General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Chabahar Port - Access Central Asia via Iran.

Key Points

• Chabahar Port is strategically located in southeastern Iran and acts as India's gateway to Central Asia and Afghanistan, bypassing Pakistan.
• India has invested in the development of the Chabahar Port to enhance trade and economic connectivity in the region.
• It serves as a critical element of India’s “Connect Central Asia Policy,” which aims to strengthen ties with Central Asian countries.
• Chabahar Port facilitates the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), enabling efficient and cost-effective trade routes between India, Iran, and Eurasia.
• This port is crucial for India's energy diplomacy, as it provides access to resources from Central Asia and improves regional geopolitical influence.

Additional Information

• International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC)
• A 7,200 km long multimodal transportation network connecting India, Iran, Russia, and Central Asia.
• Aims to reduce transit costs and delivery time compared to conventional trade routes.
• Key strategic initiative to boost India’s trade and connectivity within the Eurasian region.
• Geopolitical Significance of Chabahar Port
• Chabahar provides India a foothold in Iran, enhancing its strategic and economic presence in the region.
• The port counters China’s Belt and Road Initiative by offering an alternative trade route.
• It strengthens India-Afghanistan connectivity, especially for humanitarian aid and trade.
• India’s Connect Central Asia Policy
• Launched in 2012 to deepen engagement with Central Asian nations.
• Focuses on energy security, trade, cultural ties, and regional connectivity.
• Chabahar Port is a key infrastructure development under this policy.
• India-Iran Relations in Context of Chabahar
• India and Iran signed agreements for port development and strategic cooperation in 2016.
• Iran’s Chabahar Port complements India’s foreign policy objectives for regional stability and connectivity.
• Sanctions on Iran have posed challenges but efforts to mitigate them are ongoing.

The correct answer is Ornate Mughal domes.

Key Points

• French colonial architecture in India is characterized by features such as wide verandas, tall doors and windows, and sloped tiled roofs.
• The architecture incorporates European design principles, emphasizing symmetry, simplicity, and functionality.
• Ornate Mughal domes are not part of French colonial architecture; these are typically associated with Mughal architecture, which has a distinct Indo-Islamic style.
• French settlements like Pondicherry showcase colonial-style buildings painted in pastel hues, with arched doorways and minimal ornamentation.
• French colonial architecture reflects a fusion of European and Tamil influences, but it distinctly avoids the intricate detailing characteristic of Mughal structures.

Additional Information

• French Colonial Architecture:
• Developed during the French colonial period, it is known for its neoclassical design elements and open layouts to suit tropical climates.
• Key features include high ceilings, elevated plinths, and large courtyards to enhance airflow and cooling.
• Structures often used lime plaster and brick masonry, with minimal decorative elements.
• The colonial grid layout of towns like Pondicherry reflects a planned urban design approach.
• Mughal Architecture:
• Originating in the 16^th century, Mughal architecture is known for its ornate domes, intricate carvings, and use of marble.
• Key monuments include the Taj Mahal, Humayun’s Tomb, and Jama Masjid.
• It blends Persian, Indian, and Islamic styles, emphasizing symmetry and elaborate ornamentation.
• European Colonial Influence in India:
• European colonial powers like the French, British, and Portuguese left distinct architectural legacies in India.
• The British introduced Victorian Gothic and Indo-Saracenic styles, while the Portuguese favored baroque designs.
• French colonial architecture is primarily seen in southern Indian settlements like Pondicherry and Karaikal.
• Colonial Urban Planning:
• French colonies were planned with grid layouts, emphasizing organization and efficiency.
• Public spaces, churches, and administrative buildings were central to the design.
• The legacy of colonial urban planning is still evident in cities like Pondicherry, which retain their heritage charm.

The correct answer is 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India was adopted on 26^th November 1949 and came into effect on 26^th January 1950.
• Originally, the Constitution contained 395 Articles divided into 22 parts and 8 Schedules.
• It is regarded as the longest written Constitution of any sovereign nation in the world.
• The original Constitution was drafted by the Drafting Committee, headed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Chairman of the Committee.
• Over time, the Constitution has undergone several amendments, increasing the number of Articles and Schedules.

Additional Information

• Articles: The Constitution originally contained 395 Articles addressing different aspects such as Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, Union and State relations, etc.
• Schedules: The 8 Schedules at the time of adoption dealt with subjects like allocation of powers between Union and States, provisions related to Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Castes, and administration of tribal areas.
• Amendments: As of now, the Constitution has been amended multiple times, with changes such as the addition of new parts, Articles, and Schedules. Currently, there are 448 Articles and 12 Schedules.
• Directive Principles: The Constitution incorporates Directive Principles of State Policy inspired by Ireland, aiming to establish a welfare state.
• Constitutional Framework: It draws inspiration from various global sources including the British parliamentary system, American Bill of Rights, and Australian federal structure.

The correct answer is Third Schedule.

Key Points

• The Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions related to Oaths or Affirmations for various constitutional offices.
• It specifies the text of oaths or affirmations to be taken by Members of Parliament (MPs), Members of State Legislatures (MLAs/MLCs), Ministers, Judges, and other dignitaries.
• The objective of the oath is to ensure that the office bearers uphold the Constitution and perform their duties with integrity and loyalty.
• The oath is administered by the President of India, Governor, or designated authority, depending on the office.
• The Third Schedule demonstrates the significance of constitutional commitment for those holding public offices.

Additional Information

• Oath or Affirmation:
• An oath is a solemn promise, often invoking a divine witness, regarding one's future actions or behavior.
• An affirmation is a solemn declaration allowed for individuals who do not wish to swear by a deity.
• Both forms are recognized under the Indian Constitution and carry equal legal weight.
• Schedules in the Indian Constitution:
• The Indian Constitution originally had 8 Schedules; currently, it has 12.
• Each Schedule contains specific provisions related to governance, administration, and federal structure.
• Other Key Schedules:
• Second Schedule: Provisions related to salaries, allowances, and privileges of constitutional office holders.
• Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to states and union territories.
• Fifth Schedule: Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
• Administration of Oath:
• The President of India administers the oath to the Prime Minister, other Union Ministers, and Governors.
• In states, the Governor administers the oath to Chief Ministers and other state ministers.

The correct answer is A-2, B-3, C-1.

Key Points

• Kharif crops (A-2): These are sown in the rainy season (June-September). Examples include rice, cotton, bajra, maize, jowar, and tur.
• Rabi crops (B-3): These are sown in the winter season (October-March). Examples include wheat, gram, rapeseeds, mustard, and barley.
• Zaid crops (C-1): These are grown in the summer season (April-June). Examples include vegetables, fruits, and fodder.
• The classification of crops based on the cropping season is essential for ensuring efficient agricultural production and resource management.

Additional Information

• Crop Seasons in India
• India follows three main cropping seasons: Kharif, Rabi, and Zaid.
• Kharif crops are sown with the onset of monsoon and harvested before the winter season.
• Rabi crops are sown after the monsoon and harvested in the spring.
• Zaid crops are grown between the Kharif and Rabi seasons, typically requiring short durations.
• Factors Affecting Crop Growth
• Temperature, rainfall, and soil type play a crucial role in determining the cropping season.
• Kharif crops require high temperatures and abundant rainfall.
• Rabi crops grow better in cooler climates and require less water.
• Examples of Crop Rotation
• Crop rotation helps optimize soil nutrients and minimize pests and diseases.
• Farmers often rotate Kharif crops like rice with Rabi crops like wheat or mustard.
• Importance of Cropping Seasons
• Understanding cropping seasons helps in planning irrigation and fertilizer usage.
• It also aids in maximizing agricultural yield and maintaining food security.

The correct answer is 2) 2 only.

Key Points

• The Indian Councils Act, 1892, marked a modest but significant step in the evolution of legislative governance in India.
• The Act empowered legislative councils to discuss the budget and pose questions to the executive, enhancing legislative oversight and accountability.
• It did not introduce the principle of direct elections; instead, it allowed local bodies to recommend members, which were ultimately nominated by the government.
• While there was an increase in the number of non-official members in the councils, the Act did not substantially increase the number of official members in the Central Legislative Council.
• The Act was a precursor to further reforms, such as those introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms).

Additional Information

• Indian Councils Act, 1861: This Act introduced legislative councils in provinces such as Bengal, Bombay, and Madras, marking the beginning of legislative decentralization in India.
• Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms): This Act introduced the principle of separate electorates for Muslims, a significant development in Indian politics.
• Budget Discussions: Before the 1892 Act, there was no provision for discussing the budget in legislative councils. The Act allowed members to express their views on financial matters for the first time.
• Unorganized Voting System: The Act permitted local bodies like municipalities and district boards to recommend members to the councils, but this was far from a direct election system.
• Limitations of the Act: Despite its progressive features, the Act retained the dominant role of the British government in decision-making and limited the autonomy of Indian representatives.

The correct answer is Rate at which commercial banks borrow from the RBI.

Key Points

• The repo rate is the interest rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends short-term funds to commercial banks in India.
• It is a key monetary policy tool used by the RBI to regulate liquidity, control inflation, and stabilize the economy.
• A higher repo rate makes borrowing costlier for banks, which in turn increases loan rates for consumers, thereby controlling inflation.
• A reduction in the repo rate makes borrowing cheaper for banks, encouraging lending and investment, which boosts economic growth.
• The repo rate is reviewed bi-monthly during the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meetings.

Additional Information

• Reverse Repo Rate:
• It is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from commercial banks.
• A higher reverse repo rate encourages banks to park their funds with the RBI, reducing liquidity in the economy.
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
• The CRR is the percentage of a bank's total deposits that must be maintained as reserves with the RBI.
• A higher CRR reduces liquidity, while a lower CRR increases funds available for lending.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
• This is the percentage of net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that banks must hold in the form of liquid assets like cash, gold, or government-approved securities.
• SLR is used to regulate credit growth and maintain financial stability.
• Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
• It is a six-member committee constituted by the RBI to set the repo rate and other monetary policy instruments.
• The MPC aims to achieve inflation targeting while fostering growth in the economy.
• Impact of Repo Rate Changes:
• An increase in the repo rate leads to higher interest rates on loans and deposits, helping to control inflation.
• A decrease in the repo rate encourages borrowing and investment, boosting economic activity.

The correct answer is Simultaneous multi-wavelength observations.

Key Points

• AstroSat is India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on 28 September 2015.
• A unique feature of AstroSat is its ability to perform simultaneous observations across multiple wavelengths, including visible light, ultraviolet, and X-rays.
• It carries five scientific payloads that work together to provide data in different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum.
• AstroSat's multi-wavelength capability allows it to study high-energy processes in the universe, such as neutron stars, black holes, and active galactic nuclei, with unprecedented detail.
• It is comparable to some of the world's leading space observatories, like NASA's Hubble Space Telescope and Chandra X-ray Observatory, in its ability to study celestial objects comprehensively.

Additional Information

• Multi-Wavelength Astronomy:
• It involves observing celestial objects across different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum, such as visible, infrared, ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays.
• This technique helps uncover diverse physical processes occurring in astronomical phenomena that might not be visible in a single wavelength.
• AstroSat's Payloads:
• UVIT (Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope): Captures data in near-ultraviolet, far-ultraviolet, and visible light.
• SXT (Soft X-ray Telescope): Observes soft X-rays to study high-energy sources.
• LAXPC (Large Area X-ray Proportional Counter): Focuses on hard X-rays for studying compact objects like neutron stars and black holes.
• CZTI (Cadmium Zinc Telluride Imager): Detects hard X-rays and studies gamma-ray bursts.
• SSM (Scanning Sky Monitor): Monitors the sky for transient X-ray sources.
• Scientific Contributions:
• AstroSat has provided insights into star formation, galaxy evolution, and the behavior of cosmic phenomena like black holes and pulsars.
• It has observed rare cosmic events such as tidal disruption events and gamma-ray bursts.
• Global Collaboration:
• AstroSat data is shared with the international scientific community, fostering collaboration and advancing global astrophysical research.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

• The penalty spot in football is positioned 11 meters (12 yards) from the goal line as per the Laws of the Game set by FIFA.
• This distance was formalized in 1891 when the penalty kick rule was introduced to ensure fairness and maintain a balance between the penalty taker and the goalkeeper.
• The reasoning behind the distance is to provide the goalkeeper with a fair reaction time while simultaneously challenging the accuracy and confidence of the penalty taker.
• The penalty kick is a direct free kick, and only the penalty taker and the goalkeeper are allowed to be in the penalty area during the kick.
• The goalkeeper must remain on the goal line until the penalty is taken but may move laterally to prepare for the shot.

Additional Information

• Penalty Kick Overview:
• Introduced in 1891 as a measure to prevent intentional fouls near the goal.
• A penalty kick is awarded when a player commits a direct free kick offense inside their own penalty area.
• The penalty spot is a fixed point from which the penalty taker must shoot the ball.
• FIFA Laws of the Game:
• The Laws of the Game are maintained by the International Football Association Board (IFAB), with FIFA as a key member.
• These laws dictate the dimensions and markings on the football field, including the penalty area and spot.
• Goalkeeper Rules During a Penalty:
• The goalkeeper must have at least part of one foot touching, or in line with, the goal line until the ball is kicked.
• Moving forward off the goal line before the penalty is taken results in a retake if a goal is not scored.
• Psychological Aspects of Penalty Kicks:
• Penalty kicks test the mental focus and composure of both the penalty taker and the goalkeeper.
• Studies show that penalty shootouts are often influenced by psychological pressure and confidence.
• Historical Context:
• The penalty kick was first used in a competitive match in 1891 during an Irish Cup semi-final.
• It has since become a crucial part of football, used to resolve matches tied after extra time in knockout tournaments.

The correct answer is Option 2: 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

• The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida is a novel by Sri Lankan author Shehan Karunatilaka, which won the 2022 Booker Prize.
• The novel is set against the backdrop of the Sri Lankan Civil War and follows the story of a deceased photojournalist navigating the afterlife to uncover the truth behind his death.
• Shehan Karunatilaka uses satire, humor, and supernatural elements, including ghosts, to explore themes such as violence, memory, and political trauma.
• The narrative critiques the political and social turmoil in Sri Lanka, highlighting the struggles of individuals caught in the conflict.
• Option 1 (civil war and afterlife) and Option 3 (satire and political commentary) are accurate descriptions of the book, while Option 2 (archaeological excavations) is unrelated.

Additional Information

• The Booker Prize:
• One of the most prestigious literary awards in the world, it recognizes the best novel written in English and published in the UK or Ireland.
• Established in 1969, it celebrates outstanding literary works that contribute to global literature.
• Sri Lankan Civil War:
• A 26-year-long conflict (1983–2009) between the Sri Lankan government and the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE), seeking an independent Tamil state.
• The war caused immense suffering, loss of life, and displacement, heavily influencing Sri Lankan art and literature.
• Shehan Karunatilaka:
• An acclaimed Sri Lankan author whose works often explore themes of history, politics, and identity.
• His debut novel, "Chinaman: The Legend of Pradeep Mathew," won several awards, including the Commonwealth Book Prize.
• Supernatural Elements in Literature:
• Ghosts, spirits, and the afterlife are often used to address unresolved conflicts, memories, and traumas.
• In "The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida," the supernatural serves as a narrative tool to explore both personal and societal issues.

The correct answer is M Balamuralikrishna.

Key Points

• M Balamuralikrishna was a renowned Carnatic music vocalist, composer, and instrumentalist from India.
• He was known for his versatility in both vocal and instrumental music, excelling in violin, veena, and mridangam.
• His contributions to Carnatic music include numerous compositions and the creation of new ragas such as Mahati.
• Balamuralikrishna was honored with prestigious awards, including the Padma Vibhushan and Padma Shri, for his contributions to Indian classical music.

Additional Information

• Carnatic music is a classical music tradition from South India, focusing on intricate compositions, improvisations, and devotional themes.
• Alla Rakha was a famous tabla player known for his collaborations with sitar maestro Ravi Shankar in Hindustani classical music.
• L Subramaniam is a renowned violinist known for blending Carnatic and Western classical music but is not primarily a vocalist.
• Ravi Shankar was a legendary sitar player, credited with popularizing Hindustani classical music globally.
• Balamuralikrishna's innovations in Carnatic music included singing in unconventional octaves and introducing creative rhythmic structures.

The correct answer is Cheti Chand

Key Points

• The birth anniversary of Lord Jhulelal of the Sindhi community is also known as Cheti Chand or Jhulelal Jayanti.
• Cheti Chand is a festival celebrated by Sindhi Hindus to mark the birth of their patron saint, Lord Jhulelal.
• It is also celebrated as the Sindhi New Year.
• The festival is celebrated on the first day of the Sindhi month of Chet, which is the second day of Chaitra Shukla Paksha in the Hindu calendar.
• The festival is celebrated by Sindhis all over the world, especially in India and Pakistan.

Additional Information

• Lord Jhulelal
• Lord Jhulelal is the patron saint of the Sindhi community.
• He is also known as Uderolal or Dariyalal.
• He is often depicted as an elderly man with a white beard and mustache.
• He is considered the Ishta Deva (chosen deity) of the Sindhis

The correct answer is Nhava Sheva and Haldia

Key Points

• Nhava Sheva and Haldia are satellite ports in India.
• Nhava Sheva
• It is Also known as Jawaharlal Nehru Port, this port was built to reduce the congestion at the Mumbai port.
• It's India's largest container port, handling about 56% of the country's containers.
• Haldia
• This port is part of the Kolkata Dock System and Haldia Dock Complex

Additional Information

The correct answer is Nutrition support 

Key Points

• Nutrition support is the best choice for the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme because it provides food to children and pregnant and lactating women.
• Children in the age group 0-6 years constitute around 158 million of the population of India (2011 census).
• These Children are the future human resource of the country.
• Ministry of Women and Child Development is implementing various schemes for the welfare, development, and protection of children.
• Launched on 2^nd October 1975, the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme is one of the flagship programs of the Government of India and represents one of the world’s largest and unique programs for early childhood care and development.

Additional Information

• It is the foremost symbol of the country’s commitment to its children and nursing mothers, as a response to the challenge of providing pre-school non-formal education on one hand and breaking the vicious cycle of malnutrition, morbidity, reduced learning capacity, and mortality on the other.
• The beneficiaries under the Scheme are children in the age group of 0-6 years, pregnant women, and lactating mothers.
• ICDS services
• Supplementary Nutrition
• Pre-school non-formal education
• Nutrition & health education
• Immunization
• Health check-up
• Referral services

The correct answer is Onam.

Key Points

• Onam:-
• It is the most popular festival celebrated in the state of Kerala, India.
• It is a 10-day harvest festival that usually falls in the month of August or September.
• The festival is marked by various cultural events and traditional activities such as boat races, flower decorations, and feasting.
• Onam is celebrated to honor the legendary king Mahabali and to welcome his annual visit to Kerala.

Additional Information

• Ugadi:
• Ugadi is a major festival celebrated in the southern states of India, especially in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka.
• It marks the beginning of the Hindu lunar calendar and is celebrated on the first day of the month of Chaitra, which usually falls in March or April.
• The festival is also known as Yugadi, which means 'the beginning of a new age.'
• It symbolizes the start of a new year and the onset of spring.
• On this day, people clean and decorate their homes, wear new clothes, prepare special dishes, and offer prayers to the gods.
• They also exchange greetings and gifts with friends and family
• It is a harvest festival celebrated in the state of Assam.
• Nuakhai 
• It is an agricultural festival celebrated by the people of Odisha.
• It is the greatest harvesting festival of Odisha.
• It is observed to welcome the new rice of the season.
• Nua means new and Khai means food i.e. Nuakhai's Hindi meaning is 'new food'.
• ‘Nuakhai’ festival is celebrated one day after the Ganesh Chaturthi festival.
• The festival has a big significance for farmers and the agricultural community.
• Gudi Padwa​
• Gudi Padwa, which is mostly observed in the state of Maharashtra, ushers in the harvest season.
• According to the lunisolar Hindu calendar, Maharashtrians celebrate the day as New Year's Day.
• Gudi, which refers to Brahma's flag, and Padwa, Padva, or Paddava, which refers to the first day of the moon's bright phase, are the two terms that make up the phrase "Gudi Padwa."

The correct answer is Twinkle Khanna

Key Points

• The author of the book "Mrs Funnybones" is Twinkle Khanna.
• The book Mrs Funnybones was released in 2015
• It falls under the category of humorous essays and observations, blending wit and satire to present a fresh perspective on modern Indian life
• The book is a witty and satirical take on modern Indian life, inspired by Twinkle Khanna's personal experiences, anecdotes, and observations as a mother, wife, and woman in India.

Additional Information

The correct answer is The particles move faster

Key Points

• As the temperature rises, the particles of matter move faster.
• This is because the particles gain kinetic energy
• Kinetic Energy is the energy that a body possesses due to its motion.
• It is directly proportional to both the mass of the body and the square of its velocity.
• The mathematical expression for kinetic energy is:\(Kinetic Energy(KE)= 1/2 ​ mv^2\)

Additional Information

• When the temperature increases-
• The particles gain kinetic energy and start vibrating.
• The particles move faster and take up more space.
• The forces of attraction between the particles weaken.
• This can lead to a change in the state of matter.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh

Key Points

• Andhra Pradesh has the highest sex ratio of 993 as per the 2011 Census.
• The Census of India 2011 provides detailed demographic data, including the sex ratio, which is defined as the number of females per 1,000 males.
• Bihar: 918 females per 1,000 males.
• Uttar Pradesh: 912 females per 1,000 males.
• Rajasthan: 928 females per 1,000 males.

Additional Information Census 2011

• The Indian Census is the most credible source of information on Demography (Population characteristics), Economic Activity, Literacy and Education, Housing Household Amenities, Urbanisation, Fertility and Mortality, etc.
• Census 2011 was the 15^th National Census of the Country.
• Census was introduced in India during the era of Lord Mayo in the year 1872. It came into force in 1881.
• This census was conducted under the guidance of Mr. C. Chandramouli.
• The slogan of census 2011 was ‘Our Census, Our future’.
• The population of the nation as per the provisional figures of Census 2011 was 1210.19 million of which 623.7 million (51.54%) were males and 586.46 million (48.46%) were females. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India its population is more than the population of Brazil.

The correct answer is Nagasena

Key Points

• ​The Buddhist monk Nagasena converted the Indo-Greek king Menander to Buddhism.
• The conversion is documented in the Pali Buddhist text Milinda-panha.
• Menander was an Indo-Greek king and ruler of Bactria.
• He was also known as Milinda.
• Nagasena was a Buddhist monk and philosopher.
• The Milinda-panha is a Pali Buddhist text that records a dialogue between Menander and Nagasena.
• The dialogue ends with Menander converting to Buddhism.
• Menander was a patron of Buddhism and the wheel on his coins is connected with Buddhism.
• After converting to Buddhism, Menander sent Buddhist missionaries to Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia.

Additional Information

The correct answer is an Inward-looking trade strategy

Key Points

• India adopted the inward-looking trade strategy, also known as import substitution, during the first seven Five-Year Plans.
• This strategy aimed to increase domestic production and protect local products from international competition.
• This strategy attempted to replace imports with homegrown production.
• The government shielded indigenous industries from foreign competition under this policy.
• For instance, businesses will be urged to make vehicles in India rather than importing them from elsewhere.

Additional Information

• Our industries were unable to compete with the goods produced by more developed economies, therefore the government implemented an import substitution programme.
• It is believed that if domestic industries are safeguarded, they will eventually figure out how to compete.
• There was a chance that foreign currency would be used to import expensive products if there were no import restrictions.
• Because industrialization moves quickly and absorbs unemployed individuals, it assisted in addressing the unemployment issue.
• This immediately contributed to economic growth by assisting in the development of a strong industrial base in our nation.