Official Paper

UGC NET Paper 1: Held on 28th Nov 2021 Shift 2 (Previous Year Paper)

50 questions · 60 minutes · with answers · free

Paper 1 (50 questions)

1

Given below are two statements

Statement I: An operating system controls peripherals, and allocates memory and processor time.

Statement II: An operating system provides Internet access.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

An Operating System (OS) is an interface between a computer user and computer hardware

Key PointsStatement I: An operating system controls peripherals, and allocates memory and processor time.

  • Operating System 
  • The main task an operating system carries out is the allocation of resources and services, such as the allocation of memory, devices, processors, and information.
  • The operating system also includes programs to manage these resources, such as a traffic controller, a scheduler, a memory management module, I/O programs, and a file system.
  • The purpose of an operating system is to provide an environment in which a user can execute programs in a convenient and efficient manner.
  • it manages the allocation of computer hardware.

Hence Statement I  is correct.

Statement II: An operating system provides Internet access.

  • An operating system does not provide internet access.
  • Note that it should not be confused with a web operating system.
  • A Web Operating System is an internet-based user interface that allows people to access applications not stored on their computers but completely or partly on the Internet.
  • It is a dummy operating system that does not directly interact with computer hardware and depends on the traditional operating system to work.

Hence statements II  is incorrect.

Therefore the correct answer is Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

2

Which of the following is the appropriate GUI (Graphical User Interface) component used to select one from multiple alternatives?

  1. ((a))

    Scroll bar

  2. ((b))

    Push button

  3. ((c))

    Progress bar

  4. ((d))

    Radio button

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Radio button

GUI or Graphical User Interface refers to an interface that allows one to interact with electronic devices like computers and tablets through graphic elements. It uses icons, menus, and other graphical representations to display information, as opposed to text-based commands.

Important Points

Radio button

  • Its main purpose is to allow the user to select a single option from a group of options from a predefined list of options.
  • Radio buttons are often arranged in a group of at least two options.
  • Radio buttons are so named because of their similarity to the circular buttons in old electronic devices, specifically car radios with multiple physical buttons. Still, the user could only press one at a time.
  • Radio buttons are commonly used in forms or dialogue boxes where users need to make a single choice from a set of mutually exclusive options. For example, when selecting a gender (male or female) or choosing a payment method (credit card, PayPal, etc.), radio buttons provide a clear and intuitive way for users to indicate their preferences.

Additional Information.

  • Scrollbar
  • It is an interaction technique or widget in which continuous text, pictures, or any other content can be scrolled in a predetermined direction (up, down, left, or right) on a computer display, window, or viewport so that all of the content can be viewed, even if only a fraction of the content can be seen on a device's screen at one time.
  • It offers a solution to the problem of navigation to a known or unknown location within a two-dimensional information space
  • Progress bar
  • It tells the current status of the activity or task.
  • The progress bar makes users feel that something is happening in response to their click and they need to wait.
  • The PushButton 
  • This object displays a button with text or an image, which calls a function when pressed. ​

Hence radio button is the GUI (Graphical User Interface) component used to select one from multiple alternatives.

3

Given below are two statements

Statement I: Nitrification results in an increase in effluent ammonia toxicity

Statement II: Denitrification reduces nitrate to nitrogen gas using bacteria

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

​Nitrification is the process by which nitrifying bacteria convert ammonia to nitrite and eventually to nitrate.

Key PointsStatement I: Nitrification results in an increase in effluent ammonia toxicity.

  • Nitrification is the conversion of ammonia to nitrites (NO2-) and ultimately to nitrates (NO3-)
  • Nitrification is the process by which nitrifying bacteria convert ammonia to nitrite and eventually to nitrate.
  • Chemoautotrophic bacteria carry out the process, which is an aerobic process.
  • Ammonia is the primary substrate in the nitrification process.

Thus, Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: Denitrification reduces nitrate to nitrogen gas using bacteria.

  • Denitrification is the process of converting nitrate to nitrogen in the soil.
  • Bacteria such as Pseudomonas, Clostridium, and others carry out this activity.
  • Changes in the oxygen (O2) concentration in their immediate environment cause denitrification.

So. Statement II is correct. 

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Additional Information

  • Some examples of denitrifying bacteria are- Pseudomonas, Thiobacillus denitrificans, Serratia, Achromobacter, and Micrococcus denitrificans.
  • Soil matrix, water status, aeration, temperature, and pH are among the many elements that influence nitrification
4

Which one among the following diseases is NOT caused due to exposure to ultra‐violet radiation?

  1. ((a))

    Bronchitis

  2. ((b))

    Melanoma

  3. ((c))

    Ocular damage

  4. ((d))

    Erythema

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Bronchitis

The UV radiation spectrum is divided into three regions called UVA, UVB, and UVC. As sunlight passes through the atmosphere, all UVC and most UVB is absorbed by ozone, water vapor, oxygen, and carbon dioxide. UVA is not filtered as significantly by the atmosphere and is the most damaging to the skin and other body parts.

Important Points

Bronchitis

  • It is a condition in which the airways in the lungs, called bronchial tubes, become inflamed and cause coughing, often with mucus.
  • Bronchitis can be acute (short-term) or chronic (long-term).
  • it can be caused by viruses and cigarette smoking. Air pollution and dust or toxic gases in the environment.

Additional Information

Following are the effects of UV exposure

  • Melanoma,
  • It is a type of skin cancer that develops from the pigment-producing cells known as melanocytes.
  • The primary cause of melanoma is ultraviolet light (UV) exposure in those with low levels of the skin pigment melanin
  • Ocular Damage:
  • UV light is damaging to almost ALL ocular structures including the eyelid.
  • The front surface of the eye absorbs 99 percent of the UV radiation.
  • On the surface of the eye, this UV damage predisposes to cancerous growths, Corneal damage, cataracts, and macular degeneration are all possible chronic effects of UV exposure and can ultimately lead to decreased vision.
  • Erythema :
  • Acute exposure to ultraviolet (UV)-B light elicits an inflammatory response in the skin, resulting in erythema (reddening) and increased skin blood flow over the following 24 hours.
5

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Class of water pollutantsExample/Explanation
A.Disease‐causing agentsI.Organic wastes decomposed by aerobic bacteria
B.Oxygen depleting wastesII.Acids, salts, compounds of toxic metals
C.Inorganic plant nutrientsIII.Bacteria, protozoa, worms etc.
D.Water‐soluble inorganic chemicalsIV.Water‐soluble nitrates and phosphate cause excessive growth of algae etc

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A ‐ I, B ‐ IV, C ‐ II, D ‐ III

  2. ((b))

    A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ I, D ‐ IV

  3. ((c))

    A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II

  4. ((d))

    A ‐ IV, B ‐ II, C ‐ III, D ‐ I

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A ‐ III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ II

Water pollution is defined as the release of pollutants into underground groundwater or lakes, streams, rivers, and seas.

 Key Points

Class of water pollutantsExample/Explanation
Disease‐causing agents- Infectious diseases can be damaging to the host, and they can even be fatal. - Viruses, bacteria, fungus, protozoa, and helminths(worms) are disease-causing agents.
Oxygen depleting wastes- Organic waste that depletes oxygen can be digested by aerobic microorganisms. - To break down these pollutants, large populations of bacteria use the oxygen present in the water. - Examples of biological oxygen wastes demand include leaves and woody debris; dead plants and animals; animal manure etc.
Inorganic plant nutrients- Phosphorus (P) and nitrogen (N) are the two principal nutrients that poison our lakes, streams, and wetlands in large quantities. - Algae grow faster than ecosystems can tolerate when there is too much nitrogen and phosphorus in the water. - Significant increases in algae have a negative impact on water quality, food resources, and habitats, as well as reducing the oxygen available to fish and other aquatic life.
Water‐soluble inorganic chemicals- Arsenic, fluoride, iron, nitrate, salt, heavy metals, and other inorganic pollutants of the water. - their presence at higher than acceptable levels reduces water potability for living organisms.

Therefore, A-III, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, and D ‐ II is the correct option. 

Additional Information

  • Eutrophication occurs when the water has an excess of nutrients, primarily nitrogen and phosphate.
  • Algae eat the nutrients in the water, developing, spreading, and making it green
6

Arrange the following optical storage devices in decreasing order of their storage capacity

A. DVD

B. CD‐ROM

C. Blu‐Ray

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    C, B, A

  2. ((b))

    C, A, B

  3. ((c))

    B, C, A

  4. ((d))

    A, C, B

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

C, A, B

Computer memory is any physical device, used to store data, information, or instruction temporarily or permanently. It is the collection of storage units that stores binary information in the form of bits.

DVD, CD-Rom, And Bluray are types of secondary memory or are permanent storage spaces to hold a large amount of data.

Key Points

  • Blu Ray
  • It is an Optical disc storage device used to store a large amount of data or high definition of video recording and playing other media files.
  • It uses laser technology to read the stored data of the Blu-ray Disk. It can store more data at a greater density as compared to CD/ DVD.
  • A sony Bluray disc can have up to 50GB of storage capacity
  • DVD
  • It is an optical disc storage device
  • It stands for Digital Video Display or Digital Versatile Disc.
  • It has the same size as a CD but can store a larger amount of data than a compact disc.
  • The storing capacity of data in DVD varies from 4.7 GB to 17 GB
  • CD-ROM (Compact Disc Read-Only Memory): 
  • It is mainly used for bulk size mass like audio CDs, software, and computer games at the time of manufacture
  • A CD-ROM holds a maximum of 650MB or 700MB of data

Therefore Blu-ray has the maximum storage capacity followed by the DVD, and then CD-ROM. Hence the correct answer is C, A, B

7

Flotation is a unit operation, used in wastewater treatment to

A. Remove the lighter suspended solids

B. Concentrate biological sludge

C. Remove oil and grease

D. Remove the temporary hardness of the water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and C only

  2. ((b))

    B, C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and D only

  4. ((d))

    A, B, C and D

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

A, B and C only

Wastewater treatment is the process of removing impurities from wastewater and converting it into an effluent that may be recycled back into the water cycle.

Key Points

  • Flotation is a separation method that employs the use of gas bubbles as a transport medium.
  • The air is removed by dissolving it under pressure in the water or wastewater and then releasing it at atmospheric pressure in a flotation tank basin.
  • Flotation in wastewater treatment can be used for the following purpose: 
  • For the fast removal of tetracycline antibiotics from water
  • removal of microplastics
  • the removal of pollutants from sewage and rainwater, via flotation
  • Bacteria, fungus, yeasts, activated sludge, and grape stalks are among the biological elements
  • Dissolved air flotation systems can remove fats, oils, and grease

Thus, A, B, and C are correct answers. 

Additional Information

  • Stages of the wastewater treatment process are primary, secondary, and tertiary water treatment.
  • Sedimentation is the process of removing very small or light particles that have settled slowly and fully.
8

The country which has the highest number of higher education institutions is:

  1. ((a))

    India

  2. ((b))

    China 

  3. ((c))

    USA 

  4. ((d))

    Russia

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

India

The higher education establishments are universities, specialized higher education schools, and independent colleges.

Key Points

  • India has the most number of universities in the world.
  • According to data from July 2021, India had a total of 5,288 universities.
  • According to the MOE, there are 52,627 colleges operating under these universities, including government degree colleges, private colleges, freestanding institutes, and post-graduate research institutions.
  • India have over 1000 universities by 2020, with 54 central universities, 416 state universities, 125 deemed universities, 361 private universities, and 159 Institutes of National Importance, such as AIIMS, IIMs, IIITs, IISERs, IITs, and NITs.

Thus, India has the highest number of higher education institutions among all other nations. 

Additional Information

  • With 3,216 institutions, the United States came in second, followed by Indonesia with 2,595 universities.
  • With a total of 50 universities, Rajasthan has the most general universities in the country.
  • The University Grants Commission is the major regulating organization at the tertiary level.
9

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Ozone depleting substanceName
A.C3HF7I.HCFC
B.C2FH3Cl2II.Halons
C.C2F4Cl2III.HFC
D.CF3BrIV.CFC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) ‐ (I), (B) ‐ (III), (C) ‐ (II), (D) ‐ (IV)

  2. ((b))

    (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (I), (C) ‐ (IV), (D) ‐ (II)

  3. ((c))

    (A) ‐ (II), (B) ‐ (IV), (C) ‐ (III), (D) ‐ (I)

  4. ((d))

    (A) ‐ (IV), (B) ‐ (II), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (III)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (I), (C) ‐ (IV), (D) ‐ (II)

The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer regulates the production and import of certain substances.

Key Points

CFCs, HCFCs, halons, methyl bromide, carbon tetrachloride, hydrobromofluorocarbons, chlorobromomethane, and methyl chloroform are examples of ODS.

Ozone-depleting substanceDescription
C3HF7- C3HF7 is known as heptafluoropropane. - Hydrofluorocarbon (HFC) is an organic compound made up of hydrogen, fluorine, and carbon. - Despite the fact that HFCs have no ozone depletion potential but they are powerful greenhouse gases
C2FH3Cl2- C2FH3Cl2 is the chemical formula of the HCFC-141b compound. - Hydrochlorofluorocarbons, or HCFCs, are CFCs that also contain hydrogen in place of one or more chlorines. - HFC emissions induce stratospheric warming, hastening the chemical reactions that destroy ozone molecules.
C2F4Cl2- Dichlorotetrafluoroethane (CFC-114) was employed as a propellant for aerosols, a refrigerant, a solvent, a fire extinguisher, a blowing agent, and a dielectric fluid. - It's a chlorofluorocarbon that depletes the ozone layer. - Narcosis, asphyxia, and cardiac sensitization are some of the side effects. The main sources have a limited amount of human data.
CF3Br- Bromotrifluoromethane has a high ozone-depleting potential (ODP) and is thus classified as an ozone-depleting chemical. - It is commonly known as Halon 1301. - It is used for gaseous fire suppression.

Therefore, (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (I), (C) ‐ (IV), (D) ‐ (II) is the correct match.

10

Arrange the following in chronological order of their occurrence

A. Hartog Commission

B. Sadler Commission

C. Macaulay's Minutes

D. Sargent plan

E. Wood's Despatch

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    C, E, A, B, D

  2. ((b))

    C, E, B, A, D

  3. ((c))

    C, E, B, D, A

  4. ((d))

    C, B, E, A, D

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

C, E, B, A, D

Various acts were enacted in India during the British administration to promote education and development.

Key Points

CommissionFacts
Macaulay's Minutes- The 'Minute on Indian Education,' presented by Thomas Babington Macaulay, aimed at establishing the need for Indian 'natives' to get an English education. - The famous Lord Macaulay's Minute settled the dispute in favor of Anglicists by directing limited government resources only to the education of Western sciences and literature in English. - On February 2, 1835, British politician Thomas Babington Macaulay published Minute on Education.
Wood's Despatch- In 1854 Wood's Dispatch was established for the improvement of education in India. - In India, Wood's Dispatch is regarded as the "Magna Carta of Education." - The goal of education was declared to be the dissemination of European arts, science, philosophy, and literature through the medium of English.
Sadler Commission- The awareness of the necessity to improve secondary education in order to improve university education. - The Sadler Commission was established in 1917. - Commission proposed that intermediate classes be attached to high schools and that a Board of Education is established to oversee the high school and intermediate education.
Hartog Commission- In 1929, the Hartog Committee was tasked with reviewing the state of education in the country. - The Committee proposed that a high number of pupils planning to pursue a specific career stop in middle school and that schools offer more diversified curricula. - The Committee also looked into issues such as teacher training and secondary school teachers' working circumstances.
Sargent plan- In 1944, the Central Advisory Board of Education produced the Sargent Plan, a detailed report on educational improvement following World War II. - It envisioned a system of education that included pre-primary education for children aged 3 to 6 years old. - The research also suggested that at the Middle School level, options for a choice of courses be made available.

Therefore, C⇒ E⇒ B⇒ A⇒D is the correct sequence.

11

Which of the following are NOT statutory bodies?

A. NAAC

B. NMC

C. NCERT

D. AICTE

E. NCTE

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A and C only

  4. ((d))

    D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A and C only

Organizations and bodies defined by a formal law or a statute are called statutory.

Key Points

These are government-created bodies that an Act of Parliament shapes.

Non Statutory BodiesFacts
NAAC- The National Assessment and  Accreditation Council (NAAC) assesses and accredits Higher Educational Institutions. - Its function is to promote the institution's Quality Status. - It is not established by law.
NCERT- The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is an autonomous body established by the Indian government in 1961 but not by the act of parliament law. - Its main function is to help and advise the central and state governments on policies and programs. - It aimed at improving educational quality.

Therefore, A and C is the correct option. 

Confusion Points 

Statutory BodiesFacts
NMC- An act of Parliament established the National Medical Commission (NMC) called the National Medical Commission Act, 2019. - After NITI, Aayog recommended the Medical Council of India to National Medical Commission (NMC). - It is a Statutory body established by parliament law.
AICTE- The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) was established in November 1945. - At the national level, a top advisory organization to study technical education facilities. - It has Statutory power for norms and standards planning, creation, and maintenance.
NCTE- On August 17, 1995, the National Council for Teacher Education was established as a statutory authority under the National Council for Teacher Education Act 1993. - It served as an advisory body to the Central and State Governments on all aspects of teacher education. - It ensures the maintenance of teacher education standards and prevents the spread of substandard teacher education schools.
12

UGC is established for:

A. Promoting research and innovations in higher education in the country

B. Coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of university education

C. Increasing access to higher education in the country

D. Disbursing grants to the universities and colleges

E. Serving as a vital link between the Union and State governments and institutions of higher learning

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, C and E only

  2. ((b))

    A, B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A, B, C and D only

  4. ((d))

    B, D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B, D and E only

The UGC was established in 1945 to monitor the activities of Aligarh, Banaras, and Delhi's three Central Universities.

Key Points

  • An Act of Parliament established the UGC in November 1956 as a statutory organization of the Government of India to coordinate, determine, and maintain university education standards in India
  • The University Grants Commission (UGC) is a statutory body established by the Indian government in 1956. The UGC's main functions are to:
  • Coordinate and determine the standards of university education in India.
  • Disburse grants to universities and colleges.
  • Serve as a vital link between the Union and State governments and institutions of higher learning.
  • The UGC is not mandated to promote research and innovations in higher education or to increase access to higher education. These are the responsibilities of other government bodies, such as the Department of Science and Technology and the Ministry of Human Resource Development.

Here is a table that summarizes the information about the UGC's functions:

FunctionDescription
Coordinate and determine the standards of university education in IndiaThe UGC sets the minimum standards for university education in India. This includes standards for curriculum, faculty, and infrastructure.
Disburse grants to universities and colleges.The UGC provides financial assistance to universities and colleges. This assistance is used to fund teaching, research, and infrastructure development.
Serve as a vital link between the Union and State governments and institutions of higher learning.The UGC provides a platform for dialogue and cooperation between the Union and State governments and institutions of higher learning. This helps to ensure that the needs of the higher education sector are met.

Therefore statements B, D, and E are the correct options. 

Additional Information

  • The motto line of UGC is Gyan-Vigyan Vimukte (Knowledge Liberates),
  • On December 28, 1953, the University Grants Commission (UGC) was established.
13

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A.AICTEI.Promotes research in Philosophy.
B.ICHRII.Promotes research in History.
C.ICPRIII.Promotion of quality in Technical Education.
D.ICSSRIV.Promotes research in Social Sciences.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (II), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (IV)

  2. ((b))

    (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (II), (C) ‐ (IV), (D) ‐ (I)

  3. ((c))

    (A) ‐ (II), (B) ‐ (III), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (IV)

  4. ((d))

    (A) ‐ (IV), (B) ‐ (II), (C) ‐ (III), (D) ‐ (I)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (II), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (IV)

The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) was established in November 1945.

Key Points

List IFacts.
AICTE- The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) was established in November 1945. - At the national-level top advisory organisation to undertake a study of technical education facilities. - It has Statutory power for norms and standards planning, creation, and maintenance
ICHR- The Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR) is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Education. - It was founded on the 27th of March 1972 by the Ministry of Education & Social Welfare, Government of India (now Ministry of Education). - It functions of ICHR promote historical research in the right direction and support and foster historical writing.
ICPR- The Indian Council of Philosophical Research established by the Ministry of Education of the Government of India was registered as a society in March 1977. - Professor D.P. Chattopadhyaya was appointed as its first chairman. - To support or promote philosophical research projects or programs.
ICSSR- The Government of India founded the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) in 1969. - to support social science research in the country. - Scholarships and fellowships for social science research are established and administered.

Therefore, (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (II), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (IV) is the correct match.

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow

Social exclusion is a multi‐dimensional concept conceived to capture different aspects of social disadvantage‐economic, social, political and cultural‐that exist in multiple variations across nations. Stripped to its essence, the term focuses on the groups excluded in economic, social and cultural terms as well as on the mechanisms that work to relegate them to the status of social outsiders. Originating mainly in the writings of French sociologists, the concept is receiving growing scholarly attention in Western Europe. The emergence of the term, in fact, reflects an attempt to reconceptualise the changing nature of social disadvantage in post‐industrial societies in the face of major technological change and economic restructuring. The West, for example, has been experiencing an intensifying process of social integration that is occurring because of long‐term unemployment, increasing migration and the rolling back of the welfare state. Consequently, new vulnerable social groups have been emerging and are labelled in different ways: 'the new industrial poor', 'immigrants', 'ethnic groups', 'single parents', among others. Interest in social exclusion has grown in relation to the growth of new social problems in the west. Two important issues are worth considering here. First, does the concept add anything new which cannot be provided by analysis within a more conventional framework of, say, poverty, inequality, deprivation and so on. Second and more important, can this concept be extended beyond a European perspective to a development setting? Can it be exported from the North to the South, from a situation where the majority are well‐off to a situation where the majority are poor? Clearly, a great deal of attention has been paid, in development analysis, to related issues such as poverty, inequality, deprivation, entitlements and capabilities.

14

The concept of social exclusion is multidimensional because of:

  1. ((a))

    multiple groups to focus on

  2. ((b))

    variations in deprivations

  3. ((c))

    the prevalent notion about social outsiders

  4. ((d))

    social statuses across nations

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

variations in deprivations

The correct answer is 'variations in deprivations'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage:
  • Social exclusion is a multi‐dimensional concept conceived to capture different aspects of social disadvantage‐**economic, social, political and cultural‐**that exist in multiple variations across nations.
  • From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that the concept of social exclusion is multidimensional because of variations in deprivations.

Thus, it is clear that option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Deprivation - a serious situation in which one experiences the lack of necessary things.
15

The new reflection on social exclusion has emerged from

  1. ((a))

    The industrialisation process in Europe

  2. ((b))

    The arrival of new scholarship in sociology

  3. ((c))

    The technological impact on societies

  4. ((d))

    The changes in the nature of social inclusion

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

The technological impact on societies

The correct answer is 'the technological impact on societies'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage:
  • The emergence of the term (social exclusion), in fact, reflects an attempt to reconceptualise the changing nature of social disadvantage in post‐industrial societies in the face of major technological change and economic restructuring.
  • From the above-mentioned statement, it is evident that the new reflection on social exclusion has emerged from the technological impact on societies.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

16

The post‐industrial society and economic restructuring have contributed for

  1. ((a))

    The reconsideration of employment issue

  2. ((b))

    Strategies aimed at social integration

  3. ((c))

    Fragmentation of welfare state

  4. ((d))

    Social disintegration into new deprived groups

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Social disintegration into new deprived groups

The correct answer is 'Social disintegration into new deprived groups'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage -
  • The emergence of the term (social exclusion), in fact, reflects an attempt to reconceptualise the changing nature of social disadvantage in post‐industrial societies in the face of major technological change and economic restructuring.
  • The West, for example, has been experiencing an intensifying process of social disintegration.
  • Consequently, new vulnerable social groups have been emerging and are labelled in different ways: 'the new industrial poor', 'immigrants', 'ethnic groups', 'single parents', among others.
  • ​From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that the post - industrial society and economic restructuring have contributed for social disintegration into new deprived groups.

​Thus, it is clear that option 4 is the correct option.

Mistake Point

  • In the passage, it is mentioned that 'The West, for example, has been experiencing an intensifying process of social integration'.
  • However, the correct statement should be  'The West, for example, has been experiencing an intensifying process of social disintegration'.
17

The scholarship on social exclusion has gone beyond

  1. ((a))

    The reach of governments

  2. ((b))

    The conventional thinking

  3. ((c))

    The normal issues of deprivation

  4. ((d))

    Common perspectives of inclusion

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

The conventional thinking

The correct answer is 'The conventional thinking'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage:
  • Social exclusion is a multi‐dimensional concept conceived to capture different aspects of social disadvantage‐economic, social, political and cultural‐that exist in multiple variations across nations.
  • Interest in social exclusion has grown in relation to the growth of new social problems in the west.
  • Two important issues are worth considering here. First, does the concept ( i.e. social exclusionadd anything new which cannot be provided by analysis within a more conventional framework of, say, poverty, inequality, deprivation and so on. Second and more important, can this concept be extended beyond a European perspective to a development setting?
  • Clearly**, a great deal of attention has been paid, in development analysis, to related issues such as poverty, inequality, deprivation, entitlements and capabilities**.
  • ​From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that social exclusion has grown beyond a simple definition and the scholarship on social exclusion has gone beyond the conventional thinking.

​​​Thus, it is clear that option 2 is the correct answer.

18

The concept of social exclusion is now

  1. ((a))

    The focus theme of Europeans

  2. ((b))

    An issue of developmental capability

  3. ((c))

    A commodity for export from the North to the South

  4. ((d))

    Universal in character, going beyond the western hemisphere

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Universal in character, going beyond the western hemisphere

The correct answer is 'Universal in character, going beyond the western hemisphere'.

Key Points

  • Let's refer to the passage :
  • Social exclusion is a multi‐dimensional concept conceived to capture different aspects of social disadvantage‐economic, social, political and cultural‐that exist in multiple variations across nations.
  • Does the concept ( social exclusion) add anything new which cannot be provided by analysis within a more conventional framework of, say, poverty, inequality, deprivation and so on.
  • Can this concept be extended beyond a European perspective to a development setting?
  • Can it be exported from the North to the South**, from a situation where the majority are well‐off to a situation where the majority are poor?**
  • ​From the above-mentioned statements, it is evident that the concept of social exclusion is now universal in character, going beyond the western hemisphere.

​Thus, it is clear that option 4 is the correct answer.

19

Match List I with List II

Neural system of BrainType of Memory
A.ConsciousI.Implicit Memory
B.UnconsciousII.Procedural Memory
C.Motor skillsIII.Explicit Memory
D.Own experiencesIV.Episodic Memory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) ‐ (IV), (B) ‐ (III), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (II)

  2. ((b))

    (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (I), (C) ‐ (II), (D) ‐ (IV)

  3. ((c))

    (A) ‐ (I), (B) ‐ (II), (C) ‐ (IV), (D) ‐ (III)

  4. ((d))

    (A) ‐ (II), (B) ‐ (IV), (C) ‐ (III), (D) ‐ (I)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (I), (C) ‐ (II), (D) ‐ (IV)

Memory can be defined as a process of recalling and retaining information over a period of time for different levels of cognitive tasks.

Memory can be summed up in three stages, i.e., 

  1. Encoding
  2. Storage
  3. Retrieval

Key Points

Type of MemoryDescription
Implicit Memory- It is a kind of memory that a person is not aware of. - Many memories remain outside of our conscious system. - It is retrieved automatically. - It influences our behavior. - This kind of memory was found in patients suffering from brain injuries. - Unconsciousness of memory is an important part of this type of memory.
Procedural Memory- It is long-term memory. - It refers to memories relating to procedures for accomplishing various tasks and skills. - For example, how to ride a bicycle, how to make tea, etc. - The contents of procedural memory cannot be described easily. - Motor skills are related to procedural memory.
Explicit Memory- It refers to the conscious recollection of events that happen previously. - It is synonymous with recall and recognition. - Consciousness aspect of Explicit memory.
Episodic Memory- It refers to biographical details of individuals. - Memories are related to our personal life experiences. - Own experiences are part of episodic memory.

Hence the correct match is (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (I), (C) ‐ (II), (D) ‐ (IV)

20

Cognitive domain for behavioural objectives comprises which of these objectives?

A. Evaluation

B. Valuing

C. Comprehension

D. Precision

E. Knowledge

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and C only

  2. ((b))

    B, C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A, C and E only

  4. ((d))

    C, D and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, C and E only

Cognition implies referring to the mental process involved in gaining knowledge and comprehension. Some examples of cognitive processes are thinking, knowing, remembering, judging, problem-solving, etc. 

Key Points

The cognitive domain for behavioral objectives comprises of the following:

  • Knowledge:
  • Recall or retrieve previous learned information or data.
  • Evaluation:
  • It's about making judgment about the value of ideas or material.
  • For example, Explain and justify a new budget.
  • Comprehension:
  • Understanding the meaning, translation, interpolation, and interpretation of instructions and problems.
  • For example, explain in one's own words the steps for performing a complex task.

Additional Information

  • Valuing:
  • It is part of the affective domain.
  • The worth or value a person attaches to a particular object, phenomenon, or behavior.
  • It can be simple acceptance or strong commitment.
  • It is based on the internalization of a set of specific values.
  • For example, Is sensitive toward individual and cultural differences (value diversity).
  • Precision:
  • It can be defined as refining, becoming more exact.
  • For example, Working and reworking on something to make it better.

​​Hence A, C, and E only is the correct answer.

21

Match List I with List II for scale construction techniques

List IList II
A.Arbitrary approachI.A number of individual items are developed into a test which is given to a group of respondents
B.Consensus approachII.Scale is developed on an ad‐hoc basis
C.Item Analysis approachIII.Chosen on the basis of their conforming to some ranking of items with ascending and descending discriminating power
D.Cumulative scalesIV.A panel of Judges evaluates the items chosen for inclusion in the instrument

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (II), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (IV)

  2. ((b))

    (A) ‐ (II), (B) ‐ (IV), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (III)

  3. ((c))

    (A) ‐ (I), (B) ‐ (III), (C) ‐ (II), (D) ‐ (IV)

  4. ((d))

    (A) ‐ (IV), (B) ‐ (I), (C) ‐ (III), (D) ‐ (II)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

(A) ‐ (II), (B) ‐ (IV), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (III)

Scale Construction refers to the creation of empirical measures for theoretical constructs. Scale construction techniques in research methodology help in social science studies.

Key PointsSome of the important approaches, along with the corresponding scales to measure attitude are as follows:

List IList II
Arbitrary approach- It's an approach to seeking answers to questions consisting of imagination, opinion, blind belief, or impression. - From an arbitrary approach, arbitrary scales are developed on an ad hoc basis and are designed largely through the researcher’s own subjective selection of items. - The chief merit of such scales is that they can be developed very easily, quickly, and with relatively low expense.
Consensus approach- Consensus is a function of shared team feelings towards an issue. - The aim of the consensus approach is to determine the extent to which experts or laymen agree about a given issue. - In this approach, a panel of Judges evaluates the items chosen for inclusion in the instrument.
Item Analysis approach- Item analysis is the set of qualitative and quantitative techniques and procedures used to evaluate the characteristics of items of the test before and after the test development and construction. - A number of individual items are developed into a test which is given to a group of respondents.
Cumulative scales- The Cumulative scale measures how much of a positive or negative attitude a person has towards a particular topic. - Chosen on the basis of their conforming to some ranking of items with ascending and descending discriminating power

So, the correct arrangement is (A) ‐ (II), (B) ‐ (IV), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (III)

22

Given below are two statements

Statement I: The base of the binary number system is 2.

Statement II: Binary addition is just like decimal addition except that the rules are much simpler.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

A binary number is a number expressed in the base-2 numeral system or binary numeral system, a method of mathematical expression that uses only two symbols: typically "0" (zero) and "1" (one).

Key PointsStatement I: The base of the binary number system is 2.

Explanation: 

  • Binary is a number system comprised of two digits, 0 and 1, used by computers to represent all other numbers and characters.
  • So, Binary is also known as base 2.
  • Binary is a base-2 number system invented by Gottfried Leibniz that's made up of only two numbers or digits: 0 (zero) and 1 (one).
  • This numbering system is the basis for all binary code, which is used to write digital data such as the computer processor instructions used every day.

So, we can say that statement I is true.

Statement II: Binary addition is just like decimal addition except that the rules are much simpler.

Explanation: 

  • Binary addition is one of the binary operations.
  • The binary addition operation works similarly to the base 10 decimal system, except that it is a base 2 system.
  • There are 3 basic rules for adding binary numbers:
  • 0 + 0 = 0
  • 0 + 1 = 1
  • 1 + 1 = 10. If the sum of 2 bits is greater than 1, we need to shift a column on the left.
  • In decimal system, 1 + 1 = 2. Binary notation of 2 is 10 (1 * 2^1 + 0 * 2^0). So we keep 0 in the 1's column and shift (carry over) 1 to the 2's column.

So, we can say that Statement II is also correct.

Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are true.

23

In the context of uses of language, which of the following is the fallacy that pertains to the relationship between a person's beliefs and his circumstances?

  1. ((a))

    Argumentum ad Baculum (force)

  2. ((b))

    Argumentum ad Hominem (circumstantial)

  3. ((c))

    Argumentum ad lgnorantiam (ignorance)

  4. ((d))

    Argumentum ad Verecundiam (authority)

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Argumentum ad Hominem (circumstantial)

A linguistic fallacy is a type of informal fallacy that relates to a language-related defect in an argument. Linguistic fallacies might involve using words or sentences that have vague, unclear, or multiple meanings or other inconsistencies.

Key Points

Argumentum ad Hominem (circumstantial) fallacy

  • Argumentum ad Hominem (circumstantial) fallacy occurs when someone attacks a claim by saying that the person making the claim is only making it because it's in his/her interest or because of his/her circumstances.
  • This actually has no bearing on whether or not the claim is true or false.
  • A simple example is: A father may tell his daughter not to start smoking because it will damage her health, and she may point out that he is or was a smoker. This does not alter the fact that smoking might cause various diseases. Her father's inconsistency is not a proper reason to reject his claim.

Therefore, in the context of uses of language, Argumentum ad Hominem (circumstantial) is the fallacy that pertains to the relationship between a person's beliefs and his circumstances.

Additional Information

  • Argumentum ad baculum is the fallacy committed when one makes an appeal to force to bring about the acceptance of a conclusion.
  • Argumentum ad ignorantiam is the fallacy that a proposition is true simply on the basis that it has not been proved false or that it is false simply because it has not been proved true.
  • Argumentum ad verecundiam, is a form of argument in which the opinion of an authority on a topic is used as evidence to support an argument.
24

If 'Some members are not voters' is false in a square of the opposition of proposition, which of the following code can be correctly picked

A. 'All members are voters' is false

B. 'Some members are voters' is true

C. 'All members are voters' is true

D. 'No members are voters' is true

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and D only

  2. ((b))

    A and B only

  3. ((c))

    B and C only

  4. ((d))

    C and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

B and C only

The square of opposition is a diagram used in categorical logic to depict the logical relationship that exists between particular propositions based on their form.

Key Points  

Diagram of Aristotelian Square of Opposition. 

![Solved] According to traditional square of opposition, if two propos](https://storage.googleapis.com/tb-img/production/20/06/F1_A.A._Madhu_19.05.20_D1.png)

The four corners of this diagram represent the four basic forms of propositions. 

PropositionsFromTitleExample
AAll S is PUniversal affirmativesAll members are voters.
ENo S are PUniversal negativeNo members are voters.
ISome S are PParticular affirmativesSome members are voters.
OSome S are not PParticular NegativeSome members are not voters.

Now applying the rule of the Square of Opposition.

Types of Square of OppositionRules
Contradictory- A and O, E, and I propositions are contradictory. - If One is True the other will be false definitely. - If One is False the other will be True definitely. - For Example, Some members are not voters' is false then, All members are voters must be true
Contrary- A and E propositions are contrary. - It's always Between Universal. - Both statements cannot be true at the same time but both can be False. - If One is True the other will be False definitely. - If One is False the other will be  Doubtful.
Sub-contrary- I and O propositions are subcontrary. - It is always between Particulars. - It is the opposite of the Contrary. - Both Statements can't be False at the same time but both can be True. - If One is False the other will be true definitely. - If One is True the other will be Doubtful - For Example, 'Some members are not voters' is false, 'Some members are voters' is true
Subalternation- A and I, E and O propositions are Subalternation. ​ - Between Universal and Particulars. - If Universal is True Particular will be False definitely. - If Universal is False Particular will be True Doubtful. - If Particular is False Universal will be False definitely. - If Particular is True Universal will be Doubtful. - For Example, Some members are not voters is false then, No members are voters are must True.

Thus, 'Some members are voters' is true, and  'All members are voters' is true are correct.

25

Which of the following codes correctly represents the figure and mood of the argument?

All businessmen are self‐confident

No self‐confident men are religious

Therefore, No religious men are businessmen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    AEE ‐ I

  2. ((b))

    AEE ‐ II

  3. ((c))

    AEE ‐ III

  4. ((d))

    AEE ‐ IV

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

AEE ‐ IV

A syllogism consists of three categorical propositions and contains three terms each of which appears in propositions. 

Key Points

  • Mood depends upon the type of propositions (A, E, I, O).
PropositionsFromExample
AAll S is PAll barbers are Musicians
ENo S are PNo Musicians are Italians
ISome S are PSome Musicians are barbers
OSome S are not PSome women are not Italians

Classical Square of Opposition - 4 Basic Categorical Propositions

Valid Forms: There are 15 combinations of mood and figure that are valid from the Boolean standpoint.

FigureMood
First FigureAAA,EAE,AII,EIO
Second FigureEAE,AEE,EIO,AOO
Third FigureIAI, AII, OAO, EIO
Fourth figureAEE,IAI,EIO

For example, 

  • All businessmen are self‐confident​ (A )
  • No self‐confident men are religious(E)
  • Therefore, No religious men are businessmen ( E )
  • Based on the above chart mood of argument is AEE.

Thus, the Mood of the argument is AEE. 

  • The figure depends on the arrangement of the middle term in the proposition.
  • There are four types of figures in syllogism which are mentioned below:

  • All businessmen are self‐confident, whereas businessmen are Predicate and self‐confident are middle term.
  • No self‐confident men are religious, whereas No self‐confident is Middle term and religious is Predicate.
  • Based on the position of the middle term in the argument this belongs to Fourth Figure.

Therefore, AEE ‐ IV is correct.

26

The knowing self knows objects through the instrumentality of the sense organs (Indriyas) but the existence of Indriya is proved by

  1. ((a))

    Anumana Pramana

  2. ((b))

    Śabda pramana

  3. ((c))

    Arthapatti Pramana

  4. ((d))

    Upamana Pramana

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Anumana Pramana

The correct answer is Anumana Pramana

Pramana is valid knowledge. Knowledge can be valid or invalid, valid knowledge is called pramana and non-valid knowledge is known as apraman. Pramana is valid means of knowledge and its important four means include

  • perception (pratyaksa),
  • inference (anumana),
  • verbal testimony (sabda)
  • comparison (upamana)

Key Points 

Anumana pramana 

  • It is a means of knowledge.
  • Here, the knowledge is acquired through guessing, interpretation, and analysis.
  • The term anumana literally means after knowledge i.e., the knowledge that follows other knowledge
  • It is described as reaching a new conclusion and truth from one or more observations and previous truths by applying reason.
  • Example: The knowing self knows objects through the instrumentality of the sense organs (Indriyas) but the existence of Indriya is proved by this.​

Additional Information

Śabda  Pramana:

  • It means relying on words, and testimony of past or present reliable experts, specifically the shruti, Vedas.
  • Hiriyanna explains Sabda-pramana as a concept that means reliable expert testimony.

 Arthapatti Pramana:

  • It s a Sanskrit term meaning "presumption" or "implication
  • Arthapatti refers to the way in which knowledge is derived from a set of circumstances.
  • The expression “arthapati” is a combination of two words namely ‘artha’ and ‘apatti’. The term artha means fact and apatti means ‘kalpana’ which is understood as ‘supposition’ in English.
  • Thus, etymologically speaking, arthapati is that knowledge that resolves the conflict between two facts.
  • It entails a presupposition that solves the problem that occurred between two fact
  • For example using data on sunrise times to determine the time the sun will rise tomorrow, observing someone’s weight and eating patterns, and postulating about their dietary habits.

Upamana Pramana:

  • It is knowledge derived from similarity.
  • It has been defined as the knowledge of the relation between a word and its denotation.
27

Which form of knowledge is NOT derived through the instrumentality of other knowledge?

  1. ((a))

    Perception

  2. ((b))

    Inference

  3. ((c))

    Word‐testimony

  4. ((d))

    Comparison

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Perception

There are three core types of knowledge:

  • explicit (documented information),
  • implicit (applied information), and
  • tacit (understood information).

These different types of knowledge work together to form the spectrum of how we pass information to each other, learn, and grow.

Important Points

  • Perception For of knowledge
  • Perception refers to the way sensory information is organized, interpreted, and consciously experienced. Perception involves both bottom-up and top-down processing.
  • Bottom-up processing refers to the fact that perceptions are built from sensory input.
  • On the other hand, how we interpret those sensations is influenced by our available knowledge, our experiences, and our thoughts. This is called top-down processing.
  • Hence this  form of knowledge is NOT derived through the instrumentality of other knowledge but through our response to stimuli

Additional Information

  • Knowledge inference
  • It refers to acquiring new knowledge from existing facts based on certain rules and constraints.
  • One way of representing these rules and constraints is through the use of logic rules, formally known as knowledge representation.
  • Word Testimony form of knowledge is defined as the intentional transfer of a belief from one person to another.
  • The transfer can be verbal, written, or signaled in some way.
  • For example, in the law, testimony is a form of evidence that is obtained from a witness who makes a solemn statement or declaration of fact. There are two major types of testimony: peer testimony and expert testimony
  • Comparison form of knowledge:
  • Comparisons occur in literary works frequently. Writers and poets use comparison in order to link their feelings about a thing to something readers can understand. There are numerous devices in the literature that compare two different things to show the similarity between them, such as simile, metaphor, and analogy.

Therefore the form of knowledge that is NOT derived through the instrumentality of other knowledge is Perception.

28

The variability or flexibility of delivery during the presentation of a lesson by a teacher is called as

  1. ((a))

    Thinking curriculum

  2. ((b))

    Instructional variety

  3. ((c))

    Comprehension

  4. ((d))

    Procedural knowledge

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Instructional variety

**Instructional Variety is the **flexibility of a teacher to engage in several ways of providing lessons to the students without making them boring.

Key Points

Instructional Variety is a description of various methods to be employed by teachers to make their lectures interesting and engaging to the students. 

  • It is considered a valuable skill in a teacher as it requires great effort on part of the teacher to make students interested in the class.
  • It results in less disruptive behavior and greater student attention.
  • When a teacher employs instructional variety, it helps students to retain more and engage in the learning process. They don’t get bored.
  • Examples of instructional variety are as follows:
  • Microlearning
  • Spaced repetition
  • Interactivity
  • Gamification
  • Leader boards
  • Peer learning
  • Mobile learning
  • Storytelling technique

Additional Information 

  • Thinking curriculum:
  • It is a method of learning which involves the students and learners actively in the thinking process.
  • It goes against the concept of inter idea of the traditional learning system.
  • Its aim is to develop transferable skills.
  • Comprehension: 
  • Understanding the meaning, translation, interpolation, and interpretation of instructions and problems.
  • For example, explain in one's own words the steps for performing a complex task.
  • Procedural knowledge:
  • It is the knowledge or skill related to a particular task or specific skill.
  • It is also known as Implicit knowledge or Known-how.
  • An important point related to procedural knowledge is that it cannot be explained verbally.
  • The majority of it is imparted as training.
  • Example – “How to drive a car” is the best example of procedural knowledge.
29

Given below are two statements

Statement I: All components of working memory are in place by the age of 4 in a child as a development stage 

Statement II: If a child does not continue to pay attention to information, the activation level weakens and finally drops so low that the information cannot be reactivated and it disappears altogether

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Cognitive development refers to the development of the ability to think and reason. It refers to how a person perceives, thinks, and gains an understanding of his/her world through the interaction of genetic and learned factors.

Key PointsStatement I: All components of working memory are in place by the age of 4 in a child as a development stage.

the theory of cognitive development, Piaget discusses the four distinct, universal stages, each characterized by increasingly sophisticated and abstract levels of thought. These stages always occur in the same order, and each builds on what has been learned in the previous stage. The stages are:

  • Sensorimotor Stage (infancy)
  • Pre-operational stage (toddlerhood and early childhood): In this period, there are two sub-stages, intelligence is demonstrated through the use of symbols, language use matures, and memory and imagination are developed, but thinking is done in a non-logical, non-reversible manner. Egocentric thinking predominates.
  • Concrete operational stage (elementary and early adolescence)
  • Formal operational stage (adolescence and adulthood)

Hence statement I is correct.

Statement II: If a child does not continue to pay attention to information, the activation level weakens and finally drops so low that the information cannot be reactivated and it disappears altogether.

  • Attention is a key factor in the transfer of information from working memory to long-term memory.
  • When information is not attended to, its representation in working memory fades.
  • This process can be viewed in terms of activation levels: when attention is paid to certain information, the activation level for that information is high, but when attention shifts away, the activation level decreases.
  • If attention is not returned to the information, the activation level may drop so low that the information is lost from working memory.
  • This underlines the importance of attention in maintaining and manipulating information within working memory.

Hence statement II is correct.

Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

30

During research when we avoid speculative and metaphysical approaches and instead concentrate on studying observable facts, it is called:

  1. ((a))

    Feminism

  2. ((b))

    Ethnomethodology

  3. ((c))

    Constructionism

  4. ((d))

    Positivism

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Positivism

Research can be defined as the systematic investigation into the study of a subject in order to establish facts and arrive at new findings and conclusions.

Key Points

According to Kuhn,1962, “Research paradigm is the set of common beliefs and agreements shared between scientists about how the problems should be understood and addressed.”

  • Positivism:
  • This approach propounded that the standards of science should be applied to social analysis.
  • It is more of a quantitative approach.
  • This approach tends to be very black and white.
  • It relies heavily on scientific evidence.
  • It claims that all knowledge must be verified through scientific methods.
  • It denies intuition, theological, and metaphysical knowledge.
  • During research when we avoid speculative and metaphysical approaches and instead concentrate on studying observable facts. Hence, this is the correct answer.
  • It relies on these aspects of science – 
  • Science is deterministic.
  • Science is mechanistic.
  • Science uses methods.
  • Science deals with empiricism.

​Hence during research when we avoid speculative and metaphysical approaches and instead concentrate on studying observable facts, it is called Positivism.

Additional Information

  • Feminism:
  • It is an ideology that supports women's rights and aims to establish fair and just relations between the sexes.
  • It incorporates the position that societies prioritize the patriarchal point of view.
  • It is an interdisciplinary approach to issues of equality and equity-based on gender.
  • Ethnomethodology:
  • It is a theoretical approach in sociology.
  • It is based on the belief that you can discover the normal social order of society by disrupting it.
  • It focuses on the way people make sense of their world.
  • Constructionism:
  • It is a learning theory that advocates a student-centered learning modal.
  • It was developed by Seymour Papert.
  • This theory believes that children construct their new knowledge by constructing physical and manipulative materials.
  • It believes that learning happens through making.
31

Identify the CORRECT sequence of steps for the centroid method of factor analysis 

A. Work out the sum of coefficients in each column of the correlation matrix

B. Compute a matrix of correlation

C. Obtain the Sum (T) of columns

D. Divide the sum of each column by the square root of (T)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A, C, D, B

  2. ((b))

    C, B, A, D

  3. ((c))

    B, A, C, D

  4. ((d))

    B, C, A, D

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

B, A, C, D

Factor analysis is a statistical method used to describe variability among observed, correlated variables in terms of a potentially lower number of unobserved variables called factors.

Key PointsCentroid method is the method that extracts the largest sum of absolute loadings for each factor in turn.

  • It is defined by linear combinations in which all weights are either +1.0 or -1.0.
  • The purpose of this method is to maximize the sum of loadings, disregarding signs.

Various steps involved in this method are as follows:

  • This method starts with the computation of a matrix of correlations, R, wherein unities are placed in the diagonal spaces. The product-moment formula is used for working out the correlation coefficients.
  • If the correlation matrix so obtained happens to be a positive manifold (i.e., disregarding the diagonal elements each variable has a large sum of positive correlations than negative correlations), the centroid method requires that the weights for all variables be +1.0. In other words, the variables are not weighted; they are simply summed. But in case the correlation matrix is not a positive manifold, then reflections must be made before the first centroid factor is obtained.
  • The first centroid factor is determined as under:
  • The sum of the coefficients (including the diagonal unity) in each column of the correlation matrix is worked out.
  • Then the sum of these column sums (T) is obtained.
  • The sum of each column obtained as per (a) above is divided by the square root of T obtained in (b) above, resulting in what is called centroid loadings.
  • This way each centroid loading (one loading for one variable) is computed. The full set of loadings so obtained constitute the first centroid factor (say A).
  • To obtain a second centroid factor (say B), one must first obtain a matrix of residual coefficients. For this purpose, the loadings for the two variables on the first centroid factor are multiplied.
  • Then divide the sum of each column by the square root of (T)

 Hence the correct sequence is B, A, C, D

32

Match List I with List II

List IList II
Categories of communicationFeatures
A.LateralI.Touch communication
B.HapticsII.Between equals
C.SemanticsIII.Interpretation of signs
D.SemioticsIV.Concerned with meanings

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) ‐ (II), (B) ‐ (I), (C) ‐ (IV), (D) ‐ (III)

  2. ((b))

    (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (II), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (IV)

  3. ((c))

    (A) ‐ (IV), (B) ‐ (III), (C) ‐ (II), (D) ‐ (I)

  4. ((d))

    (A) ‐ (I), (B) ‐ (IV), (C) ‐ (III), (D) ‐ (II)

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

(A) ‐ (II), (B) ‐ (I), (C) ‐ (IV), (D) ‐ (III)

Communication is simply the act of transferring information from one place, person, or group to another. Every communication involves (at least) one sender, a message, and a recipient.

Key Points

Categories of communicationFeatures
Lateral- Lateral communication takes place when employees at the same level(between equals) interact.. - Lateral communication is time-saving and allows workers to coordinate tasks with one another.
Haptics- Haptic communication is a branch of nonverbal communication that refers to the ways in which people and animals communicate and interact via the sense of touch. - Touch is the most sophisticated and intimate of the five senses.
Semantics- The branch of linguistics and logic concerned with meaning is called Semantics. - Semantics refers to the interpretation of language, including words, sentences, phrasing, and symbols.
Semiotics- The study of signs and symbols and their use or interpretation is called Semiotics. - Common examples of semiotics include traffic signs, emojis, emoticons used in electronic communication, logos, etc.

So, the correct option is option 1 {(A) ‐ (II), (B) ‐ (I), (C) ‐ (IV), (D) ‐ (III)}

33

Showing the man in a photo, Kavita said, "He is the brother of my uncle's daughter".

How is the man realted to Kavita?

  1. ((a))

    Nephew

  2. ((b))

    Cousin

  3. ((c))

    Uncle

  4. ((d))

    Son

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Cousin

Preparing the family tree using the following symbols

From the above diagram, it is clear that the man is a cousin to Kavita.

Hence, the correct answer is Cousin.

34

Given below are two statements

Statement I: In one minute, the minute hand of a clock gains 5° over the hour hand.

Statement II: If both the minute and hour hands start moving together from the same position, both the hands will coincide after 64 minutes.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

The logic follows here is:

The hour hand of a normal 12-hour analogue clock turns 360° in 12 hours (720 minutes).

So, The hour hand of a normal 12-hour analogue clock turns 360/720 = 0.5° per minute

The minute hand rotates through 360° in 60 minutes.

So, The minute hand rotates through 360/60 = 6° per minute

Therefore in 1 minute,

The minute hand gains = 6° - 0.5°  = 5.5° over the hour hand.

Therefore, Statement I is false.

Now,

Consider the number of minutes after which both the minute and hour hands coincide be 'x'.

We know, In every minute,

The minute hand rotates through 6° per minute.

and The hour hand rotates through 0.5° per minute.

∴ After 'x' minutes both the hands are in the same place, the equation becomes,

⇒ 6°x - 360° = 0.5°x

⇒ 5.5°x = 360°

⇒ x = 360°/5.5°

x = 65(5/11) minutes

So, Both the minute and hour hands will coincide after 65(5/11) minutes.

Therefore, Statement II is false.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 2).

35

Consider the following statements:

A. A single discount equivalent to three successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 25% is 46%

B. A mobile is sold for Rs. 14500 at a loss of 20%. The cost price of the mobile is Rs. 18225.

C. If the loss is 13\frac{1}{3} of the selling price, the loss percentage is 28%

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A and B only

  2. ((b))

    B and C only

  3. ((c))

    A and C only

  4. ((d))

    A only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

A only

Given:

Statement A:

Series of discount in = 10%, 20% and 25%

Statement B:

Selling price = Rs. 14500 

Loss of 20%

Statement C:

Loss = 13\frac{1}{3} of the selling price

Formula Used:

Total discount = [x+y(xy100)][x +y- (\frac{xy}{100})]%

Cost price = Selling price×(100100Loss percentage)× (\frac{100}{100 - Loss~percentage})

Loss = Cost price - Selling price

Loss% = LossCost price\frac{Loss}{Cost ~price} × 100

Calculation:

Statement A: 

The single discount equivalent to a series discount of 10%, 20% and 25% is

46%

Single equivalent discount for 10% and 20% is

[x+y(xy100)][x +y- (\frac{xy}{100})]

[10+20(10 × 20100)][10 +20- (\frac{10~×~ 20}{100})]%

[30200100][30- \frac{200}{100}]% = (30 - 2)% = 28%

Now, single equivalent discount for 28% and 25% is

[x+y(xy100)][x +y- (\frac{xy}{100})]

[28+25(28 × 25100)][28 +25- (\frac{28~×~ 25}{100})]%

⇒ (53 - 7)% = 46%

Hence, Statement A is true.

Statement B:

A mobile is sold for Rs. 14500 at a loss of 20%. The cost price of the mobile is

Rs. 18225.

According to the statement,

Cost price = Selling price × (100100Loss percentage)(\frac{100}{100 - Loss~percentage})

Cost price = 14500 × (10010020)(\frac{100}{100 - 20})

Cost price = 14500 × 10080\frac{100}{80} = Rs. 18125

The cost price of the mobile is Rs. 18125.

Hence, Statement B is false.

Statement C: 

If the loss is 13\frac{1}{3} of the selling price, the loss percentage is 28%

Loss =  13\frac{1}{3} of the selling price

Let loss = x and Selling price = 3x

We know that,

Loss = Cost price - Selling price

x = Cost price - 3x

Cost price = x + 3x = 4x

Then,

Loss% = LossCost price\frac{Loss}{Cost ~price} × 100

Loss% = x4x\frac{x}{4x} × 100 = 25%

The loss percentage is 25%

Hence, Statement C is false.

∴ Only Statement A is correct.

36

In respect of computer software, features of a typical operating system include:

A. The interface‐allowing communication between the user and the computer

B. Memory management‐allocating internal memory (RAM) to programs and data in use and retrieving and storing data on the external memory devices

C. Resource handling‐controlling peripheral devices (input and output devices) and handling user requests for peripheral devices

D. Internet access‐providing connectivity to the services on the Internet

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, C and D only

  2. ((b))

    B, C and D only

  3. ((c))

    A, B and C only

  4. ((d))

    A, B and D only

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

A, B and C only

An operating system is a program that acts as a user-computer GUI (Graphical user interface). It controls the execution of all types of applications.

Important Points The operating system performs the following functions in a device.

Communication management:

  • It acts as an interface between computer hardware components and the user.

Memory management: 

  • The memory management module performs the task of allocation and de-allocation of memory space to programs in need of these resources.
  • ​The need for memory management in OS is to allocate and de-allocate memory space to process in demand of resources or if they are running out of memory that leads to alerts called file system and disk space is high or full.
  • The operating system can do resource allocation and prevent the system from overloading.

Peripheral devices management:

  • The OS uses programs called device drivers to manage connections with peripherals.
  • It handles the translation of requests between a device and the computer. defines where a process must put outgoing data before it can be sent, and where incoming messages will be stored when they are received.

I/O System Management: 

  • One of the main objects of any OS is to hide the peculiarities of that hardware device from the user.

Security:

  • Security module protects the data and information of a computer system against malware threats and authorized access.

Command interpretation: 

  • This module is interpreting commands given by the acting system resources to process those commands.

Additional Information

  • An operating system does not provide internet access.
  • Note that it should not be confused with a web operating system
  • A Web Operating System is an internet-based user interface that allows people to access applications not stored on their computers but completely or partly on the Internet
  • It is a dummy operating system that does not directly interact with computer hardware and depends on the traditional operating system to work

Thus we conclude that the correct answer is A, B, and C only

37

In research, the combination of different methods, study groups, local and temporal settings, and different theoretical perspectives in dealing with a phenomenon is called:

  1. ((a))

    Triangulation

  2. ((b))

    Content analysis

  3. ((c))

    Corpus

  4. ((d))

    Mediation

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

Triangulation

Key Points

Triangulation

  • Triangulation is a research method that combines different methods, study groups, local and temporal settings, and different theoretical perspectives to investigate a phenomenon. It is often used to enhance the validity and reliability of research findings by examining the phenomenon from multiple angles and sources of data.
  • In triangulation, researchers gather data from different sources or perspectives to better understand the phenomenon under investigation. This can include using different research methods such as surveys, interviews, observations, or experiments. It can also involve studying different groups or populations, such as diverse demographics or individuals with varying characteristics.
  • Triangulation may involve examining the phenomenon in different local or temporal settings. This means studying the phenomenon in different geographical locations or points to assess the generalizability and stability of the findings.
  • By combining these different elements, researchers aim to reduce the limitations and biases associated with a single method, group, setting, or perspective.
  • Triangulation helps strengthen the validity and reliability of the research findings by providing a more robust and comprehensive understanding of the phenomenon being studied.
  • Triangulation has also been viewed as a qualitative research strategy to test validity through converging information from different sources.

Hence, the triangulation method is used in research; it combines different methods, study groups, local and temporal settings, and different theoretical perspectives.

Additional Information

  • Content analysis is a research tool used to determine the presence of certain words, themes, or concepts within some given qualitative data (i.e. text). Using content analysis, researchers can quantify and analyze the presence, meanings, and relationships of certain words, themes, or concepts.
  • Corpora (corpus, plural corpora; linguistic data collection) are used to study how language varies between text types, domains, times, regions, speakers, writers, etc. In these kinds of studies, one language variant is compared to another. These 'variants' can be different parts of the same corpus or similar parts of different corpora.
38

Which of the following are identified as verbal communication skills?

A. Use of aggressive language

B. Assertiveness

C. Opening feedback channels

D. Taking credit for oneself

E. Use of affirmative words

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    A, B and C only

  2. ((b))

    B, C and D only

  3. ((c))

    C, D and E only

  4. ((d))

    B, C and E only

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

B, C and E only

Verbal Communication or Oral communication is the most used form of communication done with words.

Key Points

  • The various modes of verbal communication are face-to-face discussions, presentations, intercom, telephonic conversations, radio, transistor, skyping or video chatting, speeches, interviews, etc
  • Verbal communication skills represent more than speaking abilities.
  • They demonstrate how you deliver and receive messages in both speaking and written interactions. These skills focus on how you communicate rather than what you say.
  • Verbal communication skills matter because they enable you to build rapport with other people, which creates more positive interactions and stronger work relationships.
  • Examples of effective verbal communication skills include:
  • Active listening
  • Assertiveness
  • Feedback
  • Asking open-ended questions to gain insights
  • Recognizing and responding to non-verbal cues
  • Speaking clearly and concisely
  • Use of affirmative words
  • Using humor to engage audiences
  • Assertiveness is a healthy way of communicating. It's the ability to speak up for ourselves in a way that is honest and respectful.
  • Without feedback, communication is nothing more than information. This makes feedback the primary component in the communication process because it gives the sender the opportunity to analyze the effect of the message.
  • Affirmative or Positive words, whether spoken or written, are the glue that holds relationships together. Most conversations, letters, and emails are overwhelmingly positive.

So, the correct option is option 4 (B, C, and E only)

Additional Information

  • Aggressive communication is a style in which individuals express their feelings and opinions and advocate for their needs in a way that violates the rights of others. Thus, aggressive communicators are verbally and/or physically abusive.
  • Always taking credit for oneself and not appreciating others' efforts is not a good communication skill.
39

Given below are two statements

Statement I: Body language is the basis of deceptive communication.

Statement II: Non‐verbal cues have their own shared meanings.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. ((b))

    Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. ((c))

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. ((d))

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Body language is the use of physical behavior, expressions, and mannerisms to communicate nonverbally, often done instinctively rather than consciously.

Key Points

Statement IBody language is the basis of deceptive communication.

Explanation: 

  • Deception is defined as an untrue falsehood or the act of lying to or tricking someone.
  • Deceptive communication is any intentional action (or inaction) associated with communication that creates advantages for the deceiver by causing others to adopt or retain false models of reality. Lies are one common example of deceptive communication.
  • Body language is a type of communication in which physical behaviors, are used to express or convey information. Such behavior includes facial expressions, body posture, gestures, eye movement, touch, and the use of space.
  • Deception is mostly associated with lying which is part of verbal communication. Body language is non-verbal communication.

So, we can say that statement I is false.

Statement II:  Non‐verbal cues have their own shared meanings.

Explanation: 

  • Nonverbal cues include “all the communication between people that do not have a direct verbal translation.”
  • They are “body movements, body orientation, nuances of the voice, facial expressions, details of dress, and choice and movement of objects that communicate.”
  • Nonverbal cues include all the ways you present and express yourself, apart from the actual words you speak.
  • Our nonverbal communication cues such as the way we listen, look, move, and react—tell a lot about ourselves, like whether we're being truthful, and how well we're listening. When our nonverbal signals match up with the words you're saying, they increase trust, clarity, and rapport.

So, we can say that statement II is correct.

Therefore we can say that Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

40

More and more informal exchanges within a group to resolve conflicts is an example of

  1. ((a))

    vertical communication.

  2. ((b))

    horizontal communication.

  3. ((c))

    risk communication.

  4. ((d))

    personal communication.

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

horizontal communication.

Patterns of communication are called flows, and they are commonly classified according to the direction of interaction: downward, upward, horizontal, diagonal, and external.

Key Points

  • Horizontal communication is the transmission of information between people, divisions, departments, or units within the same level of organizational hierarchy.
  • The goal here is to promote a feeling of unity and collaboration.
  • It’s becoming more popular in businesses today, especially creative ones. It’ll help everyone feel equally empowered to share their ideas and shape the company.
  • Some advantages of horizontal communication
  • Promotes teamwork and a company-wide sense of unity.
  • Decreases misunderstandings because the same information is shared with everyone.
  • Improves problem-solving skills and boosts creativity.
  • Makes it easier to coordinate teams and tasks.
  • Helps employees feel empowered.

Additional Information

  • Vertical communication is the practice of sharing information hierarchically, from top to bottom or bottom to top.
  • Personal communications may be private letters, memos, emails, personal interviews, or telephone conversations.
  • Risk communication is defined as an interactive process of exchange of information and opinion between risk assessors, risk managers, and other interested parties. Risk communication is an integral component of risk analysis.

Hence more and more informal exchanges within a group to resolve conflicts is an example of  Horizontal communication.

41

What comes next in the following sequence?

8, 6, 4.5, 3.5, ___

  1. ((a))

    1

  2. ((b))

    2

  3. ((c))

    2.5

  4. ((d))

    3

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

3

Given:

Series = 8, 6, 4.5, 3.5, ?

Calculation:

The pattern followed in the given series is:

⇒ 8 - 2 = 6

⇒ 6 - 1.5 = 4.5

⇒ 4.5 - 1 = 3.5

⇒ 3.5 - 0.5 = 3

Here, the series is following the deduction of 0.5 in descending order.

∴ The correct answer is 3.

42

Match List I with List II

List IList II
(Description)(Appropriate Technical Term)
A.Authoring language used to create documents to be viewed on the World Wide WebI.Browser
B.Computer that responds to requests to provide information and services over the InternetII.HTTP
C.Defines how messages are transmitted and formatted over the InternetIII.HTML
D.Software that enables users to access/view documents and other resources on the InternetIV.Internet server

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. ((a))

    (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (IV), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (II)

  2. ((b))

    (A) ‐ (I), (B) ‐ (IV), (C) ‐ (II), (D) ‐ (III)

  3. ((c))

    (A) ‐ (IV), (B) ‐ (III), (C) ‐ (I), (D) ‐ (II)

  4. ((d))

    (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (IV), (C) ‐ (II), (D) ‐ (I)

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

(A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (IV), (C) ‐ (II), (D) ‐ (I)

Key Points 

Appropriate Technical TermDescription
HTML- HTML is an acronym that stands for HyperText Markup Language which is used for creating web pages and web applications. - HyperText is a way to link two or more web pages (HTML documents) with each other. - Hence it is used to create documents to be viewed on the World Wide Web
Internet server- A web or internet server offers web pages or other content to the web browser by loading the information from a disc and transferring files by using a network to the user's web or internet browser. - It is used by a computer or collection of computers to provide content to several users over the internet. This exchange was done with the help of HTTP communication between the browser and the server. - This allows computer responds to requests to provide information and services over the Internet
HTTP- It stands for The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). - It is the data communication protocol used to establish communication between client and server. - it Defines how messages are transmitted and formatted over the Internet
Browser- Browser is a software program that is used to explore, retrieve, and display the information available on the World Wide Web. - This information may be in the form of pictures, web pages, videos, and other files that all are connected via hyperlinks and categorized with the help of URLs (Uniform Resource Identifiers) - it enables users to access/view documents and other resources on the Internet.
<br>

Thus we conclude that the correct matching code is (A) ‐ (III), (B) ‐ (IV), (C) ‐ (II), (D) ‐ (I)

The given table presents the percentage distribution of teachers and ratio of male to female teachers working in a university in six different subjects (A‐F). There is a total number of 1600 teachers in the University. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow

Subject‐wise Distribution of Teachers

SubjectsPercentage (%) of TeachersRatio of Male to Female Teachers
A13%1 : 7
B18%5 : 3
C12%1 : 3
D21%3 : 4
E14%9 : 5
F22%7 : 9
43

Total number of teachers in Subject‐C is approximately what percent of the total number of female teachers in Subject‐D and Subject‐A together?

  1. ((a))

    58

  2. ((b))

    43

  3. ((c))

    47

  4. ((d))

    51

Show Answer
Answer: ((d))

51

Given:

Total number of teachers in the university = 1600

Calculation:

⇒ Total number of teachers in subject C = 12% of 1600 = 192

⇒ Total number of female teachers in Subject D = 21% of 1600 × 4/7 = 192

⇒ Total number of female teachers in Subject A = 13% of 1600 × 7/8 = 182

⇒ Total female teachers in Subject D and Subject A together = 192 + 182 = 374

⇒ Percentage of teachers in Subject C to number of female teachers in Subject D and Subject A = 192/ 374 × 100 = 51.3% = 51%

44

What is the difference between the total number of teachers in Subject‐F and the total number of male teachers in Subject‐A and Subject‐B together?

  1. ((a))

    192

  2. ((b))

    182

  3. ((c))

    146

  4. ((d))

    136

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

146

Given:

Total number of teachers in the university = 1600

Calculation:

⇒ Total number of teachers in Subject F = 22% of 1600 = 352

⇒ Total number of male teachers in the Subject A = 13% of 1600 × 1/8 =  26

⇒ Total number of male teachers in the Subject B = 18% of 1600 × 5/8 = 180

⇒ The difference between the total number of teachers in Subject‐F and the total number of male teachers in Subject‐A and Subject‐B together = 352 - (180 + 26) = 146

45

What is the difference between the number of female teachers in Subject‐F and the number of male teachers in Subject‐C?

  1. ((a))

    156

  2. ((b))

    160

  3. ((c))

    150

  4. ((d))

    153

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

150

Given:

Total number of teachers in the university = 1600

Calculation:

⇒ Total number of female teachers in Subject F = 22% of 1600 × 9/16 = 198

⇒ Total number of males teachers in the Subject C = 12% of 1600 × 1\4 = 48

⇒ The difference between the number of female teachers in Subject‐F and the number of male teachers in Subject‐C = 198 - 48 = 150

46

What is the total number of male teachers in the University?

  1. ((a))

    696

  2. ((b))

    702

  3. ((c))

    712

  4. ((d))

    668

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

696

Given:

Total number of teachers in the University = 1600

Calculation:

⇒ Total number of Male teachers in the Subject A = 13% of 1600 × 1/8 = 26

⇒ Total number of Male teachers in the Subject B = 18% of 1600 × 5/8 = 180 

⇒ Total number of Male teachers in the Subject C = 12% of 1600 × 1/4 = 48

⇒ Total number of Male teachers in the Subject D = 21% of 1600 × 3/7 = 144

⇒ Total number of Male teachers in the Subject E = 14% of 1600 × 9/14 = 144

⇒ Total number of Male teachers in the Subject F = 22% of 1600 × 7/16 = 154

⇒ Total number of male teachers in the University = 696

47

Which is the ratio of the number of female teachers in Subject‐E to the number of male teachers in Subject‐D?

  1. ((a))

    5 : 9

  2. ((b))

    2 : 9

  3. ((c))

    3 : 7

  4. ((d))

    5 : 3

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

5 : 9

Given:

Total number of Teachers in the University = 1600

Calculation:

⇒ Total number of female teachers in the Subject E = 14% of 1600 × 5\14 = 80

⇒ Total number of male teachers in Subject D = 21% of 1600 × 3/7 = 

144

⇒ The ratio of the number of female teachers in Subject‐E to the number of male teachers in Subject‐D = 80 : 144 = 5 : 9

48

Ministry of Education, Government of India's, SWAYAM platform for offering MOOCs has how many quadrants for designing courses?

  1. ((a))

    2 Quadrants

  2. ((b))

    4 Quadrants

  3. ((c))

    6 Quadrants

  4. ((d))

    8 Quadrants

Show Answer
Answer: ((b))

4 Quadrants

The Ministry of Education has launched many schemes for promoting e-learning across students in schools and universities.

Key Points

SWAYAM:

  • Its full form is ‘Study Web of Active Learning For Young Aspiring Minds’.
  • It is an integrated online learning platform for online courses.
  • It is an Indian massive open online course platform.
  • It was launched on July 9, 2017.
  • It was designed to achieve the three-cardinal principle of Education policy, i.e., access, equity, and quality.
  • The courses hosted on Swayam are on 4 quadrants as follows:
  • Video lecture
  • E-Content
  • Test and assignments
  • Online Discussion forum

Additional Information

National CoordinatorsCourse provided by them
AICTE (All India Council for Technical Education)For self-paced and international courses
NITTTR (National Institute of Technical Teachers Training & Research)Teacher Training Program
IGNOU (Indira Gandhi National Open University)Out of school students
NIOS (National Institute of Open Schooling)For school education
IIM B(Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore)Management studies
NCERT (National Council for Educational Research Training)For school education
UGC (University Grants Commission)Non-technical post-graduation education
NPTEL (National Program on Technology Enhanced Learning)Engineering
CEC (Consortium for Educational Communication)For undergraduate education
49

Identify the CORRECT sequence of categories of grapevine communication

A. Cluster chain

B. Probability chain

C. Gossip chain

D. Single strand chain

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. ((a))

    A, B, C, D

  2. ((b))

    B, C, D, A

  3. ((c))

    D, C, B, A

  4. ((d))

    C, D, A, B

Show Answer
Answer: ((c))

D, C, B, A

Grapevine is an informal channel of business communication. It is called so because it stretches throughout the organization in all directions irrespective of the authority levels.

Key Points

  • A grapevine is an informal, unofficial and personal communication channel or system that takes place within the organization.
  • It is a complex web of oral information flow linking all the members of the organization.
  • For example- Suppose the profit amount of a company is known. Rumour is spread that this much profit is there and on that basis, the bonus is declared.
  • Grapevine communication can be categorized into four types, depending on its purpose or outcome. They are arranged from simpler to complex as follows:
  • Single Strand Chain: The message is passed from one person to another until the information reaches almost all the concerned people. It’s a simple and uncomplicated way to communicate with your colleagues.
  • Gossip chain: In the gossip chain, one person is at the epicentre of the wheel who seeks and shares information with others.
  • Probability chain: This is a process of sharing information randomly. The recipients, too, follow a similar random way of sharing the same information.
  • Cluster chain: In the cluster chain, a person tells the information to the selected persons who may in turn relay (pass) the information to other selected persons. Most of the information communication follows this chain.

So, the correct option is option 3 (D, C, B, A)

50

X has one and a quarter times as many as Y, and Z has one and a quarter times as many as X. Altogether, they have 61. 

How many do Z, Y and X have, respectively?

  1. ((a))

    25, 16, 20

  2. ((b))

    20, 16, 12

  3. ((c))

    25, 20, 16

  4. ((d))

    16, 20, 25

Show Answer
Answer: ((a))

25, 16, 20

Given:

X = 1141\frac{1}{4} of Y

Z = 1141\frac{1}{4} of X

X + Y + Z = 61

Calculation:

According to the question,

X = 1141\frac{1}{4} of Y

⇒ X = 54\frac{5}{4} × Y    

XY=54 \frac{X}{Y}=\frac{5}{4}     ----(1)​

And,

Z = 1141\frac{1}{4} of X

Z = 54\frac{5}{4} × X    

ZX=54 \frac{Z}{X}=\frac{5}{4}     ----(2)

Using the concept of ratio and proportion, rewriting the equation (1) and (2) as,

X : Y = (5 : 4) × 4 = 20 : 16

Z : X = (5 : 4) × 5 = 25 : 20

Hence, X : Y : Z = 20 : 16 : 25

∴ Z, Y and X have 25 : 16 : 20.

Important Points→ If A : B = x : y and B : C = p : q, then

​→ If A : B = x : y, B : C = p : q and C : D = m : n, then

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