Official Paper

UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 30th Nov 2021 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

50 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

Paper 1 (50 questions)

1

Given below are two statements

Statement I: Asamavyapti corresponds to the Universal Affirmative proposition.

Statement II: Samavyapti corresponds to the Universal Negative proposition.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

The categorical proposition, in syllogistic or traditional logic, is a proposition or statement, in which the predicate is, without qualification, affirmed or denied of all or part of the subject.

Key PointsStatement I: Asamavyapti corresponds to the Universal Affirmative proposition.

  • A universal affirmative proposition (to which, following the practice of medieval logicians, referred to by the letter “A“) is of the form; All S is P; representing the subject and predicate terms respectively by the letters “S” and “P.”
  • Such a proposition asserts that every member of the class designated by the subject term is also included in the class designated by the predicate term.
  • Thus, it distributes its subject term but not its predicate term.

Hence statement I is true.

​Statement II: Samavyapti corresponds to the Universal Negative proposition.

  • A universal negative proposition (or “E“) is of the form; No S are P.
  • This proposition asserts that nothing is a member both of the class designated by the subject term and of the class designated by the predicate terms.
  • Since it reports that every member of each class is excluded from the other, this proposition distributes both its subject term and its predicate term.

Hence statement II is also true.

Therefore, Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Additional Information

  • According to the Nyaya theory of knowledge, inference is one of the sources of true knowledge.
  • The inference is defined as that cognition that presupposes some other cognition.
  • It is mediate and indirect and arises through a mark, the middle-term (linga or hetu) which is invariably connected with the ‘major term’ (Sadhya).
  • It is knowledge (mana) that arises after (anu) other knowledge.
  • Invariable concomitance(vyapti) is the nerve of inference.
  • The presence of the middle term in the minor term is called paksadharmata.
  • The invariable association of the middle term with the major term is called vyapti.
  • A vyapti between terms of unequal extensions, such as smoke and fire is called asamavyapti
  • A vyapti between two terms of equal extension is called samavyapti.
2

AICTE is not dealing with the maintenance of standards in which one of the following areas?

  1. ((a))

    Hotel Management

  2. ((b))

    Nursing

  3. ((c))

    Pharmacy

  4. ((d))

    Town Planning

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Nursing

All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) was set up to conduct a survey on the facilities available for technical education and to promote development in the country in a coordinated and integrated manner.

Key PointsObjectives of AICTE

  • Promotion of Quality in Technical Education.
  • Planning and Coordinated Development of Technical Education System.
  • Regulations and Maintenance of Norms and Standards.
  • The purview of AICTE (the Council) covers programs of technical education including training and research in Engineering, Technology, Architecture, Town Planning, Management, Pharmacy, Applied Arts and Crafts, Hotel Management and Catering Technology, etc. at different levels.

Therefore, AICTE is not dealing with the maintenance of standards of Nursing.

Additional Information Hotel Management is an area of study that covers a wide range of topics concerned with the operational aspects of hoteliers.

3

The steps involved in developing a performance test are

A. Develop an observation/rating form.

B. Try out the test items before developing a final form.

C. Conduct a job (task) analysis to determine what abilities are to be tested.

D. Develop an administration format

E. Develop some type of task-sampling plan.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A, D, B, C, E

  2. ((b))

    B, C, D, A, E

  3. ((c))

    C, A, E, D, B

  4. ((d))

    D, B, C, E, A

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

C, A, E, D, B

Performance Testing is a software testing process used for testing the speed, response time, stability, reliability, scalability, and resource usage of a software application under a particular workload. The main purpose of performance testing is to identify and eliminate the performance bottlenecks in the software application. It is a subset of performance engineering and is also known as “Perf Testing”.

Key PointsFor performance testing, developers can use these seven steps:

  1. Identify the testing environment
  • Identifying the hardware, software, network configurations and tools available allows the testing team to design the test and identify performance testing challenges early on.
  1. Identify performance metrics.
  • In addition to identifying metrics such as response time, throughput and constraints, identify what are the success criteria for performance testing.
  1. Plan and design performance tests.
  • Identify performance test scenarios that take into account user variability, test data, and target metrics. This will create one or two models.
  1. Configure the test environment.
  • Prepare the elements of the test environment and instruments needed to monitor resources.
  1. Implement your test design.
  2. Execute tests.
  • In addition to running the performance tests, monitor and capture the data generated.
  1. Analyze, report, and retest.
  • Analyze the data and share the findings. Run the performance tests again using the same parameters and different parameters.

Hence the correct answer is C, A, E, D, B

4

Which among the following is a software for the analysis of qualitative data?

  1. ((a))

    NVivo

  2. ((b))

    R

  3. ((c))

    SPSS

  4. ((d))

    STATA

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

NVivo

Qualitative Data Analysis Software is a system that helps with a wide range of processes that help in content analysis, transcription analysis, discourse analysis, coding, text interpretation, recursive abstraction, grounded theory methodology, and interpreting information so as to make informed decisions.

Key Points

NVivo software:

  • NVivo is a software program used for qualitative and mixed-methods research.
  • Specifically, it is used for the analysis of unstructured text, audio, video, and image data, including (but not limited to) interviews, focus groups, surveys, social media, and journal articles.
  • It is produced by QSR International. As of July 2014, it is available for both Windows and Macintosh operating systems

Additional Information

R is a programming language for statistical computing and graphics.

  • It compiles and runs on a wide variety of UNIX platforms, Windows and MacOS.
  • Qualitative data analysis tools can help organize, process, and analyze data for actionable insights.
  • Qualitative data analysis software is used across a wide range of sectors and industries such as healthcare, the legal industry, e-commerce businesses,

SPSS is a software program. it stands for Statistical Package for the Social Sciences, and it's used by various kinds of researchers for complex statistical data analysis.

  • The SPSS software package was created for the management and statistical analysis of social science data.

STATA is a powerful statistical software developed by StataCorp for data manipulation, visualization, statistics, and automated reporting.

  • It enables users to analyze, manage, and produce graphical visualizations of data.
  • It is primarily used by researchers in the fields of economics, biomedicine, and political science to examine data patterns.
5

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Two fundamental features of classroom communication are classroom instruction and classroom management.

Reason R: The classroom communication of teachers rests on the principle of edutainment.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A is false but R is true

  2. ((b))

    A is true but R is false

  3. ((c))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  4. ((d))

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Classroom communication is the interaction between the teacher and the students in the classroom, which are basic processes in teaching and learning. It can be verbal, nonverbal, or written.

Key Points

Assertion A: Two fundamental features of classroom communication are classroom instruction and classroom management.

  • Classroom communication is purposive, positive, and pragmatic in nature.
  • It takes place between teacher and learners and among learners in both informal as well as informal situations.
  • It involves speaking, lecturing, describing, explaining, illustrating on the part of the teacher, and engaging the students in debate, dialogue, and discussion.
  • Learners raise questions, doubts, and queries to make their difficulties explicit which need to be effectively responded to and addressed by the teacher.

Hence, classroom instruction and classroom management are fundamental features of classroom communication.

The assertion is true.

Reason R: The classroom communication of teachers rests on the principle of edutainment.

  • The purpose of edutainment is to attract and hold the attention of the learners by engaging their emotions through a computer monitor full of vividly colored animations.
  • Edutainment is a form of entertainment designed to educate as well as to amuse.

Hence it is true that the classroom communication of teachers rests on the principle of edutainment.

The reason is correct but not the correct explanation.

Therefore, based on the above statements both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

Additional Information

  • The relationship between classroom instruction and management is that Instructional Design Can Become an Effective Classroom Behavior Management Strategy.
  • High-quality academic instruction has consistently proven to be an effective classroom for technique minimizing disruptions by reducing problem behavior and promoting student engagement.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

The following table has the number of enrolled students for a particular course and year. 

Total number of seats are given in brackets with respect to each course.

YearNumber of Enrolled Students
BTech
(120)
MTech
(30)
MPhil
(20)
MBA
(60)
201696241252
2017110261457
2018108251354
2019112281556
2020104271648
6

Find out the difference between average vacant seats of M Tech and MBA for 2016-2020

  1. ((a))

    2.4

  2. ((b))

    2.5

  3. ((c))

    2.6

  4. ((d))

    2.7

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2.6

Given: 

YearNumber of Enrolled Students
BTech
(120)
MTech
(30)
MPhil
(20)
MBA
(60)
Total (230)
201696241252180
2017110261457207
2018108251354200
2019112281556211
2020104271648195

Formula Used:

Total Seats = Enrolled Seats + Vacant Seats

Calculation:

Vacant Seats in MTech for 2016-2020 = (30 - 24) + (30 - 26) + (30 - 25) + (30 - 28) + (30 - 27) 

Now, average vacant seats of M Tech = (6 + 4 + 5 + 2 + 3)/5

⇒ 20/5 = 4

Vacant Seats in MBA for 2016-2020 = (60 - 52) + (60 - 57) + (60 - 54) + (60 - 56) + (60 - 48) 

Now, average vacant seats of M Tech = (8 + 3 + 6 + 4 + 12)/5

⇒ 33/5 = 6.6

So, the difference between average vacant seats of M Tech and MBA for 2016-2020 = 6.6 - 4 = 2.6

∴ The difference between average vacant seats of M Tech and MBA for 2016-2020 is 2.6

7

Which course has the highest percentage increase in enrollment of students from 2016-2017?

  1. ((a))

    B Tech

  2. ((b))

    M Phil

  3. ((c))

    M Tech

  4. ((d))

    MBA

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

M Phil

Given:

YearNumber of Enrolled Students
BTech
(120)
MTech
(30)
MPhil
(20)
MBA
(60)
Total (230)
201696241252180
2017110261457207
2018108251354200
2019112281556211
2020104271648195

Calculation:

Percentage increase in enrollment of students from 2016-2017 is

In BTech = [(110 - 96)/96] × 100 = (14/96) × 100 = 14.58%

In MTech = [(26 - 24)/24] × 100 = (2/24) × 100 = 8.33%

In MPhil = [(14 - 12)/12] × 100 = (2/12) × 100 = 16.66%

In MBA = [(57 - 52)/52] × 100 = (5/52) × 100 = 9.61%

∴ The course which has the highest percentage increase in enrollment of students from 2016-2017 is MPhil.

8

What is the average number of vacant seats of B. Tech for years (2016-2020)?

  1. ((a))

    14

  2. ((b))

    15

  3. ((c))

    16

  4. ((d))

    17

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

14

Given:  

YearNumber of Enrolled Students
BTech
(120)
MTech
(30)
MPhil
(20)
MBA
(60)
Total (230)
201696241252180
2017110261457207
2018108251354200
2019112281556211
2020104271648195

Calculation:

The number of vacant seats of B.Tech for years (2016-2020) is

In the year 2016 = 120 - 96 = 24

In the year 2017 = 120 - 110 = 10 

In the year 2018 = 120 - 108 = 12

In the year 2019 = 120 - 112 = 8

In the year 2020 = 120 - 104 = 16

So, the average number of vacant seats of B. Tech for years (2016-2020) is

⇒ (24 + 10 + 12 + 8 + 16)/5

⇒ 70/5 = 14

∴ The average number of vacant seats of B. Tech for years (2016 - 2020) is 14

9

Which year has the minimum vacant seats?

  1. ((a))

    2016

  2. ((b))

    2017

  3. ((c))

    2018

  4. ((d))

    2019

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

2019

Given:

YearNumber of Enrolled Students
BTech
(120)
MTech
(30)
MPhil
(20)
MBA
(60)
Total (230)
201696241252180
2017110261457207
2018108251354200
2019112281556211
2020104271648195

Formula Used: 

Total Seats = Enrolled Seats + Vacant Seats

Calculation:

Vacant seats in 2016 = 230 - 180 = 50

Vacant seats in 2017 = 230 - 207 = 23

Vacant seats in 2018 = 230 - 200 = 30

Vacant seats in 2019 = 230 - 211 = 19

Vacant seats in 2020 = 230 - 195 = 35

∴ Year which has the minimum vacant seats is 2019

10

Which year has highest average enrollment?

  1. ((a))

    2017

  2. ((b))

    2018

  3. ((c))

    2019

  4. ((d))

    2020

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

2019

Given:

YearNumber of Enrolled Students
BTech
(120)
MTech
(30)
MPhil
(20)
MBA
(60)
Total (230)
201696241252180
2017110261457207
2018108251354200
2019112281556211
2020104271648195

Calculation:

Average enrollment in the year 2016 = 180/4 = 45

Average enrollment in the year 2017 = 207/4 = 51.75

Average enrollment in the year 2018 = 200/4 = 50

Average enrollment in the year 2019 = 211/4 = 52.75

Average enrollment in the year 2020 = 195/4 = 48.75

∴ Year which has highest average enrollment is 2019

11

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: In a valid categorical syllogism, the middle term must be distributed in at least one premise.

Reason R: The conclusion of a valid argument cannot assert any more than is contained in the premises.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A is false but R is true

  2. ((b))

    A is true but R is false

  3. ((c))

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  4. ((d))

    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

A categorical syllogism is an argument consisting of exactly three categorical propositions (two premises and a conclusion) in which there appear a total of exactly three categorical terms, each of which is used exactly twice.

Key Points Assertion A: In a valid categorical syllogism, the middle term must be distributed in at least one premise.

  • Categorical syllogisms are sets of three categorical propositions.
  • The first two are given and presumed to be true.
  • These first two categorical propositions are called premises.
  • The third categorical proposition is the conclusion.
  • A categorical proposition is termed "valid" if the premises are sufficient to support to prove the conclusion true.
  • The premises are always presumed to be true.

Hence Assertion is true.

Reason R: The conclusion of a valid argument cannot assert any more than is contained in the premises.

  • An argument is valid if and only if it is necessary that if all of the premises are true, then the conclusion is true.
  • If all the premises are true, then the conclusion must be true.
  • It is impossible that all the premises are true and the conclusion is false.

Hence it is true that the conclusion of a valid argument cannot assert any more than is contained in the premises.

Therefore, based on the above statement we can conclude that both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

12

Identify the correct set of key mandate areas of the National Knowledge Commission

A. Access

B. Concepts

C. Delivery

D. Applications

E. Services

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C and D only

  2. ((b))

    A, B, D and E only

  3. ((c))

    A, C, D and E only

  4. ((d))

    B, C, D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A, B, D and E only

The aim of the National Knowledge Commission was to enable the development of a vibrant knowledge-based society. This entails both a radical improvement in existing systems of knowledge and creating avenues for generating new forms of knowledge.

Key Points

  • National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was constituted on 13th June 2005.
  • As a high-level advisory body to the Prime Minister of India, the National Knowledge Commission has been given the mandate to guide policy and direct reforms, focusing on certain key areas such as education, science, and technology, agriculture, industry, e-governance etc.

The key mandate areas of the National Knowledge Commission are

  • Build excellence in the educational system to meet the knowledge challenges of the 21st century and increase India’s competitive advantage in fields of knowledge.
  • Promote the creation of knowledge in Science and technology laboratories.
  • Improve the management of institutions engaged in Intellectual Property Rights.
  • Promote knowledge applications in Agriculture and Industry.
  • Promote the use of knowledge capabilities in making government an effective, transparent, and accountable service provider to the citizen and promote widespread sharing of knowledge to maximize public benefit.

Hence easy access to knowledge, creation, and preservation of knowledge systems, dissemination of knowledge, and better knowledge services are core concerns of the commission.

Therefore the correct answer is A, B, D, and E only.

13

Given below are two statements

Statement I: Toxic chemicals often injure organs as well as organ systems

Statement II: Hepatotoxins are chemicals that can damage kidneys

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

A toxic substance is a substance that can be poisonous or cause health effects.

Key PointsStatement I: Toxic chemicals often injure organs as well as organ systems.

  • Toxic chemicals can affect any system in the body, including the respiratory (nose, air passages, and lungs), digestive (mouth, throat, stomach, etc.), circulatory (heart, blood), nervous (brain, nerve cells), and reproductive (sperm, egg, etc.).
  • Some chemicals, like acids, are nonspecific and cause damage on direct contact. Other chemicals, like gasoline, can be absorbed into the blood and carried throughout the body. Some chemicals affect only certain target systems or target organs.
  • Every organ system has different functions and physical characteristics. So the effect of chemicals on each system has to be evaluated slightly differently.

Hence Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Hepatotoxins are chemicals that can damage kidneys.

  • A hepatotoxin is a toxic chemical substance that can cause damage to or otherwise injure the liver.
  • Hepatotoxins work by blocking the secretion of triglycerides, or fat, into the blood plasma. This process reduces the concentration of plasma lipids and lipoproteins. This fat accumulation is a key factor in liver injury.
  • Studies have shown that organic solvents may be associated with hepatotoxicity. Organic solvents are used in various industrial processes such as spraypainting, manufacturing of paints, processing of metals, and aeronautical and auto manufacturing maintenance.
  • Organic solvents are also prevalent in various chemical storage facilities. Workers can be exposed to hepatotoxins via intentional or accidental ingestion in food or absorption of toxic contaminants through the skin.

Hence statement II is incorrect.

Therefore, based on the above explanations, Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Nephrotoxins are toxic chemicals that can damage kidneys.
  • Some studies have shown that toxins like benzene can be hepatotoxin as well as nephrotoxins.
14

Anaerobic digestion of sewage sludge is

A. An effective process for organic solids

B. This process requires lots of energy

C. This process generates methane as an end product

D. Digested sludge is reduced in volume and easily dewatered

E. Very fast process and thus does not require large sized reactors

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and C only

  2. ((b))

    A, C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A, C, D and E only

  4. ((d))

    More than one of the above

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A, C and D only

Anaerobic digestion is the biological degradation of organic matter in the absence of free oxygen.

Key Points

  • In anaerobic digestion, much of the organic matter is converted to biogas; methane, carbon dioxide, and water.
  • Anaerobic digestion of sewage sludge is indeed an effective process for organic solids.
  • It involves the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen, resulting in the decomposition of sewage sludge.
  • It is  also known as methane fermentation or anaerobic sludge stabilization, this process can reduce the organic matter content of sludge by 40 and 50 %
  • Two different types of anaerobic sludge digestion process are in practice:
  1. Low rate digestion: a large storage tank, occasionally, with some heating facility
  2. High rate digestion: with pre-thickening of raw sludge, complete mixing, heating, and uniform feeding of raw sludge.
  • Methane is a potent greenhouse gas and can be captured and utilized as a renewable energy source.
  • The anaerobic digestion process helps break down the organic solids, reducing the overall volume of the sludge and making it more manageable for subsequent handling and disposal.

Thus anaerobic digestion enhances the stabilization of sewage sludge, reduces pathogens and odor emission, and dry matter of sludge is reduced, which leads to a significant reduction in the final sludge volume.

Therefore, statements A, C, and D only are correct.

15

A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years will it amount to 8 times?

  1. ((a))

    12 years

  2. ((b))

    16 years

  3. ((c))

    5 years

  4. ((d))

    8 years

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

12 years

Shortcut TrickGiven:

Amount = 2 × Principal

Time = 4 years

Calculation:

A certain sum at C.I. becomes n times in t years then,

n times → t years

nm times → (m × t) years

A sum of money placed at C.I. doubles itself in 4 years then,

2 times → 4 years

8 times = 23 times = (3 × 4) years = 12 years

∴ A sum of money will amount to its 8 times in 12 years.

Alternate MethodGiven:

Amount = 2 × Principal

Time = 4 years.

Formula Used:

A = P × [1 + (r/100)]n

Where A = Amount, P = Principal, r = rate of interest, n = time period

Calculation:

A = P × [1 + (r/100)]n

Here,  A = 2P, n = 4 years 

⇒ A = P × [1 + (r/100)]n

⇒ 2P = P × [1 + (r/100)]4

⇒ 2 = [1 + (r/100)]4     ----(1)

If sum becomes 8 times in n years, 

Then, A = 8P

⇒ 8P = P × [1 + (r/100)]n

⇒ 8 = [1 + (r/100)]n

⇒ 23 = [1 + (r/100)]n     ----(2)

From equation (1) and (2), we get;

⇒ {[1 + (r/100)]4}3 =  [1 + (r/100)]n

⇒ [1 + (r/100)]12 = [1 + (r/100)]n 

⇒ n = 12 years

∴ A sum of money will amount to its 8 times in 12 years.

16

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Indian ICT initiativePurpose
A.e-GyankoshI.Open educational resources developed by NCERT in 2013
B.e-PathshalaII.Digital repository of learning resources developed by ODL institutions
C.NROERIII.Educational e-resources developed by NCERT in 2015
D.NDLIV.Virtual repository of learning resources with single window search facility developed by IIT, Kharagpur

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

  3. ((c))

    A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

Important Points

Indian ICT initiativePurpose
e-Gyankosh- e-GyanKosh is a National Digital Repository to store, index, preserve, distribute and share digital learning resources. - It is developed by the Open and Distance Learning Institutions in the country. - e Gyan Kosh is used for downloading all courses books of IGNOU. - Open educational resources developed by NCERT in 2013 - Its main purpose is to give study material to students online.
e-Pathshala- e-Pathshala is a portal/app developed by the CIET and NCERT. - It was initiated jointly by the Ministry of Human Resource Development, CIET, and NCERT, and launched in November 2015. - Students can access e-textbooks, e-resources, participate in workshops, festivals, contests, and exhibitions. - Virtual repository of learning resources with single window search facility developed by IIT, Kharagpur.
NROER- The National Repository of Open Educational Resources (NROER) is developed by CIET, NCERT. - NROER hosts a large number of educational resources in many subjects and different Indian languages for Primary, Secondary, and Senior Secondary classes. - Educational e-resources developed by NCERT in 2013 - Resources are available in different formats like Video, Image, Audio, Document, and Interactive.
NDL- The National Digital library (NDL) of India is a digital repository containing textbooks, articles, videos, audiobooks, lectures, simulations, fiction, and all other kinds of learning media. - The NDLI provides free-of-cost access to many books in the Indian languages and English. - Educational e-resources developed by NCERT in 2015 - It is a single-window search facility developed by IIT, Kharagpur.

Hence  A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV match is correct.

17

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Millennium Development GoalAim
A.Goal 1I.Promote gender equality and empower women
B.Goal 2II.Reduce child mortality
C.Goal 3III.Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
D.Goal 4IV.Achieve universal primary education

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

  3. ((c))

    A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were 8 international development goals for the year 2015 that had been established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000, following the adoption of the United Nations Millennium Declaration.

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) succeeded the MDGs in 2016.

Key Points   

Millennium  Development GoalAim
Goal 1Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
Goal 2Achieve universal primary education
Goal 3Promote gender equality and empower women
Goal 4Reduce child mortality
Goal 5To improve maternal health
Goal 6To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases
Goal 7To ensure environmental sustainability
Goal 8To develop a global partnership for the development

Hence we can conclude that the correct matching code is A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

18

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Research ConceptsDefinitions
A.ConstantI.A mode of interview whereby there are several participants with an emphasis on the questioning on a tightly defined topic
B.SemioticsII.The segment of the population selected for research
C.SampleIII.An attribute in terms of which cases do not differ
D.Focus groupIV.An approach to the analysis of documents and other phenomenon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

  3. ((c))

    A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

The Correct Answer is A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

Key Points

Research ConceptsDefinitions
Constant- The term constant simply refers to something that is not variable. - In statistics, and survey research in particular, responses are typically described as random variables, roughly meaning that the responses cannot be predicted with certainty. - An attribute in terms of which cases do not differ
Semiotics- It is the study of signs and symbols, including their processes and systems. - It is an important approach to communication research because it examines the association between signs and their roles in how people create meanings on a daily basis. - An approach to the analysis of documents and other phenomena
Sample- It is a group of people, objects, or items that are taken from a larger population for measurement. - The sample should be representative of the population to ensure that we can generalize the findings. - The segment of the population selected for research.
Focus group- It is a research technique used to collect data through group interaction. - The group comprises a small number of carefully selected people who discuss a given topic. - Focus groups are used to identify and explore how people think and behave, and they throw light on why, what, and how to question - A mode of interview whereby there are several participants with an emphasis on the questioning on a tightly defined topic

Hence we can conclude that the correct matching code is A-III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

19

Identify the fallacy committed in the argument:

"The policies suggested by him have no merit since he was once charged with embezzlement".

  1. ((a))

    Appeal to Inappropriate Authority

  2. ((b))

    Appeal to Pity

  3. ((c))

    Argument ad Hominem

  4. ((d))

    Argument from Ignorance

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Argument ad Hominem

A fallacy is a type of arguing that appears to be valid, but actually invalid. The term fallacy comes from the Latin word ‘fallo,’ meaning ‘I deceive. Therefore any error in reasoning is a fallacy. 

Important Points

An ad hominem fallacy

  • It uses personal attacks rather than logic.
  • This fallacy occurs when someone rejects or criticizes another point of view based on the personal characteristics, ethnic background, physical appearance, or other non-relevant traits of the person who holds it.
  • Ad hominem arguments are often used in politics, where they are often called "mudslinging."

Hence the fallacy committed in the given statement is Argument ad Hominem.

Additional Information

Argument from ignorance 

  • it is also known as appeal to ignorance (in which ignorance represents "a lack of contrary evidence") and is a fallacy in informal logic
  • Appeal to Ignorance occurs when a person mistakenly believes something to be true that is not, because he or she does not know enough about the subject, or has not been given enough evidence, to know otherwise.
  • For Example, if you accuse a person of wrongdoing, it is up to you to prove it. It is an argument from ignorance to suggest someone is guilty because they can't prove their innocence.

An appeal to pity 

  • It relies on provoking your emotions to win an argument rather than factual evidence.
  • Appealing to pity attempts to pull on an audience's heartstrings, distract them, and support their point of view.
  • For Example, Someone accused of a crime using a cane or walker to appear more feeble in front of a jury

Appeal to Inappropriate Authority

  • ​This fallacy is used when a person appeals to a false authority as evidence for a claim.
  • These fallacious arguments from authority are the result of citing a non-authority as an authority.
  • It is a fallacy "when the appeal is made to parties having no legitimate claim to authority in the matter at hand
  • The statement "The policies suggested by him have no merit since he was once charged with embezzlement" is a clear case of Appeal to inappropriate authority where the person's policies are negated on the basis that he was once charged for corruption.
20

Who proposed theory of meaningful verbal learning?

  1. ((a))

    Benjamin Bloom

  2. ((b))

    David Ausubel

  3. ((c))

    Jerome Bruner

  4. ((d))

    Lawrence Kohlberg

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

David Ausubel

The correct answer is David Ausubel.

Verbal Learning involves acquiring skills to communicate with others by using words, sounds, pictures, etc. In the following section, we will discuss various theories of learning

Important Points

 Ausubel's Meaningful verbal learning:

  • It was developed by David  Ausubel in the 1960s as a contrast to rote learning
  • It is concerned with how individuals learn large amounts of meaningful material from verbal/textual presentations in a school setting
  • Meaningful verbal learning corresponds to a large extent to concept learning.
  • It involves the functional internalization of the verbal material presented to learners and occurs through progressive differentiation and integrative reconciliation.​

Additional Information

  • Jerome Bruner - Learning Theory in Education
  • This theory depicted how knowledge is represented and organized through different modes of thinking (or representation). Bruner proposed three modes of representation
  • Enactive representation (action-based)
  • Iconic representation (image-based)
  • Symbolic representation (language-based)
  • Benjamin Bloom's Taxonomy of Educational Objectives.:​
  • it is  Familiarly known as Bloom’s Taxonomy.
  • The framework elaborated by Bloom and his collaborators consisted of six major categories:
  • These were ​Knowledge, Comprehension, Application, Analysis, Synthesis, and Evaluation
  • The categories after Knowledge were presented as “skills and abilities,” with the understanding that knowledge was the necessary precondition for putting these skills and abilities into practice.
  • ​Kohlberg's theory of moral development :
  • It focuses on how children develop morality and moral reasoning.
  • It suggests that moral development occurs in a series of six stages grouped into three levels: pre-conventional, conventional, and post-conventional
  • The theory also suggests that moral logic is primarily focused on seeking and maintaining justice
21

The Trojan horses

  1. ((a))

    A software that gathers information by monitoring

  2. ((b))

    Are malicious programs often disguised as legitimate software

  3. ((c))

    Are viruses that can replicate themselves

  4. ((d))

    Search automatically for an item on the internet

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Are malicious programs often disguised as legitimate software

A correct answer is malicious programs are often disguised as legitimate software.

Computer viruses are unwanted software programs or pieces of code that interfere with the functioning of the computer. They a self-replicating computer program that interferes with the functioning of the computer by infecting files, data, programs, etc.

Key Points

Trojan Horse

  • A Trojan is sometimes called a Trojan virus or a Trojan horse virus, but that’s a misnomer.
  • Viruses can execute and replicate themselves but Trojan cannot.
  • A user has to execute Trojans.
  • It can't replicate like viruses and worms as a Trojan horse hides in a program.
  • it is a type of malicious code or software that looks legitimate and acts as a bona fide application or file Once installed, Once you install any such program, the trojan horse enters your computer.
  • It can provide unauthorized access to your computer, send your files to other computers, and may delete files or can make other unwanted changes in your computer by gathering information by monitoring.

Trojan malware example to show how it works.

  • You might think you’ve received an email from someone you know and click on what looks like a legitimate attachment. But you’ve been fooled. The email is from a cybercriminal, and the file you clicked on — and downloaded and opened — has gone on to install malware on your device.
  • When you execute the program, the malware can spread to other files and damage your computer

Common Types Of Computer Viruses are·-Trojan virus, File-infecting Virus, Macro Virus, Web Scripting Virus, Boot Sector Virus, etc

22

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Hazardous wasteCharacteristic feature
A.IgnitableI.Very unstable
B.CorrosiveII.Causes serious health issues
C.ReactiveIII.Destroy containers
D.ToxicIV.Able to sustain combustion

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

  2. ((b))

    A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

  3. ((c))

    A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

The correct answer is A-IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Hazardous waste is waste that has substantial or potential threats to public health or the environment.

Key Points

Hazardous wasteCharacteristic feature
Ignitable- Ignitable wastes can create fires under certain conditions, are spontaneously combustible, and are able to sustain combustion - They have a flashpoint of less than 60 °C (140) and catch fire easily, - Examples: waste oils and used solvents.
Corrosive- Corrosive substances have the ability to eat through containers which can cause leakage of harmful materials. It destroys containers. - A corrosive liquid has a pH of less than or equal to 2 or greater than or equal to 12.5 or has the ability to corrode steel. - Examples: Hydrochloric acid and nitric acid
Reactive- It reacts strongly with water or explodes on reaction with other chemicals. - These are very unstable - Example: TNT operations use cyanide for most of the process and cyanide is highly reactive.
Toxic- It defines the capacity of a substance to produce injury after entering the metabolic processes of the consumer, an animal, a plant, or a human being. - It produces symptoms of metabolic disorders, poisoning, disease, mutations, cancer, or malformations. - It causes serious health issues - Example: Used syringes carrying the waste containing dangerous pathogens

Hence we can conclude that correct matching code is A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

23

The concept "paradigm" is associated with:

  1. ((a))

    Imre Lakatos

  2. ((b))

    Karl Popper

  3. ((c))

    R. A. Fisher

  4. ((d))

    T. S. Kuhn

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

T. S. Kuhn

The Correct Answer is T. S. Kuhn

A paradigm is a basic framework of assumptions, principles and methods from which the members of the community work. 

Important Points

  • Thomas Kuhn's concept of Padigm's shift:
  • He argued that science does not evolve gradually towards truth.
  • Science has a paradigm that remains constant before going through a paradigm shift when current theories can’t explain some phenomenon, and someone proposes a new theory.
  • A scientific revolution occurs when:
  • the new paradigm better explains the observations and offers a model that is closer to the objective, external reality; and
  • the new paradigm is incommensurate with the old.
  • For example, Lamarckian evolution was replaced with Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection.

Additional Information

  • Karl Popper's Theory
  • It believed that scientific knowledge is provisional.
  • The Falsification Principle was proposed by Karl Popper which is a way of demarcating science from non-science.
  • It suggests that for a theory to be considered scientific it must be able to be tested and conceivably proven false. For example, the hypothesis that "all swans are white," can be falsified by observing a black swan.
  • For Popper, science should attempt to disprove a theory, rather than attempt to continually support theoretical hypotheses.
  • R. A. Fisher:
  • He elicited the genetic mechanisms and consequences of natural selection. made unique insights into the genetic processes that lead to the evolution of phenotypes. Fisher (1999) introduced the concepts of life history, reproductive value, and runaway selection
  • Imre Lakatos:
  • He is famous for his ideas on "Falsification and the Methodology of Scientific Research Programmes"La radical revision of Popper’s Demarcation Criterion between science and non-science which gave rise to a novel theory of scientific rationality.
24

In the ancient Buddhist system of education, the student after being admitted to a monastery had to renounce all worldly and family relationships. This was termed as

  1. ((a))

    Pravajya

  2. ((b))

    Samvartan

  3. ((c))

    Upnayan

  4. ((d))

    Upsampuda

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Pravajya

The correct Answer is Pravajya.

In the Buddhist period, every class in society, except the Chandals, had the right to receive an education.

It was denied only to the ill, the handicapped, the dishonored and those punished for crimes. Education began at the age of 8. Till the age of 12, the student remained in a state of shramana. After attaining the age of 20, he was qualified to become a monk

The total period of education was 22 years, composed of 12 years as pababja or Pravajya, and 10 years as upsampada.

 Important Points

  • Upsampada Ritual
  • In Buddhist education after attaining the age of twenty years, the student had to adopt 'Upsampada'.
  • On this occasion, the presence of ten monks was essential. After this ritual, the male monks were called '~ikshu' and female monks 'Bikshuni
  • Even at this stage, monks were required to observe such rules as living under a tree, eating food obtained in their begging bowls

Additional Information

  • Pababja or Pravrajyā Ritua l:
  • The ceremony is also the preliminary part of higher ordination, raising a novice to a monk
  • in Sanskrit pababja is called as  Pravrajyā,
  • Before a student could enter a monastery for receiving education, he had to perform the 'pababha' ritual, in which, according to the 'Vinaypitaka, the student had his head shaved off all the hair, dressed in yellow clothes, placed his forehead at the feet of the monks living in the monastery,
  • He was then ordained to obey ten rules, which included abstaining from theft, killing of any living being, impure conduct, partaking of food at prohibited times, use of intoxicating things, use of cosmetics, taking things without being offered, accepting objects of gold and silver in alms, watching dances or listening to music, etc.
  • After the performing of this ritual, the student was called a 'shrarnana' or 'samner
  • Samavartana
  • The Samavartana, also known as Snāna, is a rite of passage in the ancient texts of Hinduism performed at the close of the Brahmacharya period and marked the graduation of the student from Gurukul.
  • The students used to spend the long period of twelve years &ill1 their Gurus in their families.
  • After that period, having completed their education, they were allowed to go home to enter the family life
  • It signifies a person's readiness to enter grihastashrama.
  • Upanayana:
  • is one of the traditional saṃskāras (rites of passage) that marked the acceptance of a student by a guru (teacher or tutor) and an individual's initiation into a school in Hinduism.
  • The tradition is widely discussed in ancient Sanskrit texts of Hinduism and varies regionally.
  • The sacred thread (yagnyopavita or  janeu,  is received by the boy during this ceremony, which he continues wearing from the left shoulder to the right crossing the chest thereafter.
  • Generally, this ceremony should be performed before the advent of adulthood.
25

Given below are two statements regarding the data bus in the computer system

Statement I: Data bus sends data between the processor, memory unit and the I/O devices.

Statement II: It is uni-directional

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

In computer architecture, a bus (shortened form of the Latin omnibus, and historically also called data highway) is a communication system that transfers data between components inside a computer, or between computers

Von-Neumann Architecture comprised three major bus systems for data transfer

  • Address Bus
  • Data Bus
  • Control Bus

Key Points

Statement I: Data bus sends data between the processor, memory unit, and the I/O devices. 

  • Data Bus:
  • ​Data Bus carries data between the processor, the memory unit, and the input/output devices
  • It .is a data-centric software framework for distributing and managing real-time data in intelligent distributed systems.
  • It allows applications and devices to work together as one, integrated system.

Hence Statement I is true.

Statement II: It is uni-directional

  • Data Bus Functioning:
  • ​It simplifies application and integration logic with a powerful data-centric paradigm.
  • It can transfer data to and from the memory of a computer, or into or out of the central processing unit (CPU) that acts as the device's "engine."
  • A data bus can also transfer information between two computers.
  • Thus the data bus is bidirectional

Hence Statement II is false.

Thus we can conclude that Statement I is true but Statement II is false

26

The NEP-2020 envisions higher education as

A. playing an important role in promoting human as well as societal well being

B. enabling system for personal accomplishments with no economic contribution to society or public engagement

C. a system with less emphasis on development of cognitive skills and achieving learning outcomes

D. a system with identified sets of skills and values to be incorporated at each stage of learning from pre school to higher education

E. a system which needs complete overhaul and energising to overcome the challenges faced by the system

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and C only

  2. ((b))

    A, D and E only

  3. ((c))

    B, C and D only

  4. ((d))

    C, D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A, D and E only

Important Points 

  • The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 replaces the 34-year-old National Policy on Education (NPE) 1986 as the first education policy of the twenty-first century.
  • This policy, which is based on the foundational pillars of Access, Equity, Quality, Affordability, and Accountability, aims to transform India into a vibrant knowledge society and global knowledge superpower by making school and college education more holistic, flexible, multidisciplinary, suited to 21st-century needs, and aimed at bringing out the unique capabilities of each student.

Key Points

NEP-2020 envisages higher education as-

  • To move towards multidisciplinary universities and colleges,
  • Establish more higher education institutions across India;
  • Move towards faculty and institutional autonomy;
  • Revamp curriculum, pedagogy, assessment, and student support system, at both UG and PG levels.
  • Playing an important role in promoting human as well as social well being
  • a system with identified sets of skills and values to be incorporated at each stage of learning from pre school to higher education
  • a system which needs complete overhaul and energising to overcome the challenges faced by the system

Therefore, the correct answer is A, D, and E only

27

"A young child goes near an iron ball, feels the radiation of heat; from that she concludes that the ball must be quite hot and returns without physically touching the ball."

Here the cognition is through:

  1. ((a))

    Inference

  2. ((b))

    Knowledge through analogical reasoning

  3. ((c))

    Perception

  4. ((d))

    Verbal authority

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Inference

 Key PointsInference-It is an important concept of the Nyaya School of Indian Philosophy. Here, the prefix ‘anu’ means ‘after’ and ‘māna’ means ‘knowledge’. It is a way of drawing inference from prior or existing knowledge. It is a means of arriving at truth not directly but through previous knowledge of concomitance (vyapti) between the major term (sadhya) and the middle term (sadhana). Therefore, unlike Pratyaksha (perception), Anumana (inference) yields mediate knowledge. For example, if there is smoke on a hill, our ‘anumana’ would be that there is some fire on the hill. This process of making an Anumana is through ‘vyapti’

"A young child goes near an iron ball, feels the radiation of heat; from that, she concludes that the ball must be quite hot and returns without physically touching the ball." here the cognition is through the inference, as the child arrives at the conclusion through previous knowledge of the ball being hot as it radiates heat, even without touching the ball.

Additional Information Perception-pratyaksha, (Sanskrit: “that which is before one’s eyes”) in Indian philosophy, perception, the first of the five means of knowledge, or pramanas, that enable a person to have correct cognitions of the world. Pratyaksha is of two kinds, direct perception (anubhava) and remembered perception (smriti).

Verbal Authority-shabda, (Sanskrit: “sound”) in Indian philosophy, verbal testimony as a means of obtaining knowledge. In the philosophical systems (darshans), shabda is equated with the authority of the Vedas (the most-ancient sacred scriptures) as the only infallible testimony, since the Vedas are deemed to be eternal, authorless, and absolutely infalliable

![Solved] Which of the following is not correct with reference to](https://storage.googleapis.com/tb-img/production/20/08/F1_Satya_Madhu_03.08.20_D4.png)

Therefore, the correct answer is Inference.

28

Being a smart consumer of media means:

  1. ((a))

    Being adept at recognizing subtle and not subtle forms of messages

  2. ((b))

    Belief in a few mass media channels

  3. ((c))

    Disbelief in messages received

  4. ((d))

    Following a few select TV channels one likes

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Being adept at recognizing subtle and not subtle forms of messages

Key Points

A consumer is described as someone who pays to consume goods and services produced by a seller in the domains of economics, marketing, and advertising (i.e., company, organization). A consumer is a person (or a group of individuals) who is considered the end-user or target demographic for a product, good, or service.

Important Points The Smart Consumer, as the term implies, is an intelligent, thorough, and curious shopper. It is not a compulsive buyer; on the contrary, before making any purchase, it is the responsibility of the buyer to thoroughly research the product or service in order to weigh all of the benefits that the purchase may provide.

A consumer, on the other hand, not only researches the product's performance and pays close attention to other buyers' opinions, but also inquires about and compares prices. In a market as competitive as the current one, we may say that the Smart Consumer is a challenge.

Characteristics of Smart Consumer of media-

  1. Avoids scams and fraud
  2. Do research before buying
  3. Gets good deals/value for money spent
  4. Knows where to complain if needed
  5. Following a few select TV channels, one likes

Therefore, being a smart consumer of media means being adept at recognizing subtle and not subtle forms of messages.

29

Which term comes next in the sequence?

AN, CQ, EU, ______

  1. ((a))

    GZ

  2. ((b))

    HZ

  3. ((c))

    IA

  4. ((d))

    JB

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

GZ

The positions of the letters according to the English alphabet series:

The logic followed for first letter:

First letters are: A, C, Q, ?

The logic followed for second letter:

second letters are: N, Q, U, ?

<br>

 

Hence, the next term will be ''GZ''.

30

Following are the objections against mixed methods research:

A. Quantitative and qualitative research are epistemologically different

B. Quantitative research is better than the qualitative research

C. Aims of quantitative and qualitative research are different

D. Ontological assumptions of quantitative and qualitative research may be different

E. Quantitative and qualitative research are paradigmatically incompatible

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C and D only

  2. ((b))

    A, B, D and E only

  3. ((c))

    A, C, D and E only

  4. ((d))

    B, C, D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, C, D and E only

Key Points

In general, mixed methods research represents research that involves collecting, analyzing, and interpreting quantitative and qualitative data in a single study or in a series of studies that investigate the same underlying phenomenon. Its central premise is that the use of quantitative and qualitative approaches in combination provides a better understanding of research problems than either approach alone.

Important Points Disadvantages of Mixed research methods are-

  • Quantitative and qualitative research are epistemologically different
  • The aims of quantitative and qualitative research are different
  • Ontological assumptions of quantitative and qualitative research may be different
  • A researcher choosing to rely on this method of research has to learn about multiple methods and approaches and understand how to appropriately mix them.
  • The mixed method of research is more expensive and time-consuming than any other method of research due to its duplicitous content.
  • Quantitative and qualitative research are paradigmatically incompatible.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, C, D, and E only

31

The term "Communication" is derived from the Latin words "Communis" or "Communicare" which means:

  1. ((a))

    Make common, the information available

  2. ((b))

    Make something uncommon

  3. ((c))

    Produce information

  4. ((d))

    Provide specific information

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Make common, the information available

Key Points

 The English word ‘communication’ has been derived from the Latin word, ‘Communicare’ which means to impart or participate or to transmit. The word ‘Communicare’ is derived from the root ‘Communis’ which means to make common or to share.

Additional Information

 Communication is-

  1. The activity or process of sharing or exchanging ideas, feelings, information, experience between two or more persons;
  2. An act or instance of transmitting;
  3. The information is actually communicated by some means.

Definitions of communication:

  1. The Oxford English Dictionary defines communication as “the action of conveying or exchanging information and ideas.”
  2. Peter Little defines communication as “the process by which information is transmitted between individuals and or organizations so that an understanding response results.”
  3. Allen Lui (Louis) defines communication as “ Communication is the sum of all the things one person does when he wants to create understanding in the mind of another. It is a bridge of meaning. It involves a systematic process of telling, listening, understanding, and responding.”
  4. Keith Davis defines communication as “Communication is the transfer of information and understanding from one person to another.

Therefore, the correct answer is to make it common, the information available

32

Given below are two statements

Statement I: As per Piaget's stages of cognitive development, the child learns a language and begins to use symbols to represent objects during the pre-operational stage.

Statement II: As per Piaget's stages of cognitive development, the child learns through reflexes, senses, and movement-actions on the environment during the formal operational stage.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Key Points

Piaget's theory of cognitive development proposes 4 stages of development. 

  • Sensorimotor stage: birth to 2 years
  • Preoperational stage: 2 to 7 years
  • Concrete operational stage: 7 to 11 years
  • Formal operational stage: ages 12 and up

The Sensorimotor Stage-Ages: Birth to 2 Years

  • The infant knows the world through their movements and sensations
  • Children learn about the world through basic actions such as sucking, grasping, looking, and listening
  • Infants learn that things continue to exist even though they cannot be seen (object permanence)
  • They are separate beings from the people and objects around them
  • They realize that their actions can cause things to happen in the world around them

**The Preoperational Stage-**Ages: 2 to 7 Years

  • Children begin to think symbolically and learn to use words and pictures to represent objects.
  • Children at this stage tend to be egocentric and struggle to see things from the perspective of others.
  • While they are getting better with language and thinking, they still tend to think about things in very concrete terms.

The Concrete Operational Stage-Ages: 7 to 11 Years

  • During this stage, children begin to think logically about concrete events
  • They begin to understand the concept of conservation; that the amount of liquid in a short, wide cup is equal to that in a tall, skinny glass, for example
  • Their thinking becomes more logical and organized, but still very concrete
  • Children begin using inductive logic, or reasoning from specific information to a general principle

The Formal Operational Stages: 12 and Up

  • At this stage, the adolescent or young adult begins to think abstractly and reason about hypothetical problems
  • Abstract thought emerges
  • Teens begin to think more about moral, philosophical, ethical, social, and political issues that require theoretical and abstract reasoning
  • Begin to use deductive logic, or reasoning from a general principle to specific information

​ 

Important Points

Statement I: As per Piaget's stages of cognitive development, the child learns a language and begins to use symbols to represent objects during the pre-operational stage.

  • As per Piaget's stages of cognitive development, the child learns a language and begins to use symbols to represent objects during the pre-operational stage.
  • Hence the statement is correct as the correct answer is a pre-operational stage.

Statement II: As per Piaget's stages of cognitive development, the child learns through reflexes, senses, and movement-actions on the environment during the formal operational stage.

  • As per Piaget's stages of cognitive development, the child learns through reflexes, senses, and movement-actions on the environment during the sensorimotor stage.

Therefore, Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Note: The official answer is provided in option four which is incorrect as per the above explanation.

33

Given below are two statements

Statement I: Questionnaires are filled in by the participants themselves.

Statement II: The interview schedule is filled in by the interviewer/researcher.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

 Key PointsThe research process is incomplete without the collection of data which begins after the identification of research problems and the development of a study design.

Primary data is collected using a variety of approaches, including observation, interviews, questionnaires, schedules, and so on. In research surveys, both questionnaires and schedules are commonly used methods of data collection. The essence of these two systems has a striking resemblance, prompting many to suggest that they can be considered interchangeable from a practical standpoint.

 Important PointsStatement I: Questionnaires are filled in by the participants themselves.

A questionnaire is a research tool that consists of a set of questions or other forms of prompts designed to gather data from a respondent. A typical research questionnaire has a combination of closed-ended and open-ended questions. Long-form, open-ended inquiries allow the reply to elaborate on their opinions. The Statistical Society of London created research questionnaires in 1838. A questionnaire is a method of obtaining responses to questions by having the respondent fill out a form on his own. It is made up of a set of questions that are printed or typed in a specific order. These forms are addressed to the respondent, who is expected to read and understand the questions and respond by filling in the blanks with the appropriate responses. Hence this statement is correct.

Statement II: Interview schedule is filled in by the interviewer/researcher.

A schedule is a list of questions on a certain topic that are personally asked by the interviewer or investigator. The order of the questions, their phrasing, and the organisation of elements of the schedule remain unchanged. If the respondent has any difficulties, the investigator can explain the questions. Enumerators (interviewer/researcher) go to the informants with the schedule. Hence this statement is correct.

Therefore,Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

34

Given below are two statements

Statement I: The Wood's Despatch recognised for the first time that the government should give frank and cordial support to female education and take effective measures for its expansion

Statement II: Girl candidates were allowed to appear in the matriculation examination for the first time by Calcutta University.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Key PointsWood’s Dispatch is considered to be the “Magna Carta of Education” in India. The Dispatch is a comprehensive important educational document and holds a unique place in the history of Indian education. It placed the responsibility of education of the Indian people fully on the company and made it quite clear that it must never be neglected. The Dispatch gave a new direction to education in India and which has an impact on today’s education in the country.

The following developments were reflected post-Charles Wood’s Despatch:

  1. Bombay, Madras, and Calcutta universities were set up in 1857
  2. In all provinces, education departments were set up
  3. Bethune School (founded by J.E.D. Bethune) was started for women's education
  4. Agriculture Institute at Pusa (Bihar) and an Engineering Institute at Roorkee were started
  5. British India witnessed rapid westernization of the education system with European headmasters and principals in schools and colleges
  6. Private Indian educators appeared.

Important PointsStatement I: The Wood's Despatch recognized for the first time that the government should give frank and cordial support to female education and take effective measures for its expansion.

  • Wood’s Despatch began a new era of organized educational administration, defined the aim of Indian education, and determined the Government’s attitude towards the need for technical and women’s education.
  • Even though it had recommended that the British Government should support women’s education and give financial assistance for the opening of girls’ schools, the department of education did not take active measures for another decade or two.

Hence statement 1 is correct

Statement II: Girl candidates were allowed to appear in the matriculation examination for the first time by Calcutta University.​

  • It was in 1877 that Calcutta University first opened its doors for girl students, and Bombay University followed suit in 1883.
  • Thus the gates of higher education were thrown open for women. In 1883, Chandramukhi Basu and Kadambini Basu of Calcutta University became the first women graduates in India.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Therefore the correct answer is both Statements I and Statement II are correct.

35

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Coastlines are considered as high potential areas for wind energy generation.

Reason R: Ocean water can be utilized as coolant during wind energy production

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A is correct but R is not correct

  2. ((b))

    A is not correct but R is correct

  3. ((c))

    Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

  4. ((d))

    Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Wind power is electricity generated by turbines that harness the energy of the wind. Wind, despite its irregularity and dispersion, contains enormous amounts of energy and is both unlimited and nonpolluting. As a renewable alternative to fossil fuels, the usage of wind in energy systems increased dramatically in the 1980s and into the early twenty-first century. Wind power is mostly produced in China, the United States, and Germany.

Important PointsAssertion A: Coastlines are considered as high potential areas for wind energy generation.

  • The kinetic energy in wind is a significant source of renewable energy in many parts of the world, with considerable potential for further development.
  • The energy produced by the turbines is heavily dependent on the average local wind speed.
  • Regions that usually have the most important wind potential are located near coasts, inland areas with open fields, or at the edge of water bodies.

Hence, the assertion is true and correct.

Reason R: Ocean water can be utilized as a coolant during wind energy production

  • Wind turbines require virtually no water to generate electricity and the 1.5 MW platform wind turbine generator is cooled using a passive, maintenance-free air circulation system with no moving parts.
  • Ambient air is directed through special cooling channels on the generator housing.

Hence the reason is True but not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Therefore, both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

36

The unit digit of the product of first 22 natural number is

  1. ((a))

    0

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    4

  4. ((d))

    6

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

0

Explanation:

We are given to find the unit digit of the product of the first 22 natural numbers.

The first 22 natural numbers are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22.

The unit digit of a number is the digit in the one's place of the number. i.e It is the rightmost digit of the number. For example, the units digit 243 is 3

Since the unit digit in two numbers among the first 22 natural numbers, that are 10 and 20 is 0, so the total product must have unit digit 0.

∴ The unit digit of the product of the first 22 natural numbers will be 0.

37

Power and status are said to cause _______ barriers in communication.

  1. ((a))

    Cultural

  2. ((b))

    Physical

  3. ((c))

    Semantic

  4. ((d))

    Technological

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Semantic

Key PointsThere are various reasons which cause unsuccessful communication or prevent understanding the actual meaning of the information which are known as communication Barriers. The difficulty to successfully deliver the information is categorized in different communication barriers based on various aspects

Types of Communication Barriers are as follows:

  1. Semantic Barrier
  2. Language Barrier
  3. Organizational Barrier
  4. Interpersonal Barrier
  5. Individual Barrier
  6. Physical Barrier
  7. Psychological Barrier
  8. Technological barrier
  9. Cultural Barrier

Important Points

Semantic Barrier-

  • It is based on the same worlds having different meanings to different peoples.
  • The difficulty arises when different people assume the different meanings of specific information or word, it is called semantic Barriers.
  • Semantic barriers arise due to difference in understanding of people. People in different levels have different understanding.
  • Different signals and messages can be interpreted in a different way because of the levels of hierarchy in which they are present.
  • Hence, power and status can be said to cause semantic barriers.

Additional Information

Physical Barrier-

  • It is the most occurred barrier in communication due to natural and environmental conditions.
  • The physical barrier includes circumstances like noise, hearing problems, speech difficulties, closed doors, defective equipment, etc.
  • The distance or geographical distance may be the reason for Physical barriers.
  • It is always easy to convey a message to a person over a short distance.
  • As more communication channel and technology is required to deliver the message at a large distance.

Cultural Barrier-

  • A cultural barrier is a rule or expectation in any culture that prevents or impedes someone, from outside of that culture, from being included or participating equally, Eg of the cultural barrier are- stereotypes, pride, and prejudice.

Technological Barrier-

  • The disturbance during communication occurs due to a technical error or is known as Technical Barrier.
  • The network issue, coding errors, or defects in electronic equipment are the major reason for the technological barrier.
  • For example, one cannot be able to communicate over the phone if there is any defect in the phone or if the proper network is not available.

Therefore, Power and status are said to cause semantic barriers in communication.

38

The Ethernet is

  1. ((a))

    A device that can communicate with another computer

  2. ((b))

    A program that identities and moves traffic across local segments

  3. ((c))

    A protocol designed for wireless MANs

  4. ((d))

    A system that connects a number of computers or devices together to form a LAN

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A system that connects a number of computers or devices together to form a LAN

Ethernet is a type of computer networking technology that is commonly used for transmitting data through cable in local area networks (LANs).

Key Points

  • Ethernet is a form of communication protocol used to connect various numbers of computers with each other to transmit data.
  • it is invented by Robert Metcalfe.
  • An Ethernet is also known as Alto Aloha Network and it is a commonly used LAN and WAN protocol.
  • It is wired connections are used for faster maximum data transfer rates and are more secure & less susceptible to interference than wireless networks.

Different types of ethernet are following: ​

Types of ethernetFeatures
Fast Ethernet- supported by a twisted pair or CAT5 cable. - transfer or receive data at around100 Mbps - optic fiber cable and twisted pair cable are used
Gigabit Ethernet- uses optic fiber cable and twisted pair cable - transfer data at a rate of 1000 Mbps or 1Gbps - uses CAT5e or other advanced cables
10-Gigabit Ethernet- transmit data at a rate of 10 Gigabit/second - CAT6a or CAT7 twisted-pair cables and fiber optic cables - expended up to nearly 10,000 meters with the help of using an optical fiber cable.
Switch Ethernet- type of network involves adding switches or hubs - the network can have its own dedicated 10 Mbps connection instead of sharing the medium - it supports 1000Mbps to 10 Gbps and 10Mbps to 100Mbps for fast Ethernet - it is the latest ethernet one.

Therefore, Ethernet is a system that connects a number of computers or devices together to form a LAN

39

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Security threatsMeaning
A.HackingI.'Clog-up' a user's inbox with unwanted emails
B.PhishingII.Gives the originator access to all data entered by the keyboard
C.SpywareIII.Identity fraud
D.SpamIV.Illegal use of personal data

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

  3. ((c))

    A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

A cyber security threat is any harmful attack that attempts to gain unauthorized access to data, disrupt digital activities, or damaged data. A cyber security threat can be employed by various agents such as corporate spies, hacktivists, terrorist groups, hostile nation-states, etc. 

Important Points

Security threatsMeaning
Hacking- It is the process of detecting and exploiting security flaws in a computer system or network in order to obtain access to data. - It can be also done by clog-up a user's inbox with unwanted emails so that users. - In the spirit of a denial of service assault, a new method of attack against AI systems tries to clog up a network and slow down processing. - Hacking Technique used by hackers: Botnets, Browser hijacks, Denial of service (DDoS) attacks, Ransomware, Rootkits, Trojans, Viruses, Worms
Phishing- Phishing is a cyber security threat done by social engineering in which an attacker sends a false message in the hopes of tricking the victim into exposing sensitive information. - The attacker will frequently customize an email to communicate personally to you and include information that only a close friend would know. - Phishing can also be a targeted attack directed at a single person. - That is why Phishing comes under Identity fraud. - Types of Phishing: Spear Phishing, Whaling, Vishing, Email Phishing.
Spyware- Spyware is a term used to define a kind of software that is designed to steal personal or organizational data. - When spyware is used intentionally, it is camouflaged in the computer's system files, making it hard to identify. - It gives the originator access to all data entered by the keyboard - Types of Spyware: Browser Hijack, Adware, Keyboard Loggers
Spam- Spam email is an unwanted junk email delivered in bulk to an indiscriminate recipient list. - Spam email is generated by botnets, and networks of infected computers. - it can use personal data after providing access to attach malware. - Types of Spam: **Commerical advertisements, Antivirus warnings, Email spoofing, Sweepstakes winners, Money scams.  **​

Hence, the correct option is A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

40

Following are some statements regarding the firewalls. Choose the correct statements

A. Examine traffic between computer and a network

B. Used to verify that data comes from a secure and trusted source

C. Use the concept of digital signature

D. Keep a list of IP addresses thus preventing access to certain websites

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and D only

  2. ((b))

    A and C only

  3. ((c))

    B and C only

  4. ((d))

    C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A and D only

A firewall is a network security device that monitors incoming and outgoing network traffic and assesses whether specific traffic should be allowed or blocked. 

Key Points

  • It acts as a gatekeeper by detecting and preventing unwanted traffic from an unidentified source.
  • It manages network traffic to help safeguard your network and information.
  • A firewall acts as traffic by allowing the IP addresses or trusted sources to be permitted by the users.
  • Types of  firewall: Hardware Firewall and Software Firewall
Hardware FirewallSoftware Firewall
- Physical- Non-tangible
- Stored between network and gateway- Installed on computer
- Protect from the outside world.- Protect from the specific device from other internal systems.
  • The firewall used two Port numbers and applications to control data traffic.

 Therefore, the firewall examines traffic between a computer and a network and keep the list of IP addresses thus preventing access to certain websites. 

Additional Information

  • ​Attacks on personal computers prompted the development of first-generation firewalls in the late 1980s.
  • the first stateful inspection firewall was introduced in 1993.
  • In the early 2000s, third-generation firewalls addressed application-layer vulnerability attacks, resulting in Intrusion Prevention Systems Products (IPS).
  • In 2017, larger-scale attacks necessitated even more sophisticated defences.
41

Which of the following statement are correct?

A. The average of first twenty multiples of 8 is 84

B. There are 25 prime numbers between 100 to 200.

C. Average of ten positive numbers is X. If each number is increased by 10%, then new average increases by 11%.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    A and C only

  3. ((c))

    A only

  4. ((d))

    B and C only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A only

Calculation:

Statement A: The average of first twenty multiples of 8 is 84

First twenty multiples of 8 are:

⇒ 8 × 1, 8 × 2, 8 × 3,...........8 × 20

So, AP = 8 + 16 + 24, +..............+ 160

Required average = 8(1 + 2 + 3 + ............+ 20)/20

AP: Sum of first n numbers = n/2[first term + last term]

Required average of AP = (8 + 160)/2 = 84

Hence, statement A is correct.

Statement B. There are 25 prime numbers between 100 to 200.

Prime numbers from 100 to 200 are:

101, 103, 107, 109, 113, 127, 131, 137, 139, 149, 151, 157, 163, 167, 173, 179, 181, 191, 193, 197, 199.

There are 21 prime numbers between 100 to 200

Hence, statement B is incorrect.

Statement C. Average of ten positive numbers is X. If each number is increased by 10%, then new average increases by 11%.

Let the ten positive numbers be m1, m2, m3, ............ m10

Now, average of ten positive numbers is X.

⇒ X = (m1 + m2 + m3 +............+ m10)/10

If each number is increased by 10% then, new average Y is,

⇒ Y = (1.1m1 + 1.1m2 + 1.1m3 +............+ 1.1m10)/10  

⇒ Y = 1.1 × (m1 + m2 + m3 +............+ m10)/10

⇒ Y = 1.1 × m

New average Y is increased by 10%

Hence, statement C is incorrect.

∴ Only statement A is correct.

Additional Information

  • A prime number has exactly two factors and is a positive integer. If 'p' is a prime number, then 1 and p themselves are only necessary factors. Any number that does not obey this is called a composite number.
42

Given below are two statements

Statement I: The single discount equivalent to a series discount of 10%, 30% and 50% is 68.5%

Statement II: The single discount equivalent to a series discount of 10%, 20% and 40% is 43.2%

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Given: 

Statement I: The single discount equivalent to a series discount of 10%, 30% and 50% is 68.5%

Statement II: The single discount equivalent to a series discount of 10%, 20% and 40% is 43.2%

Formula Used:

Total discount = [x + y - (xy/100)]%

Calculation:

Statement I: The single discount equivalent to a series discount of 10%, 30% and 50% is 

Single equivalent discount for 10% and 30% is

⇒ [10 + 30 - (10 × 30)/100]%

⇒ (40 - 300/100)% = (40 - 3)% = 37%

Now, single equivalent discount for 37% and 50% is

⇒ [37 + 50 - (37 × 50)/100]%

⇒ (87 - 18.5)% = 68.5%

Statement II: The single discount equivalent to a series discount of 10%, 20% and 40% is

Single equivalent discount for 10% and 30% is

⇒ [10 + 20 - (10 × 20)/100]%

⇒ (30 - 200/100)% = (30 - 2)% = 28%

Now, single equivalent discount for 28% and 40% is

⇒ [28 + 40 - (28 × 40)/100]%

⇒ (68 - 11.2)% = 56.8%

∴ Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

43

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. A proposition and E proposition are contradictories

B. A proposition and O proposition are contradictories

C. E proposition and O proposition are contradictories

D. I proposition and O proposition are contraries

E. I proposition and O proposition are subcontraies

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, C and D only

  2. ((b))

    A, D and E only

  3. ((c))

    B and D only

  4. ((d))

    B and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B and E only

The square of opposition is a diagram used in categorical logic to depict the logical relationship that exists between particular propositions based on their form.

Classical Square of Opposition MCQ [Free PDF] - Objective Question Answer  for Classical Square of Opposition Quiz - Download Now!

A. A proposition and E proposition are contradictories is not correct as A and E are contraries

B. A proposition and O proposition are contradictories is correct

C. E proposition and O proposition are contradictories not correct as A and E are subaltern

D. I proposition and O proposition are contraries not correct as A and E are subcontraries

E. I proposition and O proposition are subcontraies correct

Key Points

Relationships between Propositions:

TypesCharacteristics
Contradictory- A and O, E, and I propositions are contradictory. - The truth of an assertion of the form All S are P implies the falsity of the corresponding proposition of the type. Some S are not P. - For example, if the proposition "All cats are black" (A) is true, then the proposition "some Cats are not black" (O) must be false.
Contrary- A and E propositions are contrary. - Propositions are contrary when they cannot both be true. - For Example, if the proposition "All cats are black" (A) is true, then the proposition "No cats are black" (E) must be false.
Sub-contrary- I and E propositions are subcontrary. - Propositions are subcontrary when it is impossible for both to be false. - For Example, if the proposition "Some cats are black" (I) is true, then "Some cats are not black" is not true.
Subalternation- A and I, E and O propositions are Subalternation. - The subalternation relation exists between a proposition and the equivalent I proposition. - the falsity of an I or O assertion implies, respectively, the falsity of the corresponding A or E proposition. - For Example, if the proposition "All cats are black" (A) is true, then the propositions " Some cats are black" (I) is also true.

Therefore, from the above information B and E only is the correct option.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

Most of the people who appear most often and most gloriously in the history books are great conquerors, generals and soldiers, whereas the people who really helped civilization forward are often never mentioned at all. We do not know who first set a broken leg, or launched a seaworthy boat, or calculated the length of the year, or manured a field, but we all know all about the killers and destroyers. People think a great deal of them, so much so that on all the highest pillars in the great cities of the world you will find the figure of a conqueror or a general or a soldier. Most people believe that the greatest countries are those that have beaten in battle, the greatest number of other countries and ruled over them as conquerors. It is just possible they are, but they are not the most civilized. Animals fight; so do savages; hence to be good at fighting is to be good in the way in which an animal or a savage is good, but it is not to be civilized. Even being good at getting other people to fight for you and telling them how to do it most efficiently - this, after all, is what conquerors and generals have done - is not being civilized. People fight to settle quarrels. Fighting means killing and civilized people ought to be able to find some way of settling their disputes other than by seeing which side can kill off the greater number of the other side and then saying that, that side which has killed most has won. And not only has won, but because it has won, has been in the right. For that is what going to war means; it means saying that might is right.

44

In the author's opinion, the countries that ruled over a large number of other countries are:

  1. ((a))

    certainly not the greatest in any way

  2. ((b))

    neither the greatest nor the most civilized

  3. ((c))

    possibly the greatest in some sense but not the most civilized

  4. ((d))

    possibly the most civilized but not the greatest

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

possibly the greatest in some sense but not the most civilized

The correct answer is  'possibly the greatest in some sense but not the most civilized'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage:
  • Most people believe that the greatest countries are those that have been beaten in battle, the greatest number of other countries and ruled over them as conquerors.
  • It is just possible that they are neither the greatest nor the most civilized.
  • From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that in the author's opinion, the countries that ruled over a large number of other countries are neither the greatest nor the most civilized.

Thus, it is clear that option 3 is the correct answer.

45

In the first sentence, the author says that:

  1. ((a))

    Conquerors, generals and soldiers should not be mentioned in history

  2. ((b))

    History books tell us far more about conquerors and soldiers than about those who helped civilization forward

  3. ((c))

    Most history books were written by conquerors, generals and soldiers

  4. ((d))

    No one who really helped civilization forward is mentioned in any history book

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

History books tell us far more about conquerors and soldiers than about those who helped civilization forward

The correct answer is 'History books tell us far more about conquerors and soldiers than about those who helped civilization forward'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage :
  • Most of the people who appear most often and most gloriously in the history books are great conquerors, generals and soldiers, whereas the people who really helped civilization forward are often never mentioned at all.
  • From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that in the first sentence, the author says that History books tell us far more about conquerors and soldiers than about those who helped civilization forward.

Thus, it is clear that option 2 is the right answer.

46

"That is what going to war means; it means saying that might is right", The meaning of this sentence is that:

  1. ((a))

    in a war only those who are powerful will win

  2. ((b))

    only those who are powerful should go to war

  3. ((c))

    the winner is right and the loser wrong

  4. ((d))

    those who are right should fight against those who are wrong

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

the winner is right and the loser wrong

The correct answer is 'the winner is right and the loser wrong'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage:
  • Fighting means killing and civilized people ought to be able to find some way of settling their disputes other than by seeing which side can kill off the greater number of the other side and then saying that, that side which has killed most has won.
  • And not only has won but because it has won, has been in the right.
  • For that is what going to war means; it means saying that might is right.
  • From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that the sentence 'That is what going to war means; it means saying that might is right' conveys the meaning that the winner is right and the loser wrong.

Thus, it is clear that option 3 is the correct answer.

47

 On all the highest pillars in the great cities of the world, we find:

  1. ((a))

    a figure representing the number of conquerors, generals and soldiers in that country

  2. ((b))

    the figure of a person who helped civilization forward

  3. ((c))

    the figure of some conqueror or general or soldier

  4. ((d))

    the figure of the same conqueror or general or soldier

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

the figure of some conqueror or general or soldier

The correct answer is 'the figure of some conqueror or general or soldier'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage:
  • We do not know who first set a broken leg, or launched a seaworthy boat, or calculated the length of the year, or manured a field, but we all know all about the killers and destroyers.
  • People think a great deal of them, so much so that on all the highest pillars in the great cities of the world you will find the figure of a conqueror or a general or a soldier.
  • From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that on all the highest pillars in the great cities of the world , we find the figure of some conqueror or general or soldier.

Thus, it is clear that option 3 is the correct answer.

48

Most people believe that the greatest countries are:

  1. ((a))

    those that built the highest pillars

  2. ((b))

    those that defeated a few countries

  3. ((c))

    those that were beaten in battle by the greatest number of other countries

  4. ((d))

    those that won the greatest number of battles against other countries

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

those that won the greatest number of battles against other countries

The correct answer is 'those that won the greatest number of battles against other countries'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage :
  • Most people believe that the greatest countries are those that have been beaten in battle, the greatest number of other countries and ruled over them as conquerors.
  • From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that most people believe that the greatest countries are those that won the greatest number of battles against other countries.

Thus, it is clear that option 4 is the correct answer.

49

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.Central Institute of English and Foreign languagesI.Chitrakoot
B.Gramodaya Vishwa VidyalayaII.Hyderabad
C.Central Institute of Tibetan studiesIII.Bangalore
D.Indian Institute of ScienceIV.Dharamshala

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

  2. ((b))

    A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

  3. ((c))

    A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

  4. ((d))

    A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - II

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

Important Points 

InstituteInformation
Central Institute of English and Foreign languages- The English and Foreign Languages University, or EFLU, is a central university in Hyderabad, India, dedicated to English and foreign languages. - Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru inaugurated EFLU at Hyderabad in 1958. - it was renamed the Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages (CIEFL) in 1972. - By an act of Parliament in 2006, CIEFL was granted central university status and renamed English and Foreign Languages University (EFLU).
Gramodaya Vishwa Vidyalaya- Gramodaya Vishwa Vidyalaya is India's first rural state university. - Nanaji Deshmukh founded the university as Chitrakoot Gramodaya Vishwavidhayalay in 1991, located in Chitrakoot, MP. - In 1995, The name was changed to Mahatma Gandhi Gramodaya Vishwa Vidyalaya.
Central Institute of Tibetan studies- ​The Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies (CIHTS), originally known as the Central University for Tibetan Studies (CUTS), is a Deemed University in Sarnath, Varanasi, India. - it was established in 1967 as an autonomous body under the Union Ministry of Culture. - The goal of teaching Tibetan youths in exile and Himalayan border students, as well as retranslating and translating lost Indo-Buddhist Sanskrit writings
Indian Institute of Science- The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) is a public, deemed research university focused on science, engineering, design, and management instruction and research. - The IISc campus is located in the north of Bangalore. - The institute was established by Jamsetji Tata, in 1909. - In 1958, it was designated as deemed to be a university and it was designated as an Institute of Eminence in 2018.

Therefore, the correct answer is A - II, B - I, C - IV, and D - III.

50

A class conducted on Google Meet in which students and teachers are engaged in discussion in an instance of

  1. ((a))

    downward communication.

  2. ((b))

    group communication.

  3. ((c))

    intrapersonal communication.

  4. ((d))

    mass communication.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

group communication.

The correct answer is Group communication

Google Classroom is a free blended learning platform developed by Google for educational institutions that aim to simplify creating, distributing, and grading assignments

The primary purpose of Google Classroom is to streamline the process of sharing files between teachers and students

Key Points 

Group communication

  • It is the act of sending and receiving messages to multiple members of a group
  • Groups such as families, work teams, friendship circles, committees, and teams are some examples
  • Google Classroom allows the teachers to communicate with students via email hence it is not an example of group communication where students can interact with each other

Additional Information

Downward communication

  • It means communication that flows from a superior to a subordinate.
  • It follows the line of authority from the top to the bottom of the organization hierarchy.
  • Google Classroom allows the process of sharing files between teachers and students.

Intrapersonal communication

  • Intrapersonal communication is commonly referred to as self-talk because it includes only one individual.
  • It has a direct impact on how one perceives and reacts to situations

Mass communication

  • It can be defined as the process of creating, sending, receiving, and analyzing messages to large audiences via verbal and written media.
  • Google  classroom has certain limit of people that can associate hence it is not a type of mass communication

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