategy

Important Points

 Captive pricing

  • It happens when an accessory product is necessary to purchase in order to use a core product.
  • Classic examples of this include products like razor blades for razors and toner cartridges for printers. This is also called by-product pricing.he captive products complement the core products, so customers need to purchase captive products to continue using the core product or to get more value from it.

Additional Information

Complementary pricing:

  • It is used for Complementary goods.
  • The products that are sold separately but that are used together, each creating a demand for the other are called as complementary goods, for example, computers and computer programs: Technology firms that specialize in one product now join forces with other companies that focus on complementary products or services

Loss leader strategy:

  • ​A loss leader strategy involves selling a product or service at a price that is not profitable but is sold to attract new customers or to sell additional products and services to those customers.
  • Loss leading is a common practice when a business first enters a market.

Image pricing:

  • Premium pricing (also called image pricing or prestige pricing) is t e practice of keeping the price of one of the products or service artificially high in order to encourage favourable perceptions among buyers, based solelv on the price.

Question 82

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

As a manufacture of FMCG range of products such as Atta, Suzi, Maida, Baisan etc, what type of trade promotion will you recommend for Dealer/Distributors of your products?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bundle pricing

  2. BOption (b)

    Free samples

  3. COption (c)

    On pack coupons

  4. DOption (d)

    Trade discounts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Trade discounts

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Trade discounts

Important Points

 Trade discounts:

  • ​Trade discounts are price reductions given to middlemen (e.g., wholesalers, industrial distributors, retailers) to encourage them to stock and give preferred treatment to an organization's products.
  • For example, a consumer goods company might give a retailer a 20 percent discount to place a larger order for soap.
  • A discount pricing strategy is a pricing strategy that, for a limited time, will see a merchant offer a lower price for a product than its usual full price.
  • It involves marking down the prices of products and offering different deals with the ultimate goal of increasing sales.

 Additional Information

Coupon marketing

  • It is a strategy implied by shops or companies that offer discounts to their valuable customers.
  • Through the use of coupon codes, vouchers, and other discounting methods, they enhance the desire of the customers to save money by making purchases.
  • It is most suitable for e-retailers or online selling companies that offer coupon codes to people to attract them to visit their websites and make purchases.

Free sample marketing

  • It is the act of giving products or services away to prospective customers for free.
  • It is especially effective in the health, beauty, food, and drink industries.
  • It is used to: Introduce your product to new audiences unfamiliar with your brand. Foster relationships and inspire loyalty with existing customers. Expand shoppers' knowledge about the products you offer

Bundle pricing

  • It is a business strategy where companies group several products together into a bundle and sell them at a single price, rather than attribute individual prices to each item. This means that a bundle is now an individual product.

Question 83

Which one of the following approaches stresses that there are no universal rules for managers to follow in order to perform the job?

  1. AOption (a)

    Contingency

  2. BOption (b)

    Empirical

  3. COption (c)

    Mathematical

  4. DOption (d)

    System

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Contingency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "contingency approach."

Key Points

  • According to the contingency method (also known as the situational approach), businesses are unique, confront unique circumstances, and necessitate unique management strategies.
  • The primary value of the contingency approach is that it stresses there are no simplistic or universal rules for managers to follow. Instead, managers must look at their situation and determine that if this is the way their situation is, then this is the best way for them to manage.

Additional Information

  • A system approach means that as managers coordinate work activities in the various parts of the organisation, they ensure that all these parts are working together so the organization's goals can be achieved. For example, no matter how efficient the production department might be, the marketing department must anticipate the changes in customer tastes and work with the product department in creating products that customers must want; otherwise the business's performance may suffer.
  • The mathematical or quantitative approach involves applying statistics, optimization models, information models, computer simulations, and other quantitative techniques to management activities. For example, linear programming is a technique that managers use to improve resource allocation decisions.
  • The methodologies of the empirical school of management are based on a careful examination of previous managerial encounters and management cases. This method of thinking regards management as a study of managers in action.

Hence, the correct answer is Contingency Approach.

Question 84

The essential conditions for price discrimination practice to succeed in a different markets are 

A. Firms must have strong interdependence per se

B. Firm must have some control over the price of the product

C. Differentiated products and strong entry restrictions

D. Price elasticity of demand must differ in different markets

E. Markets for the products must be separable

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    B, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B, D and E only

  4. DOption (d)

    C, D and E only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B, D and E only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • The practice of charging different rates for the same goods or services in various markets is known as "price discrimination."
  • It is a strategy used to ensure successful competition by allowing customers to pay a low price for items.

Important Points

The essential conditions for price discrimination practice to succeed in different markets are:

  • Firms must have sufficient monopoly (market) power, which means monopolists always have pricing power.
  • Price elasticity of demand must differ in different markets i.e. when customers require the same service in conjunction with various price items, price discrimination is possible.
  • Price discrimination is achievable only when there are some minor market flaws. Only if the market is flawed will an individual seller be able to segment it.

Additional InformationB. Firm must have some control over the price of the product:

In order to practice price discrimination, a firm must have the ability to set different prices for its product or service in different markets or for different customer segments. This control over pricing allows the firm to adjust prices based on market conditions, demand, and willingness to pay.

D. Price elasticity of demand must differ in different markets:

Price elasticity of demand refers to the responsiveness of the quantity demanded to changes in price. In the context of price discrimination, the demand elasticity should vary across different markets. This means that the price sensitivity of consumers in one market may be different from another market. By identifying and targeting markets with varying demand elasticities, a firm can implement price discrimination strategies effectively.

E. Markets for the products must be separable:

For price discrimination to be successful, the markets for the products or services must be separable or distinguishable from each other. This means that the firm should be able to identify and segment the markets based on factors such as geographical location, customer characteristics, or product features. By separating markets, the firm can charge different prices in each market without significant price arbitrage or resale between the markets.

Thus, the correct answers are B, D and E only.

Question 85

Notable myths about Entrepreneurs and Entrepreneurship are

A. Entrepreneurs are academics and social misfits

B. Entrepreneurs must fit into an ideal profile

C. Entrepreneurs are doers and thinkers

D. All Entrepreneurs need is money

E. Entrepreneurs are not born but made

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C, D and E only

  4. DOption (d)

    C, D and E only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A, B and D only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Notable myths about entrepreneurs and entrepreneurship are

Myth 1: Entrepreneurs are doers, not thinkers.

  • Reality: Although entrepreneurs are action-oriented, they are also thinkers.
  • They make careful plans and strategies.
  • Entrepreneurs will try to come up with alternative actions toward a solution.
  • In the era of globalisation and hyper-competition, entrepreneurs need to be good thinkers.

Myth 2: Entrepreneurs are born, not made.

  • The idea is that the characteristics of an entrepreneur cannot be taught or learned. Entrepreneurs are born with special traits or characteristics.
  • Traits such as these include aggression, initiative, drive, a willingness to take risks, analytical ability, and skills in human relations.
  • Reality: Like all disciplines, entrepreneurship has models, processes, and case studies that allow the traits to be acquired through learning.
  • Reality: Research has proven that entrepreneurs can be produced, and it is not limited to certain races, groups, or individuals.

Myth 3: Entrepreneurs are always inventors.

  • Not all inventors are entrepreneurs.
  • Reality: Many successful entrepreneurs are not inventors but rather use creative ideas in doing things. They will modify and innovate to suit the market's demand.

Myth 4: Entrepreneurs are academic and social misfits.

  • This myth results from people who have started successful enterprises after dropping out of school or quitting a job.
  • Educational and social organisations did not recognise the entrepreneur.
  • Reality: The entrepreneur is now viewed as a highly educated professional who is well versed and sociable with excellent communication skills and strives for the economic development of the community and the country.

Myth 5: Entrepreneurs must fit the "profile" 

  • Many books and articles have presented checklists of characteristics of the successful entrepreneur.
  • Reality: It is not necessary for the individual to have ALL the characteristics, as described previously to become a success (only some will do).

Myth 6: All that Entrepreneurs need is money.

  • Every business venture needs capital to survive.
  • A large number of business failures occur because of a lack of financing.
  • Failure due to lack of financing indicates other problems.
  • Managerial incompetence; lack of financial understanding; poor investments; poor planning; Reality: Money is a resource, not the ultimate objective.

Therefore, we conclude that the correct answers are A, B and D only

Question 86

Du Pont analysis formula involves which financial elements for computation of earning power?

  1. AOption (a)

    Net profit margin, Total assets turnover and Equity multiplier

  2. BOption (b)

    Profit margin, Sales turnover and Asset-use efficiency

  3. COption (c)

    Total assets turnover and Equity multiplier

  4. DOption (d)

    Total assets turnover and sales turnover profitability

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Net profit margin, Total assets turnover and Equity multiplier

Why this answer is correct

The correct answers are net profit margin, total asset turnover, and equity multiplier.

Key Points 

Du Pont analysis formula

  • The Dupont analysis, also called the Dupont model, is a financial ratio based on the return on equity ratio that is used to analyse a company’s ability to increase its return on equity.
  • In other words, this model breaks down the return on equity ratio to explain how companies can increase their return for investors.
  • The Dupont Corporation developed this analysis in the 1920s. The name has stuck with it ever since.

Important Points

The Dupont analysis looks at three main components of the ROE ratio.

  • Profitability is measured by the profit margin.
  • Asset efficiency is measured by total asset turnover.
  • Financial leverage is measured by the equity multiplier.
  • Based on these three performance measures, the model concludes that a company can raise its ROE by maintaining a high profit margin, increasing asset turnover, or leveraging assets more effectively.
  • The Dupont Model equates ROE to profit margin, asset turnover, and financial leverage.
  • The basic formula looks like this.

ROE = (Profit margin) × (Asset turnover) × (Equity multiplier) 

= (Net profit/Sales) × (Sales/Average Total Assets) × (Average Total Assets/Average Equity) =

= Net Profit/Equity

Question 87

Which one of the following is NOT desirable while handing a grievance?

  1. AOption (a)

    Examine the grievant personnel's record

  2. BOption (b)

    Hold the grievance discussions privately

  3. COption (c)

    Make arrangement with individual employees that are inconsistent with the labour agreement

  4. DOption (d)

    The union will identify specific contractual provisions allegedly being violated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Make arrangement with individual employees that are inconsistent with the labour agreement

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Grievance redressal:

  • A grievance is any dissatisfaction or feeling of injustice having a connection with one’s employment situation which is brought to the attention of management.
  • Speaking broadly, a grievance is any dissatisfaction that adversely affects organisational relations and productivity.  A grievance can be factual, imaginary, or disguised.

Important Points

The effectiveness of a grievance procedure depends on some prerequisites, which are as follows:

  1. Acknowledging Grievance:
  • The first step in grievance handling is to timely acknowledge the problems before they turn into actual grievances through several means such as observation, opinion surveys, gripe boxes, exit interviews, and examining the grievant personnel's record by any other means.
  1. Gathering facts and data:
  • The next step is to collect facts and data about the grievance from all the parties involved. Everyone’s opinion should be given equal importance, and no fact should be neglected or ignored.
  1. Analysis of the grievance:
  • The problem should be analysed on the basis of the facts and data received after taking into consideration the economic, social, psychological, and legal issues involved in them.
  • The grievance procedure should be planned in compliance with the existing law. In other words, the existing grievance mechanism as provided by law should be strictly followed.
  • For example, if the union identifies specific contractual provisions allegedly being violated, then it needs to be taken care of.
  1. Developing a solution:
  • After analysing all the facts and data, different alternative solutions to the problem should be discussed, and the best solution should be selected.
  1. Redressal:
  • The general rule of thumb is that when handling grievances, it is best to keep the matter as confidential as possible, limiting both the number of people who are aware of the grievance and the amount of information that each of those has access to.
  1. Execution and Follow-Up:
  • Follow up to evaluate the impact of the redressal decision on the morale of the aggrieved worker as well as on other employees of the organisation.​

The correct answer is to make arrangements with individual employees that are inconsistent with the labour agreement.

Additional Information

Collective bargaining 

  • It allows the parties to tailor a collective agreement governing the employment relationship to their particular industry or enterprise.
  • It also allows parties to solve problems that may be specific to their industry or workplace, including making arrangements with individual employees that are inconsistent with the labour agreement.
  • Collective bargaining is not suitable everywhere. For example, a complaint letter against mental harassment or a female employee facing sexual harassment at work.

Question 88

Out of the following, the examples of radical innovations are:

A. Personal Computers

B. Frozen Yogurt

C. Disposable diapers

D. Overnight mail delivery

E. Microwave popcorn

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A, B and C only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, C and D only

  3. COption (c)

    A, C and E only

  4. DOption (d)

    B, D and E only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, C and D only

Why this answer is correct

Important Points

The introduction of something novel or distinctive is referred to as innovation.

A radical innovation is one that completely replaces an already existing good or service. This type of innovation typically destroys current procedures and replaces them with fresh procedures and new goods. It takes an existing system, design, or invention and turns it into something brand new. 

Examples of radical innovation are:

  • Personal Computers
  • Cloud Computing
  • Disposable diapers
  • Overnight mail delivery.
  • Digital compact discs, etc.

Important Points

A. Personal Computers

C. Disposable diapers

D. Overnight mail delivery

Personal computers transformed the way individuals and businesses process information, while disposable diapers revolutionized the baby care industry with their convenience and ease of use. Overnight mail delivery introduced a faster and more reliable method of transporting documents and packages.

Frozen yogurt and microwave popcorn, on the other hand, are not considered radical innovations as they represent incremental improvements or variations on existing products rather than groundbreaking advancements.

Thus, the correct answers are Options A, C, and D only.

Question 89

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: An oligopolist firm cannot decide the price it wishes to charge as well as the quantity it wishes to sell, both at the same time.

Reason R: An oligopolist firm takes into consideration the competitor's actions and counter actions because of a strong interdependence among the competitive firms

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    A is correct but R is not correct

  2. BOption (b)

    A is not correct but R is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

In economics, an oligopoly is a market structure made up of several large corporations that control a specific industry through trade restrictions such as collusion and market sharing. 

Important PointsAssertion A: An oligopolist firm cannot decide the price it wishes to charge as well as the quantity it wishes to sell, both at the same time.

  • In an oligopoly, dominant market firms have enough clout to determine how much goods and services will cost. And the other companies or smaller players do the same.
  • It aids in preventing a possible pricing war and price rigidity.
  • All businesses abide by the decisions made, guaranteeing price stability throughout the industry.

Hence, the assertion is correct.

Reason R: An oligopolist firm takes into consideration the competitor's actions and counteractions because of the strong interdependence among the competitive firms.

  • Each company in an oligopoly market structure affects the others due to their vast size and low levels of competition. In concentrated marketplaces, judgments are made on things like product prices, quality requirements, and production scheduling. Additionally, it implies that every company needs to be conscious of how others may perceive its actions.
  • Oligopolists use non-price competition and product differentiation to increase market profits while reducing market competition.
  • Oligopolists do not emphasize price competition among themselves. Instead, they experiment with various strategies, such as thanking loyal consumers, differentiating their product offers, conducting sales promotion programs, serving as sponsors, etc.
  • They act strategically to avoid losing clients to potential price competition.

Hence, the reason is correct.

Therefore, we can conclude from the above discussion that both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 90

Which of the following denote the CORRECT set of unrecognised form of organisational justice?

A. Procedural justice

B. Shareholder justice

C. Collateral justice

D. Interactional justice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A and D only

  3. COption (c)

    A and C only

  4. DOption (d)

    B and C only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

B and C only

Why this answer is correct

Key PointsOrganizational justice refers to employees' perception of justice and fair behavior. It studies how to behave with employees so that they feel they have been treated fairly.

Important Points

Procedural justice

  • Employee perceptions of the fairness of the procedure used to determine outcomes are an issue of procedural justice. The employee is concerned about whether or not the organization used a fair process to determine the outcome of this sort of organizational justice.
  • When an employee is given the opportunity to comment on how decisions are made, he will believe that organizational justice has been rendered in terms of the procedural rules.

Interactional justice

  • An individual's view of how much they believe they have been treated with respect, dignity, and concern is known as their interactional justice.
  • In this type of organizational justice, the employee wonders whether the organization handled the information it provided regarding the outcome appropriately or not.

Distributive Justice

  • The employee is worried about whether or not the results of his labour are fair and whether they are allocated proportionately to the input in this sort of organizational justice.
  • In such scenarios, the outputs are career chances, promotions, social acceptance, pay, etc., while the inputs are work, experience, education, and training.

Shareholder justice and collateral justice are the unrecognized forms of organizational justice.

Thus, the correct answers are B and C only.

Question 91

Sequence the following to draw a logical timeline for dividend payment.

A. Payment date

B. Declaration date

C. Ex-dividend date

D. Record date

E. Notice to stock exchanges

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    B, D, A, C, E

  2. BOption (b)

    B, D, A, E, C

  3. COption (c)

    E, A, B, D, C

  4. DOption (d)

    E, B, C, D, A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

E, B, C, D, A

Why this answer is correct

Important Points

Following the board of directors' approval, the following procedure is often followed.

  1. Notice to stock exchanges: When closing the Register of Members for the payment of dividends announced during the annual general meeting, listed businesses are required to notify the stock exchange in order to identify the names of shareholders who are entitled to dividends.
  2. Declaration date: The date that the board of directors announces and approves the payment of a dividend is known as the "declaration date." The declaration details the dividend amount being issued, the record date, and the payment date.
  3. Ex-dividend rate: It is the first trading day without a dividend for most stocks. The ex-dividend date is decided by the stock exchange where the firm's shares are traded, not by the company itself.
  4. Record date: The investor must be on the company's books on the record date, sometimes referred to as the date of record, in order to be eligible to collect a dividend. The majority of financial instruments in North America have a t+2 settlement period. In other words, a stock trade settles after two business days.
  5. Payment date: The dividend payment date is the day it is made to shareholders. Dividend payments to shareholder accounts can be sent via mail or electronic transfer.

Thus, the correct solutions are E, B, C, D and A.

Question 92

In consumer markets, for a market segment to be an effective and viable target, the segment should be:

A. Identifiable

B. Reachable

C. Transcending International boundaries

D. Sizeable

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and D only

  3. COption (c)

    B, C and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A, B and D only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Market Segmentation:

  • A market is segmented to create clearly defined segments.
  • A group of clients who have a similar set of needs and wants is referred to as a market segment.
  • The marketer's job is to determine the right number and type of market segments, as well as which ones to focus on.

Important Points

For a market sector in consumer markets to be a useful and viable objective, the segment should be:

  • Identifiable: It is possible to identify and quantify the size, purchasing power, and features of the segments.
  • Reachable: The segments can be efficiently reached and served. Programs that are effective at attracting and serving the segments can be created.
  • Sizeable: The markets are both sizable and lucrative. The segments can be conceptually distinguished from one another and react differently to various marketing mix components and initiatives.

Thus, the correct answers are A, B and D only.

Question 93

In the absence of covariance among securities in the portfolio, if each security has an average standard deviation of 20%, the portfolio of 100 securities would have a standard deviation of

  1. AOption (a)

    2%

  2. BOption (b)

    20%

  3. COption (c)

    5%

  4. DOption (d)

    Zero

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2%.

 Key Points

Portfolio standard deviation:

  • The standard deviation of a portfolio measures how much the investment returns deviate from the mean of the probability distribution of investments. Put simply, it tells investors how much the investment will deviate from its expected return.
  • The formula for portfolio variance in a two-asset portfolio is as follows:
  • Portfolio variance = w12σ12 + w22σ22 + 2w1w2Cov1,2
  • Where:
  • w1 = the portfolio weight of the first asset.
  • w2 = the portfolio weight of the second asset.
  • σ1= the standard deviation of the first asset
  • σ2 = the standard deviation of the second asset
  • Cov1,2 = the covariance of the two assets, which can thus be expressed as p(1,2)σ1σ2, where p(1,2) is the correlation coefficient between the two assets.
  • Here Cov1,2 =0

Important Points

Weightage of each security = 10/100 = 10% 

Therefore, portfolio variance = (10%^2 x 20%^2) + (10%^2 x 20%^2)+...........100 times

=100 x (10%^2 x 20%^2)

=100x (0.012x0.042)

= 0.0004

The standard deviation of the portfolio variance can be calculated as the square root of the portfolio variance:

Therefore, square root of 0.0004 = 0.02 or = 2 %

Question 94

In the retail industry, a "Category Killer" is referred to as:

  1. AOption (a)

    A multi-category large discount store that is famous for its wide selection of products

  2. BOption (b)

    A speciality store wedded to discounting and domination of a product category

  3. COption (c)

    A store in a residential area and offers all household goods and fresh groceries

  4. DOption (d)

    A unique 24/7 store located on major highways and also located in fuel stations

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A speciality store wedded to discounting and domination of a product category

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Category Killers

  • These typically dominate a product category by offering low prices and a wide product selection.
  • Category killers proliferated during the 1980s and 1990s but fell by the wayside as online retailers took centre stage in the subsequent decade.
  • A category killer is a large retail chain superstore that dominates its product category and puts less productive and highly specialised merchants out of business.
  • A category killer is a large retail store that has a wide product selection and attractive prices.
  • It is similar to a speciality store but wedded to discounting and domination of a product category.
  • It dominates other stores in the same product category and drives rivals out of the market.
  • It has a competitive advantage due to its wide choice of products, affordable prices, and huge marketing campaigns.
  • It is a large, everything-in-one store that dominates a product category.
  • It’s a serious competitor for other smaller stores as it usually has a wide selection of products and lower prices.
  • Its market penetration, pricing, and product assortment provide such big-box stores with a competitive advantage.
  • Examples include Walmart, Home Depot, and Staples.

Therefore, the correct answer is A speciality store wedded to discounting and domination of a product category.

Additional Information

Specialty store:

  • A specialty store is a retail store that specialises in selling a specific product category.
  • These stores don’t sell large quantities of different product categories.
  • They are the opposite of big-box stores like Walmart that have everything a customer needs. Lululemon is a great example of a specialty store because it sells sportswear only. People can shop for leggings, joggers, hoodies, shorts, etc.

Question 95

If the market price of PQR Ltd. is 44, EPS is 3.5 and the retention ratio is 60%, then the multiplier according to Graham and Dodd Model of Dividend Policy is

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    17.8

  3. COption (c)

    18.7

  4. DOption (d)

    19.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

17.8

Why this answer is correct

Key PointsAccording to the Graham and Dodd model, the stock market places considerable weight on dividends rather than on retained earnings.

Their valuation model is expressed quantitatively in the following manner:

P = m (D + E/3)

Where,

P = market price per share = 44 (Given)

D = Dividend per share 

Since the retention ratio is 60%, the pay-out ratio would be 40%.

Therefore, D = EPS x Dividend Pay-out Ratio = 3.5 x.40 = 14.

E = Earnings per share = 3.5 (Given)

M = multiplier

Important Points

On substituting the given values in the above formula:

44 = m (14 + 3.5 / 3)

m = 44/2.56

m = 17.18

Question 96

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.Simple structureI.A structure that supports an organization's capacity to continuously adapt and change
B.Functional structureII.A structure in which the entire organization is made up of workgroups
C.Team structureIII.It is an organisational design that groups similar occupational specialties together
D.Learning organization structureIV.It is an organizational design with low departmentalization, wide span of control and little formalization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

  2. BOption (b)

    A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

  3. COption (c)

    A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

  4. DOption (d)

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Why this answer is correct

Key PointsOrganizational Structure:

  • The formal arrangement of positions inside an organization is known as its organizational structure.
  • It is a system that specifies how specific operations are carried out in order to accomplish an organization's objectives.
  • Rules, roles, and obligations may be a part of these activities.
  • How information is transferred across layers of the organization is likewise governed by its organizational structure.

Important Points

List of organizational structuresKey points regarding organizational structures
Simple structureLow departmentalization, broad spheres of control, concentration of power in a single location, and minimal formalization are characteristics of simple structures in organizational design.
Functional structureA functional structure unites similar or related occupational specializations together.
Team structureA team structure is one in which the organization's work is carried out by work teams throughout the entire organization.
Learning organization structureA structure that promotes an organization's ability to continuously adapt and evolve is known as a "learning organization structure."

 

Hence, the correct matching is A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Question 97

Which of the following are necessary conditions for applying Simeon Denis Poisson distribution in the field of managerial decision making?

A. Each occurrence of an event is independent of the occurrence of the other event

B. The probability of an occurrence is the same for any two intervals of equal length

C. Poisson distribution describes continuous occurrences over a specific time interval

D. In each interval, occurrences can range from zero to infinity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and B only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B and D only

  4. DOption (d)

    A, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, B and D only

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Poisson distribution:

  • The definition of a Poisson distribution is used to simulate the discrete probability of an event when independent occurrences happen at a known constant mean rate over a set period of time. Denis Poisson, a French mathematician, is honoured by the name Poisson distribution.
  • In other words, the probability that an event will occur a specific number of times within a specific time frame is determined using the Poisson distribution.

Important Points

The prerequisites for using Simeon Denis Poisson distribution in managerial decision-making are:

  • The occurrences are separate I.e., each occurrence of an event is independent of the occurrence of the other event.
  • Only the typical number of successes in the allotted time can happen, i.e., events cannot take place simultaneously.
  • When n trials are infinitely large, the Poisson distribution is constrained.
  • Any two intervals of equal length have the same probability of occurring.
  • For the Poisson distribution,  λ is always greater than 0, where  λ is the predicted value's average rate and is its variance.
  • The distribution's mean and variance are both equal for Poisson distributions.
  • Every interval has occurrences that can be between zero and infinite.

Additional InformationWhen many alternative outcomes exist, the Poisson distribution formula is used. When is the average rate of value and X is a discrete random variable with a Poisson distribution, the probability of x is given by:

f(x) = P(X=x) = (e-λ λx )/x! where

  • X=0,1,2,3,4...
  • The Euler number is e, which equals 2.718
  • λ is always greater than 0, where  λ is the predicted value's average rate and is its variance.

Thus, the correct answer is A, B and D only.

Question 98

Given below are two statements

Statement I: A satisfied employee may be highly disengaged.

Statement II: It is possible to feel engaged by the organisation and not the job.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Why this answer is correct

Important PointsStatement I: A satisfied employee may be highly disengaged.

Exlanation:

  • If an employee is willing to go above and beyond what is generally anticipated in his or her work, that employee is engaged. Engagement is generally associated with satisfaction. But they do not go together.
  • A contented employee may also be extremely disengaged because engagement is defined as satisfaction along with dedication, pride in belonging to the firm, gushing about it as the best place to work, and speaking persuasively about its goods and services.

Hence, statement I is correct.

Statement II: It is possible to feel engaged by the organisation and not the job. 

Explanation:

It is possible to feel engaged by the organization but not the job, in which case the employee only talks eloquently but does not perform equally. There are four elements of engagement:

  • Pride
  • Satisfaction
  • Commitment
  • Praise

Hence, statement II is correct.

Therefore, we can draw a conclusion from the above discussion that both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Question 99

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following best describes the title of the given passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Manifestations of productivity

  2. BOption (b)

    Remote working challenges

  3. COption (c)

    Remote working for women employees

  4. DOption (d)

    Work from anywhere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Work from anywhere

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Work from anywhere

Important Points

  • The first line of the first paragraph says, "Well before the pandemic, some companies had already adopted the work from anywhere system."
  • The first line of the fourth paragraph says, "Work from anywhere has the power to reshape our old understanding of work."
  • These statements clearly mentions that the paragraph talks about Work from anywhere.
  • The paragraph mentions that providing the opportunity of Work from anywhere imbibes gender diversity at workplace by allowing women to remote work who struggle to balance work life balance along with domestic duties.
  • It also states that Work from anywhere increases productivity in employees as they can better manage their time by cutting down the travelling time

Hence, work from anywhere best describes the title of the given passage.

Question 100

Funds flow and Cash flow statements are important managerial tools and help the firm to know:

A. Liquidity position

B. Capital expenditure incurred

C. Dividend paid

D. Extent of external financing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    A and D only

  2. BOption (b)

    A, B and C only

  3. COption (c)

    A, B, C and D

  4. DOption (d)

    B, C and D only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A, B, C and D

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

Cash Flow Statement:

  • An organization's inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents over a given time period are shown in a statement called a "cash flow statement."
  • There are three sections in a cash flow statement: operating activities, investments, and financial activities.
  • The cash flow activities known as "operating activities" are those that either produce income or keep track of the money spent on creating a good or service.
  • The gains and losses resulting from investments in assets like property, plant, or equipment (PPE) are listed in the second section of the cash flow statement, which reflects the overall change in a company's cash position.
  • The cash flow between the business and its owners, creditors, and other parties is tracked in the third section of the cash flow statement known as Financing Activities.

Fund Flow Statement:

  • A fund flow statement compares the two balance sheets by examining the funding sources (debt and equity capital), the funding used (assets), and the reasons behind any discrepancies.
  • It makes it easier for the business to track where its finances have been spent and where they have come from (long-term funds raised by issues of shares, debentures, and sales of non-current assets).

Important Points

Funds and cash flow statements are crucial management tools that provide the company with information about:

  • These statements explain the causes of changes in the operating, investing, and financing activities of the organization along with the changes in the assets and liabilities between two different points of time. Such changes also have implications for the liquidity position of the company.
  • It's a realistic dividend policy, as sometimes a firm has sufficient profit available for distribution as a dividend. These statements act as a guide for the future for the management.
  • It helps in planning the repayment of loans, the replacement of fixed assets and other capital expenditure decisions.
  • Since an organization gets to know the position of cash and the changes in its working capital, these help them with external financing as various stakeholders are interested in the investment avenues of the organization.

Thus, the correct solutions are A, B, C and D

100 questions in the full paper