UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 29th Nov 2021 Shift 1 (Previous Year Paper)

Key Points 

Statement I: The brain continues to develop throughout childhood and adolescence.

• Studies have shown that brains continue to mature and develop throughout childhood and adolescence and well into early adulthood.
• Scientists have identified a specific region of the brain called the amygdala that is responsible for immediate reactions including fear and aggressive behavior. This region develops early.
• The frontal cortex, the area of the brain that controls reasoning and helps us think before we act, develops later. This part of the brain is still changing and maturing well into adulthood.
• Other changes in the brain during adolescence include a rapid increase in the connections between the brain cells and making the brain pathways more effective.
• Nerve cells develop myelin, an insulating layer that helps cells communicate. All these changes are essential for the development of coordinated thought, action, and behavior.

Hence Statement I is correct.

Statement II: The logical and goal-directed actions begin in the sensorimotor period.

Sensorimotor stage:

• As per the Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development Sensorimotor stage begins at Birth to 2 years

Within the sensorimotor stage, there are six sub-stages

1. Reflex acts. 

• This stage happens within the first month of an infant’s life when the reflexive acts of a baby first begin

2. Primary circular reactions.

• During this stage, children will discover pleasurable actions around their bodies.

3. Secondary circular reactions. 

• The baby’s development continues with actions that produce pleasure for the infant.
• secondary circular reactions or the repetition of an action involving an external object begin; for example, moving a switch to turn on a light repeatedly.
• This is perhaps one of the most important stages of a child's growth as it signifies the dawn of logic.

4. Coordinating secondary schemes.

• "Coordination of vision and touch—hand-eye coordination; coordination of schemas and intentionality".
• This stage is associated primarily with the development of logic and the coordination between means and ends.

5. Tertiary circular reactions. 

• Characterized by the advancement of pursuing goals, this stage sees children adapting their tactics to their surroundings.

6. Symbolic thought. 

• The last stage is the beginning of babies being able to visualize objects that they cannot see.

Hence Statement II is correct.

Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is both Statements I and Statement II are correct.

An honor degree refers to an undergraduate degree that has an additional level of study, which is designed at a higher standard than that of a general bachelor's degree. The degree is a demonstration of a higher level of achievement and education at the undergraduate level.

Key Points

As per the latest UGC guidelines, an undergraduate degree with Honors in a discipline may be awarded if a student completes

• 14 core papers in that discipline,
• 2 Ability Enhancement Compulsory Courses (AECC)
• Minimum 2 Skill Enhancement Courses (SEC) and
• 4 papers each from a list of Discipline Specific Elective and Generic Elective papers respectively.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, B, D, and E only

Additional Information

• Undergraduate degrees (B.A., B.Com, and B.Sc) are awarded on completion of 120 credits (20 per semester)
• With one credit equal to 30 – 40 learning hours.
• Graduate degrees are awarded on completion of 96 credits (24 per semester).

The correct answer is Indifference.

Key Points

Nonverbal communication

• It refers to the ways in which beings convey information about their emotions, needs, intentions, attitudes, and thoughts without the use of verbal language.
• It is the transfer of information through body language, facial expressions, gestures, created space, and more.
• For example
• Smiling when you meet someone conveys friendliness, acceptance, and openness.
• Raising the shoulders is a submissive gesture that implies some sort of apology. We shrug our shoulders when we want to communicate a message of indifference like, ‘Sorry, I can’t do anything about it, or ‘Sorry, I don’t know

Additional Information 

• When using open and honest body language, the honest person will tend to: Turn their body and point their feet toward another person. Lean forward with casual interest. Shift posture fluently without nervous tics.
• Triple head nods to show interest. Intimate eye gazing (from the eyes to the mouth to the body) leaning toward the other person. subtle mirroring.
• Responsible: Touch the tips of "bent hands" to the shoulder either once or twice.

A communication barrier is anything that prevents us from receiving and understanding the messages others use to convey their information, ideas, and thoughts.

Key Points

How to overcome these barriers of communication.

Setting the ground rules:

• Ground rules articulate a set of expected behaviors for communication between people.
• Ground rules, sometimes called group agreements, are a list of terms that participants agree to follow—and the facilitator agrees to uphold—during a conversation.
• For example, You may wish to include a time limit for comments in your ground rules

Emotional State: 

• During communication one should make effective use of body language.

Updating Technological systems helps in overcoming technological barriers to communications

• With emerging technology, there is new and improved software to ease business communication.
• However, organizations may be using an outdated system that lags, doesn’t allow more than a certain number of people to join a call, or maybe doesn’t have a video feature.

Use of Simple Language: 

• The use of simple and clear words should be emphasized. The use of ambiguous words and jargon should be avoided.

Reduction and elimination of noise levels: Noise is the main communication barrier that must be overcome on a priority basis. It is essential to identify the source of noise and then eliminate that source.

Active Listening: Active listening means hearing with the proper understanding of the message that is heard. 

Therefore the correct answer is to set ground rules

The correct answer is Interpersonal verbal communication.

Communication is the process of sending and receiving information.

Important Points

Interpersonal communication:

• It is an exchange of information between two or more people.
• It can be of two types verbal or non-verbal.

Interpersonal verbal communication

• ​It involves the transmission of orders, messages, or suggestions through spoken words between two or more people.
• Some forms of verbal communication are written and oral communication.
• Examples of Written Communication: Letters.

Interpersonal nonverbal communication

• ​It is the transmission of messages or signals through a nonverbal platform such as eye contact, facial expressions, gestures, posture, and body language between two or more people.
• It includes the use of social cues, kinesics, distance and physical environments/appearance, voice, and touch.

Additional Information

Intrapersonal communication: It is the process by which an individual communicates within themselves, acting as both sender and receiver of messages, and encompasses the use of unspoken words to consciously engage in self-talk and inner speech.

• It is of two types
• Intrapersonal verbal Communication and
• Intrapersonal non-verbal Communication

The correct answer is Instagram.

 Key Points

Traditional media :

• The non-electronic mediums which work as part of our culture and as vehicles for transmitting tradition from one generation to another generation are called traditional media for example storytelling, drama, and puppetry
• Traditional media refers to communication channels that have been used for decades.
• It also includes all outlets that existed before the internet, such as newspapers, magazines, TV, radio, and billboards.

New media

• It can best be described as digital channels that have gained popularity in the advertising space in the last decade
• New media is any media that are delivered digitally.
• For example Websites, Blogs, and emails. Mobile phones, Social media sites like Instagram, Facebook, and Whatsapp

Hence Instagram is an example of a form of New Media.

Key Points

Assertion A: In-classroom communication, Socratic questioning is one of the effective strategies to promote understanding.

Socratic questioning

• It was named after Socrates. He used an educational method that focused on discovering answers by asking questions from his students.
• The Socratic method is a teaching tactic in which questions are asked continually until either the student gives a wrong answer or reasoning or the teacher is satisfied with the student’s responses and develops critical thinking and a deep understanding of the topic among students.

Hence Assertion A is correct.

Reason R: Feedback through student evaluation of teachers enhances the quality of classroom communication.

Socratic Feedback

• Providing feedback means giving students an explanation of what they are doing correctly AND incorrectly, with the focus of the feedback on what the students are doing right.
• It is most productive to a student's learning when they are provided with an explanation as to what is accurate and inaccurate about their work.
• The Socratic method of questioning involves Socratic feedback.
• This technique in which the teacher professes ignorance of the topic in order to engage in dialogue with the students. With this “acting dumb,” the student develops the fullest possible knowledge about the topic.
• For example:
• Teacher: What is happening to our global climate?
• Stan: It’s getting warmer.
• Teacher: How do you know it’s getting warmer? What evidence do you have to support your answer?
• Stan: It’s in the news all of the time. They are always saying that it’s not as cold as it used to be. We have all of these record heat days.

Hence Reason R is correct.

Therefore we can conclude that the correct answer is Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Key Points

The research process involves the following steps:

1. Identification of the Problem

• It is the first and most important step for identifying a problem is asking a question or identifying a need that arises as a result of curiosity and to which it becomes necessary to find an answer.
• The research question determines the direction of the study

2. Review of Literature

• A body of prior work related to a research problem is referred to as literature.
• Scientific research includes a review of the relevant literature
• Literature reviews are essential for identifying what has been written on a subject or topic and  determining the extent to which a specific research area reveals any interpretable trends or patterns

3. Formulating a Hypothesis

• When the researcher has identified the problem and reviewed the relevant literature he formulates a hypotahesis
• The hypothesis may be defined as a tentative statement showing a relationship between variables understudy

4. Identifying, Manipulating, and Controlling Variables

• At least three types of variables must be recognized at the outset – the dependent variable, the independent variable, and the extraneous variable
• The dependent variable is one about which the prediction is made on the basis of the experiment
• The independent variable is that condition or characteristic which is manipulated or selected by the experimenter in order to find out its relationship to some observed phenomena.
• An extraneous variable is an uncontrolled variable that may affect the dependent variable

5. Formulating a Research Design

• It is the blueprint of those procedures which are adapted by the researcher for testing the relationship between the dependent variable and the independent variable
• It includes also the sampling strategy, the frame of analysis, and the time frame.

6. Constructing Devices for Observation and Measurement

• Depending on the nature of the research problem a researcher may choose a particular method (e.g. observation, experiment, case study, correlation, and survey).

7. Sample Selection and Data Collection

• After deciding on the tools for the study the researcher must also decide about the participants of the study for which purpose usually a small sample is drawn which represents the population. Then the actual study proceeds.

8. Data Analysis and Interpretation

• After making observations the data collected are analyzed with the help of various quantitative and qualitative statistical techniques.
• The purpose of the analysis is to make sense of the data and see what light they throw on the problem and the hypotheses of the study.

Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is formulating research problems.

The correct answer is the standard deviation.

A descriptive statistic (in the count noun sense) is a summary statistic that quantitatively describes or summarizes features from a collection of information. There are 3 main types of descriptive statistics:

• The distribution concerns the frequency of each value. e.g Simple frequency distribution table and Grouped frequency distribution table.
• The central tendency concerns the averages of the values. e.g mean, median, and mode.
• The variability or dispersion concerns how spread out the values are. e.g standard deviation.

Important Points

Standard deviation 

• It is a measure of the dispersion of data values from the mean.
• The larger the standard deviation, the more variable the data set is. Its formula is

Additional Information

Inferential statistics can be contrasted with descriptive statistics which infers the properties of a population. Following are examples of Inferential statistics.

• Regression analysis
• Formulating a regression analysis helps you predict the effects of the independent variable on the dependent one.
• For example, we can say that age and height can be described using a linear regression model. Since a person's height increases as his age increases, they have a linear relationship.
• T statics:
• A t-test is a type of inferential statistic used to determine if there is a significant difference between the means of two groups, which may be related to certain features
• Chi-square Test:
• It is one of the inferential statistics that is used to formulate and check the interdependence of two or more variables.
• It is a statistical test used to examine the differences between categorical variables from a random sample in order to judge goodness of fit between expected and observed results.

Given:

In statement1,

Rate = 8.55 % of S.I

Time = 12 years

Sum is doubled in 12 years.

In statement2,

Principal = 1000

Rate = 10 % per annum at compound interest

Time = 3years

Sum1000 becomes 1331 after 3 years at the rate10%in compound Interest.

Formula used:

In Simple Interest,

Amount = Principal + ( Principal × Rate × Time ) / 100

In Compound Interest,

Amount = Principal ×( 1 + Rate / 100 )^TIME

Calculation:

Statement 1 that sum is doubled after 12 years

Now, we find the amount.

Let the Principal = Rs.100

Rate = 8.55%

Time = 12years

Interest = 100 × 8.55 × 12 / 100

⇒102.60 

Amount = 100 + 102.60 = 202.60

Which is not equal to double of principal ( 2 × 100 = 200 )

Now, this statement is wrong.

In Statement 2 says that the sum of 1000 becomes 1331 after 3 years at the rate 10% compounded interest.

Principal =1000

Rate = 10 % compounded

Time = 3 years

Amount = 1331

Amount = Principal×(1 + Rate / 100)^Time

⇒1331 =1000× ( 1 + 10 / 100)³

⇒1331 =1331

L.H.S = R.H.S

Now, Statement 2 is true.

Hence, Option 4 is correct.

Given:

A. The sum of three consecutive multiples of 3 is 72. The largest number is 27.

B. A number when multiplied by 13 is increased by 180. The number is 13.

C. The average of first 20 multiples of 7 is 73.5.

Formula used:

Average = ( First term + Last term ) / 2

Calculation: 

Let the sum of three consecutive multiple of 3 is

( 3n ) + ( 3n + 3 ) + ( 3n + 6 ) = 72_____(i)

Largest no. = 27

( 3n + 6 ) = 27

3n = 27 - 6 = 21

n = 7

Put n=7 in (i)

( 3 ×7 ) + ( 3 × 7 + 3 ) + ( 3 × 7 + 6 ) = 21 + 24 + 27 = 72 (True)

Largest no. = 3 × 7 + 6 = 21 + 6 = 27 (True)

Now, the statement1 is true. 

Statement2 says that a number when multiplied by 13 is increased by 180. The number is 13.

Let the no. = x

According To Question, 

( 13 × x )= x + 180

13x - x = 180

12x = 180

x = 15

Now, the number is15.

But statement say the number is 13.

Now, the statement2 is wrong.

Statemen3 says that the average of first 20 multiples of 7 is 73.5.

The first 20 multiple of 7 is 7 + 14 + 21 + .......... 20terms

Here we find 20^th term of multiple of 7

We know nth term of A.P is Tn = T1 + (n-1) × d

Tn is nth term of AP

n is no. of terms 

d is common difference

Here, T1 = 7, d = 7, n = 20

T20 = 7 + ( 20 - 1 ) × 7

⇒7+19*7

⇒140

T20 = 140

Average = ( First term + Last term ) / 2

⇒( 7 + 140 ) / 2 = 73.5

Hence,Option3 is correct.

Key Points 

Therefore we conclude that the correct matching code is A-II, B - IV, C - I, D - III.

Key Points

Statement I: Sample sizes for qualitative research vary by technique but are generally small.

Qualitative research:

• The data are generally nonnumerical.
• Qualitative research can be used to understand how an individual subjectively perceives and gives meaning to their social reality.
• For example, a convenience store wanted to determine why women were not visiting the store so it can conduct an in-depth interview of potential customers in the category.
• Thus the goal of qualitative research is not to disprove a hypothesis, but we’re looking to understand the nature of a problem in detail.
• Qualitative research doesn’t try to make quantitative claims that generalize to the whole target audience.
• Hence the sample requirement for qualitative research is small.
• Techniques used for Qualitative research rely on data obtained by the researcher from first-hand observation, interviews, questionnaires, focus groups, participant-observation, recordings made in natural settings, documents, case studies, and artifacts

Hence statement I is correct.

Statement II: Qualitative research involves non-probability sampling.

Non-probability sampling techniques

• These are often used in exploratory and qualitative research.
• In these types of research, the aim is not to test a hypothesis about a broad population but to develop an initial understanding of a small or under-researched population
• The goal of qualitative research is not to disprove a hypothesis, but we’re looking to understand the nature of a problem in detail Hence non-probability sampling is utilized for Qualitative research

Hence statement II is correct.

Therefore we conclude that the correct answer is both Statements I and Statement II are true.

External validity concerns whether the results of the research can be generalized to another situation, different subjects, settings, times, and so on. 

Key PointsHow one may go wrong in making generalizations, is one of the major threats to external validity.

Usually, generalizations are limited when the cause (i.e. independent variable) is dependent upon other factors; as a result, all the threats to external validity interact with the independent variable.

1. Aptitude-Treatment-Interaction: The sample might have some features that may interact with the independent variable causing limited generalisability, for instance, conclusions drawn from comparative psychotherapy studies mostly use specific samples (for example; volunteers, highly depressed, hardcore criminals).
2. Situations: All the situational factors, for example, treatment conditions, light, noise, location, experimenter, timing, scope, degree of measurement, etc may limit generalizations.
3. Pre-Test Effects: When the cause-effect relationships can only be found after the pre-tests are carried out, then, this also tends to limit the generality of the findings.
4. Post-Test Effects: When cause-effect relationships can only be explored after the post-tests are carried out, then this can also be a cause for limiting the generalizations of the findings.
5. Rosenthal Effects: When derivations drawn from the cause-consequence relationships cannot be generalized to other investigators or researchers.

Hence sample characteristics, novelty/uniqueness of stimulus, and reactivity of the assessments are the source of threat to external validity.

 

Therefore A, B, and E only are correct options.

Key Points

Assertion A: Student's t-statistic is a robust statistic.

Student's t-test

• in statistics, a method of testing hypotheses about the mean of a small sample drawn from a normally distributed population when the population standard deviation is unknown.
• It is used to compare the means between two groups.
• The t-test is robust against non-normality.
• Robust statistics is statistics with good performance for data drawn from a wide range of probability distributions, especially for distributions that are not normal.
• The normal distribution is a probability distribution that is symmetric to the mean,
• If the sample sizes in the two groups being compared are equal, Student's original t-test is highly robust to the presence of unequal variances.

Hence Assumption A is correct

Reason R: A student's t-statistic can yield an accurate analysis of data, even if some of the assumptions of parametric statistics are violated.

Student's t-statistic:

• The common assumptions made when doing a t-test include those regarding the scale of measurement, random sampling, normality of data distribution, adequacy of sample size, and equality of variance in standard deviation.
• If the population from which data to be analyzed by a normality test was sampled violates one or more of the normality test assumptions, the results of the analysis may be incorrect or misleading.
• For example, if the assumption of mutual independence of the sampled values is violated, then the normality test results will not be reliable.
• If outliers are present, then the normality test may reject the null hypothesis even when the remainder of the data does in fact come from a normal distribution and can have may have a little practical effect on the analysis, yielding an accurate analysis of data
• Outliers are anomalous values in the data. They may be due to recording errors, which may be correctable, or they may be due to the sample not being entirely from the same population.

Hence Reason R is correct.

Therefore we conclude that Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Given: 

When a sum of money was distributed to 12 boys instead of 16 boys, each boy got ₹40 more.

Calculation:

Let the sum of money distributed one student  = x 

Total money distributed in16 students = 16x

According To Question, 

16x = 12 ( x + 40 )

Means that the distributed before the student and the distributed after in 12 student, the money per student increase by 40.

⇒16x = 12x + 480

⇒16x -12x = 480

⇒4x = 480

⇒x = 120 

Now,

The total money distributed in students=16x=16 × 120=1920 

Now, option 2 is correct.

Given: The ages of Lokendra and Dharmendra are in the ratio 6:5 and the sum of their ages is 44 years.

Calculation:

Let the age of Lokendra = x

Let the age of Dharmendra = y

Ratio = 6 : 5 ( Given )

\({x\over y}\) = \({6 \over 5}\)

x + y = 44 (Given)

⇒6 × p + 5 × p = 44

⇒11p = 44

p = 4

Now,

x = 6 × p = 6 × 4 = 24

y = 5 × p = 5 × 4 = 20 

Age after 4year,  x+4, y+4

⇒ 24+4, 20+4

⇒28, 24

Ratio after 4year is 28:24 = 7:6

Now, option 3 is correct.

Shortcut Trick Let the Ratio of Lokendra: Dharmendra = 6x : 5x

⇒ 6x + 5x = 44

⇒ 11x = 44

⇒ x = 4

Ratio after four years = (6 × 4) + 4 : (5 × 4) + 4

⇒ 28: 24

⇒ 7 : 6

∴ The Correct Answer is 7 : 6

Given:

In the series 9, 18, 36, _______

Formula used:

Tn = a × r^{( n - 1 )}

Calculation:

Here, a = 9

r = 18 / 9 = 2, 36 / 18 = 2 (where r be the ratio of terms.)

n = 12

Tn = 9 × ( 2 )^{( 12 - 1 )} = 9 × (2)¹¹ = 18432.

Now, the correct option is 4.

Key Points

Assertion A: Denotation cannot be used to define words that have an empty extension

Denotation:

• Denotation means the literal definition of a word.
• To give an example, the denotation for blue is the color blue. So if someone says The girl was blue it means the girl was looking blue color.
• There is also a problem with the denotation of terms as well.

For example, 

• if the term "a currently living dinosaur" or "the king of Mesopotamia" they were all once existing beings, however, they have long since perished from our present.
• These are terms known as empty extensions, and like the name implies these are words that denote a null class, meaning a group or class with no members.

That's why Denotation cannot be used to define words that have an empty extension

Hence Assertion A  is correct.​

Reason R: Although connotation determines denotation, denotation does not determine connotation

Connotation

• Connotation refers to a meaning that is implied by a word apart from the thing which it describes explicitly.
• In simple terms, a denotation means only a single meaning of a word used in some context. It is also called direct or explicit meanings. However, a connotation means a word has various meanings when it is used in a context.
• For example, That woman is a dove at heart.” – Here, the dove implies peace or gentility. not the actual dove as in the case of denotation.
• All words have a denotation and connotation.
• ​Connotation and denotation are not two separate things/signs. They are two aspects/ elements of a sign, and the connotative meanings of a word exist together with the denotative meanings].
• The denotation refers to the most basic or specific meaning of a word. In contrast, a connotation is an idea implied by the denotation word.

So we can say although connotation determines denotation, denotation does not determine connotation

​Hence Reason R  is correct but it is irrelevant to the Assertion A.

Therefore we conclude that Both A and Rare are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

The correct answer is Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle Term

Important Points 

 The fallacy of the undistributed middle term:

• It is a formal fallacy that is committed when the middle term in a categorical syllogism is not distributed in either the minor premise or the major premise.
• Let's take the given question
• All cats are animals.
• All dogs are animals.
• Therefore, all dogs are cats.
• The animal is the common term between the two premises (the middle term) but is never distributed, so this syllogism is invalid.
• "Animal" would be distributed by introducing a premise which states either All Animals are Cats, or Some Animal is Cats.

Additional Information

• The fallacy of four terms: It is the formal fallacy that occurs when a syllogism has four terms rather than the requisite three, rendering it invalid.
• The existential fallacy: It is a formal fallacy. In the existential fallacy, one presupposes that a class has members when one is not supposed to do so; i.e., when one should not assume existential import.
• The fallacy of exclusive premises: It is a syllogistic fallacy committed in a categorical syllogism that is invalid because both of its premises are negative.

Fallacies are mistaken beliefs based on unsound arguments. They derive from reasoning that is logically incorrect, thus undermining an argument's validity.

 Key PointsFallacies are difficult to classify, due to their variety in application and structure. In the broadest sense possible, fallacies can be divided into two types: formal (or deductive) fallacies and informal (or inductive) fallacies.

Important Points

The fallacy of Divisions - When exercising critical thinking, we frequently run upon claims that fall prey to the fallacy of division. This widespread error in logic involves attributing to an entire class the identical attribute that each individual member of the class possesses. In the example given below fallacy of division is committed.

"American Indians are disappearing.

That man is an American Indian.

Therefore, that man is disappearing."

Here fallacy committed is based on real things, ideas, or social groups. We frequently make incorrect claims by lumping parts of a whole together and believing that each component has a particular quality by default. This can be classified as a grammatical analogy error. It can be used for many of our arguments and assertions, including the discussion of religious ideas.

Therefore, the correct answer is Fallacy of Division.

Additional Information

• The fallacy of composition consists in treating a distributed characteristic as if it were a collective. It occurs when one makes the mistake of attributing to a group (or a whole) some characteristic that is true only of its individual members (or its parts), and then makes inferences based on that mistake.
• The fallacy of accident occurs when an uncharacteristic specific instance is claimed to logically follow from a generalization that does not properly apply to that instance.
• The fallacy of converse accident is an informal fallacy that can occur in a statistical syllogism when a rule that applies only to an exceptional case is wrongly applied to all cases in general.

The knowledge obtained from a language utterance is known as verbal knowledge (Sabdabodha)

Important PointsAnalysis Of A Sentence: A sentence is a combination of words with a mutual relationship among the concepts. Therefore, any collection of words doesn’t become a sentence. There are certain conditions that have to be fulfilled in order that it becomes a meaningful sentence. These conditions are

1. Akanksha (Expectancy): a word by itself may not convey the full meaning in a sentence. It needs other words in order to convey the meaning. This mutual expectancy of one word to another is known as akanksa.
2. Asatti or Sannidhi (juxtaposition): the meaning of words in a sentence can be understood only if they are co-uttered (sahoccarita). The co-utterance of words is known by the name of asatti or sannidhi.
3. Yogyata (fitness/concord of words): the words in a sentence should be mutually compatible. They should be fit enough to be combined together.
4. Tatparya (intention of the speaker): the knowledge of the speaker’s intention becomes more particularly necessary in the case of an equivocal expression and can be determinant with the help of various factors which determine the meaning of the words.

Therefore, the condition that there should be an absence of contradiction in the relation of the objects denoted in the combination of words, for the sentence to be significant is known as is Yogyata.

Key PointsStatement I: A vyapti between two terms of an equal extension called Samavyapti.

• Vyāpti may be of two kinds – samaVyāpti and asamaVyāpti or visamavyāpti.
• Vyāpti between two terms of equal extension is samavyāpti, e.g. ‘nameable’ and ‘knowable’. What is nameable is knowable, and vice versa.

Hence statement I is correct.

Statement II: The relation between fire and smoke is that of Samavyapti.

• Vyāpti implies a correlation between two facts, of which one is pervaded (vyāpti) and the other pervades (vāpaka). A fact is said to be pervaded by another, it is always accompanied by the other.
• To take the illustration of smoke and fire, smoke is pervaded or always accompanied by fire; and fire pervades or always accompanies smoke.
• The hetu or middle term is pervaded by the sādhya or a major term and the sādhya always pervades the hetu.
• Wherever there is smoke, there is fire. But wherever there fire, there may not be any smoke. There are cases of smokeless fire. e.g., a red hot iron. Vāpti is, thus, the pervasion of the hetu by the sadhya.
• Vyāpti between two terms of unequal extension is asamaVyāpti or visamavyāpti, its example is ‘smoke’ and ‘fire’.

Hence statement II is incorrect.

Therefore Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is an application-layer protocol for transmitting hypermedia documents, such as HTML. 

Important Points

• The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), which is used to load web pages via hypertext links, is the foundation of the World Wide Web.
• HTTP is an application layer protocol that runs on top of other layers of the network protocol stack to transfer data between networked devices. A typical HTTP flow starts with a client machine sending a request to a server, which then sends a response message.
• It was created to facilitate communication between web browsers and web servers, but it can be used for other purposes as well.
• HTTP follows the traditional client-server model, with a client opening a connection to make a request and then waiting for a response.
• HTTP is a stateless protocol, which means that the server stores no data (state) between requests.

Therefore, Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)  is fetching an HTML document from a web server.

Important Points

Statement I: It is a program code that can replicate itself with the intention of deleting files.

• Phishing is a type of cybercrime in which a target or targets are contacted via email, phone, or text message by someone impersonating a legitimate institution in order to trick individuals into providing sensitive data such as personally identifiable information, banking, and credit card information, and passwords.
• Phishing can also be a targeted attack on a specific person.
• This information is typically obtained by an attacker after gaining access to your personal data.
• If the email is of this nature, even the most cautious recipients are likely to become victims.
• Hence it is a program code that can replicate itself even without the intention of deleting files.

Therefore, the statement I is false.

Statement II: It can be filtered but at the Internet Service Provider's (ISP) level.

• Phishers use compromised machines to host phishing web pages and to send out phishing e-mails.
• IP address-based (source-based) filters created to detect spam are particularly poor at detecting phishing messages because phishing messages often originate from otherwise “good” hosts.
• ISPs should carefully evaluate the efficacy of their source-based blacklist solutions for recognizing and filtering phishing messages.
• Hence it can be filtered but at the Internet Service Provider's (ISP) level

Therefore, statement II is correct.

Thus, Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

An intranet is a private network that is used by a company. Its primary purpose is to assist employees in securely communicating with one another, storing information, and collaborating.

Important Points

An intranet is a private network of computers within a company that has its own server and firewall. Furthermore, we can define intranet as:

• An intranet is a system in which multiple PCs are networked and linked to one another.
• PCs on the intranet are not accessible to the outside world.
• Typically, each company or organization has its own intranet network, which members/employees of that company can access.
• Every computer on the internet is assigned a unique IP address.
• Each computer in an Intranet is also identified by a unique IP Address among the computers in that Intranet.
• They are more secure than the internet.
• In Intranet, it is possible to control external links.

Additional Information

• The Internet is a worldwide network of computer networks that allows people to share information and communicate with one another.
• An intranet, on the other hand, is a local or restricted network that allows people within a company to store, organize, and share information.
• An extranet is a web portal that an organization and its external vendors, partners, customers, or any other users who need access to restricted information can access.

Therefore, the correct answer is C and D only.

The World Wide Web is abbreviated as WWW and is colloquially referred to as the web. 

Important Points 

• The World Wide Web (WWW), also known as the Web, is the Internet's leading information retrieval service (the worldwide computer network).
• The Web provides users with access to a vast array of documents that are linked to one another via hypertext or hypermedia links—that is, hyperlinks, electronic connections that connect related pieces of information to allow a user easy access to them.
• The internet is a vast, global network of documents or web pages. Each page may include links to other pages located anywhere in the world.
• Browsers such as Internet Explorer, Netscape Navigator, Google Chrome, and others can be used to retrieve and view the pages. The browser retrieves the requested page, interprets the text and formatting commands, and displays the properly formatted page on the screen.

Additional Information

• The Web, as it is colloquially known, is frequently confused with the Internet.
• Although they are inextricably linked, they are not the same thing. As the name implies, the internet is a vast, global network comprised of numerous smaller networks.
• As such, the internet is made up of supporting infrastructure as well as other technologies. The Web, on the other hand, is a communications model that allows for the exchange of information over the internet via HTTP.

Therefore, we can conclude that www is a collection of multimedia web pages and other documents which are stored on websites.

 

 

Hence the correct match is  A-II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

A nuclear reaction is a process in which two nuclei, or a nucleus and an external subatomic particle, collide to produce one or more new nuclides. Thus, a nuclear reaction must cause a transformation of at least one nuclide to another.

Important Points

• Nuclear fission is a reaction where the nucleus of an atom splits into two or smaller nuclei while releasing energy.
• Fissile materials are materials that can undergo a fission reaction.
• They are the key component of nuclear weapons or other nuclear explosive devices.
• Those mostly used in nuclear weapons are highly enriched uranium (U-235 isotope of uranium) and plutonium (Pu-239 isotope of plutonium).
• Fission can separate an element's isotopes, which are known as fissile isotopes.
• Fissile elements are those whose isotopes are limited in number.
• Examples of fissile elements are U-235, Pu-239, and Th-232.
• About 0.72 percent of naturally occurring uranium is composed of the uranium isotope uranium-235 (also known as U-235 or 235U).
• It is fissile, which means that it may support a nuclear chain reaction, in contrast to the dominating isotope uranium-238. As a primordial nuclide, it is the sole fissile isotope found in nature.
• The half-life of uranium-235 is 703.8 million years.

Therefore,  U-235/U-235 is an isotope of Uranium. It is a fissile material and can be used for nuclear reactions.

.Precipitation that contains acidic elements is referred to as acid rain.

Important Points

• Acid rain, or acid deposition, is a broad term that includes any form of precipitation with acidic components, such as sulfuric or nitric acid that fall to the ground from the atmosphere in wet or dry forms.
• This can include rain, snow, fog, hail, or even dust that is acidic.
• On a pH scale, where 7.0 is considered neutral, acidity and alkalinity are assessed.
• A substance's pH scales from 0 to 7, with 0 being the most alkaline and greater than 7 being the most acidic.
• Since carbon dioxide (CO2) dissolves in rain, generating weak carbonic acid, normal rain has a pH of about 5.6, making it somewhat acidic.
• The pH of acid rain typically ranges from 4.2 to 4.4.

Hence rain is termed acid rain when its pH value is less than 5.6.

In May 1958, the government established the National Committee for Women's Education.

 Key Points

• The National Council of India works to improve the condition of women all over India, emphasizing women's education and socio-economic empowerment.
• Chaired by Durgabai Deshmukh the National Council of Women was established in 1958.
• The organization is set up to ensure the equal rights of women in society.
• The Committee advised that the establishment of educational equity between boys' and girls' educations be given first attention.
• It states that co-education should continue through middle school.
• There should be distinct institutions for girls in high school, where a more rounded curriculum suited to girls should be introduced.
• The Committee also made notice of creches, school moms, adult women's career opportunities, and the training of female instructors.
• Additionally, it recommended creating scholarships for women

Hence Dr. Durga bai Deshmukh chaired the first committee constituted by the Government of India on Women's education after independence.

The correct answer is 'based on observation and capable of being verified.'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​   

"With the advent of the Age of Reason in the 18^th century and scientific advances in the 19^th century, however, the quest for deeper knowledge could be satisfied by digging for empirical evidence and putting it to empirical test."

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about the quest for deeper knowledge that increased with the advent of the age of reason.
• He suggested that the quest for deeper knowledge could be satisfied by digging for empirical evidence and putting it to the empirical test.
• Empirical evidence is required in scientific methods that are based on observation.

Hence, the meaning of 'empirical evidence is based on observation and is capable of being verified.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Folk knowledge and scriptures.'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​   

"Throughout history, people have turned to mythology, folklore, and religion for explanations of life's origins, and to this day, there are many who firmly believe what has been written in religious books and passed down from generation to generation."

• In the given statement, the author is speaking about the explanations of life's origins and the quest for deeper knowledge that increased with the advent of the age of reason.
• He suggested that the initial people believed in mythology, folklore, and religion for explanations of life's origins.
• Hence, according to the author, the initial sources of information for understanding the beginning of life are folk knowledge and scriptures.

Thus, option 2 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Origin and mechanics of life'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​   

"With each groundbreaking discovery, molecular biologists were able to form an even clearer picture of the mechanics of life. To crack the code of life, prominent scientists proposed compiling a comprehensive genetic map of a human being."

• In the given passage, the author began with the explanations of life's origins and the quest for deeper knowledge that increased with the advent of the age of reason.
• Later in the passage, he highlighted groundbreaking discoveries that changed the perspective of looking at the origin and mechanics of life.

Hence, the theme of this passage is the origin and mechanics of life.

Thus, option 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Gregor Mendel and Charles Darwin'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​   

"In 1865, Gregor Mendel, an Austrian monk who had been experimenting for eight years with garden peas, announced to the scientific community that specific characteristics, or traits, were transmitted from parent to offspring in an organized and predictable manner. Along with Charles Darwin's Theory of Natural Selection and evolution, as stated in his 1859 publication, 'On the Origin of Species."

• In the given passage, the author has described the initial works of Mendel and Darwin that support the science of genetics.
• Later in the passage, he highlighted groundbreaking discoveries that changed the perspective of looking at the origin and mechanics of life.

Hence, Gregor Mendel and Charles Darwin's scientific contributions inaugurated the science of genetics.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is 'Evidence-based discoveries'

Key Points

Let's look at the excerpt from the passage: ​   

"In 1865, Gregor Mendel, an Austrian monk who had been experimenting for eight years with garden peas, announced to the scientific community that specific characteristics, or traits, were transmitted from parent to offspring in an organized and predictable manner. Along with Charles Darwin's Theory of Natural Selection and evolution, as stated in his 1859 publication, 'On the Origin of Species."

• In the given passage, the author has described the initial works of Mendel and Darwin.
• Later in the passage, he highlighted groundbreaking discoveries that changed the perspective of looking at the origin and mechanics of life.

Hence, evidence-based discoveries helped molecular biologists to form a clearer picture of the mechanisms of life.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

Hence A - III, B - I , C - IV, D - II is the correct match.

Key PointsStatement I: "The improvement of Secondary Education was an essential foundation for the improvement of Secondary Education", was the view held by the Calcutta University Commission.

• Under the Chairmanship of Dr Michael Saddler, the Vice Chancellor of the Leeds University, the Calcutta University Commission was set up in 1917. The Commission was also known as the Saddler Commission.
• Although the Commission was mainly appointed to examine the problems of the Calcutta University, it found that the problems were very much related to the problems of other Indian Universities.
• Thus it provided recommendations which were of great value to the higher education system in India as a whole.
• The Hartog Committee proposed various recommendations on primary education, secondary education and Higher education.

Hence statement I in incorrect.

Statement II: The Calcutta University Commission recommended the use of mother tongue in the intermediate colleges for teaching all the subjects.

• The Commission recommended for the establishment of secondary and intermediate boards in each province.
• It, moreover, advocated separation of intermediate courses from the university education and made important recommendation regarding the restructuring of secondary schools.
• The recommendations in respect to the introduction of technological, professional and vocational courses contributed a lot to the subsequent educational developments in the country.
• Hence the Calcutta University Commission did not recommend the use of mother tongue in the intermediate colleges for teaching all the subjects.

 Therefore statement II is incorrect.

Hence both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Important Points

Hence the correct match is A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

Sewage sludge is the residual, semi-solid material that is produced as a by-product during sewage treatment of industrial or municipal wastewater.

Key PointsSludge dewatering is the procedure used to reduce the waste volume in order to get it ready for disposal.

Before wastewater can be discharged back into the environment, it must first be treated, which is when sludge is created.

Dewatering of sewage sludge can be achieved by

Gravity thickening: This process involves the concentration of thin sludges to more dense sludge in special circular tanks designed for this purpose. Its use is largely restricted to the watery excess sludge from the activated sludge process.

Mechanical Dewatering: To separate sludge (fecal sludge from on-site sanitation or residual sludge from wastewater treatment facilities) into a liquid and a solid part, mechanical dewatering is typically connected with major wastewater treatment plants.

Flotation is known as a separation process, based on the introduction of gas bubbles as the transport medium. Suspended particulate matter, being hydrophobic or conditioned to be so, is then attached to the bubbles and moves toward the water solution surface—i.e., contrary to the direction of gravity

Therefore,the dewatering of sewage sludge can be achieved by gravity thickening, mechanical stirring, and floatation.

Thus A, B, and D are the correct options.

Additional Information

• Screening is the first unit operation used at wastewater treatment plants (WWTPs). Screening removes objects such as rags, paper, plastics, and metals to prevent damage and clogging of downstream equipment, piping, and appurtenances.
• Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from a solution with a high concentration of water molecules to a solution with a lower concentration of water molecules, through a cell's partially permeable membrane.

In situ bioremediation is the application of a biological treatment to clean up hazardous compounds present in the environment.

Key PointsAssertion A: The in-situ passive soil remediation process is the easiest to implement and the least expensive.

• In-situ passive soil remediation is a straightforward procedure that merely entails injecting nutrients that stimulate microbes into subsurface soil.
• Compared to excavation and removal, it is a cheap option.
• It is a technique that can be used even in soil that is difficult to excavate, such as dirt that is directly beneath buildings or at active industry sites.
• There is no need to remove or transfer polluted soil, making it a method with minimum environmental impact.
• Hence the in-situ passive soil remediation process is the easiest to implement and the least expensive.

Therefore, assertion (A) is correct. 

Reason R: It relies upon several natural processes to destroy the contaminants

• By igniting soil-based microorganisms, the in-situ remediation approach eliminates and purifies pollutants naturally.
• The soil directly beneath buildings, as well as active industry sites, can be studied using this technique.
• Hazardous compounds that are present in soil and groundwater can be broken down and purified via in-situ remediation.
• Thus it relies upon several natural processes to destroy the contaminants.

​Therefore reason is also correct.

We can conclude that both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Disruptive technology is one that displaces an established technology and shakes up the industry or a ground-breaking product that creates a completely new industry.

Key Points 

• As new technologies emerge creative people in every industry can imagine new applications.
• In the education field, tech-savvy teachers embrace these innovations in the classroom and online.
• Many of these new resources are changing the traditional understanding of education.
• Disruptive education is anything that aims to deviate from the accepted model in order to enhance it.

The Top 5 Disruptive Education Technologies are 

• Online Learning
• This style of learning has several advantages over in-class lecture formats. Well-designed online platforms acknowledge that students learn differently.
• They can incorporate multimedia presentations and gamified lessons. The online format also recognizes that students learn at different paces.
• Chat-Based Collaboration
• One of the disadvantages of an online education format is the lack of peer interaction.
• Chat-based forums allow for collaboration at a distance.
• AI-Guided Learning
• By incorporating artificial intelligence into e-learning software, the program can track student progress.
• Students will not have to spend extra time on concepts that they understand quickly.
• Virtual and Augmented Reality
• VR and AR technologies are just beginning to make their way into education. However, these technologies will be critical in providing lessons and training scenarios for students.

Thus disruptive technologies in education mean new technologies that completely change the way things are done in education.

The new National Educational Policy 2020 introduced on 29 July 2020, solicits to introduce and implement a sea of changes across all levels of education in India, including the basic apprehension of education in the country.

 Key Points

• The policy, amongst others, aims to address pedagogical issues, structural inequities, broadening of access apart from making the learners future-ready while meeting the demands of a 21^st century India.
• Simultaneously, the NEP has the most challenging task of addressing multiple crises in the education system.
• The policy is based on the pillars of “access, equity, quality, affordability, accountability” and will transform India into a “vibrant knowledge hub”, soon after it was unveiled.

Important PointsMajor challenges before the Higher Education Sector

• Large affiliating universities: India today has around 1,000 universities across the country. Doubling the Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education by 2035 which is one of the stated goals of the policy will mean that we must open one new university every week, for the next 15 years. Opening one University every week on an ongoing basis is an undeniably massive challenge.
• Ineffective regulatory system: Changing the regulatory architecture of higher education appears to be proving more challenging than one would have thought and expected.
• Limited teacher and institutional autonomy

Hence A, B and C only are correct options.

Additional InformationThe other challenges faced by the Indian Higher Education System are:

• Fragmented higher educational ecosystem
• Neglect of cognitive skills learning
• Extreme separation of disciplines
• Limited and poor access to higher education in socio-economically disadvantaged areas especially due to the paucity of HEIs (Higher Education Institutions) teaching in local languages.
• Less focus on research
• Lack of peer-reviewed research funding across disciplines
• Substandard leadership and governance
• Ineffective regulatory system
• Low standard of undergraduate education particularly due to large affiliating universities

The correct answer is mooKIT.

Massive Open Online Courses (MOOCs) are free online courses available for anyone to enroll in. 

Important Points

mooKIT

• It is an open-source MOOC Management software designed and developed at IIT Kanpur.
• It was started in 2012 with a course on Software Architecture for the Cloud.
• mooKIT was seeded by initial funding from TEQIP IITK.

Additional Information

• SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active–Learning for Young Aspiring Minds)
• It is a program initiated by the Government of India and designed to achieve the three cardinal principles of Education Policy viz., access, equity, and quality
• SWAYAM is India's national MOOC platform.
• SWAYAM platform is developed by the Ministry of Education (MoE) and NPTEL, IIT Madras.
• Coursera Inc.
• It is a U.S.-based massive open online course provider founded in 2012 by Stanford University computer science professors Andrew Ng and Daphne Koller.

Given:

The data is given.

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time 

Calculation:

 

∴ The maximum time taken by 1004 to reach the destination.

Given:

The data is given.

Formula Used:

Vacant Seats = Total Seats - Reserved Seats

Calculation:

 

∴ The train 1005 has minimum number of vacant seats.

Given:

The data is given.

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all values) / (Total number of values)

Calculation:

 

Average = \(\frac{280 + 320 + 300 + 360 + 260}{5}\) = \(\frac{1520}{5}\) = 304

∴ The average number of vacant seats in all trains are 304.

Given:

The data is given.

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Time Difference = Maximum Time - Minimum Time 

Calculation:

 

Time difference = Maximum Time - Minimum Time

Time difference = 9.61 - 6.75 

Time difference = 2.86

∴ The time difference between is 2.86

A carefully constructed test where the scoring, administration, and interpretation of results follow a uniform process can be termed a standardized test.

Key PointsFollowing is the steps that can be followed to construct a standardized test:

1. Plan for the test. – There needs to be systematic planning in order to formulate a standardized test. Its objectives should be carefully defined. A teacher needs to specify the course or unit content.
2. Preparation of the test. This requires a lot of creativity and is dependent on imagination, expertise, and knowledge. A teacher lists the major course or unit objectives.
3. Trial run of the test. It provides an indication of the effectiveness of the test when the intended sample is subjected to it. A teacher discards unrealistic objectives.
4. Checking the Reliability and Validity of the test. When the test is finally composed, the final test is again administered on a fresh sample in order to compute the reliability coefficient. Validity refers to what the test measures and how well it measures. A teacher or a test constructor prepares a table of specifications.
5. Norms of the final test – The test constructor also prepares the norms of the test. Norms are defined as average performance scores. They are prepared to meaningfully interpret the scores obtained on the test. A test constructor prepares test items that match the instructional objectives.

Hence D, B, E, C, and A is the correct sequence.

Additional InformationPreparation of manual and reproduction of the test: The manual is prepared as the last step and the psychometric properties of the test norms and references are reported. It provides in detail the process to administer the test, its duration, and the scoring technique. It also contains all instructions for the test.

Given:

The data is given.

Formula Used:

Cost = Fair / Distance

Calculation:

 

∴ The train 1003 has minimum per km cost.