UGC NET Official Paper 1: Held On - 1st Dec 2021 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

Given:

There is the number of students enrolled for different courses in 5 different years along with their male and female categorization in the given table.

Calculation:

Total number of female students for the BA course during 2016-2020 = 405 + 417 + 427 + 430 + 438 = 2117

Total number of female students for the B.Com course during 2016-2020 = 80 + 85 + 87 + 91 + 97 = 440

Then, Total number of female students for the BA course/Total number of female students for the B.Com course = 2117/440

∴ The ratio between female students of BA and BCom during 2016-2020 is 2117/440.

Given:

There is the number of students enrolled for different courses in 5 different years along with their male and female categorization in the given table.

Calculation:

Total number of male students in 2016 = 380 + 520 + 200 = 1100

Total number of male students in 2017 = 390 + 525 + 210 = 1125

Total number of male students in 2018 = 395 + 535 + 212 = 1142

Total number of male students in 2019 = 405 + 538 + 215 = 1158

Total number of male students in 2020 = 415 + 543 + 221 = 1179

Total number of male students increases in 2017 = 1125 - 1100 = 25

Percentage of increase of male students in 2017 = 25/1100 × 100 = 2.27...%

Total number of male students increases in 2018 = 1142 - 1125 = 17

Percentage of increase of male students in 2018 = 17/1125 × 100 = 1.511...%

Total number of male students increases in 2019 = 1158 - 1142 = 16

Percentage of increase of male students in 2019 = 16/1142 × 100 = 1.40...%

Total number of male students increases in 2020 = 1179 - 1158 = 21

Percentage of increase of male students in 2020 = 21/1158 × 100 = 1.81...%

∴​ The minimum percentage increase of male students in the college (including all courses) in 2019.

Total number of male students in 2016 = 380 + 520 + 200 = 1100

Total number of male students in 2017 = 390 + 525 + 210 = 1125

Total number of male students increases from 2016 to 2017 = 1125 - 1100 = 25

The percentage of male students increases = 25/1100 × 100 = 2.2...% ≈ 2.2%

Total number of female students in 2016 = 220 + 405 + 80 = 705

Total number of female students in 2017 = 230 + 417 + 85 = 732

Total number of female students increases from 2016 to 2017 = 732 - 705 = 27

The percentage of male students increases = 27/705 × 100 = 3.8...% ≈ 3.8%

Therefore, Percentage of increases of male students/Percentage increases of female students = 2.2/3.8

∴ The ratio between the percentage increase of male students and the percentage increase of female students from 2016 to 2017 is 2.2/3.8

Given:

There is the number of students enrolled for different courses in 5 different years along with their male and female categorization in the given table.

Calculation:

Total number of male students for the BA course during 2016-2020 = 520 + 525 + 535 + 538 + 543 = 2661

Total number of female students for the BA course during 2016-2020 = 405 + 417 + 427 + 430 + 438 = 2117

Total number of years = 5

The average difference = (2661 - 2117)/5 = 544/5 = 108.8

∴ The average of the difference between male and female students for the BA course during 2016-2020 is 108.8

Given:

There is the number of students enrolled for different courses in 5 different years along with their male and female categorization in the given table.

Calculation:

Total number of male students in B.Sc during 2018 - 2020 = 395 + 405 + 415 = 1215

Total number of male students in BA during 2018 - 2020 = 535 + 538 + 543 = 1616

Total number of male students in B.Com during 2018 - 2020 = 212 + 215 + 221 = 648

Total number of male students during 2018-2020 = 1215 + 1616 + 648 = 3479

∴ The total number of male students in the college during 2018-2020 is 3479.

Given:

Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Ravi and Laxmi = 6 : 5

Calculation:

Suppose, Ravi's age six years ago = 6x

Laxmi's age six years ago = 5x

Present age of Ravi = 6x + 6

Present age of Laxmi = 5x + 6

Four years hence, the ratio of the ages of Ravi and Laxmi will be 11 : 10

Ravi's age after four years = 6x + 6 + 4 = 6x + 10

Laxmi's age after four years = 5x + 6 + 4 = 5x + 10

Therefore, (6x + 10)/(5x + 10) = 11/10

⇒ 10 (6x + 10) = 11 (5x + 10)

⇒ 60x + 100 = 55x + 110

⇒ 60x - 55x = 110 - 100

⇒ 5x = 10

⇒ x = 10/5 = 2

Present age of Ravi = 6 × 2 + 6 = 18 years

∴​ Ravi's age at present is 18 years.

Given:

Market price = 50% above the cost price

Discount = 25%

Formula used:

Market price = (100 + Gain%)/100 × C.P.

S.P = C.P. - (C.P./100 × Gain%)

Profit = S.P. - C.P

Profit% = (Profit/C.P.) × 100

Where, S.P. = Selling price

C.P. = Cost price

Calculation:

Suppose, C.P. = X

Then, market price = (100 + 50)/100 × X = 1.5X

The vendor offers a discount = 25%

Selling price = 1.5X - (1.5X/100 × 25)

= 1.5X - 1.5X/4

= 4.5X/4

= 1.125X

Profit = (1.125X - X) = 0.125X

Percentage of profit = 0.125X/X × 100 = 0.125 × 100 = 12.50%

∴​ The vendor's profit on the sales is 12.50%

Key Points

Hence the correct match is A-IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Educational Measurement refers to any device for the general study and practice of testing, scaling, and appraising the outcomes of the educational process.

Key Points Effect Size

• Effect sizes allow us to compare things happening in different classes, schools, or subjects regardless of how they are measured.
• Effect size in educational measurement is the difference in assessment outcomes measured in standard deviation or standard error units. Essentially, calculating an effect size corrects for differences in data spread.
• Effect size is a quantitative measure of the magnitude of the experimental effect.
• The larger the effect size the stronger the relationship between the two variables. The effect size is observed when comparing any two groups to see how substantially different they are.

***Hence Effect Size *is used to describe the magnitude of gains from any given change in educational practice and thus to predict what we can hope to accomplish by using that practice.

Additional Information

• Argumentation- Argumentation has attracted growing attention as a means to elicit processes that can sustain or provoke reasoning and learning.
• Argumentation will have increasing importance in education, both because it is an important competence that has to be learned, and because argumentation can be used to foster learning in philosophy, history, sciences, and many other domains.
• Empathy- The development of empathy is crucial in building 21^st Century Skills, particularly critical thinking and leadership skills.
• Many teachers incorporate empathy in their class to a degree, maybe without even knowing it.
• Pluralism- The philosophy of pluralism is being extended to encompass teacher in-service training and community-based involvement and input
• ​Teachers and the community are acquiring an awareness of pluralism through subtle methods of dialog and participation.

Higher education is tertiary education leading to the award of an academic degree. Higher education, also called post-secondary education, third-level, or tertiary education, is an optional final stage of formal learning that occurs after completion of secondary education.

Key Points Objectives of Higher Education:

1. Production of qualified human resources: Higher education can be considered as a process in which the students are counted as “products” to be absorbed in the market. Thus higher education becomes a crucial input to the growth and development of business and industry.
2. Training for a research career: Higher education contributes to preparing qualified scientists and researchers which would help in producing quality research publications.
3. Building the right kind of teaching-learning environment: Institutions of Higher Education focus on the creation and sustenance of the right kind of teaching-learning environment by improving the quality of teaching and thus enabling students to acquire global competencies in various fields of study and application to successfully face the challenges in the changing global scenario.
4. Higher education as a matter of extending life chances: Higher education is seen as an opportunity to participate in the development process of an individual through a flexible, continuing education mode.

• Hence from the above discussion, it can be observed that improving literacy skills is not an objective of higher education.

An unstructured interview, also called a non-directive interview, refers to an interview concept without any set format in which questions are not predetermined so the lack of structure enables the interviewer to ask questions which come to his/her mind on the spot.

Key Points

Phases of personal growth in the non-directive interview process:

• Release of feelings- This phase consists of structuring remarks by the counselor, that state the freedom of students to explore feelings, an agreement on the general focus of the interview, an initial problem statement, and some discussion of the relationship if it is ongoing, and the establishment of procedures for a meeting.
• Develops insight- At this stage, the students are activated and motivated to discuss the problem. The role of the teacher is to support the students in whatever they require for the help in the development of their insights for the sake of creating innovative ideas,
• Action- At this phase, the teacher encourages the students to explore and define the problem. The teacher expresses their positive and negative feelings.
• Integration- The teacher encourages the students to make planning decisions with respect to the problem. The most important role of the teacher is to clarify the alternatives.
• New orientation- This is the last stage where students get further insights. They try to develop more positive actions for solving problems and providing the right solution. If the solution is not generated then a new method and orientation are designed.

Hence, the correct sequence is C, A, D, B, E

Given:

There are two statements given in the following question.

Formula used:

Sum of 'n' natural numbers = \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)

Calculation:

A culture of bacteria quadruples every hour. [Quadruple means four times]

The bottle with these bacteria was half-full at 7 am.

The quantity of bacteria at 6 am on the same day = (1/2)/4 of the bottle = 1/8 of the bottle

Then at 6 am on the same day, the bottle was one-eighth full. Hence, the statement I is true.

The sum of first 31 natural numbers = \(\frac{31(31+1)}{2}\) = (31 × 32)/2 = 496

The average of the first 31 natural numbers = 496/31 = 16

Hence, the statement II is false.

Therefore, Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Key Points

Hence, the correct matching is A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Behaviour is a result of the external environment, internal cognitions, and other mental processes such as attitudes and beliefs. Using learning theories is a valid method to bring about significant and lasting psychological change.

Key Points

Statement I: Behaviour theory does not concentrate on observable behavior.

• Behaviorism focuses on the idea that all behaviors are learned through interaction with the environment.
• This learning theory states that behaviors are learned from the environment, and says that innate or inherited factors have very little influence on behavior.
• Behaviorism is only concerned with observable stimulus-response behaviors, as they can be studied in a systematic and observable manner.

Hence the statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: The behavior theory approach involves continuous inquiry.

• Behaviorism is a theory of learning that states all behaviors are learned through interaction with the environment through a process called conditioning. Thus, behavior is simply a response to environmental stimuli.
• The purpose of education in behaviorism theory should be cognitive development, and the content of learning should foster the development of problem-solving skills through the processes of inquiry and discovery.

Hence statement II is correct.

Therefore, the statement I is incorrect while statement II is correct.

Given:

The speed of faster train = 60 km/hr

The speed of slower train = 45 km/hr

Time required to pass a girl sitting in the slower train by faster train = 15 seconds

Calculation:

The speed of faster train = 60 km/hr = 60 × (5/18) m/s = 50/3 m/s

The speed of slower train = 45 km/hr = 45 × (5/18) m/s = 25/2 m/s

The length of the faster train = (50/3 - 25/2) × 15

= 25/6 × 15

= 62.5 m

∴​ The length of the faster train is 62.5 m

Given:

The given series: 1, 2, 3, 7, 16, 65, ?

Calculation:

The logic follows,

∴ The next in the following sequence is 321.

Alternate Method

The logic follows,

∴ The next in the following sequence is 321.

The correct answer is 'can help organise people's assemblies'.

Key Points

• The given passage highlights the role of Internet in politics and how it helps in creating an active and engaging online community.
• Let's refer to the passage: 
• The internet can be classified as a global technology, which enables connections with individuals and institutions overseas just as easily as it does nationally, regionally or locally
• Recent protests against international financial institutions such as the World Bank were organised almost entirely through Internet media - a case of not-so-visible electronic assemblies producing very visible embodied assemblies.
• ​From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that the crux of the passage is that the Internet can help organise people's assemblies.

​Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'It cannot substitute political institutions'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the second paragraph in the passage:
• the practices of communication afforded by computer mediated communication may able to substitute some of the functions of the mass media- for example, in the formation of pre-institutional public opinion. ( From the line 'The point here....opinion.')
• But these practices do not necessarily exert pressure on the institutional apparatuses of politics.
• Of course, the mass media themselves, as a means of electronically mediated communication, can never replace the institutional apparatuses of politics ( From the line " Of course.....influenced them.')
• ​From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that the main weakness of the Internet is it cannot substitute political institutions.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'The democratic process'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the passage: 
• Traditionally, and more than ever now, democracy is heavily aligned with the nation-state.
• From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that even now the nation-state influences the democratic process.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer,

The correct answer is 'Promotion of a new type of democratisation'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the opening line of the passage: 
• Besides being hailed as a technology which can deliver the 'global village', the Internet is also promoted as a singular medium which allows for democratised processes which were not previously possible in the era of broadcast.
• ​From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that the Internet is considered as a prime medium for its promotion of a new type of democratisation.

​Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'By shaping institutional public opinion'.

Key Points

• Let's refer to the second paragraph in the passage: 
• The point here is the practices of communication afforded by computer mediated communication may able to substitute some of the functions of the mass media- for example, in the formation of pre-institutional public opinion.
• ​In the above-statement, the phrase 'computer mediated communication' stands for the Internet.
• Therefore , it is evident that the internet can play a role in modern society by shaping institutional public opinion.

Option 3 is the correct answer.

Colour can form mental expression and add diversity in language communication. It can be an effective and important communication tool. Psychologically, it affects the mood and mental condition of human beings which ultimately creates an impact on the process of communication. It is a critical factor in communication and perception in various ways. 

Key Points 

• The correct answer is Chromatic. Chromatic is a type of non-verbal communication.
• In this type of communication, colors are used to communicate the messages.
• Several ancient cultures, including the Egyptians and Chinese, practiced chromotherapy, or the use of colors to heal.
• Chromotherapy is sometimes referred to as light therapy or colorology.
• The color has been one of the most commonly used among many cultures for communicating information and creating emotions.
• The common idea is that a color can generate a specific emotion at any given time

Examples:

• ​White color is worn by Brides in Christianity, whereas in Hinduism white color is worn by Widows.
• Purple color is related to Royalty while in Mexico and Brazil it is a symbol of death.
• Black for death.
• Red for danger, etc.

Additional Information

Colorology is still used today as a holistic or alternative treatment. In this treatment:

• Red is used to stimulate the body and mind and to increase circulation.
• Yellow is thought to stimulate the nerves and purify the body.
• Orange is used to heal the lungs and to increase energy levels.
• Blue is believed to soothe illnesses and treat pain.
• Indigo shades are thought to alleviate skin problems.

Hence the correct answer is Culture.

Communication is a process by which information is exchanged between or among individuals through a common system of symbols, signs, and behaviour. As a process, communication is also known as: 

 Important PointsHuman interaction involves-

• Patterned social interactions- Social interaction is the process of reciprocal influence exercised by individuals over one another during social encounters. Usually, it refers to face-to-face encounters in which people are physically present with one another for a specified duration.
• Neural activities of the brain: Neurons communicate using both electrical and chemical signals. Sensory stimuli are converted to electrical signals. Action potentials are electrical signals carried along neurons. Synapses are chemical or electrical junctions that allow electrical signals to pass from neurons to other cells.
• Psychological activities: Effective communication is a connection between people that allows for the exchange of thoughts, feelings, and ideas, and leads to mutual understanding. This exchange is evidenced when a speaker sends a message to which a listener responds.

Additional Information

• Use of abstract means- Abstract words allow us to convey important human ideas like scientific (e.g. theory, calculus) and social (e.g. justice) concepts, and extend our capacity to convey ideas beyond the physical reality of the here and now. Includes general language and intangible qualities, ideas, or concepts.
• Conflict-oriented actions only- Improving your competence in dealing with conflict can yield positive effects in the real world. Since conflict is present in our personal and professional lives, the ability to manage conflict and negotiate desirable outcomes can help us be more successful at both.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, D and E only

Communication is the exchange of thoughts, messages, or information, as by speech, signals, writing, or behavior. It is the art and technique of using words and other symbols effectively to impart information or ideas. 

 Important PointsStatement I: A two‐way communication takes place when the encoding and decoding are in operation with equal frequency by two or more individuals.

• In two-way communication, communication is negotiated.
• Both sender and receiver listen to each other, gather information, and are willing to make changes to work together in harmony.
• Their intent is to negotiate a mutually satisfactory situation.
• Two-way communication is when one person is the sender and they transmit a message to another person, who is the receiver.
• When the receiver gets the message, they send back a response, acknowledging the message was received.
• A two‐way communication takes place when the encoding and decoding are in operation with equal frequency by two or more individuals.

Hence this statement is true

Statement II: The communicator and the communicatee are related by the communication circuits and the success of communication depends upon the level of reciprocity between them.

• A person who communicates, especially one skilled at conveying information, ideas, or policy to the public.
• Communicatee is a person who is communicated to, or who receives a communication.
• Communicator and communication are the two most important elements in communication circuits.
• The success of a fulfilled circuit depends upon the level of effective communication between them.

Hence this is a correct statement.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both Statements I and Statement II are correct

Visual communication is the practice of using visual elements to communicate information or ideas. Types of visual communication include animated GIFs, screenshots, videos, pie charts, infographics, and slide deck presentations

Key Points The correct sequence of the types of visual communication according to the question is :

1. Objects- An object is something that is a visible entity, something that can be perceived by the senses. If you are unsure whether something is an object, test it by seeing whether it can cast a shadow; if it can, it's an object, if it can't, it's not.
2. Models-a three-dimensional representation of a person or thing or of a proposed structure, typically on a smaller scale than the original.
3. Graphs-A Graph is a non-linear data structure consisting of nodes and edges. The nodes are sometimes also referred to as vertices and the edges are lines or arcs that connect any two nodes in the graph
4. Maps-A map is a symbolic depiction emphasizing relationships between elements of some space, such as objects, regions, or themes.
5. Photographs-An image, especially a positive print, recorded by exposing a photosensitive surface to light, especially in a camera.

Hence, the correct sequence is A, E, C, B, D.

Communication is the process of sending and receiving messages through verbal or nonverbal means, including speech, or oral communication; writing and graphical representations (such as infographics, maps, and charts); and signs, signals, and behavior. More simply, communication is said to be "the creation and exchange of meaning." 

Key Points

Therefore, the correct answer is A ‐ IV, B ‐ III , C ‐ II , D ‐ I

Analogy is a method of argument that relies on an inference that similarity between two or more entities in some attributes justifies a probable assumption that they will be similar in other attributes.

Key Points

• A deductive argument by analogy is a deductively valid argument that contains an analogy as one of its premises.
• Argument from analogy is a special type of inductive argument, whereby perceived similarities are used as a basis to infer some further similarity that has yet to be observed. Analogical reasoning is one of the most common methods by which human beings attempt to understand the world and make decisions.
• The main difference between inductive and deductive reasoning is that inductive reasoning aims at developing a theory while deductive reasoning aims at testing an existing theory.
• Inductive reasoning moves from specific observations to broad generalizations, and deductive reasoning the other way around.
• A descriptive analogy shows a relationship between two pairs of words.
• In each pair, one word describes a characteristic, property, part, function, structure, use, position, or location of the other.

Therefore, analogies have been used for Inductive reasoning, Deductive reasoning, and for the purpose of description.**

Nyaya Philosophy states that nothing is acceptable unless it is in accordance with reason and experience (scientific approach). Nyaya is considered as a technique of logical thinking.

Key PointsAssertion A: Naiyāyikas do not accept non‐apprehension (anupalabdhi) as a distinct source of knowledge (pramāna).

• Non- apprehension is the immediate knowledge of the non-existence of an object.
• To perceive the non- existent of that particular object in a given situation/place is known as anupalabdhi.
• Nyaya system recognizes all four Pramanas namely perception, inference, verbal testimony, and comparison.
• Non‐apprehension (anupalabdhi) is not a valid pramana in this case.

Hence, the assertion is correct.

Reason R: According to Naiyāyikas, non‐apprehension can be covered under inference (anumāna).

• Nyaya, though it accepts non-existence as a category has no separate Pramana to understand it.
• According to them, the non-existence of an object can be known by perception itself as in the case of perceiving the bare floor.

Hence, the reason is also true and also explaining the assertion perfectly.

​Therefore, both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

A fallacy is a general type of appeal (or category of argument) that resembles good reasoning, but that we should not find to be persuasive.

Key Points

• Affirmative conclusion from a negative premise (illicit negative) is a formal fallacy that is committed when a categorical syllogism has a positive conclusion and one or two negative premises.
• For example, No fish are dogs, and no dogs can fly, therefore all fish can fly.
• The only thing that can be properly inferred from these premises is that some things that are not fish cannot fly, provided that dogs exist.

​Similarly, the fallacy committed in the given argument is an example of the Fallacy of drawing affirmative conclusions from a negative premise.

Some good actors are not strong men.

All professional wrestlers are strong men.

Therefore, all professional wrestlers are good actors. 

Explanation: While there may be good actors that are strong men, it does not follow from the premises, we have no information on how wrestlers and actors are related to each other.

Additional Information

• Illicit major is a formal fallacy committed in a categorical syllogism that is invalid because its major term is undistributed in the major premise but distributed in the conclusion.
• Illicit minor is a formal fallacy committed in a categorical syllogism that is invalid because its minor term is undistributed in the minor premise but distributed in the conclusion. This fallacy has the following argument form: All A are B.
• The fallacy of the Undistributed Middle is also known as maldistributed middle, the undistributed middle term. A formal fallacy in a categorical syllogism where the middle term, or the term that does not appear in the conclusion, is not distributed to the other two terms.​

The square of opposition is a chart that was introduced within classical (categorical) logic to represent the logical relationships holding between certain propositions in virtue of their form.

Key Points The four corners of this chart represent the four basic forms of propositions recognized in classical logic:

• A propositions, or universal affirmatives take the form: All S are P.
• E propositions, or universal negations take the form: No S are P.
• I propositions, or particular affirmatives take the form: Some S are P.
• O propositions, or particular negations take the form: Some S are not P.

Therefore the correct match is  A-II, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ III

Key Points

Disk defragmenter:

• Defragmenting a disk is like sorting and arranging items in a storage room; boxes holding similar things are combined, and all the boxes in the room are stacked neatly to create more space.
• Defragmenting does not change any of the files' contents, and does not affect anything you see on the screen (documents, shortcuts on the desktop, etc.)
• Disk fragmentation causes files on your computer to be scattered on totally different parts of the disk.
• This typically happens after you install some application or delete a large number of files.
• Disk fragmentation occurs when a file is broken up into pieces to fit on the disk.
• Because files are perpetually being written, deleted, and resized, fragmentation may be a natural occurrence. once a file is spread out over many locations, it takes longer to read and write leading to slow computer performance.

Hence, a disk defragmenter is to Rearrange blocks of data to store files in contiguous sectors.

The OSI Model (Open Systems Interconnection Model) is an abstract framework used to describe the functions of a networking system. The OSI model characterizes computing functions into a universal set of rules and requirements in order to support interoperability between totally different merchandise and package.

Important Points

• The combination of the IP address and the port number is named a socket.
• The socket is primarily a concept utilized in the transport layer of the internet protocol suite or session layer of the OSI model.
• The most important protocol at layer three (also referred to as the network layer) is the Internet Protocol or IP.
• IP is the standard for routing packets across interconnected networks--hence, the name net.
• MAC Addresses are a unique 48-bits hardware range of a laptop, which is embedded into a network card (known as Network Interface Card) throughout the time of production. mac address is employed by Media Access management (MAC) sublayer of Data-Link Layer.
• The sender & receiver's IP addresses are placed within the header by the network layer.

Hence, the correct answer is A-II, B ‐ IV, C ‐ III, D ‐ I.

A computer hard drive (or a hard disk or HDD) is one kind of technology that stores the operating system, applications, and data files such as documents, pictures, and music that your computer uses

Key PointsStatement I: HDD uses circular platters coated in the magnetic material.

• A platter is a circular magnetic plate that is used for storing data on a hard disk.
• Hard disks are flat circular plates made of aluminum or glass and coated with magnetic material.
• The platters are made of a non-magnetic material, sometimes metallic element alloy or glass, and are coated with a skinny layer of magnetic material.

Hence, this statement is true.

Statement II: Access to data is faster than with RAM.

• As we know the memory in use during an operation is from RAM because the RAM is way faster than the hard drive.
• The RAM is faster and data is transferred from the hard drive to RAM to ensure the CPU only deals with the fastest access of data possible.

Hence the statement is False.

​Hence, the Statement I is true but Statement II is false

A modem or broadband modem is a hardware device that connects a computer or router to a broadband network. For example, a cable modem and DSL modem are two examples of these types of Modems.

Key Points

A. It is used to convert digital data into analog.

An analog-to-digital converter, or ADC because it is more commonly called, is a device that converts analog signals into digital signals. A modem may be a device or program that enables a laptop to transmit knowledge over, for example, telephone or cable lines.

Hence, this statement is true.

B. It also converts analog data into digital data.

It’s a machine that converts digital signals to analog and back again. data that travels over phone or cable lines are analog, but your laptop only understands digital. The modem makes that translation.

Hence, this statement is true.

C. Sends the data packet to specific addresses.

A network modem plays an important role in how data packets travel to and from a laptop to a host across the web. The modem is the conduit that sends data to and from the internet.

Hence, this statement is true.

D. Inspects data packets received over the internet.

Deep packet inspection (DPI) refers to the method of examining the full content of data packets as they traverse a monitored network checkpoint.

Hence, this statement is false.

Hence, the correct answer is A, B, and C only.

The correct answer is A,C and D only

• Eutrophication is defined as an increase in nutrient input to surface waters to the extent of overenrichment, with a corresponding increase in primary productivity and related negative effects.
• Eutrophication is widely recognized as a serious, primarily human-caused (anthropogenic) environmental issue.
• The process of nutrient transport is explored starting with water as both a molecule and substance, and its passage over and through the landscape to aquatic systems.
• Two primary nutrient cycles, phosphorus (P) and nitrogen (N), are discussed with focus on anthropogenic perturbations and their cumulative effects.
• Consideration is given to states of ecological succession, natural and cultural eutrophication, fire, drought, and instances where increased nutrient loading does not result in eutrophication.
• Nutrient concentrations and ratios (N:P) are reviewed for their effects on phytoplankton growth and potential for cyanobacteria, capable of toxin production, to dominate phytoplankton communities.

Key PointsEffects of Eutrophication

• Primarily, the adverse effects of eutrophication on aquatic bodies include a decrease in biodiversity, increase in toxicity of the water body, and change in species dominance. Some other important effects of this process are listed below:
• Phytoplanktons grow much faster in such situations. These phytoplankton species are toxic and are inedible.
• Gelatinous zooplankton blooms fast in these waters.
• Increased biomass of epiphytic and benthic algae can be observed in eutrophic waters.
• Significant changes arise in the species composition of macrophytes and the biomass.
• The water loses its transparency and develops a bad smell and colour. The treatment of this water becomes difficult.
• Depletion of dissolved oxygen in the water body.
• Frequent fish kill incidents occur and many desirable fish species are removed from the water body.
• The populations of shellfish and harvestable fish are lowered.
• The aesthetic value of the water body diminishes significantly.

Additional Information

• Causes: The availability of nutrients such as nitrogen and Phosphorous limits the growth of plant life in an ecosystem. When water bodies are overly enriched with these nutrients, the growth of algae, plankton, and other simple plant life is favoured over the growth of more complex plant life.

Therefore, the correct answer is A,C and D only

Knowledge is the revelation of the objective world to a subject. Knowledge may be true or false or valid or invalid. 

Key Points

• Different schools of Indian thoughts explain knowledge differently but most converge to a single central theme of the firm and assured form of cognition devoid of any doubts.
• The Indian philosophy proposes various methods to verify the validity which may be termed as Pramana.
• There are various sources of means of valid knowledge which include perception, inference, comparison, verbal testimony, etc.
• A comprehensive analysis of Anumana as a source of valid knowledge particularly that propounded by the Nyaya school.
• The Carvakas accepted perception as the only means of valid knowledge.
• Buddhists and Vaisheshikas considered perception and inference as Pramanas.
• The Sankhya-Yoga philosophers recognized perception, inference, and verbal testimony as Pramanas.
• In contrast, the Nyaya School of philosophy recognizes four Pramanas: perception, inference, comparison, and verbal testimony.​Prabhakara from the Mimamsa School of philosophy acknowledges perception, inference, comparison, verbal testimony, and presumption as Pramanas.
• Kumarila and Advaitic Vedantins identify perception inference, comparison, verbal testimony, presumption, and nonapprehension as valid sources of knowledge.

Additional Information 

• Perception (pratyksha) or direct knowledge and mediate (paroksha) or indirect knowledge are the Pramanas admitted in Jainism.
• They discuss the nature of objects, conditions, and grounds of valid knowledge in detail.
• The inference is a chief means of valid knowledge.

 

Therefore, based on the above discussion Anumana has been accepted as an independent source of valid knowledge by most of the Indian philosophy schools including Buddhists, Naiyāyikas, Mīmāmsakas, and Advaitins. Only Carvakas accepted perception as the only means of valid knowledge.

Hence A,B,D,and E are correct.

The control unit is a part of the processor.

Key Points

• A processor is an integrated electronic circuit that performs the calculations that run a computer.
• An address bus is a computer bus that is used to address the main system memory.
• The address bus is used by a processor to indicate the memory location that it is about to read data from or write data to.
• Some processors may also use it to indicate an input/output port that is about to be read or written.

Additional Information

Hence, the correct answer is the Control unit.

The correct answer is Tropospheric Ozone

• If more radiation is entering Earth than leaving, as is happening today, then the atmosphere will warm up. This is called radiative forcing because the difference in energy can force changes in the Earth’s climate.

Key Points

• Positive radiative forcing means Earth receives more incoming energy from sunlight than it radiates to space.
• This net gain of energy will cause warming.
• Conversely, negative radiative forcing means that Earth loses more energy to space than it receives from the sun, which produces cooling.
• A planet in radiative equilibrium with its parent star and the rest of space can be characterized by net-zero radiative forcing and by a planetary equilibrium temperature.
• Ozone absorbs radiation and consequently acts as a strong greenhouse gas. Tropospheric ozone affects the climate beyond increased warming, having impacts on evaporation rates, cloud formation, precipitation levels, and atmospheric circulation.

Therefore, the correct answer is Tropospheric ozone**.**

Additional Information

• Radiative forcing on Earth is meaningfully evaluated at the tropopause and at the top of the stratosphere.
• It is quantified in units of watts per square meter, and often summarized as an average over the total surface area of the globe.
• Radiative forcing varies with solar insolation, surface albedo, and the atmospheric concentrations of radiatively active gases, commonly known as greenhouse gases, and aerosols.

The correct answer is Both Statements I and Statement II are true

An octane rating, or octane number, is a standard measure of a fuel's ability to withstand compression in an internal combustion engine without detonating. The higher the octane number, the more compression the fuel can withstand before detonating. Octane rating does not relate directly to the power output or the energy content of the fuel per unit mass or volume, but simply indicates gasoline's capability against compression. In broad terms, fuels with a higher octane rating are used in higher-compression gasoline engines, which may yield higher power. Such higher power comes from the fuel's higher compression by the engine design, and not directly from the gasoline.

Key Points

• Methanol (CH3OH), also called methyl alcohol, wood alcohol, or wood spirit, the simplest of a long series of organic compounds called alcohols, consisting of a methyl group (CH3) linked with a hydroxy group (OH).
• The octane rating of methanol is around 110 octane. Since the octane rating of methanol is so much higher than gasoline both boost, Compression and timing can be increased. The biggest advantage of Methanol is its inability to detonate.
• 87 AKI is generally the lowest octane rating gasoline and cheapest option. Next is mid-grade with 88-90 AKI. Lastly, premium or high grade gasoline has an octane rating of 90-94 AKI. The less octane, or the lower the grade, the faster and stronger it burns when pressurized.
• A higher flame speed of hydrogen-rich gas leads to a higher heat release rate, which increases the maximum temperature during combustion of methanol. High temperature is one of the significant reasons for the formation of NOx, therefore, an increase in NOx emission is observed in engine experiments.

Therefore, the correct answer is Both Statements I and Statement II are true

The correct answer is Prime Minister of India

• On 23 December 2005, the Government of India enacted the Disaster Management Act, which envisaged the creation of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime Minister, and State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs) headed by respective Chief Ministers, to spearhead and implement a holistic and integrated approach to Disaster Management in India.

Key PointsOrganisation Structure:

• The National Disaster Management Authority has been constituted under the Disaster Management Act 2005, with the Prime Minister of India as its Chairman
• A Vice Chairman with the status of Cabinet Minister, and eight members with the status of Ministers of State.
• With well-defined functional domains for each of its members and concern to carry out the mandated functions, NDMA has evolved into a lean and professional organization which is IT-enabled and knowledge based. Skills and expertise of the specialists are extensively used to address disaster related issues.
• A functional and operational infrastructure has been built, which is appropriate for disaster management involving uncertainties coupled with desired plans of action.

Therefore, the correct answer is Prime Minister of India

Additional InformationFunctions and Responsibilities:

• Lay down policies on disaster management
• Approve the National Plan
• Approve plans prepared by the Ministries or Departments of the Government of India in accordance with the National Plan
• Lay down guidelines to be followed by the State Authorities in drawing up the State Plan
• Lay down guidelines to be followed by the different Ministries or Departments of the Government of India for the Purpose of integrating the measures for prevention of disaster or the mitigation of its effects in their development plans and projects
• Coordinate the enforcement and implementation of the policy and plans for disaster management
• Recommend provision of funds for the purpose of mitigation
• Provide such support to other countries affected by major disasters as may be determined by the Central Government
• Take such other measures for the prevention of disaster, or the mitigation, or preparedness and capacity building for dealing with threatening disaster situations or disasters as it may consider necessary
• Lay down broad policies and guidelines for the functioning of the National Institute of Disaster Management.

The correct answer is Solids.

Key PointsPrimary Treatment of wastewater

• The objective of primary treatment is the removal of settleable organic and inorganic solids by sedimentation, and the removal of materials that will float (scum) by skimming
• Filtration and sedimentation are used in the primary treatment of waste water to remove larger and smaller particles (stable Solid particles) from the sewage.
• These are removed initially by sequential filtration which removes the floating debris and then grit is removed by sedimentation.

Additional Information

Secondary treatment of wastewater

• The objective of secondary treatment is the further treatment of the effluent from primary treatment to remove the residual organics and suspended solids.
• In most cases, secondary treatment follows primary treatment and involves the removal of biodegradable dissolved and colloidal organic matter using aerobic biological treatment processes.
• Several aerobic biological processes are used for secondary treatment, differing primarily in the manner in which oxygen is supplied to the microorganisms and in the rate at which organisms metabolize the organic matter

Tertiary Treatment of Waste Water:

• Tertiary and/or advanced wastewater treatment is employed when specific wastewater constituents which cannot be removed by secondary treatment must be removed.
• Individual treatment processes are necessary to remove nitrogen, phosphorus, additional suspended solids, refractory organics, heavy metals and dissolved solids.
• Because advanced treatment usually follows high-rate secondary treatment, it is sometimes referred to as tertiary treatment. However, advanced treatment processes are sometimes combined with primary or secondary treatment.

National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) is a nationally integrated and competency-based education framework that allows individuals to achieve their desired competence level. The Cabinet Committee on Skill Development approved the National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF), a quality assurance framework that organizes qualifications according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills, and aptitude. These levels are defined in terms of learning outcomes that the learner must possess regardless of whether they were acquired through formal, non-formal, or informal learning.

 Key PointsThe key elements of the NSQF provide:

• national principles for recognising skill proficiency and competencies at different levels leading to international equivalency
• multiple entry and exit between vocational education, skill training, general education, technical education and job markets
• progression pathways defined within skill qualification framework
• opportunities to promote lifelong learning and skill development
• partnership with industry/employers
• a transparent, accountable and credible mechanism for skill development across various sectors
• increased potential for recognition of prior learning.

Additional InformationThe NSQF levels range from one to ten are categorized by learning outcomes that learners must acquire through their formal, informal, or non-formal acquisition.

• **Level 1-**The first level of NSQF aims to prepare learners to automatically sink in the repetitive tasks and save their precious time every single time they need to perform them. They need not require any prior practice.
• Level 2 National Skill Qualification Framework aims to prepare learners to carry out repetitive tasks with the application of understanding. It would help them understand & perform the task, thus promoting logical thinking.
• Level 3 National Skill Qualification Framework aims to prepare learners to carry out a specific job role or task that doesn’t require much effort and is predictable in nature.
• Level 4 National Skill Qualification Framework aims to prepare learners to work in a familiar environment where the nature of the job is not new, quite familiar and can be performed on a routine basis.
• Level 5 National Skill Qualification Framework aims to prepare learners to become skillful and take a job of their choice and work in a familiar environment.
• Level 6 National Skill Qualification Framework demands a variety of skillset, especially technical skills, the learner must be well-equipped with knowledge & carry out standard & non-standard practices as per the requirement of the job.
• Level 7 National Skill Qualification Framework requires a skilled person that has a theoretical as well as practical skill-set and is efficient enough to do routine & well any non-routine job. One needs to have multi-tasking skills!
• Level 8 National Skill Qualification Framework needs an individual that has got comprehensive, theoretical, practical, as well as cognitive skills. One must be good at communication and needs to conduct tasks independently.
• Level 9 National Skill Qualification Framework is quite advanced in terms of knowledge & skills expectations. It prepares a learner to have a critical understanding of any subject and develop innovative thinking.
• Level 10 National Skill Qualification Framework requires specialization in everything in terms of –knowledge, problem-solving, and ability to offer an original contribution.

Therefore, the correct answer is Knowledge, Skills, Aptitude

Key Points

• The destiny of India is being shaped in her classrooms as appears in the introductory lines of the Kothari Commission unequivocally assumes the strategic role played by the teachers in national development.
• In view of this, the availability of well-trained teachers has been the most important concern of the nation.
• National Education Commission (1964-1966), popularly known as Kothari Commission, was an ad hoc commission set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India.
• The following are the main features:
• It concentrated on primary education.
• It focused on continuing education in conjunction with primary education.
• The main goal was to make elementary education universal.
• Another important element was that it promoted girls' education.

Thus, the destiny of India is being shaped in her classrooms and education determines the level of prosperity, welfare, and security of the people is stated in Education Commission.

Additional Information

• University Education: On November 4, 1948, the Government of India established the Radhakrishanan Commission popularly known as the University Education Commission under the chairmanship of Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.

Environmental education entails the sharing of information in order to develop values, attitudes, and skills that will enable individuals and communities to work together to take constructive environmental action. 

Key PointsAssertion A: Environmental education makes individuals aware of environmental issues, explores and analyses the causes and effects of the issues, and promotes environmental sustainability. 

• Environmental education is a method of allowing people to learn about environmental issues, solve problems, and take steps to improve the environment.
• Individuals have a better grasp of environmental challenges and the ability to make educated and responsible actions as a result.
• Environmental awareness and sensitivity, as well as environmental challenges and conscious attitudes and motivation to enhance or preserve environmental quality.

Thus, A is correct 

Reason R: It is very essential to think and act creatively to become technically capable and trained to approach environmental issues in a proactive manner.

• Environmental education does not promote a specific point of view or action.
• On the other hand, teaches people how to think critically about issues and improves their problem-solving and decision-making abilities, and is trained them to approach environmental issues in a proactive manner.
• The National Environmental Education Act of 1990 mandates that the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) take a national leadership role in increasing environmental literacy.

So, R is correct and  R is the correct explanation of A. 

Therefore, Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Various committees and commissions were formed to recommend steps to improve women's education after Independent India. 

Key Points

Statement I: The Hansa Mehta committee made a recommendation that there is a need to make differentiation in the curriculum on the basis of sex.

• In 1962, the National Council on Women's Education created the Hansa Mehta Committee to recommend steps to improve women's education.
• Some major recommendations of the committee are the following: 
• At the primary school level, no distinction should be made in the curricula for boys and girls
• Simple needlework, cooking, music, and dance should be introduced in primary schools, both for boys and girls, to remove gender stereotyping from the tender minds of children and to instill new and healthy attitudes.
• Home science should be included as part of the common core curriculum for boys and girls up to the eighth grade
• After the middle stage of one to three years, courses should be divided to train boys and girls for distinct life vocations.

Thus, Statement I is incorrect 

Statement II: Bhaktavalsalan committee recommended that the government and public should both act jointly, realize their responsibilities, and proceed in a planned manner with regard to the education of girls in the future.

• It was established under the chairmanship of Mr. M. Bhaktavatsalam was established by the National Council for Women's Education to investigate the reasons for the lack of public support for girls' education, particularly in rural regions.
• Some major recommendations of the committee for the improvement of girls' education:  
• When it comes to girls' education, the government and the general public should work together and proceed in a systematic manner.
• At the primary level, co-education should be popular.
• The establishment of women's social education centers in rural areas.
• Incentives like reservation of seats in training institutions for women, as well as appealing remuneration, housing quarters, and transportation costs, should be promoted to increase the participation of girls.

So, Statement II is correct. 

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Literature Review is a selection of the relevant document on the topic, which contains information, idea, data, express view on the topic and how it is to be investigated.  

Key Points

• The objective of doing a literature review are the following: 
• Find the key sources around the topic.
• ​​​To locate the major issues and debates about the topic.
• Knowledge of the topic is structured and organized.
• To Identify key theories, concepts and ideas around the topic.
• To distinguish between what is known and what is unknown.
• The significant controversies around the topic.
• The epistemological ground and ontological ground on which discipline is established.
• Political Standpoints

Important Points

• The purpose of a literature review is to: 
• Establish a foundation of knowledge about the subject.
• To avoid repetition and to give credit to other academics, identify areas of earlier scholarship.
• Identify inconsistencies such as research gaps, previous study disputes, and unanswered questions from other studies.
• Determine the necessity for more research (justifying your research)
• Determine the relationship between works based on their contribution to the topic and other works.
• Make a case for why more research is needed by placing your own research in the context of existing literature.

Philosopher always tries to address scientific discovery. The debate within Philosophy of Science about scientific discovery began with the context of discovery and the context of justification, and context distinction.

Key Points

• Philosophical reflection on scientific discovery occurred in different phases.

Statement I: The context of discovery involves non‐rational, intuitive processes while the context of justification is based on logical processes. 

• the Philosopher in favor of the context of discovery argued that conceiving a new idea is a non-rational process, a leap of insight that cannot be captured in specific instructions.
• the Philosopher in favor of the context of justification is a systematic process that required rigorous logical reasoning by applying evaluative criteria to knowledge claims

Hence, Statement I is correct. 

Statement II: The process of hypothesis generation doesn't strictly follow rigorous logical reasoning.

• ​There are canons of logic that decide whether or not a hypothesis should be accepted once it has been proposed—that is, there are rules of technique that apply in the context of justification.
• There are no such rules, however, to help someone construct the appropriate hypothesis or even viable or fruitful hypotheses.

​Therefore, Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 

Important Points

• In twentieth-century philosophy of science, the contrast between the context of discovery and the context of justification dominated and defined arguments about discovery.
• The contrast between the various elements of scientific inquiry became a crucial demarcation criterion during the subsequent discussions concerning scientific discovery.
• The distinction between contexts of discovery and justification was now recognized as a criterion for determining the scope of science philosophy.

Experimental research is under a researcher who wants to know cause-and-effect relationships between defined variables. 

Key Points

• Observation method
• The observation method is defined as a method for observing and describing a subject's behaviour.
• It is a method of gathering important data and information by observing.

Therefore, research to be conducted on very young children or inarticulate person observation is an appropriate method.

Important Points

• Survey method
• A survey is a type of research that involves gathering data from a predetermined group of people to get knowledge and insights about a variety of issues.
• They can serve a variety of objectives, and depending on the methodology used and the study's goal, researchers can conduct them in a variety of ways.
• Case history Method 
• ​A case study is a detailed examination of a single person, organisation, or event.
• A case study examines practically every aspect of a person's life and background to find patterns and reasons for behaviour.
• Experimental research is a study that follows a scientific research design. 
• It consists of a hypothesis, a researcher-controllable variable, and variables that may be measured, calculated, and compared.
• Experimental research under the researcher wants to know the effect of cause by controlling extraneous variables that affect the study.
• It is completed in a controlled environment because other variables jeopardize the study.
• The data is gathered by the researcher, and the outcomes will either support or refute the hypothesis.
• Hypothesis testing, often known as deductive research, is a way of conducting research.

Key Points

• An online conference takes place on the web. it's an interactive website, wherever participants go online and browse papers, enter discussions with different delegates and presenters, have live chat, and are able to pose questions and act with people from everywhere in the world.

Some popular software (apps) used for conducting online conferences are:

1. Zoom
2. Skype
3. Slack
4. Big Blue Button
5. Blue Jeans
6. Microsoft Teams
7. GoToMeeting
8. Google Meet
9. Blackboard Collaborate

Hence, the correct answer is A, B, and D only.

Additional Information

• KOHA: Koha is an open-source integrated library system, used worldwide by the public, school, and special libraries.
• Moodle: Moodle is a free and open-source learning management system written in PHP and distributed under the GNU General Public License.

A proposition is a statement that expresses an idea in a declarative manner. 

Key Points

Assertion A: A proposition is a statement about observable phenomena (concepts) that may be judged as true or false. 

• A proposition is a declarative statement that expresses a tentative and conjectural link between constructs.
• This declarative statement does not have to be true, but it must be empirically tested with evidence in order for us to determine if it is true or false.
• The majority of propositions are derived from logic (deduction) or actual data (induction)

Hence, the Assertion is Correct. 

Reason R: When a proposition is formulated for empirical testing, it is called a hypothesis. 

• Hypotheses are empirical formulations of concepts expressed as relationships between variables.
• Hypotheses can be empirically tested using observable facts, and if they are not supported by empirical observations, they can be discarded. The purpose of hypothesis testing is, of course, to determine whether the matching assertion is true.

So, the Reason is also Correct and explains the assertion. 

Therefore, Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. 

 Important Points

• A hypothesis is a tentative answer to a research problem that can be tested by empirical data.
• Scientific hypotheses should clearly specify independent and dependent variables.
• For example, a study designed to look at the relationship between sleep deprivation and test performance might have a hypothesis that states, "This study is designed to assess the hypothesis that sleep-deprived people will perform worse on a test than individuals who are not sleep-deprived."