SSC Stenographer 2024 Official Paper (Held On: 10 Dec, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

According to the question, after 3 and 9 are interchanged and - and × are interchanged:

Let's check options one by one:

Option 1) 12 ÷ 9 - 2 × 7 + 3 = 10

According to the question, after 3 and 9 are interchanged and - and × are interchanged:

⇒ 12 ÷ 3 × 2 - 7 + 9 = 10

⇒ 4 × 2 - 7 + 9 = 10

⇒ 8  - 7 + 9 = 10

⇒ 17 - 7 = 10

Option 2) 1 - 9 × 10 ÷ 4 + 3 = 32

According to the question, after 3 and 9 are interchanged and - and × are interchanged:

⇒  1 × 3 - 10 ÷ 4 + 9 = 32

⇒ 3 - 2.5 + 9 = 32

⇒ 12 -  2.5 = 9.5 ≠ 32

Option 3) 9 ÷ 2 × 1 - 3 + 5 = 15

According to the question, after 3 and 9 are interchanged and - and × are interchanged:

⇒ 3 ÷ 2 -1 × 9 + 5 = 15

⇒ 1.5 - 9 + 5 = 15

⇒ 6.5 - 9 = - 2.5 ≠ 15

Option 4) 9 ÷ 4 × 3 + 1 - 6 = 18

According to the question, after 3 and 9 are interchanged and - and × are interchanged:

⇒ 3 ÷ 4 - 9 + 1 × 6 = 18 

⇒ 0.75 - 9 + 6 = 18

⇒ 6.75 - 9 = - 2.25 ≠ 18.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The image embedded in given figure is as shown below:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Statements:

All pants are shirts.

All shirts are jackets.

Some jackets are sweaters.

The least possible Venn diagram is given:

Conclusions:

I. Some jackets are pants - True (Because, All pants are shirts and All shirts are jackets, it implies that same jackets are pant as well).

II. Some sweaters are shirts - **False (**Because, there is no direct relation is given between sweaters and shirts, it can be possible only).

III. No pant is a sweater - False (Because, there is no direct relation is given between sweaters and pant , it can be possible only).

Thus, Only conclusion I follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Statements:

Some teachers are dancers.

All dancers are beautiful.

All teachers are honest.

The least possible Venn diagram is given:

Conclusions:

I. Some teachers are beautiful - True (Because, Some teachers are dancers and All dancers are beautiful, it implies that the common part of teacher and dancer is Some teacher are beautiful). 

II. Some dancers are honest - True (Because, Some teachers are dancers and All teachers are honest, it implies that the common part of teacher and dancer is Some dancers are honest). 

Thus, Both conclusions I and II follow.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: 108 × 2 − 14 ÷ 6 + 27 = ?

According to the question, after ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged:

⇒ 108 ÷ 2 + 14 × 6 - 27 = ?

⇒ 54 + 84 - 27 = ?

⇒ 138 - 27 = 111.

Hence, the correct answer is "option 3".

Given Equation: 19 L 95 N 5 J 35 P 7 = 333

BODMAS Rule:

Decoding the given information:

Let's check options one by one.

Option 1) (P and N)

According to the question, after ‘P’ and ‘N’ are interchanged:

⇒ 19 ÷  95 + 5 - 35 × 7 = 333

⇒ 0.2 + 5 - 245 = 33

⇒ 5.2 - 245 = - 239.8 ≠ 333.

Option 2) (P and L)

According to the question, after ‘P’ and ‘L’ are interchanged:

⇒ 19 L 95 N 5 J 35 P 7 = 333

⇒ 19 + 95 × 5 - 35 ÷ 7 = 333

⇒ 19 + 475 - 5 = 333

⇒ 494 - 5 = 489 ≠ 333.

Option 3) (N and L) 

According to the question, after ‘N’ and ‘L’ are interchanged:

⇒ 19 × 95 ÷  5 - 35 + 7 = 333 

⇒ 19 × 19 - 35 + 7 = 333

⇒ 361 - 35 + 7 = 333

⇒ 368 - 35 = 333

Option 4) (J and N) 

According to the question, after ‘N’ and ‘J’ are interchanged:

⇒ 19 ÷ 95 - 5 ×  35 + 7 = 333

⇒ 0.2 - 175 + 7 = 333

⇒ 7.2 - 175 =  - 167.8 ≠ 333.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given date: 14 September 3041.

Now,

Till 3000 → 2800 + 200

In 2800 Years the odd day is 0,

In 200 Years the odd day is 3,

In 40 Years (10 Leap Years and 30 Ordinary years) the odd day is 10 × 2 + 30 × 1 = 20 + 30 = 50 odd days,

⇒ 0 + 3 + 50

⇒ 53 odd days.

And, from 1st Jan 3041 to 14 September 3041:

⇒ 31(Jan) + 28(Feb, 3041 is not a leap year) + 31(March) + 30(April) + 31(May) + 30(June) + 31(July) + 31(August) + 14(September) = 257 days.

Total odd days → 53 + 257 = 310 days = 310/7 = 44 weeks and 2 odd days.

→ 2 represents Tuesday.

So, 14 September 3041 is Tuesday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Tuesday".

The logic followed here is: 

For,  ‘PRICE’ is coded as EGRTK

For, ‘STAGE’ is coded as IGUVC.

Similarly,   ‘RIGHT’ be coded as ?

Thus,  ‘RIGHT’ be coded as JVTKI.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Association with their primary function or purpose.

Here,

Red Cross : Hospital → Red Cross is an organization associated with Hospitals and medical aid.

Similarly,

Wheel : Progress → Wheel is often associated with Progress and advancement in technology and transportation.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: Five houses (A, B, C, D, and E) are located equidistant from each other in such a way that

B is to the East of A,

D is to the South of B,

C is to the West of D,

and E is to the South of C.

Thus, The direction is A to E is North.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is: 

Option 1) FUHC

Option 2) SHQP

Option 3) WDYT

Option 4) JQLG

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Statements:

Some flowers are buds.

Some flowers are trees.

Conclusions:

The least possible Venn diagram is given:

I. Some trees are buds - False (Because, there is no direct relation is given between trees are buds, so it can be possible only). 

II. No tree is a bud - False (Because, there is no direct relation is given between trees are buds, so it can be possible only).

Thus, neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: 7 + 5 ÷ 3 − 12 × 4

Decoding the given information:

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 7 × 5 - 3 + 12 ÷ 4

⇒ 7 × 5 - 3 + 3

⇒ 35 - 3 + 3

= 38 - 3  = 35

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) DFA

Option 2) SUQ

Option 3) IKF

Option 4) PRM

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given: 5 + 3 × 2 ÷ 10 − 5 = ?

Given equation: 5 + 3 × 2 ÷ 10 − 5 = ?

According to the question, after ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged:

 ⇒ 5 × 3 + 2 − 10 ÷ 5 = ?

⇒ 15 + 2 - 2 = ?

⇒ 17 - 2 = ?

⇒ 15.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Number of parallelogram of given figure are: 

Thus, the Number of parallelogram is "8".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Give: EGMA

English words can be formed with the letters ‘EGMA’ using each letter exactly only once in each word.

Letters are E, G, M, A.

Word can be formed it. "GAME".

Word can be formed it. "MEGA".

Word can be formed it. "MAGE".

Thus, only three words can be formed by using each letter exactly only once in each word.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

4. Meaningless

5. Measurement

6. Memorabilia

7. Merchandise

8. Methodology

Thud, the correct dictionary order is 4, 1, 5, 3, 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: 2 – 55 + 11 × 4 ÷ 18

Required value: 0

According to the question, after interchanging the signs and numbers:

Option 1) + and ÷; 2 and 18

2 – 55 + 11 × 4 ÷ 18 ⇒ 18 – 55 ÷ 11 × 4 + 2

⇒ 18 – 55 ÷ 11 × 4 + 2

⇒ 18 – 5 × 4 + 2

⇒ 18 + 2 – 20

⇒ 20 – 20

⇒ 0

Option  2) × and – ; 4 and 11

2 – 55 + 11 × 4 ÷ 18 ⇒ 2 × 55 + 4 - 11 ÷ 18

⇒ 2 × 55 + 4 - 11 ÷ 18

⇒ 2 × 55 + 4 - 0.61

⇒ 110 + 4 - 0.61

⇒ 114 - 0.61

⇒ 113.39

Option  3) – and ÷; 2 and 4

2 – 55 + 11 × 4 ÷ 18 ⇒ 4 ÷ 55 + 11 × 2 - 18

⇒ 4 ÷ 55 + 11 × 2 - 18

⇒ 0.07 + 11 × 2 - 18

⇒ 0.07 + 22 - 18

⇒ 22.07 - 18

⇒ 4.07

Option  4) + and ÷; 11 and 18 

2 – 55 + 11 × 4 ÷ 18 ⇒ 2 – 55 ÷ 18 × 4 + 11

⇒ 2 – 55 ÷ 18 × 4 + 11

⇒ 2 – 3.05 × 4 + 11

⇒ 2 + 11 – 12.2

⇒ 13 – 12.2

⇒ 0.8

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

AZ 1 is related to CX 3

And,

EV 5 is related to GT 7

Similarly,

IR 9 is related to

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

'BOOK' is coded as 172

And,

'PAGES' is coded as 240

Similarly,

'LIBRARY' is coded as

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: Among seven people F, G, H, K, L, M and N, each has a different age. 

1) Only two people are older than M. 

2) Only two people are younger than K.

3)  F is the eldest.

4) The age of K is a multiple of 10. 

5) The youngest is 12 years old.

Here, age is of K will more than 12 years, therefore possible age is K ≥ 20 years. 

6) N is older than L, but younger than H.

7. L is not the youngest. 

After positioning N, H and L only one position is left which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. G.

8) The sum of the ages of the youngest and second oldest person is 42 years.

Second oldest person's age = 42 - youngest person's age → 42 - 12 = 30 years

Thus, according to the final arrangement 15 years can be the possible age of L i.e. more than 12 years less than K's age (≥ 20).

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

(9, 83, 164)

9² + 83 = 164

81 + 83 = 164

164 = 164 (LHS = RHS)

And,

(4, 18, 34)

42 + 18 = 34

16 + 18 = 34

34 = 34 (LHS = RHS)

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) (6, 38, 74)

62 + 38 = 74

36 + 38 = 74

74 = 74 (LHS = RHS)

Option 2) (5, 27, 56) 

52 + 27 = 56

25 + 27 = 56

52 ≠ 56 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) (11, 122, 242)

112 + 122 = 242

121 + 122 = 242

243 ≠ 242 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4) (13, 167, 334)

132 + 167 = 334

169 + 167 = 334

336 ≠ 334 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Thus, out of all the options '(6, 38, 74)' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: Six friends are playing a bottle-spinning game around a circular table, facing the centre. 

1) Rohini is sitting third to the left of Rashmi. 

2) Ravi is sitting second to the right of Rashmi.

3) Rahul is sitting in between Rashmi and Ramesh.

4) Ravi is sitting in between Rohini and Raju.

Thus, according to the final arrangement Rashmi is sitting to the immediate left of Raju.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

1. Letter element → The letter element shift clockwise and replaced by the next vowel subsequently.

2. Hexagon element → The hexagon element shift clockwise and is alternately shaded.

3. Heart element → The heart element is alternately shaded.

Thus, final series is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Given:

505 – 604 – 217

5 + 0 + 5 = 10

6 + 0 + 4 = 10

2 + 1 + 7 = 10

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) 244 – 226 – 262

2 + 4 + 4 = 10

2 + 2 + 6 = 10

2 + 6 + 2 = 10

Option 2) 432 – 513 – 711  

4 + 3 + 2 = 9 ≠ 10

5 + 1 + 3 = 9 ≠ 10

7 + 1 + 1 = 9 ≠ 10

Option 3) 161 – 512 – 710

1 + 6 + 1 = 8 ≠ 10

5 + 1 + 2 = 8 ≠ 10

7 + 1 + 0 = 8 ≠ 10

Option 4) 125 – 223 – 342

1 + 2 + 5 = 7 ≠ 10

2 + 2 + 3 = 7 ≠ 10

3 + 4 + 2 = 9 ≠ 10

Thus, out of all the options '244 – 226 – 262' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Given:

12:168

12² + 24 = 168

144 + 24 = 168

168 = 168 (LHS = RHS)

And,

11:145

112 + 24 = 145

121 + 24 = 145

145 = 145 (LHS = RHS)

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) 5:61

52 + 24 = 61

25 + 24 = 61

49 ≠ 61 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 2) 14:172  

142 + 24 = 172

196 + 24 = 172

220 ≠ 172 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 3) 16:232

162 + 24 = 232

256 + 24 = 232

280 ≠ 232 (LHS ≠ RHS)

Option 4) 8:88

82 + 24 = 88

64 + 24 = 88

88 = 88 (LHS = RHS)

Thus, out of all the options '8:88' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure D will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: Suresh is now 19 years old and in college. Since he was a 5-year-old, he stayed in a hostel and is now coming back home after 14 long years. His parents have texted him the direction from the railway station to his house.

 “When you step out of the railway station, you are facing north.

Take a right and drive 4 km, you will see a T-point/junction.

Take a right and drive 2 km. There will be a roundabout with four roads.

Take the second left from the round-about and drive 1 km.

Take a right and drive 3 km.

Take a left and drive 2 km. You will find our house at the front. Come home fast.”

Thus, Suresh drive (1 km + 3 km + 2 km) 6 km after taking the second-left from the roundabout to reach his home by following the directions given by his parents.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

Given: 

1) A is the mother of C who is not the son. 

2) A is married to F.C has a daughter E.

3. C has a daughter E.

4. F has a son B who has a son D.

Thus, D is E's cousin.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The logic followed here is:

(2, 7, 11) → Series of prime numbers.

And,

(13,17,29) → Series of prime numbers.

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) (13, 17, 23) → Series of prime numbers.

Option 2) (37, 41, 49) → 49 is a composite number.

Option 3) (3, 9, 11) → 9 is a composite number.

Option 4) (27, 31, 33)  → 27 and 33 are composite numbers.

Thus, out of all the options '(13, 17, 23)' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

14 : 200

14² + 4 = 200

196 + 4 = 200

200 = 200 (LHS = RHS)

And,

5 : 29

52 + 4 = 29

25 + 4 = 29

29 = 29 (LHS = RHS)

So, checking each option one by one:

Option 1) 7 : 50

72 + 4 = 50

49 + 4 = 50

53 ≠ 50 (LHS = RHS)

Option 2) 11 : 120

112 + 4 = 120

121 + 4 = 120

125 ≠ 120 (LHS = RHS)

Option 3) 16 : 260

162 + 4 = 260

256 + 4 = 260

260 = 260 (LHS = RHS)

Option 4) 15 : 230

152 + 4 = 230

225 + 4 = 230

229 ≠ 230 (LHS = RHS)

Thus, out of all the options '16 : 260' follows the same logic as given.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The image embedded in the given figure is as shown below :

∴ Here, Option Figure 4 is embedded in the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given: A, B, C, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.

1) X sits to the immediate left of A.

2) Only one person sits between X and Z.

3) C sits second to the right of B.

Case 1)

Case 2)

4) Y is not an immediate neighbour of A.

As there is no possible position for A in case 1, therefore is eliminated.

Thus, according to the final arrangement B is sitting to the immediate right of Z.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: 

1. X is the sister of Y

2. Z is the father of A and Y is the son of A 

Thus, Z is X's grandfather.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

4 is related to 125

³√125 - 1= 4

5 - 1 = 4

4 = 4 (LHS = RHS)

And,

8 is related to 729

3√729 - 1= 8

9 - 1 = 8

8 = 8 (LHS = RHS)

Similarly,

? is related to 1728

3√1728 - 1= ?

12 - 1 = ?

11 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

I. Some males are not females → Does not follow (As some fathers are females and all fathers are males. As no direct relation is given between males and females, therefore it is false.)

II. Some mothers are females → Does not follow (As some fathers are females and some fathers are mothers. So it is possible but not definite.)

III. Some males are mothers → Follow (As all fathers are males and some fathers are mothers. As whole fathers comes in males and has some part common with mothers, therefore it is true.)

∴ Here, Only conclusion III follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given statement: M > N ≥ O ≤ P ≤ W; X ≥ O > Y

Conclusions:

Conclusion I : M > X → False (As M > N ≥ O ≤ X. So, no relation between M and X can be determined therefore it is definitely false.)

Conclusion II : Y < W → True (As W ≥ P ≥ O > Y. So, as W > Y or Y < W, therefore it is definitely true)

Thus, Only Conclusion II is true

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

16 : 85

16 × 5 + 5 = 85

80 + 5  = 85

85 = 85 (LHS = RHS)

And,

28 : 145

28 × 5 + 5 = 145

140 + 5  = 145

145 = 145 (LHS = RHS

Similarly,

23 : ?

23 × 5 + 5 = ?

115 + 5  = ?

120 = ?

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The figure which when put in place of '?' will logically complete the pattern is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 2 will logically complete the pattern given.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is M Balamuralikrishna.

Key Points

• M Balamuralikrishna was a renowned Carnatic music vocalist, composer, and instrumentalist from India.
• He was known for his versatility in both vocal and instrumental music, excelling in violin, veena, and mridangam.
• His contributions to Carnatic music include numerous compositions and the creation of new ragas such as Mahati.
• Balamuralikrishna was honored with prestigious awards, including the Padma Vibhushan and Padma Shri, for his contributions to Indian classical music.

Additional Information

• Carnatic music is a classical music tradition from South India, focusing on intricate compositions, improvisations, and devotional themes.
• Alla Rakha was a famous tabla player known for his collaborations with sitar maestro Ravi Shankar in Hindustani classical music.
• L Subramaniam is a renowned violinist known for blending Carnatic and Western classical music but is not primarily a vocalist.
• Ravi Shankar was a legendary sitar player, credited with popularizing Hindustani classical music globally.
• Balamuralikrishna's innovations in Carnatic music included singing in unconventional octaves and introducing creative rhythmic structures.

The correct answer is Cheti Chand

Key Points

• The birth anniversary of Lord Jhulelal of the Sindhi community is also known as Cheti Chand or Jhulelal Jayanti.
• Cheti Chand is a festival celebrated by Sindhi Hindus to mark the birth of their patron saint, Lord Jhulelal.
• It is also celebrated as the Sindhi New Year.
• The festival is celebrated on the first day of the Sindhi month of Chet, which is the second day of Chaitra Shukla Paksha in the Hindu calendar.
• The festival is celebrated by Sindhis all over the world, especially in India and Pakistan.

Additional Information

• Lord Jhulelal
• Lord Jhulelal is the patron saint of the Sindhi community.
• He is also known as Uderolal or Dariyalal.
• He is often depicted as an elderly man with a white beard and mustache.
• He is considered the Ishta Deva (chosen deity) of the Sindhis

The correct answer is Nhava Sheva and Haldia

Key Points

• Nhava Sheva and Haldia are satellite ports in India.
• Nhava Sheva
• It is Also known as Jawaharlal Nehru Port, this port was built to reduce the congestion at the Mumbai port.
• It's India's largest container port, handling about 56% of the country's containers.
• Haldia
• This port is part of the Kolkata Dock System and Haldia Dock Complex

Additional Information

The correct answer is Nutrition support 

Key Points

• Nutrition support is the best choice for the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme because it provides food to children and pregnant and lactating women.
• Children in the age group 0-6 years constitute around 158 million of the population of India (2011 census).
• These Children are the future human resource of the country.
• Ministry of Women and Child Development is implementing various schemes for the welfare, development, and protection of children.
• Launched on 2nd October 1975, the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme is one of the flagship programs of the Government of India and represents one of the world’s largest and unique programs for early childhood care and development.

Additional Information

• It is the foremost symbol of the country’s commitment to its children and nursing mothers, as a response to the challenge of providing pre-school non-formal education on one hand and breaking the vicious cycle of malnutrition, morbidity, reduced learning capacity, and mortality on the other.
• The beneficiaries under the Scheme are children in the age group of 0-6 years, pregnant women, and lactating mothers.
• ICDS services
• Supplementary Nutrition
• Pre-school non-formal education
• Nutrition & health education
• Immunization
• Health check-up
• Referral services

The correct answer is Onam.

Key Points

• Onam:-
• It is the most popular festival celebrated in the state of Kerala, India.
• It is a 10-day harvest festival that usually falls in the month of August or September.
• The festival is marked by various cultural events and traditional activities such as boat races, flower decorations, and feasting.
• Onam is celebrated to honor the legendary king Mahabali and to welcome his annual visit to Kerala.

Additional Information

• Ugadi:
• Ugadi is a major festival celebrated in the southern states of India, especially in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Karnataka.
• It marks the beginning of the Hindu lunar calendar and is celebrated on the first day of the month of Chaitra, which usually falls in March or April.
• The festival is also known as Yugadi, which means 'the beginning of a new age.'
• It symbolizes the start of a new year and the onset of spring.
• On this day, people clean and decorate their homes, wear new clothes, prepare special dishes, and offer prayers to the gods.
• They also exchange greetings and gifts with friends and family
• It is a harvest festival celebrated in the state of Assam.
• Nuakhai 
• It is an agricultural festival celebrated by the people of Odisha.
• It is the greatest harvesting festival of Odisha.
• It is observed to welcome the new rice of the season.
• Nua means new and Khai means food i.e. Nuakhai's Hindi meaning is 'new food'.
• ‘Nuakhai’ festival is celebrated one day after the Ganesh Chaturthi festival.
• The festival has a big significance for farmers and the agricultural community.
• Gudi Padwa​
• Gudi Padwa, which is mostly observed in the state of Maharashtra, ushers in the harvest season.
• According to the lunisolar Hindu calendar, Maharashtrians celebrate the day as New Year's Day.
• Gudi, which refers to Brahma's flag, and Padwa, Padva, or Paddava, which refers to the first day of the moon's bright phase, are the two terms that make up the phrase "Gudi Padwa."

The correct answer is Twinkle Khanna

Key Points

• The author of the book "Mrs Funnybones" is Twinkle Khanna.
• The book Mrs Funnybones was released in 2015
• It falls under the category of humorous essays and observations, blending wit and satire to present a fresh perspective on modern Indian life
• The book is a witty and satirical take on modern Indian life, inspired by Twinkle Khanna's personal experiences, anecdotes, and observations as a mother, wife, and woman in India.

Additional Information

The correct answer is The particles move faster

Key Points

• As the temperature rises, the particles of matter move faster.
• This is because the particles gain kinetic energy
• Kinetic Energy is the energy that a body possesses due to its motion.
• It is directly proportional to both the mass of the body and the square of its velocity.
• The mathematical expression for kinetic energy is:$Kinetic Energy(KE)= 1/2 ​ mv^2$

Additional Information

• When the temperature increases-
• The particles gain kinetic energy and start vibrating.
• The particles move faster and take up more space.
• The forces of attraction between the particles weaken.
• This can lead to a change in the state of matter.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh

Key Points

• Andhra Pradesh has the highest sex ratio of 993 as per the 2011 Census.
• The Census of India 2011 provides detailed demographic data, including the sex ratio, which is defined as the number of females per 1,000 males.
• Bihar: 918 females per 1,000 males.
• Uttar Pradesh: 912 females per 1,000 males.
• Rajasthan: 928 females per 1,000 males.

Additional Information Census 2011

• The Indian Census is the most credible source of information on Demography (Population characteristics), Economic Activity, Literacy and Education, Housing Household Amenities, Urbanisation, Fertility and Mortality, etc.
• Census 2011 was the 15th National Census of the Country.
• Census was introduced in India during the era of Lord Mayo in the year 1872. It came into force in 1881.
• This census was conducted under the guidance of Mr. C. Chandramouli.
• The slogan of census 2011 was ‘Our Census, Our future’.
• The population of the nation as per the provisional figures of Census 2011 was 1210.19 million of which 623.7 million (51.54%) were males and 586.46 million (48.46%) were females. Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India its population is more than the population of Brazil.

The correct answer is Nagasena

Key Points

• ​The Buddhist monk Nagasena converted the Indo-Greek king Menander to Buddhism.
• The conversion is documented in the Pali Buddhist text Milinda-panha.
• Menander was an Indo-Greek king and ruler of Bactria.
• He was also known as Milinda.
• Nagasena was a Buddhist monk and philosopher.
• The Milinda-panha is a Pali Buddhist text that records a dialogue between Menander and Nagasena.
• The dialogue ends with Menander converting to Buddhism.
• Menander was a patron of Buddhism and the wheel on his coins is connected with Buddhism.
• After converting to Buddhism, Menander sent Buddhist missionaries to Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia.

Additional Information

The correct answer is an Inward-looking trade strategy

Key Points

• India adopted the inward-looking trade strategy, also known as import substitution, during the first seven Five-Year Plans.
• This strategy aimed to increase domestic production and protect local products from international competition.
• This strategy attempted to replace imports with homegrown production.
• The government shielded indigenous industries from foreign competition under this policy.
• For instance, businesses will be urged to make vehicles in India rather than importing them from elsewhere.

Additional Information

• Our industries were unable to compete with the goods produced by more developed economies, therefore the government implemented an import substitution programme.
• It is believed that if domestic industries are safeguarded, they will eventually figure out how to compete.
• There was a chance that foreign currency would be used to import expensive products if there were no import restrictions.
• Because industrialization moves quickly and absorbs unemployed individuals, it assisted in addressing the unemployment issue.
• This immediately contributed to economic growth by assisting in the development of a strong industrial base in our nation.

The correct answer is 4.5%

Key Points

• The Second five-year plan was based on the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by the Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in 1953.
• PC Mahalanobis established the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) in Calcutta in 1931 and for the same reason, he is known as the father of Indian Statistics. He was a member of the first Planning Commission of free India.
• The estimated growth target for the Second Five-Year Plan in India was 4.5%. However, the actual growth rate was 4.27%
• The second five-year plan was for the year 1956-1961, this plan was based on the Russian model of industrialization.
• The second five-year plan focused on the development of the public sector and rapid Industrialisation. The plan attempted to determine a balanced allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximize long-run economic growth.
• As a result, hydroelectric power projects across the country and five steel plants at Bhilai, Durgapur, and Rourkela were established with the help of Russia, Britain (the U.K), and West Germany respectively. Coal production was increased. More railway lines were added all over the country.
• The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research and Atomic Energy Commission of India was established to promote research in India.

Additional Information

• Basic information about planning commission and 5- year plans:
• Planning commission founded: 1950.
• Planning Commission head: Prime Minister
• First five-year plan launched: 1951
• A total number of 5- year plans: 12.
• Last five-year plan: 2012 to 2017.
• Planning Commission dissolved: 2014 (By PM Narendra Modi).

The correct answer is Bas relief

Key Points

• The walls of the Great Stupa of Amaravati were adorned with bas relief sculptures.
• The stupa is located in the Lower Godavari region of Andhra Pradesh, India.
• The stupa was built in the 2nd century BCE during the Satavahana dynasty.
• The walls of the stupa were decorated with carved panels and medallions.

Additional Information

• The sculptures depicted scenes from the life of the Buddha, as well as Jaina deities.
• The sculptures were carved from white or cream limestone, which gave them a marble-like appearance.
• The sculptures are known as the "marbles" of Amaravati.
• The sculptures are considered to be a prime example of ancient Indian art and architecture.

The correct answer is Employees Provident Fund Organisation

Key Points

• Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY) was launched in 2020 as part of the Aatmanirbhar Bharat package.
• The Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY) was implemented through the Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO).
• It aimed to incentivize the creation of new employment opportunities during the post-COVID recovery phase.
• The scheme provides subsidies for the provident fund contributions of new employees and their employers.
• The objective of ABRY is to promote formal employment and reduce the adverse impact of COVID-19 on the labor market.
• The scheme targeted both new hires and those who had lost their jobs during the pandemic, encouraging businesses to re-hire.

Additional Information

The correct answer is A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Key Points

• (A) Maharashtra → Elephanta Caves → IV
• (B) Delhi → Jamali Qamali Mosque → I
• (C) Rajasthan → Hawa Mahal → II
• (D) Gujarat → Laxmi Vilas Palace → III

Additional Information

• Maharashtra
• Monument: Elephanta Caves
• Elephanta Caves are located near Mumbai in Maharashtra.
• They are a group of rock-cut caves known for their ancient sculptures and Buddhist and Hindu influences.
• Rajasthan
• Monument: Hawa Mahal
• Hawa Mahal is located in Jaipur, Rajasthan, but a commonly mistaken match is with Delhi.
• Delhi
• Monument: Jamali Qamali Mosque
• Jamali Qamali Mosque and Tomb is located in Delhi, and not Rajasthan.
• But for the purpose of matching here, we consider the known landmarks of Rajasthan that fit the description.
• Gujarat
• Monument: Laxmi Vilas Palace
• Laxmi Vilas Palace is situated in Vadodara, Gujarat.
• It is a grand palace built by the Gaekwad dynasty, showcasing Indo-Saracenic architectural style.

The correct answer is 0.4

Key Points

• In economics, the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is the proportion of an aggregate raise in pay that a consumer spends on the consumption of goods and services, as opposed 1  to saving it.
• The marginal propensity to save (MPS) is the fraction of an increase in income that is not spent on consumption.
• Because income is either spent or saved, the sum of MPC and MPS is always equal to 1.
• Given
• MPC = 0.6, we can calculate MPS as follows:
• MPS = 1 - MPC
• MPS = 1 - 0.6
• MPS = 0.4

The correct answer is Krishna III 

Key Points

• Krishna III, the Rashtrakuta king, conquered the Cholas in 949 CE.
• He defeated the Chola king Parantaka I and annexed the Chola empire.
• Krishna III was the last great ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
• He ruled from 939–967 CE.
• He also fought against the Chalukyas of Vengi and the Parmaras of Malwa.
• After defeating the Cholas, Krishna III divided the Chola empire among his slaves.
• He then built a temple and erected a victory pillar in Rameshwaram.

Additional Information

• The Rashtrakuta Empire of Manyakheta was founded by Dantidurga (reigned 735-756 CE), also known as Dantivarman II.
• Gulbarga was his capital in Karnataka.
• He was succeeded by his uncle Krishna I, who extended the kingdom to all of Karnataka.
• In 753 Dantidurga defeated the Chalukyas and took the titles Rajadhiraja and Parameshvara.
• In the mid-eighth century, Rashtrakuta chief Dantidurga overthrew his Chalukyan overlord and performed a ritual called hiranya-garbha (literally, the golden womb).
• It was believed that performing this ritual with the help of Brahmanas would result in the sacrificer being reborn as a Kshatriya, even if he was not a Kshatriya by birth.

The correct answer is Punjab 

Key Points

• Rubber is not a major cultivation in Punjab.
• It is known for its agricultural output of rice, cotton, pearl millet, fruits, and wheat.
• Rubber is a major crop in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka.
• It is also cultivated in other states like Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, and West Bengal.
• Rubber is an important industrial raw material that is used to make over 35,000 products, including toy balloons and tires.

Additional Information

• Largest Rubber Producing States in India — Kerala
• Production — 490,460 tonnes
• Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India, contributing significantly to the country's total output.
• The state produces approximately 490,460 tonnes of rubber annually. Its favorable climate and extensive rubber plantations make it an ideal location for rubber cultivation.
• The rubber industry in Kerala plays a crucial role in the state's economy, providing employment to thousands of people and supporting numerous businesses related to rubber processing and manufacturing.
• 5th Largest Rubber Producing States in India — Tamil Nadu
• Production — 21,500 tonnes
• Tamil Nadu is another significant rubber-producing state in India, with an annual production of about 21,500 tonnes. The state's favorable climatic conditions and fertile soil make it suitable for rubber cultivation. Tamil Nadu's rubber plantations are primarily located in the Kanyakumari district. The rubber industry in the state supports numerous smallholders and contributes to the local economy by providing raw materials for various rubber-based industries.
• 6th Largest Rubber Producing States in India — Meghalaya
• Production — 9,100 tonnes
• Meghalaya produces around 9,100 tonnes of natural rubber annually.
• The state's hilly terrain and high rainfall create ideal conditions for rubber cultivation.
• Rubber plantations in Meghalaya are mostly small and managed by local farmers. The rubber industry in the state is growing, helping to improve the livelihoods of many rural families.

The correct answer is L K Advani

Key Points

• My Country My Life is an autobiographical book by L. K. Advani, an Indian politician who served as the Deputy Prime Minister of India.
• The book was released on 19 March 2008 by Abdul Kalam, the eleventh President of India.
• The book has 1,040 pages and narrates autobiographical accounts and events in the life of Advani.
• It became the best-seller book in non-fiction. The book alongside mentions the event in Indian politics and India's history from 1900 till date.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Haryana

Key Points

• The Hockey Haryana Women's U-18 team won the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) 2022 in Bhubaneswar.
• The team beat Madhya Pradesh in the final.
• The Khelo India Youth Games are annual national sports competitions for young athletes in India.
• The 2022 Khelo India Youth Games were held in five cities in Haryana, including Panchkula, Shahabad, Ambala, Chandigarh, and Delhi.
• The Khelo India initiative was proposed by the Indian government in 2017 to revive the country's sports culture.

Additional Information Khelo India Youth Games:

• Earlier they are known as Khelo India School Games
• ​The second edition of Khelo India Youth Games was held in Pune.
• Maharashtra topped the Medal tally with 228 medals, whereas Haryana and Delhi claimed the second and third spot.
• Maharashtra bagged 'General Championship of Khelo India 2019' with 85 Gold Medals.
• Students from colleges and universities competed in the games.
• The 1st edition of Khelo India games was held in Delhi in January 2018.
• The Khelo India games are organised by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.
• 3rd edition of the Khelo India Youth Games will be held at Guwahati from January 18-30, 2020. The Games will see a participation of more than 10,000 athletes and officials. It will be conducted in partnership with IOA, SGFI, and Assam as a host state.

The correct answer is Harshacharita 

Key Points

• Banabhatta:
• Banabhatta​ was a court poet of King Harshavardhana.
• He was one of the great patronages of Sanskrit Literature.
• Banabhatta was the Asthana Kavi in the court of King Harsha.
• He was court poet of Harshavardhana, who wrote a book called Harshacharitra.
• He was the writer of the world’s earliest novel Kadambari.​

Additional Information

• Harshavardhana:
• With the commencement of the 7th century, Harshavardhana (606-647 A.D.) ascended the throne of Thaneshwar and Kannauj on the death of his brother, Rajyavardhana.
• By 612 Harshavardhana consolidated his kingdom in northern India.
• Harshavardhana is well known for his religious toleration, able administration and diplomatic relations.
• He maintained diplomatic relations with China and sent envoys, who exchanged ideas of the Chinese rulers and developed their knowledge about each other.
• The Chinese traveller, Hiuen Tsang, who visited India during his reign, has given a vivid description of the social, economic and religious conditions, under the rule of Harsha spoke highly of the king.

The correct answer is Indian Council Act of 1861.

Key Points

• Indian Council Act, 1861:
• ​Lord Canning, who was the Governor-General and Viceroy at the time, introduced the portfolio system. In this system, each member was assigned a portfolio of a particular department. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• For the executive functions of the Council, a fifth member was added. Now there were five members for home, military, law, revenue and finance. (A sixth member for public works was added in 1874.)
• For legislative purposes, the Governor-General’s Council was enlarged. Now, there were to be between 6 and 12 additional members (nominated by the Governor-General).
• Lord Canning nominated three Indians to the Council in 1862 namely, the Raja of Benares, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.

Additional Informatio

• Any bill related to public revenue or debt, military, religion or foreign affairs could not be passed without the Governor-General’s assent.
• The Viceroy had the power to overrule the council if necessary.
• The Governor-General also had the power to promulgate ordinances without the council’s concurrence during emergencies.
• The Secretary of State for India in Britain could also dissolve any act passed by the Governor-General’s Council.

The correct answer is 1784.

Key Points

• Pitt's India Act of 1784:​​
• It was named after the British prime minister William Pitt the Younger.
• The Pitt’s India Act, 1784 also called the East India Company Act, 1784.
• Pitt’s India Act, 1784 was passed to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773.
• It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the company.

Additional Information

• It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body called the Board of Control to manage the political affairs.
• It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.
• The company's territories in India were for the first time called the 'British possessions in India'.
• The British Government was given supreme control over Company's affairs and its administration in India.

The correct answer is Sodium

Key Points

• The element with an electronic configuration of 2,8,1 is Sodium (Na)
• Sodium has an atomic number of 11, which corresponds to the electronic configuration 2,8,1.
• This means that a sodium atom has 11 electrons, with 2 in the first energy level (1s), 8 in the second energy level (2s), and 1 in the third energy level (3s).
• Sodium is highly reactive because it tends to lose its outermost electron to achieve a stable configuration

Additional Information 

• Hydrogen (H)
• Atomic Number: 1
• Electronic Configuration: 1
• Hydrogen has only one electron, hence its configuration is 2,0 (as it has no additional shells beyond the first one).
• Chlorine (Cl)
• Atomic Number: 17
• Electronic Configuration: 2,8,7
• Chlorine has a different outer electron configuration with 7 electrons in its outermost shell.
• Magnesium (Mg)
• Atomic Number: 12
• Electronic Configuration: 2,8,2
• Magnesium has 2 electrons in its third shell, so its configuration is 2,8,2.

The correct answer is Neutron

Key Points 

• James Chadwick is best known for discovering the neutron in 1932.
• Neutrons are present in the nucleus of all atoms, except hydrogen.
• In general, a neutron is represented as ‘n’.
• The mass of a neutron is 1.6750 x 10-27 kg.
• The mass of an atom is therefore given by the sum of the masses of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus.
• Neutrons and protons are found in the nucleus of an atom.
• Neutrons were discovered by James Chadwick.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Ribosome.

Key Points

• Ribosomes are organelles in cells that contain RNA
• Ribosomes are the organelles that are made up of ribosomal RNA and proteins.
• Ribosomes are responsible for the synthesis of proteins in the cell.
• Ribosomes can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
• Ribosomes can be free in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Additional Information

• Cytoplasm
• The cytoplasm is a jelly-like matrix inside a cell that contains organelles.
• The plasma membrane, or cell membrane, is a selectively permeable membrane that surrounds the cytoplasm.
• The plasma membrane is made of a double layer of phospholipids, which are partly hydrophobic and partly hydrophilic.
• Cell wall
• A cell wall is a structural layer that surrounds some cells, just outside the cell membrane.
• It can be tough, flexible, and sometimes rigid.
• The cell wall provides the cell with structural support, shape, protection, and functions as a selective barrier.
• Cell walls are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, although not all cells have cell walls.
• Cell base
• A cell base, also known as a cell site or cell tower, is a cellular-enabled mobile device site that creates a cell in a cellular network.
• Cell-based architecture is built around the idea of groupings of services and data around a gateway.

The correct answer is a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

Key Points

Additional Information 

• Carnivores (a):
• Carnivores are animals that primarily eat other animals. They are secondary or tertiary consumers, meaning they feed on other consumers (herbivores or other carnivores).
• Producers (b):
• Producers are organisms like green plants that produce energy through photosynthesis. They form the base of the food chain and provide energy to other organisms.
• Decomposers (c):
• Decomposers, such as bacteria, break down dead organic matter and recycle nutrients back into the ecosystem.
• Herbivores (d):
• Herbivores are animals that primarily eat plants, making them primary consumers in the food chain. They directly feed on producers (green plants).

The correct answer is 1 and 2 both

Key Points

• The six fundamental rights guaranteed by Article 19 of the Indian Constitution can be suspended on the grounds of war or external aggression.
• The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 amended the Constitution to allow the suspension of the six rights under Article 19 only in the case of war or external aggression.
• The suspension of the rights is automatic when a national emergency is declared under Article 358.
• The suspension of the rights does not require a separate order from the President.
• The rights are automatically restored after the emergency ends.

Additional Information

• Article 19 deals with the six Fundamental Rights. They are:
• Right to freedom of speech and expression.
• Right to assemble peacefully and without arms.
• Right to form association or unions or co-operatives.
• Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
• Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

The correct answer is Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu.

Key Points 

• Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu, a former Congress state chief, became the Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh on 11 December 2022.
• He is the 4-time incumbent MLA of Nadaun assembly constituency of Himachal Pradesh.
• Sukhu was born on 27 March 1964 in Sera village of Nadaun tehsil of Hamirpur district.
• Sukhu is a lawyer by education, having graduated from Himachal Pradesh University.

Additional Information

• Himachal Pradesh:
• Governor - Sh. Shiv Pratap Shukla
• Number of Districts - 12.
• Lok Sabha seats - 4.
• Rajya Sabha seats - 3.
• National Parks - Great Himalayan National Park, Pin Valley National Park, Inderkilla National Park, Khirganga National Park and Simbalbara National Park.
• Registered GI: Kangra Paintings, Kullu Shawl, Chamba Rumal.

The correct answer is Gross fiscal deficit - Net interest Liabilities

Key Points

• Gross Primary Deficit is the Gross Fiscal Deficit less interest payments.
• Net Primary Deficit is Net Fiscal Deficit minus net interest payments.
• Fiscal deficit indicates total government borrowing requirements including interest whereas primary deficit indicates total government borrowing requirements excluding interest payments.

Additional Information

• The deficit is the amount by which the spending done in a budget surpasses the earnings.
• There are three types of deficit:

1. Revenue deficit
2. Fiscal deficit
3. Primary deficit.

• Revenue deficit:
• A revenue deficit refers to the surplus of the government’s revenue expenditure over the revenue receipts.
• It reflects the inefficiency of the government to reach its regular or recurring expenditure.
• The government may raise its revenue receipts by raising income tax.
• Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure – Revenue receipts
• Fiscal deficit:
• A fiscal deficit is the excess of budget expenditure over budget receipts other than borrowings.
• It reflects the total government borrowings during a fiscal year.
• Gross fiscal deficit = Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt creating capital receipts)
• Gross fiscal deficit = Net borrowing at home + Borrowing from RBI + Borrowing from abroad
• ​Primary deficit:
• The purpose of measuring the primary deficit is to draw attention to current fiscal imbalances
• The primary deficit is calculated in order to obtain an estimate of the amount of borrowing that will be required due to current expenditures exceeding revenues.
• Gross primary deficit = Gross fiscal deficit – Net interest liabilities

The correct answer is Kerala

Key Points

• The Nehru Trophy Boat Race is held in the Punnamada Lake near Alappuzha in Kerala.
• It is one of the most popular and competitive boat races in Kerala, attracting a large number of tourists and participants.
• The race is named after India's first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, who inaugurated the event in 1952.
• The highlight of the event is the competition of the snake boats (Chundan Vallam), which are traditional war boats of Kerala.
• The event is usually held on the second Saturday of August every year.

Additional Information

• Kerala is known for its intricate network of backwaters and canals, making it an ideal location for boat races.
• Besides the Nehru Trophy Boat Race, Kerala hosts several other boat races like the Champakulam Moolam Boat Race, Aranmula Uthrattadi Vallamkali, and the Payippad Jalotsavam.
• The boat races are part of Kerala's vibrant culture and are often associated with the Onam festival, which is the state's harvest festival.
• The snake boats used in these races are typically 100 to 120 feet long and require about 100 rowers to maneuver.
• The boat races are a symbol of teamwork, endurance, and the rich cultural heritage of Kerala.

The correct answer is Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Key Points

• The original Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath features four lions standing back-to-back.
• The lions are mounted on a circular abacus, which in turn rests on a bell-shaped lotus.
• The State Emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka.
• In the State Emblem, the bell-shaped lotus was omitted, and only the abacus and the four lions were retained.
• The adaptation of the Lion Capital as the State Emblem signifies the Republic of India's commitment to peace and goodwill.

Additional Information

• Lion Capital of Ashoka:
• The Lion Capital was originally erected around 250 BCE by Emperor Ashoka to commemorate his conversion to Buddhism.
• It was discovered by archaeologists in 1905-1906 at Sarnath, near Varanasi.
• Symbolism:
• The four lions represent power, courage, confidence, and pride.
• The wheel (Dharma Chakra) depicted on the abacus symbolizes the eternal wheel of law.
• State Emblem of India:
• Adopted on 26th January 1950, the day India became a republic.
• The State Emblem also includes the motto "Satyameva Jayate" (Truth Alone Triumphs) inscribed below the abacus in Devanagari script.
• Architectural Significance:
• The bell-shaped lotus is a common feature in Mauryan architecture and represents purity and beauty.
• The adaptation of the Lion Capital without the lotus signifies a focus on the symbolic values of the lions and the wheel.

The correct answer is Anorexia Nervosa

Key Points

• Anorexia Nervosa:
• A psychological disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to refusal to eat and severe undernutrition.
• It is often linked to body image issues.
• Individuals with anorexia nervosa have a fear of being overweight or being seen as such, despite the fact that they are typically underweight
• Medical treatment may be required to restore normal weight. Talk therapy can help with self-esteem and behavioural changes.

Additional Information

• Kwashiorkor:
• A form of malnutrition caused by severe protein deficiency, typically seen in children.
• It leads to symptoms like swelling (edema), an enlarged liver, and skin changes.
• Bulimia Nervosa:
• A psychological disorder involving binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors like purging, excessive exercise, or fasting.
• Marasmus:
• A severe form of malnutrition caused by a general lack of calories and nutrients,
• It leads to extreme wasting and stunted growth, especially in children.

The correct answer is the Reserve bank of India

Key Points

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• It is not a constitutional body; it is a statutory body established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• RBI is known as the 'Central Bank of India' whose primary function to regulate the issue of Banknotes and keeping of reserves with a view to securing monetary stability in India and generally to operate the currency and credit system of the country.
• RBI is also known as 'Apex Bank of India'.
• RBI is also known as 'Banker's Bank'.

Additional Information

These bodies are integral to the framework of India's governance and accountability.

The correct answer is a mountain range 

Key Points

• The Aravalli is a mountain range in India.
• It is the oldest folded mountain range in the country.
• Residual landform, also called Relict Landform, is a landform that was produced as the remains of an ancient landscape, escaping burial or destruction to remain as part of the present landscape.
• Residual landforms are often the result of changed climatic conditions, but they may be due to volcanism or crustal uplift and down warping.
• Circum-erosional or Relict or Residual mountains (Aravallis in India, the Urals in Russia) are the remnants of old fold mountains derived as a result of denudation (strip of covering).
• Residual mountains may also evolve from plateaus that have been dissected by rivers into hills and valleys.

Additional Information

• There are 4 types of mountains
• Fold mountains
• It is created through a process called Orogeny. An orogenic event takes many years to make a fold mountain. When a tectonic plate gets pressure from two sides, it gets folded. The number of its portions become elevated and form the mountains.
• The depressions from the valleys.
• The Himalayas, The Andes, and therefore the Alps are samples of Fold Mountain.
• They're the young mountains of the planet.
• Block Mountain
• When large areas are broken and displaced vertically, Block Mountains are formed. During this case, the uplifted blocks are called horsts.
• On the opposite hand, the lowered blocks are called graben.
• Examples of Block Mountains are the Rhine Valley and therefore the Vosges mountain in Europe.
• Volcanic Mountains:
• A mountain formed through volcanic activity is named Volcanic Mountain.
• Samples of the Volcanic Mountains are Mt. Kilimanjaro and Mt. Fujiyama.
• Andaman and Nicobar islands in India are the tip of the volcanic mountains which rise from the ocean bottom.
• Dome mountains
• It forms when large globs of magma float up from beneath the crust and push up surface rocks, creating a rounded swelling within the crust.
• Once the magma cools, it creates an outsized dome of harder rock under the surface, which erosion sometimes reveals.

The correct answer is David Davidar

Key Points

• The author of the book "The House of Blue Mangoes" is David Davidar.
• The novel explores themes of family, tradition, and identity against the backdrop of a fictional South Indian village.
• It delves into the complexities of relationships, heritage, and personal growth.
• David Davidar is known for his lyrical prose and ability to weave deep emotional narratives, making his works resonate with readers who appreciate rich, character-driven stories.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Patiala.

Key Points

• Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan, a musical genius, learned from Kasur Patiala Gharana of music from his father at an early age.
• Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan was an Indian Hindustani classical vocalist, from the Patiala Gharana.
• The most common epithet used to describe Ustad Ghulam Ali Khan is 'Tansen of the 20th century.
• Often referred to as Bade (older) Ghulam Ali Khan to differentiate him from other maestros of the same name.
• The genius musician was one of the most legendary thumri vocalists of all time, who took the Patiala Gharana.
• Born on 2 April 1902 in Kasur (now in Pakistan), Bade Ghulam Ali Khan belonged to a family of musicians.
• He was awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award and the Padma Bhushan in 1962 Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan breathed last on April 25, 1968, at Basheerbagh Palace in Hyderabad.

Additional Information

• Types of Gharana
• Jaipur Gharana :
• The Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana emerged from Alladiya Khan's family which originated from Atrauli and migrated to Jaipur.
• The Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana is Hindustani music founded by Alladiya Khan (1855–1946) in the late 19th century.
• The Gharana is known for its distinctive vocal aesthetics, raga repertoire, and technical aptitude.
• The chief exponents of the Jaipur Gharana are  Alladiya Khan, Mallikarjun Mansur, Kesarbhai Kerkar, Kishori Amonkar, Shruti Sadolikar, Padma Talwalkar, and Ashwini Bhide Deshpande.
• Patiala Gharana :
• ‘Patiala Gharana’ is one of the Gharanas in Indian Classical Music, which was founded by Ustad Fateh Ali Khan, and also Ustad Ali Baksh.
• Patiala Gharana has both kinds of singing – ‘Thumri’ and ‘Khyal’.
• The most famous exponents of Patiala Gharana are Pakistani ghazal singer Gulam Ali, and also the contemporary singer Shafqat Amanat Ali.
• Both Pakistani singers have also garnered enormous fame in India.
• Banaras Gharana :
• The Benaras Gharana evolved as a result of the great lilting style of khayal singing known by Thumri singers of Benaras and Gaya.
• It was founded by Pt Gopal Mishra.
• The chief exponents of the Benaras Gharana are Rajan Mishra, Sajan Mishra, Girija Devi and others.

The correct answer is 1982.

Key Points

• India organized the Asian Games for the second time in the year 1982.
• The games were held in New Delhi, the capital city of India.
• The mascot for the 1982 Asian Games was Appu, an elephant, symbolizing strength, speed, and a friendly nature.
• India finished fifth in the medal tally, securing
• 13 gold,
• 19 silver, and
• 25 bronze medals.

Additional Information

• Asian Games
• The Asian Games is the largest multi-sport event in Asia, organized every four years.
• The event is governed by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA), and the first edition took place in 1951 in New Delhi, India
• Over 45 nations participate in the Games, competing in various disciplines such as athletics, swimming, badminton, and martial arts, among others.
• The Asian Games aim to foster unity, promote excellence in sports, and enhance cooperation among Asian countries through healthy competition.

The correct answer is Bronze

Key Points

• In the 2022 Asia Cup hockey tournament, India had a strong campaign but ultimately secured the Bronze medal.
• The Indian team, under the leadership of Harmanpreet Singh, displayed impressive teamwork and resilience throughout the tournament, narrowly missing out on the final match.
• They defeated Japan in the third-place playoff to claim the Bronze medal.

Additional Information

• The Asia Cup Hockey Tournament is an international field hockey competition held under the auspices of the Asian Hockey Federation (AHF).
• It features national teams from Asia competing for the prestigious title.
• The 2025 Men's Hockey Asia Cup will be the 12th edition of the Men's Hockey Asia Cup, the quadrennial international men's field hockey championship of Asia organized by the Asian Hockey Federation. It will be held in Rajgir, India from 27 August to 7 September 2025

The correct answer is Humification

Key Points

• Humification is processes that occur during decomposition in soil.
• Humification
• Humification refers to the natural process through which organic matter, such as plant remains, decomposes and transforms into humus
• The process of creating humus, a dark-colored substance that resists microbial action
• Humus is formed, which is stable and provides essential nutrients.
• Humus improves soil structure, enhances fertility, and boosts microbial activity.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Gujarat 

Key Points

• Gujarat is one of the states in India that experiences low rainfall.
• Other states that experience low rainfall include Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, and Punjab.
• Areas that receive 50 centimeters or less of rainfall are considered low rainfall regions.
• The Kutch region of Gujarat and western Rajasthan receive less than average rainfall.
• The Thar Desert and the Himalayas impact the distribution of rainfall in India.
• The moisture-bearing winds of the southwest monsoon gradually decrease in moisture as they move inland, resulting in low rainfall in western India.
• The economy of Bihar is threatened by declining rainfall, which affects its rain-fed agriculture.

Additional Information

• India mainly receives rainfall from the Monsoons which lasts from June-September. Overall, India receives an average of 200-300 mm of rainfall over the country as a whole with the largest values observed during the monsoon season.
• The average annual rainfall in India is about 300–650 millimeters.
• The rainy season in India is affected by the humid southwest summer monsoon.
• The South of India typically receives more rainfall
• According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Mahabaleshwar has recorded the highest rainfall even more than Mawsynram, in Meghalaya. Now, it is considered the wettest place in India.
• Jaisalmer is considered the driest place in India to have received the minimum or scanty rainfall over the years.

The correct answer is Sulphur

Key Points

• Sulphur (S) is not a good conductor of electricity
• Sulphur is a non-metal that is a poor conductor of electricity.
• Good conductors:
• Materials that allow electricity to pass through them, such as silver, gold, copper, aluminum, and graphite.
• Bad conductors:
• Materials that do not allow electricity to pass through them, such as sulphur, plastic, rubber, glass, wood, charcoal, and diamond. ​

Additional Information

• Properties of metals: 
• Metals are good conductors of electricity and heat.
• Metals are malleable and ductile, meaning they can be bent and formed into thin sheets.
• Metals are lustrous.
• Metals are electropositive elements that donate electrons, forming positive ions.
• Metals are made up of lattices of atoms with free electrons.

The correct answer is 1935

Key Points

• The Government of Indian Act was passed by the British parliament in 1935 and came into effect in 1937.
• The creation of a ‘Federation of India’ that consisted of two levels: a central executive and parliament, and below it, provinces and princely states.
• It discarded the ‘dyarchy’ system at the provincial level and allowed for the emergence of popularly elected provincial legislatures.
• Dyarchy was introduced at the central level, key subjects like defense and foreign affairs were under the direct control of the Governor-General.

Additional Information 

• Other Acts
• Government of India, Act, 1934 is the legislative act under the Reserve Bank of India.
• This act along with the Companies Act, which was amended in 1936, was meant to provide a framework for the supervision of banking firms in India.
• Government of India Act, 1919 was also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
• It came into force in 1921.
• It was instituted in the British Indian polity to introduce the Diarchy, i.e., rule of two which means executive councilors and popular ministers.
• Dyarchy was introduced as a constitutional reform by Edwin Samuel Montagu, secretary of state for India (1917–22), and Lord Chelmsford, Viceroy of India (1916–21).
• Government of India Act, 1923, the Official Secrets Act 1923 is India's anti-espionage act held over from the British colonial period.
• The Official Secrets Act prohibits the disclosure of official documents and information and the wrongful communication of information that is considered sensitive by the government.

The correct answer is Manipuri.​ 

Key Points

• Darshana Jhaveri, a classical Manipuri dancer, research scholar, and teacher is one of the four internationally renowned Jhaveri sisters, whose name has become synonymous with Manipuri dance.
• The Manipuri Dance, also referred to as the Manipuri Raas Leela is one of the eight major Indian classical dance forms, originating from the state of Manipur.
• It was during the reign of King Bhagyachandra that the popular Rasleela dances of Manipur originated.
• It is said, that this 18^th-century philosopher king conceived this complete dance form along with its unique costume and music in a dream.

Additional Information 

The Sangeet Natak Akademi recognizes eight classical dances in India.

The correct answer is 2017.

Key Points

• Goods and Service Tax(GST) was implemented in India on 1st July 2017 by then Finance Minister Arun Jaitely.
• Goods and Service Tax(GST):
• ​GST is an indirect tax used in India on the supply of goods and services.
• It is a destination-based tax.
• Goods and services are divided into five different tax slabs for collection of tax- 0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%.
• GST Council is the governing body of GST having 33 numbers.
• The council is headed by the union finance minister assisted by the finance minister of all the states of India.

Additional Information 

• The 101st Constitutional (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016  introduced a national Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India on 1 July 2017.
• The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a Value Added Tax (VAT) intended to establish a systematic indirect tax levy on the production, sale, and use of products and services at the national level.
• CGST, IGST, UTGS, and SGST Compensation Act passed at Loksabha on 29 March 2017.
• The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Second Amendment) Bill, 2014 was introduced on 19 December 2014 by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in the Lok Sabha and passed on 6 May 2015 by the House.

The correct answer is 5%

Key Points

• The maximum premium that farmers pay for horticulture crops under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is 5% of the sum insured.
• The PMFBY is a crop insurance scheme that provides financial support to farmers who lose their crops due to natural disasters.
• The premium for horticulture crops is 5% of the sum insured, or the actuarial rate, whichever is lower.
• The premium for Kharif crops is 2% of the sum insured, or the actuarial rate, whichever is lower.
• The premium for Rabi crops is 1.5% of the sum insured, or the actuarial rate, whichever is lower.
• The Central and State Governments share the premium that is above these limits in a 50:50 ratio.
• In the North Eastern Region, the Central and State Governments share the premium in a 90:10 ratio.

Additional Information

• Horticultural crops are plants that are grown for food, medicine, and aesthetics.
• They include fruits, vegetables, flowers, herbs, and ornamental plants.
• Examples of horticultural crops 
• Fruits: Apples, bananas, grapes, guava, litchi, and tomatoes
• Vegetables: A variety of vegetables
• Flowers: A variety of flowers, including those used in landscaping
• Ornamental plants: Plants used in landscaping, such as ornamental trees and shrubs
• Grapes: Grown for wine production

The correct answer is Mulk Raj Anand.

Key Points

• Mulk Raj Anand's 'Untouchable' is a novel about a day in the life of one of India's lowest untouchables, sweepers who clean up the excreta left by the poor who do not have access to toilets or even outhouses.
• It narrates the sufferings and humiliations of an 18-year-old boy, Bakha, born in a low-caste and serving as a toilet sweeper.
• At that time, the caste system had been in place for over two thousand years. Society was divided into four tiers of privilege. The highest ranks comprise the wealthy, the intellectuals, and other positions of power.
• The Untouchables were actually even lower than the lowest caste, comprising a fifth class outside of rank, and are seen as filthy, even to the point of being able to pollute upper caste members through their touch.

Additional Information

• Mulk Raj Anand (1905 – 2004) along with R. K. Narayan (1906 – 2001), Ahmad Ali (1910 -1994), and Raja Rao (1908 – 2006) is considered some of the pioneers of Indo-Anglian fiction.
• He was known for his depiction of the lives of the poorer castes in traditional Indian society and was one of the first India-based writers in English to gain an international readership.
• He was a recipient of the Padma Bhushan.

The correct answer is Antonie Van Leeuwenhock.

Key Points

• Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
• He is regarded as the father of microbiology. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Anton van Leeuwenhoek laid the foundation of plant anatomy and studied animal reproduction in detail.
• He was a Dutch microscopist and biologist born in Delft, Netherland.
• He is also known for the discovery of bacteria.
• He experimented with and observed microscopic organisms in the year 1676.
• He is probably best known for his refinement of the microscope.
• He increased the magnifying power of the microscope from 20x to 270x.
• He was the first to observe bacteria and protozoa with his single-lensed microscope.
• In 1674, he observed small single-celled organisms and named them 'Animalcules'.
• In 1677, he discovered sperm in mammals.
• He was also the first person to study blood vessels and discovered blood cells and nematodes living in blood.
• The study of microorganisms is known as Microbiology.

Additional Information

The correct answer is  Bharatanatyam

Key Points 

• Tanjore Balasaraswati was a dancer of the Bharatanatyam classical dance form.
• She was a leading exponent of Bharatanatyam in the 20th century
• Bharatanatyam a classical dance style that originated in Tamil Nadu's South Indian state, making this dance style well known in various parts of India and many parts of the world.
• In 1957 she was awarded the Padma Bhushan and in 1977 the Padma Vibhushan.
• She received the Sangeetha Kalasikhamani Award from The Indian Fine Arts Society, Chennai, in 1981.
• She was the only non-western dancer included in a Dance Heritage Coalition compilation, "The Irreplaceable Treasures of Dance in America: The First 100" (2000).
• Satyajit Ray, Bengali film director, made a documentary film on Balasaraswati called Bala (1976).

Additional Information

The correct answer is Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean 

Key Points

• Tropical cyclones predominantly originate over warm oceanic waters in the Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea, and the Indian Ocean, especially when sea surface temperatures exceed a certain threshold, typically around 26.5°C.
• It also known as hurricanes or typhoons depending on the region, originate over warm ocean waters in specific conditions
• Tropical cyclones originate over warm ocean basins in the lower latitudes of all oceans except the south Atlantic and southeast Pacific.

Additional Information

• Bay of Bengal:
• One of the most active regions for tropical cyclones due to its warm sea surface temperatures, high humidity, and favorable atmospheric conditions.
• Cyclones like Cyclone Amphan, Fani, and Yas originate here.
• Arabian Sea:
• Also a significant region for tropical cyclones, though relatively less active compared to the Bay of Bengal.
• Notable cyclones like Ockhi and Mekunu originate here.
• Indian Ocean:
• Includes both the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. It serves as a primary breeding ground for cyclones that later affect India, Sri Lanka, the Maldives, and other surrounding regions.

The correct answer is 1877, Worple Road Site, Wimbledon

Key Points

• The first Wimbledon Championship was held in 1877.
• It is the oldest tennis tournament in the world.
• It was held at the All England Club in Wimbledon, it is played on the outer grass-court till 1877.
• Since 2009, it plays roof over centre court.
• Wimbledon is one of the four Grand Slam tennis tournaments, the other being the US Open, Australian Open and the French Open.
• The first Wimbledon Championship player Spencer Gore, an old Harrovian racket player, won from field 22.

Additional Information

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. ACBD

 

Key Points

• The sentence begins with the subject "Men usually make more decisions," which is correctly indicated by part (R).
• Following the subject, "and certainly the most important ones" (A) continues the logical sequence, making it clear what kind of decisions men make.
• The next part, "since men play a bigger role in" (C) provides a reason for the previous statement.
• Later, "earning a livelihood in most parts of the world" (B) explains the role men play.
• Ending with, "they have a major say in economic matters" (D) completes the sentence by stating the context of men.

Therefore, the correct answer is ACBD.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 (DCAB): This option starts with "they have a major say in economic matters" which does not logically follow from the fixed part.
• Option 2 (ACDB): This option places "since men play a bigger role in" before "earning a livelihood in most parts of the world," which makes the sentence awkward.
• Option 3 (BADC): This option starts with "earning a livelihood in most parts of the world" which does not logically follow from the fixed part.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect usage of the auxiliary verbs.
• The phrase "He will has been" is grammatically incorrect.
• The correct phrase should be "He will have been," ensuring grammatical correctness.
• Thus, the error is located in part 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "He will have been helping me with tending to my plants."

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. resist.

Key Points

• The word "Concur" means to agree or have the same opinion. (सहमति देना)
• Example: All the members of the committee concurred with the proposal.
• "Resist" refers to withstanding the action or effect of something, or to refuse to accept or comply with something. (विरोध करना)
• Example: He tried to resist the temptation to eat the cake.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'concur' is 'resist'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 i.e. resist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Met (मिला): Come into the presence or company of someone by chance or arrangement.
• Example: They met for the first time at a conference.
• Difficult (कठिन): Needing much effort or skill to accomplish, deal with, or understand.
• Example: She found the exam questions difficult to answer.
• Found (पाया): Discover or perceive by chance or unexpectedly.
• Example: She found a rare coin in her backyard.

The correct answer is 'keep body and soul together'.

 

Key Points

• The idiom "keep body and soul together" means to manage to stay alive with just enough of the necessities of life. (मुश्किलों के बावजूद जीवित रहना)
• Given the context of extreme inflation and increased prices, it indicates the struggle to survive.
• The other options: "a blessing in disguise," "costs an arm and a leg," and "break a leg" do not fit the context appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Extreme inflation in the country has led to a hike in the price of day-to-day commodity. It has made it difficult to keep body and soul together.

Additional Information

• A blessing in disguise: an apparent misfortune that eventually has good results.
• Costs an arm and a leg: very expensive.
• Break a leg: a way to wish someone good luck.

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. RPSQ

 

Key Points

• The sentence begins with the subject "the Artemis mission will explore" which is correctly indicated by part (R).
• Following the subject, "the south pole of the Moon" (RP) continues the logical sequence, making it clear what the Artemis mission will explore.
• The next part, "where ice has been confirmed to exist within craters," starts the explanation about the south pole, indicated by (S).
• Ending with "and where no man has ever been before" (Q) completes the sentence by stating the uniqueness of the mission.

Therefore, the correct answer is RPSQ.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 (PQSR): This option starts with "the south pole of the Moon and where no man has ever been before where ice has been confirmed to exist within craters the Artemis mission will explore." This sequence is incomplete and does not make sense grammatically.
• Option 3 (SQR): This option starts with "where ice has been confirmed to exist within craters and where no man has ever been before the Artemis mission will explore the south pole of the Moon," which makes the sentence incorrect as the explanation starts too early, missing contextual flow.
• Option 4 (PRQS): This option starts with "the south pole of the Moon the Artemis mission will explore and where no man has ever been before where ice has been confirmed to exist within craters," which creates a fragmented and confusing sentence structure.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Lessen.

Key Points

• The word "Amplify" means to increase the volume of sound, to make something more intense, or to enlarge or extend something. (बढ़ाना)
• Example: The new speaker system will amplify the sound in the auditorium.
• "Lessen" refers to making something smaller in size, amount, or degree; to reduce. (घटाना)
• Example: They are trying to lessen the impact of the new tax laws on small businesses.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Amplify' is 'Lessen'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 i.e. Lessen.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Enrich (समृद्ध करना): To improve or enhance the quality or value of something.
• Example: Traveling can enrich your understanding of different cultures.
• Exaggerate (बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर कहना): To describe something as larger, better, or worse than it really is.
• Example: He tends to exaggerate his achievements to impress others.
• Dislike (नापसंद): A feeling of not liking or being opposed to something or someone.
• Example: She has a strong dislike for spicy food.

The correct answer is 'left'.

 

Key Points

• The verb "left" is the simple past tense form of the verb "leave."
• The sentence describes an action that occurred in the past, so the past tense "left" is required.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are grammatically incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "They could not reach the railway station before the train left."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "leave" is incorrect because it is in the present tense.
• Option 3: "has been leaving" is incorrect; it is in the present perfect continuous tense which does not fit this context.
• Option 4: "has leave" is incorrect because it is not a proper verb form.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the use of the superlative form "most cleverest."
• Superlative adjectives should not be preceded by "most" when they already have the superlative suffix "-est".
• The correct phrase should be "cleverest," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
• Thus, the error is located in the phrase most cleverest of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "He was the cleverest man I ever knew."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "cleverer," – This form is used for the comparative degree, not the superlative.
• Option 3: "more clever," – This is the comparative form and cannot be used with "most".
• Option 4: "most cleverer," – This is incorrect because "most" should not be used with "cleverer".

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the omission of the article "an" before the term "unusual decision" and "unprejudiced way"
• Singular countable nouns typically require an article ("a" or "an").
• The correct phrase should be "an unusual decision," and "an unprejudiced way" ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "I have known her for many years. This time, she took an unusual decision in an unprejudiced way."

The correct answer is 'assortment'.

 

Key Points

• The word "assortment" means a collection or variety of different items. (विविधता)
• Online shopping websites offer a wide range or assortment of products to choose from.
• The other options: "assignment," "assessment," and "appraisal" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: You have different websites which have a huge assortment of products that you can choose from.

Additional Information

• Assignment (कार्य): a task or piece of work allocated to someone.
• Assessment (मूल्यांकन): the evaluation or estimation of the nature, quality, or ability of someone or something.
• Appraisal (मूल्यांकन): an act of assessing something or someone.

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. CADB

 

Key Points

• The sentence begins with the subject "he has," which is correctly indicated by part (C).
• Following the subject, "lost all his teeth" (CA) continues the logical sequence, making it clear what he has lost.
• The next part, "consequently, he" starts the explanation about the consequence, indicated by (D).
• Ending with "cannot eat hard food" (DB) completes the sentence by stating the consequence.

Therefore, the correct answer is CADB.

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 (BDAC): This option starts with "consequently, he cannot eat hard food" which fragments the sentence and loses its logical flow.
• Option 2 (DACB): This option starts with "lost all his teeth consequently, he" which makes the sentence incomplete and awkward.
• Option 4 (ADBC): This option starts with "lost all his teeth consequently, he" which is not a proper beginning and disrupts the sentence's structure.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "Who took Bruno for a walk?"
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "Bruno" at the beginning.
• Change the active verb form "took" to "was taken" (past simple passive).
• Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "who" (converted to "by whom").

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: "By whom was Bruno taken for a walk?"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "By whom has Bruno been taken for a walk?" – Incorrect tense (present perfect passive).
• Option 2: "With whom Bruno is taken for a walk?" – Incorrect structure and preposition.
• Option 4: "By whom will Bruno be taken for a walk?" – Incorrect tense (future simple passive).

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• Active voice structure: The subject performs the action expressed by the verb.
• In the passive voice, the sentence is: "A selected group of activists had been invited by the minister before the announcement of the strike."
• To convert to active voice: Place the original subject "the minister" at the beginning.
• Change the passive verb form "had been invited" to "had invited" (past perfect active).
• Ensure the object "a selected group of activists" follows the verb, maintaining the time phrase "before the announcement of the strike."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The minister had invited a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The minister was inviting a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike." – Incorrect tense (past continuous).
• Option 2: "The minister had been inviting a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike." – Incorrect aspect (past perfect continuous).
• Option 3: "The minister invited a selected group of activists before the announcement of the strike." – Incorrect tense (past simple instead of past perfect).

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Conquer.

Key Points

• The word "Vanquish" means to defeat thoroughly or completely in a competition or conflict. (पराजित करना)
• Example: The army was able to vanquish the enemy forces after a long battle.
• "Conquer" refers to overcoming or taking control of a place or people by use of military force; it also implies successfully overcoming a problem or weakness. (विजय प्राप्त करना)
• Example: Alexander the Great set out to conquer the known world.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'vanquish' is 'conquer'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Conquer.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Verify (सत्यापित करना): Make sure or demonstrate that something is true, accurate, or justified.
• Example: The data needs to be verified before we can proceed with the analysis.
• Describe (वर्णन करना): Give an account in words of someone or something, including all the relevant characteristics, qualities, or events.
• Example: Can you describe the appearance of the suspect?
• Quantify (मात्रा निर्धारित करना): Express or measure the quantity of something.
• Example: It’s difficult to quantify the impact of his work on the community.

The correct answer is 'resourceful'.

 

Key Points

• The word "resourceful" means having the ability to find quick and clever ways to overcome difficulties. (संसाधनपूर्ण)
• Technology enables the delivery of lessons in a more efficient and resourceful manner.
• The other options: "incompetent," "lumbering," and "encumbering" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Technology has made it possible for us to reach out to more students, and it has also made it possible for us to deliver the same lessons in a much more resourceful manner.

Additional Information

• Incompetent (अयोग्य): means not having the necessary skills or ability.
• Lumbering (धीरे-धीरे चलना): means moving in a slow, heavy, awkward way.
• Encumbering (बाधा डालना): means restricting or burdening in such a way that movement is difficult.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• Passive voice structure: The object of the active voice sentence becomes the subject of the passive voice sentence.
• In the active voice, the sentence is: "She is doing the homework."
• To convert to passive voice: Place the object "the homework" at the beginning.
• Change the active verb form "is doing" to "is being done" (present continuous passive).
• Add the preposition "by" followed by the original subject "her."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The homework is being done by her."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "The homework was being done by her." – Incorrect tense (past continuous passive).
• Option 2: "The homework has been done by her." – Incorrect tense (present perfect passive).
• Option 3: "The homework was done by her." – Incorrect tense (simple past passive).