SSC Stenographer · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

2650 Total Questions53 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 421–440 of 2650Page 22 of 100
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 421

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following reflects the 'what to produce' decision in economics?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Choosing between capital and consumer goods

  2. BOption (b)

    Increasing taxes to raise government revenue

  3. COption (c)

    Deciding on distribution of output

  4. DOption (d)

    Choosing method of production

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Choosing between capital and consumer goods

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Choosing between capital and consumer goods.

Key Points

  • The 'what to produce' decision in economics refers to the allocation of resources to produce goods and services that meet societal needs and preferences.
  • Choosing between capital goods (used for production) and consumer goods (used for direct consumption) reflects this decision, as it impacts economic growth and consumption patterns.
  • This decision is influenced by factors such as resource availability, market demand, and government policies.
  • Economists consider the opportunity cost of producing one type of good over another to optimize societal welfare.
  • In planned economies, the government plays a key role in determining 'what to produce,' while in market economies, this is largely determined by consumer demand and producer supply.

Additional Information

  • Capital Goods: These are goods used in the production of other goods, such as machinery, tools, and buildings. They contribute to long-term economic growth.
  • Consumer Goods: These are goods intended for immediate consumption by individuals, such as food, clothing, and electronics.
  • Opportunity Cost: The cost of foregone alternatives when choosing one option over another, critical in economic decision-making.
  • Planned Economy: An economic system where the government decides resource allocation, production, and distribution of goods and services.
  • Market Economy: An economic system where decisions regarding production and consumption are guided by market forces such as supply and demand.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 422

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Read the below statements and choose the correct option:

Statement 1: India's first initiative to track Fishing Cats through radio-collars has been introduced at Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary.

Statement 2: Fishing Cats are primarily found in coastal wetlands and mangrove ecosystems.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Only Statement 1 is correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Statement 2 is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • India's first initiative to track Fishing Cats through radio-collars has been introduced at Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh.
  • Fishing Cats are medium-sized wild cats primarily found in coastal wetlands, mangrove ecosystems, and riverine habitats.
  • Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary, located near Kakinada in Andhra Pradesh, is an important habitat for Fishing Cats and other wetland species.
  • This initiative is significant in conserving Fishing Cats, which are classified as "Vulnerable" under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
  • Both statements in the question are correct as they highlight accurate information regarding Fishing Cats and their conservation efforts.

Additional Information

  • Fishing Cats:
  • Scientific Name: Prionailurus viverrinus.
  • They are nocturnal carnivores and excellent swimmers, primarily feeding on fish, small mammals, and amphibians.
  • They are found in South and Southeast Asia, including India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, and Thailand.
  • Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary:
  • Located in Andhra Pradesh, it is known for its mangrove forests and rich biodiversity.
  • The sanctuary is home to species like Fishing Cats, otters, and a variety of birds.
  • Radio-Collaring:
  • A conservation technique used to track animal movements and study their behavior.
  • Helps gather data on habitat usage, population dynamics, and threats to survival.
  • IUCN Red List:
  • The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) maintains a global list categorizing species based on their conservation status.
  • "Vulnerable" status indicates that a species faces a high risk of extinction in the wild.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 423

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which economic consequence of migration is generally considered a challenge for the destination regions in India, particularly concerning unskilled rural migrants? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Increased per capita income due to the inflow of highly skilled labor

  2. BOption (b)

    Reduction in pressure on land resources and unemployment rates

  3. COption (c)

    Exploitation of migrant labor and the growth of informal sector employment

  4. DOption (d)

    Balanced regional development across states

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Exploitation of migrant labor and the growth of informal sector employment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Exploitation of migrant labor and the growth of informal sector employment.

Key Points

  • Unskilled rural migrants in destination regions often face exploitation due to lack of labor rights awareness and limited access to legal protections.
  • The migration of unskilled workers contributes to the growth of the informal sector, which typically lacks job security, fair wages, and basic benefits.
  • Destination regions may experience overburdened urban infrastructure due to the influx of unskilled migrants, leading to challenges such as housing shortages and inadequate sanitation.
  • Employers in the informal sector often exploit migrant workers by offering low wages and poor working conditions.
  • Migrants are frequently employed in sectors such as construction, domestic work, and small-scale industries, where labor laws are weakly enforced.

Additional Information

  • Informal Sector in India
  • The informal sector accounts for more than 80% of the workforce in India.
  • Jobs in this sector are characterized by the absence of written contracts, job security, and social security benefits.
  • Migrants often lack access to formal financial services, making them vulnerable to exploitation by employers and intermediaries.
  • Key Issues Faced by Migrant Workers
  • Poor living conditions, lack of access to healthcare, and limited education opportunities for their families.
  • Social exclusion and discrimination in destination cities.
  • Absence of minimum wage enforcement and long working hours.
  • Government Initiatives for Migrant Workers
  • One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC): Ensures food security for migrant workers across states.
  • Inter-State Migrant Workmen Act: Provides rights and protections for inter-state migrant workers.
  • Social Security Code 2020: Extends social security benefits to informal and gig workers.
  • Urbanization and Migration
  • Rural-to-urban migration is a key driver of urbanization in India.
  • While it contributes to economic growth, it also puts pressure on urban infrastructure, leading to challenges in housing, transportation, and waste management.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 424

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Under Section 25(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what may the Court do when a person is convicted in one trial for multiple offences?   

  1. AOption (a)

    Can impose only one punishment for all the offences, regardless of their nature

  2. BOption (b)

    Must give the harshest punishment only and remit other punishments altogether

  3. COption (c)

    Shall suspend all sentences unless directed by a higher court in the same trial

  4. DOption (d)

    May impose punishments to run either concurrently or consecutively as appropriate 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

May impose punishments to run either concurrently or consecutively as appropriate 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is May impose punishments to run either concurrently or consecutively as appropriate.

Key Points

  • Section 25(1) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 provides discretion to the Court when multiple offences are tried in a single trial.
  • The Court can decide whether the punishments for multiple offences should run concurrently (at the same time) or consecutively (one after another), based on the circumstances of the case.
  • This ensures that the sentencing is proportional and tailored to the nature and gravity of the offences committed.
  • The provision seeks to balance the principles of justice and deterrence while preventing excessive or overlapping punishments.
  • The discretion under this section aligns with practices in criminal jurisprudence to uphold fairness in sentencing.

Additional Information

  • Concurrent Sentences:
  • When sentences run concurrently, the convict serves time for multiple offences simultaneously.
  • This method is typically applied for related or less severe offences.
  • Consecutive Sentences:
  • When sentences run consecutively, the convict serves time for one offence after completing the sentence for another.
  • This method is usually applied for unrelated or more severe offences.
  • Principles of Sentencing:
  • Sentencing aims to achieve deterrence, retribution, rehabilitation, and societal protection.
  • The proportionality principle ensures that the punishment fits the gravity of the crime.
  • Judicial Discretion:
  • Judges have discretion under the law to interpret and apply sentencing provisions based on case facts.
  • Discretion is guided by precedents, legal principles, and legislative intent.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 425

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is the central objective of Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 scheme? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Strengthening early childhood care and nutrition delivery systems

  2. BOption (b)

    Food security through MSP

  3. COption (c)

    Urban health surveillance

  4. DOption (d)

    Providing skill-based employment 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Strengthening early childhood care and nutrition delivery systems

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Strengthening early childhood care and nutrition delivery systems.

Key Points

  • Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 scheme aims to strengthen early childhood care, nutrition delivery, and development.
  • It integrates the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS), Poshan Abhiyaan, and Scheme for Adolescent Girls for a comprehensive approach to nutrition and care.
  • The scheme focuses on malnutrition eradication by providing supplementary nutrition to children (0-6 years), pregnant women, and lactating mothers.
  • Modernization of Anganwadi centers is a key component, ensuring better infrastructure and services for early childhood care.
  • The initiative emphasizes community participation and behavioral change to address nutrition challenges at the grassroots level.

Additional Information

  • Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS):
  • Launched in 1975, it is one of the world’s largest programs aimed at providing food, preschool education, and primary healthcare to children under 6 years and their mothers.
  • It includes immunization, health check-ups, and referral services.
  • Poshan Abhiyaan:
  • Also known as the National Nutrition Mission, it was launched in March 2018 to address malnutrition through a life-cycle approach.
  • It aims to reduce stunting, undernutrition, anemia, and low birth weight among children.
  • Anganwadi Centres:
  • These are village-level child care centers established under ICDS to deliver nutrition, education, and health services.
  • Modernization efforts under Saksham Anganwadi include smart learning modules, better sanitation, and hygienic food preparation.
  • Malnutrition in India:
  • According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5), stunting affects 35.5% of children under 5 years in India.
  • The scheme aims to address root causes such as inadequate dietary intake and poor maternal nutrition.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 426

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following festivals is celebrated by the tribal communities of Nagaland and showcases traditional dance and music?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ugadi

  2. BOption (b)

    Hornbill Festival

  3. COption (c)

    Teej

  4. DOption (d)

    Onam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hornbill Festival

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hornbill Festival.

Key Points

  • The Hornbill Festival is a major cultural festival celebrated annually in Nagaland, India, by the state’s tribal communities.
  • It is held from 1st to 10th December every year at Kisama Heritage Village, near Kohima, the capital of Nagaland.
  • The festival is organized by the Government of Nagaland to promote and preserve the rich heritage of the state’s 16 major tribes and numerous sub-tribes.
  • The event features traditional dance, music, art, handicrafts, and cuisine, showcasing the vibrant culture of Nagaland.
  • It is named after the Hornbill bird, a revered symbol in Naga folklore, representing courage and grandeur.

Additional Information

  • Tribes of Nagaland:
  • Nagaland is home to 16 major tribes, including the Ao, Angami, Sumi, Chakhesang, and Lotha tribes, each with distinct traditions, language, and attire.
  • The tribal communities celebrate many festivals throughout the year, often tied to agricultural cycles.
  • Significance of the Hornbill Festival:
  • It is often referred to as the "Festival of Festivals" and serves as a platform to unify the Naga tribes.
  • The event attracts both domestic and international tourists, boosting Nagaland’s cultural tourism.
  • Kisama Heritage Village:
  • Kisama is a cultural hub specifically developed to host the Hornbill Festival.
  • It represents a miniature version of Naga villages, showcasing their architecture and way of life.
  • Hornbill Bird:
  • The Great Indian Hornbill is a large bird found in the forests of India and Southeast Asia.
  • It is a recurring motif in Naga folklore and is deeply respected for its majestic appearance.
  • Government Initiatives:
  • The festival is an initiative of the Nagaland government to preserve and promote the state’s cultural heritage and to encourage tourism.
  • It also provides opportunities for artisans and performers to showcase their talent on a global stage.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 427

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The power to legislate on 'Residuary Subjects' (matters not enumerated in any of the three Lists) rests exclusively with: 

  1. AOption (a)

    The President of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Parliament

  3. COption (c)

    The Supreme Court

  4. DOption (d)

    State Legislatures

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Parliament

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

  • Residuary powers refer to the authority to legislate on matters not enumerated in the Union List, State List, or Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution.
  • Under Article 248 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has exclusive power to legislate on residuary subjects.
  • This provision is supported by Entry 97 of the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
  • Examples of residuary subjects include matters related to cyberspace, atomic energy, and other emerging technologies not envisioned at the time of drafting the Constitution.
  • Unlike in federal systems like the USA, where residuary powers are given to the states, in India, these powers are vested in the central authority to ensure a strong and unified center.

Additional Information

  • Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
  • It contains three lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List, which define the distribution of powers between the Centre and States.
  • Union List: Contains subjects of national importance (e.g., defense, foreign affairs).
  • State List: Contains subjects of local or state-level importance (e.g., police, public health).
  • Concurrent List: Contains subjects where both the Centre and States can legislate (e.g., education, marriage).
  • Article 248 of the Constitution:
  • It grants Parliament exclusive power to legislate on matters not enumerated in any of the three Lists.
  • This ensures that emerging or unforeseen areas of legislation are uniformly governed across the country.
  • Residuary Powers in Federal Systems:
  • In India, residuary powers are vested in the Centre, unlike the USA, where they are given to the states.
  • This reflects the quasi-federal nature of the Indian Constitution, prioritizing a strong central government.
  • Judicial Interpretation:
  • The Supreme Court of India has upheld the exclusive power of Parliament over residuary matters in several landmark cases.
  • It ensures that no legislative vacuum exists in matters that may arise due to technological or societal advancements.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 428

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following pairs of newly created States/Union Territories after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 is correctly matched? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Jharkhand - 2001

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttarakhand-1998

  3. COption (c)

    Chhattisgarh-2000

  4. DOption (d)

    Telangana - 2001

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Chhattisgarh-2000

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chhattisgarh-2000.

Key Points

  • The State of Chhattisgarh was officially formed on November 1, 2000, after being carved out of Madhya Pradesh.
  • Chhattisgarh was created to address the cultural and administrative needs of the tribal population and other communities in the region.
  • The creation of Chhattisgarh was part of a broader reorganization of states in India to ensure better governance and development.
  • It became the 26th state of India, with Raipur designated as its capital.
  • This reorganization followed the recommendations of the State Reorganization Commission and subsequent demands for separate statehood.

Additional Information

  • Jharkhand:
  • Jharkhand was carved out of Bihar on November 15, 2000.
  • It is known for its rich mineral resources and dense forest cover.
  • The capital city of Jharkhand is Ranchi.
  • Uttarakhand:
  • Uttarakhand, formerly known as Uttaranchal, was created on November 9, 2000.
  • It was carved out of Uttar Pradesh to address the cultural and administrative needs of the hilly regions.
  • The capital city is Dehradun.
  • Telangana:
  • Telangana was formed on June 2, 2014, as the 29th state of India.
  • It was carved out of Andhra Pradesh following long-standing demands for statehood.
  • The capital city of Telangana is Hyderabad.
  • State Reorganization Act, 1956:
  • This Act was a major reform in the political boundaries of India post-independence.
  • It reorganized states and union territories primarily on the basis of linguistic and cultural lines.
  • The Act led to the creation of several new states and redefined existing ones.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 429

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Arrange the following Fundamental Rights in the order of their appearance in the Constitution:

  1. Right to Freedom

  2. Right to Equality

  3. Right to Freedom of Religion

  4. Right against Exploitation

  1. AOption (a)

    1-2-3-4

  2. BOption (b)

    2-1-4-3

  3. COption (c)

    2-4-1-3

  4. DOption (d)

    4-2-1-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2-1-4-3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2) 2-1-4-3.

Key Points

  • Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution, from Articles 12 to 35.
  • The sequence of Fundamental Rights is as follows:
  • Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)
  • Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)
  • Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24)
  • Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)
  • Option 2 correctly arranges these rights in the order of their appearance in the Constitution: 2-1-4-3.
  • These rights collectively aim to protect individual liberties and uphold equality, non-discrimination, and freedom of conscience.
  • The Fundamental Rights are justiciable, meaning individuals can approach the judiciary if their rights are violated.

Additional Information

  • Right to Equality:
  • Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth (Article 15).
  • Guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
  • Abolishes untouchability and titles except for military or academic distinctions (Articles 17-18).
  • Right to Freedom:
  • Includes freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession (Article 19).
  • Protects individuals from arbitrary detention (Articles 20-22).
  • Right against Exploitation:
  • Prohibits human trafficking, forced labor, and exploitation of children (Articles 23-24).
  • Right to Freedom of Religion:
  • Ensures freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion (Article 25).
  • Prohibits the imposition of religious taxes and ensures the secular character of educational institutions (Articles 27-28).
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 430

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Read the following and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Sound waves travel faster in steel than in air at the same temperature.

Reason (R): The particles in solids (like steel) are more closely packed and experience stronger intermolecular forces compared to particles in gases (like air), allowing vibrations to be transmitted more efficiently and rapidly.

  1. AOption (a)

    A is false but R is true..

  2. BOption (b)

    Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  4. DOption (d)

    A is true but R is false.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

  • Sound waves travel faster in steel than in air because the density and elastic properties of steel allow efficient transmission of vibrations.
  • Steel, being a solid, has particles that are closely packed, enabling faster propagation of sound waves.
  • In contrast, air, being a gas, has particles that are far apart, leading to slower transmission of sound waves.
  • Intermolecular forces in solids like steel are stronger, which helps in quicker transfer of energy between particles.
  • The speed of sound in steel is approximately 5,960 m/s, while in air, it is around 343 m/s at room temperature.

Additional Information

  • Sound Wave Propagation:
  • Sound waves are mechanical waves that require a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to travel.
  • The speed of sound depends on the medium's density and elasticity.
  • Elastic Modulus and Density:
  • The elastic modulus (stiffness of the material) is higher in steel, contributing to faster sound propagation.
  • Density affects sound speed inversely: lower density generally leads to slower sound speed in gases compared to solids.
  • Intermolecular Forces:
  • Stronger intermolecular forces in solids ensure quicker energy transfer between particles.
  • In gases, weaker forces and larger intermolecular distances result in slower sound transmission.
  • Speed of Sound in Different Media:
  • Steel: ~5,960 m/s
  • Water: ~1,480 m/s
  • Air: ~343 m/s
  • These values vary with temperature and material composition.
  • Temperature Effects:
  • In gases, the speed of sound increases with temperature due to increased kinetic energy of particles.
  • In solids and liquids, temperature changes have a lesser impact compared to gases.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 431

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who set up a Dayanand Anglo Vedic school in Lahore? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Lala Lajpat Rai

  2. BOption (b)

    Bipin Chandrapal

  3. COption (c)

    Dayanand Saraswati

  4. DOption (d)

    Balgangadhar Tilak

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lala Lajpat Rai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lala Lajpat Rai.

Key Points

  • Lala Lajpat Rai was one of the prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement, known as the "Punjab Kesari" or "Lion of Punjab."
  • He established the Dayanand Anglo Vedic (DAV) School in Lahore in 1886 as part of his efforts to promote education and social reform.
  • The DAV School was founded under the influence of the Arya Samaj movement, which sought to promote Vedic education and social upliftment.
  • The institution aimed to blend traditional Indian education based on Vedic principles with modern Western educational methods.
  • Lala Lajpat Rai emphasized education as a tool for empowerment and national awakening during the colonial period.

Additional Information

  • Arya Samaj:
  • A socio-religious reform movement founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
  • Aimed to revive Vedic knowledge and culture while opposing social evils like caste discrimination and child marriage.
  • Promoted education, especially for women, and emphasized Sanskrit as a medium of learning.
  • Lala Lajpat Rai's Contributions:
  • Played a key role in the Swadeshi movement and was an advocate for boycotting British goods.
  • He was a member of the Indian National Congress and later became associated with the extremist faction.
  • Led protests against the Simon Commission in 1928, during which he sustained injuries that later led to his death.
  • Dayanand Anglo Vedic (DAV) Institutions:
  • The DAV movement expanded to establish schools and colleges across India, promoting education based on Arya Samaj principles.
  • Currently, DAV institutions are among the largest chains of private educational institutions in India.
  • Focuses on character building, spiritual growth, and academic excellence.
  • Education in Colonial India:
  • During British rule, education was largely limited to traditional systems and missionary schools.
  • Indian leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai sought to create institutions that incorporated Indian values and modern education.
  • Such initiatives contributed to the rise of nationalist consciousness among Indians.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 432

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following was a major criticism of the industrial policy followed in India during 1950-1990? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Too much emphasis on exports.

  2. BOption (b)

    Creation of a protected market leading to inefficiency and lack of innovation.

  3. COption (c)

    Excessive competition among domestic industries. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Neglect of the public sector.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Creation of a protected market leading to inefficiency and lack of innovation.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Creation of a protected market leading to inefficiency and lack of innovation.

Key Points

  • The industrial policy during 1950-1990 in India promoted a protectionist approach, heavily relying on import substitution and limited competition from foreign markets.
  • Excessive state control and regulation, often termed as the "License Raj," stifled private sector growth and innovation.
  • The policy fostered a protected market, allowing domestic industries to operate without competition, leading to inefficiency, poor-quality products, and lack of technological advancements.
  • The lack of exposure to international markets and competition hindered the development of globally competitive industries in India during this period.
  • The restrictive industrial policies resulted in a slow pace of economic growth and inadequate industrial diversification in the country.

Additional Information

  • License Raj
  • A system of elaborate licenses, permits, and regulations implemented in India between 1947 and 1990 to control industries.
  • It required businesses to obtain multiple licenses and clearances, which led to bureaucratic delays and corruption.
  • Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI)
  • An economic policy adopted by India to reduce foreign dependency by promoting domestic production of industrial goods.
  • While it aimed to build self-reliance, it resulted in inefficiencies due to lack of competition and innovation.
  • Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956
  • The policy classified industries into three categories: those exclusively owned by the state, those progressively state-controlled, and those open to private sector participation.
  • It emphasized the role of the public sector in achieving economic and social goals.
  • Liberalization in 1991
  • The economic reforms of 1991 marked the end of the License Raj and introduced measures to liberalize, privatize, and globalize the Indian economy.
  • This reform era dismantled trade barriers, reduced state control, and encouraged foreign investments, spurring industrial growth and innovation.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 433

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The Jog Falls in Karnataka is formed from which river? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Godavari

  2. BOption (b)

    Kaveri

  3. COption (c)

    Sharavathi

  4. DOption (d)

    Krishna

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sharavathi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sharavathi River.

Key Points

  • Jog Falls is formed by the Sharavathi River, which flows through the state of Karnataka.
  • It is one of the highest plunge waterfalls in India, with a height of approximately 253 meters (830 feet).
  • Located in the Shimoga district of Karnataka, Jog Falls is a major tourist attraction and known for its breathtaking beauty.
  • The waterfall is divided into four distinct cascades: Raja, Rani, Roarer, and Rocket.
  • Jog Falls is primarily fed by the monsoon rains and the Sharavathi River, making it a seasonal waterfall with peak flow during the rainy season.

Additional Information

  • Sharavathi River:
  • Originates in the Western Ghats, near Ambuthirtha in Karnataka.
  • Flows westward and eventually drains into the Arabian Sea.
  • Sharavathi River is dammed at the Linganamakki Dam, which is a major source of hydroelectric power in Karnataka.
  • Jog Falls:
  • Unlike other waterfalls, Jog Falls is a plunge waterfall, meaning the water drops vertically without touching the rock face.
  • During peak monsoon, the falls are at their most majestic, attracting thousands of tourists.
  • Hydroelectric Power:
  • The Sharavathi River is a significant source of hydroelectric power generation in Karnataka.
  • The Linganamakki Dam has a capacity of generating approximately 1,035 MW of electricity.
  • Tourism in Karnataka:
  • Jog Falls is part of Karnataka's rich natural heritage and is one of the state's primary eco-tourism destinations.
  • Shimoga district, where Jog Falls is located, is also known for lush greenery and diverse flora and fauna.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 434

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What kind of approach does the Happiness Index encourage in governance? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Legalistic

  2. BOption (b)

    Citizen-centric

  3. COption (c)

    Resource-based

  4. DOption (d)

    Militaristic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Citizen-centric

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Citizen-centric.

Key Points

  • The Happiness Index promotes governance that prioritizes the well-being, satisfaction, and happiness of citizens over purely economic or resource-driven goals.
  • This approach ensures that policies and initiatives are designed to address the physical, mental, and emotional needs of the population.
  • It emphasizes the importance of inclusive growth, social equity, and environmental sustainability in decision-making.
  • Governments adopting a citizen-centric approach focus on education, healthcare, income equality, and environmental quality as key determinants of happiness.
  • The Happiness Index is aligned with the idea that governance should aim to enhance the overall quality of life rather than prioritizing mere economic indicators like GDP.

Additional Information

  • Happiness Index
  • The Happiness Index, also known as the World Happiness Report, is an annual publication by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network.
  • It ranks countries based on factors like GDP per capita, social support, life expectancy, freedom, generosity, and corruption perception.
  • The report uses data from surveys conducted by organizations like Gallup and relies on the Cantril Ladder method to measure happiness.
  • Examples of Citizen-Centric Governance
  • Bhutan's Gross National Happiness (GNH) framework prioritizes cultural preservation, environmental conservation, and citizen well-being.
  • Scandinavian countries, such as Finland and Denmark, consistently rank high on the Happiness Index due to their focus on social welfare, healthcare, and education.
  • Legalistic vs. Citizen-Centric Approach
  • A legalistic approach emphasizes adherence to laws and regulations, often prioritizing institutional frameworks over individual needs.
  • A citizen-centric approach focuses on creating policies and systems that directly address the needs and aspirations of citizens.
  • Importance of Citizen-Centric Governance
  • Enhances trust between the government and its citizens.
  • Improves overall satisfaction and productivity within the population.
  • Encourages participatory governance and inclusive decision-making.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 435

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who was the Home Minister in the first cabinet of free India? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Dr. Rajendra Prasad

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajagopalachari

  3. COption (c)

    Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

  4. DOption (d)

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Key Points

  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel served as the first Home Minister of independent India from 15 August 1947 to 15 December 1950.
  • He was also the first Deputy Prime Minister of India under the leadership of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • As Home Minister, Sardar Patel played a pivotal role in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union post-independence.
  • He is often referred to as the "Iron Man of India" for his strong leadership and efforts to unify the country.
  • Sardar Patel was instrumental in handling the internal security and administrative challenges of a newly independent India.

Additional Information

  • Role of the Home Minister:
  • The Home Minister is responsible for maintaining internal security, law and order, and the implementation of the Constitution within the country.
  • Other key responsibilities include overseeing the operations of central armed police forces, disaster management, and border management.
  • Integration of Princely States:
  • At the time of independence, India had over 560 princely states that had to choose between joining India, Pakistan, or remaining independent.
  • Sardar Patel, with the help of V.P. Menon, successfully integrated most princely states into the Indian Union through negotiation and diplomacy.
  • Notable examples include the integration of Hyderabad, Junagadh, and Kashmir.
  • Constitutional Role:
  • Sardar Patel was a key member of the Constituent Assembly and contributed to the drafting of India’s Constitution.
  • He emphasized the importance of a strong central government to maintain unity and stability in the country.
  • Legacy:
  • Sardar Patel's contributions to Indian unity are commemorated with the Statue of Unity, the world’s tallest statue, located in Gujarat.
  • His birthday, 31 October, is celebrated as Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (National Unity Day) in India.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 436

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which Indian state does S. Jaishankar represent in the Rajya Sabha?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Gujarat

  3. COption (c)

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamil Nadu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gujarat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • Dr. S. Jaishankar, India's Minister of External Affairs, represents the state of Gujarat in the Rajya Sabha.
  • He was elected to the Rajya Sabha from Gujarat in July 2019.
  • Dr. Jaishankar is a career diplomat and served as the Foreign Secretary of India before joining politics.
  • The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of India's Parliament, and its members are elected by the legislative assemblies of states and union territories.
  • Gujarat has been a prominent state in Indian politics, often represented by influential leaders in the Rajya Sabha.

Additional Information

  • Rajya Sabha
  • The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of India, also known as the "Council of States."
  • It consists of 245 members, of which 233 are elected by state legislatures and union territories, and 12 are nominated by the President of India.
  • Members serve staggered six-year terms, with one-third retiring every two years.
  • The Rajya Sabha plays a significant role in the legislative process, particularly in reviewing, amending, or approving bills proposed by the Lok Sabha.
  • Election Process for Rajya Sabha
  • Members are elected through single transferable votes by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
  • The number of Rajya Sabha members a state can elect depends on its population.
  • The President of India nominates 12 members with expertise in fields like literature, science, art, and social service.
  • Role of Gujarat in Indian Politics
  • Gujarat is a politically significant state, often producing leaders who have played crucial roles in Indian politics.
  • Prominent leaders like Narendra Modi (Prime Minister of India) and Amit Shah (Home Minister of India) hail from Gujarat.
  • S. Jaishankar
  • Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is an Indian diplomat turned politician, currently serving as India's Minister of External Affairs.
  • He joined the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and was elected to the Rajya Sabha in July 2019.
  • He is known for his expertise in foreign affairs and has represented India in numerous international forums.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 437

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which act replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

  3. COption (c)

    None of the above

  4. DOption (d)

    Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita.

Key Points

  • The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) is a proposed law aimed at replacing the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, as part of the Indian government’s initiative to modernize criminal laws.
  • It was introduced in August 2023 in the Lok Sabha by the Union Home Minister, Amit Shah, along with two other bills for comprehensive legal reforms.
  • The BNSS is designed to ensure a more efficient, citizen-centric, and technology-driven criminal justice system in India.
  • The bill focuses on reducing delays in investigation and trial processes, enhancing transparency, and strengthening mechanisms for protecting citizens' rights.
  • Provisions in the BNSS include time-bound investigations, electronic submissions, and the use of modern technology to improve the overall efficacy of the criminal justice system.

Additional Information

  • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS):
  • Proposed to replace the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860.
  • Aims to modernize penal provisions and incorporate stricter laws for crimes such as mob lynching and sexual offenses.
  • Focuses on victim-centric justice and timely prosecution.
  • Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA):
  • Proposed to replace the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
  • Introduces new provisions for digital evidence and admissibility of electronic records.
  • Emphasizes simplifying evidence laws to make them more relevant to contemporary issues.
  • Key Objectives of Criminal Law Reforms:
  • The reforms aim to provide speedy justice and ensure that justice is accessible to every citizen.
  • They focus on enhancing the use of technology in investigations and trials.
  • Ensuring that laws are victim-centric, especially in cases involving women, children, and marginalized groups.
  • Historical Context:
  • The CrPC, IPC, and Indian Evidence Act were introduced during British rule and have undergone several amendments since independence.
  • The need for reforms has been discussed in various commissions, including the Malimath Committee Report of 2003.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 438

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following best describes the goal of stem cell therapy in modern medicine? 

  1. AOption (a)

    To provide genetic immunity against viruses

  2. BOption (b)

    To prevent blood clotting in arteries

  3. COption (c)

    To replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs 

  4. DOption (d)

    To stimulate hormonal glands

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs.

Key Points

  • Stem cell therapy aims to replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs, offering a potential cure for various debilitating diseases.
  • Stem cells are unique because they have the ability to differentiate into various specialized cell types, such as muscle, nerve, or blood cells.
  • This therapy is being extensively researched for conditions like spinal cord injuries, diabetes, Parkinson’s disease, and heart disease.
  • Stem cells can be derived from embryonic stem cells, adult stem cells, or induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs), providing multiple avenues for treatment.
  • The goal is not just repair but also to restore normal function to damaged tissues or organs, which traditional medicine often cannot achieve.

Additional Information

  • Stem Cells:
  • These are undifferentiated cells capable of dividing and renewing themselves over long periods.
  • They have the ability to differentiate into specialized cell types.
  • Two main types: embryonic stem cells (pluripotent) and adult stem cells (multipotent).
  • Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells (iPSCs):
  • iPSCs are adult cells reprogrammed to behave like embryonic stem cells.
  • They eliminate ethical concerns associated with using embryonic stem cells.
  • iPSCs are widely used in regenerative medicine and disease modeling.
  • Applications of Stem Cell Therapy:
  • Bone marrow transplants for blood disorders like leukemia.
  • Potential treatments for neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s.
  • Regeneration of damaged organs such as the heart, liver, or kidneys.
  • Challenges in Stem Cell Therapy:
  • Ethical concerns regarding embryonic stem cells.
  • High costs and complex procedures.
  • Risks such as immune rejection or tumor formation.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 439

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The first known rules of Kabaddi were framed in which Indian state? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttar Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Punjab

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • The first known rules of Kabaddi were framed in Maharashtra, India.
  • Kabaddi, as a sport, has deep roots in Indian culture and has been played informally across regions for centuries.
  • In 1921, a structured format and rules were introduced to Kabaddi during the All India Kabaddi Tournament in Maharashtra.
  • The state of Maharashtra played a pivotal role in popularizing Kabaddi and transforming it into a competitive sport.
  • The Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI) was later formed in 1950 to further regulate and promote Kabaddi at the national level.

Additional Information

  • Origin of Kabaddi:
  • Kabaddi is believed to have originated in ancient India, with references in historical texts such as the Mahabharata.
  • It was traditionally played to develop physical strength and stamina, particularly in rural areas.
  • Types of Kabaddi:
  • There are different formats of Kabaddi, including Circle Style Kabaddi, Standard Style Kabaddi, and Beach Kabaddi.
  • Standard Style Kabaddi is the format played in international tournaments, including the Asian Games and Pro Kabaddi League.
  • Pro Kabaddi League (PKL):
  • The Pro Kabaddi League, launched in 2014, is a professional Kabaddi league in India that has significantly contributed to the sport’s popularity.
  • It follows the Standard Style Kabaddi format and features teams from various Indian cities.
  • Global Reach of Kabaddi:
  • Kabaddi is now played in over 30 countries worldwide, with nations like Iran, South Korea, and Pakistan being prominent competitors.
  • The International Kabaddi Federation (IKF) governs Kabaddi globally, organizing events like the Kabaddi World Cup.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
View full paper

Question 440

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Match the Mahajanapada with its capital:

Column A: MahajanapadaColumn B: Capital
1. Vatsaa. Kaushambi
2. Magadhab. Rajagriha
3. Kuruc. Ujjayini
4. Avantid. Indraprastha
  1. AOption (a)

    1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c  

  2. BOption (b)

    1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

  3. COption (c)

    1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

  4. DOption (d)

    1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c  

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c.

Key Points

  • The Vatsa Mahajanapada had its capital at Kaushambi, which was an important trade and political center in ancient India.
  • Magadha’s capital was Rajagriha (modern-day Rajgir), which was a significant hub for political and religious activities during the Mahajanapada period.
  • The Kuru Mahajanapada had its capital at Indraprastha, which is associated with the modern-day Delhi region.
  • The capital of Avanti Mahajanapada was Ujjayini, known for its cultural and religious importance in ancient times.
  • These capitals were significant centers of administration, trade, and culture during the time of the Mahajanapadas.

Additional Information

  • Mahajanapadas:
  • The term "Mahajanapada" refers to the sixteen large states or kingdoms that existed in ancient India during the 6th century BCE.
  • These states were spread across the Indo-Gangetic plains and were the precursors to later empires such as the Maurya and Gupta dynasties.
  • The Mahajanapadas were classified into monarchies and republics, with governance structures varying between them.
  • Importance of Capitals:
  • Capitals like Rajagriha, Kaushambi, Ujjayini, and Indraprastha were strategic centers for trade, culture, and governance.
  • These cities were often fortified and served as seats of power for their respective rulers.
  • Capitals also played a key role in the spread of religion, especially Buddhism and Jainism during this period.
  • Geographical Spread:
  • The Mahajanapadas were located in modern-day regions of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and parts of Pakistan.
  • This geographical distribution highlights the diversity and cultural richness of ancient India.
  • Religious and Cultural Significance:
  • Many of the Mahajanapadas, such as Magadha, played a vital role in the development and spread of Buddhism and Jainism.
  • These regions were home to several important religious councils and gatherings.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Stenographer?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.