SSC Stenographer · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

2650 Total Questions53 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 401–420 of 2650Page 21 of 100
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 401

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements about the GO (G zero phase) phase of the cell cycle is most accurate?

  1. AOption (a)

    DNA synthesis occurs rapidly in cells present in the GO phase.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is the phase where cell division is initiated in cancerous cells.

  3. COption (c)

    It is a temporary quiescent stage where cells exit the cell cycle.

  4. DOption (d)

    Cells in GO actively prepare for DNA replication.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is a temporary quiescent stage where cells exit the cell cycle.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is a temporary quiescent stage where cells exit the cell cycle..

Key Points

  • The GO phase (G zero phase) represents a state of cell cycle arrest, where cells exit the active cycle and stop dividing.
  • Cells in the GO phase are in a non-proliferative or quiescent state, often performing specialized functions depending on the cell type.
  • This phase is temporary or permanent, depending on the cell type and environmental conditions.
  • Examples of cells in permanent GO phase include neurons and skeletal muscle cells, which do not divide after differentiation.
  • GO phase is crucial for maintaining cellular homeostasis and protecting against uncontrolled cell division.

Additional Information

  • Cell Cycle Phases:
  • The cell cycle consists of interphase (G1, S, G2 phases) and mitotic phase (M phase).
  • GO phase is not part of the active cycle and is considered a resting state.
  • Quiescence vs Senescence:
  • Quiescence refers to reversible cell cycle arrest (GO phase).
  • Senescence is an irreversible state of cell cycle arrest caused by damage or aging.
  • Role in Cancer:
  • Cancerous cells often evade GO phase, leading to uncontrolled division and tumor formation.
  • Targeting the mechanisms regulating GO phase is a focus in cancer therapy research.
  • Cell Types:
  • Stem cells can exit GO phase to re-enter the cycle and divide.
  • Terminally differentiated cells like neurons remain in GO phase permanently.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 402

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

India's improvement in the Rule of Law Index is most critically challenged by which factor? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Slow judicial delivery

  2. BOption (b)

    Legislative overreach

  3. COption (c)

    Executive dominance 

  4. DOption (d)

    Media bias

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Slow judicial delivery

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Slow judicial delivery.

Key Points

  • Slow judicial delivery is one of the most critical issues affecting India's Rule of Law Index ranking.
  • India's judicial system is burdened with a massive backlog of cases—over 4.5 crore cases were pending in courts as of 2023, according to the National Judicial Data Grid.
  • The average time to resolve cases in lower courts is several years, while higher courts may take decades to deliver final judgments.
  • The delay leads to a lack of trust in the justice system, undermining the effectiveness of the Rule of Law in ensuring accountability and fairness.
  • Factors contributing to slow judicial delivery include insufficient judicial workforce, underfunded courts, procedural complexities, and lack of technological integration.

Additional Information

  • Rule of Law Index
  • The Rule of Law Index is published by the World Justice Project (WJP) and measures how the rule of law is experienced and perceived globally.
  • The index evaluates factors such as constraints on government powers, absence of corruption, open government, and access to justice.
  • India ranked 77th out of 140 countries in the 2022 Rule of Law Index.
  • Judicial Backlog in India
  • As of 2023, over 4.5 crore cases were pending, with nearly 90,000 cases in the Supreme Court alone.
  • The Law Commission of India has repeatedly recommended increasing the number of judges to address the backlog.
  • National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG)
  • An online platform that provides real-time data on pending and disposed cases in Indian courts.
  • It aims to promote transparency and enable better management of case workloads.
  • Judicial Reforms
  • Proposed reforms include hiring more judges, adopting Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanisms, and leveraging technology for e-courts.
  • The E-Courts project is being implemented under the Digital India program to ensure faster and more transparent justice delivery.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 403

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which instrument is commonly used in Carnatic classical music? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Dhol

  2. BOption (b)

    Mridangam

  3. COption (c)

    Santoor

  4. DOption (d)

    Shehnai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mridangam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mridangam.

Key Points

  • The Mridangam is a percussion instrument widely used in Carnatic classical music, which originated in South India.
  • It is a double-sided drum, where each side produces different tones, contributing to the rhythmic complexity of Carnatic music.
  • The Mridangam is often referred to as the "King of Percussion" in Carnatic music due to its prominence in rhythm accompaniment.
  • Traditionally, it is made from jackfruit wood, and its drumheads are constructed using layers of leather and black paste for tonal resonance.
  • It serves as the primary rhythm instrument in Carnatic music concerts, often accompanying vocalists and instrumentalists.

Additional Information

  • Carnatic Music:
  • Carnatic music is a system of classical music associated with South India, characterized by its intricate melodies and complex rhythmic patterns.
  • It is based on a system of ragas (melodic frameworks) and talas (rhythmic cycles).
  • The Mridangam is an essential instrument in Carnatic ensembles, along with the veena, violin, and ghatam.
  • Construction of Mridangam:
  • The cylindrical body is traditionally made from hollowed jackfruit wood.
  • The drumheads are crafted using multiple layers of leather, and the black paste (siyahi) in the center helps fine-tune the pitch.
  • Role in Performances:
  • The Mridangam player provides rhythmic accompaniment, enhancing the overall structure and dynamics of the performance.
  • It is also used in solo performances, where its intricate rhythmic variations are showcased.
  • Other Instruments in Carnatic Music:
  • Other commonly used instruments include the violin, veena, flute, and ghatam.
  • These instruments complement the Mridangam in creating a cohesive musical experience.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 404

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What trend is reflected by increasing share of urban people in non-manual tertiary occupations? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Spatial literacy inequality 

  2. BOption (b)

    Gendered education access

  3. COption (c)

    Emerging service economy

  4. DOption (d)

    De-industrialization.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Emerging service economy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Emerging service economy.

Key Points

  • The increasing share of urban people in non-manual tertiary occupations reflects the growth of the service economy, where industries like IT, finance, education, and healthcare dominate.
  • This trend is indicative of a shift from traditional agriculture and manufacturing to a more knowledge-based economy.
  • Urban centers act as hubs for economic opportunities, attracting talent for service-oriented roles that require specialized skills and education.
  • Such a shift has been observed in rapidly urbanizing nations, where the tertiary sector contributes significantly to GDP and employment.
  • The emerging service economy is characterized by increased demand for professional, managerial, and technical roles in cities, driven by globalization and advancements in technology.

Additional Information

  • Service Economy:
  • The service economy refers to an economic system where the majority of economic output and employment comes from the service sector, rather than agriculture or manufacturing.
  • Examples include industries like IT, education, healthcare, tourism, and financial services.
  • Urbanization and Economic Shift:
  • Urbanization leads to the concentration of infrastructure and human resources, fostering the growth of service-based industries.
  • It creates a demand for diverse services in urban centers, such as retail, transport, and education.
  • Role of Technology:
  • Technological advancements, such as automation and digitalization, have accelerated the transition to a service economy.
  • IT and telecommunication have enabled remote and global service delivery, expanding economic opportunities.
  • Globalization:
  • Globalization has connected markets worldwide, boosting the demand for services like IT, finance, and consultancy in urban centers.
  • It has also facilitated the outsourcing of service-based roles to developing nations.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 405

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which region has become the new epicenter of global terrorism, according to the GTI (Global Terrorism Index) 2024? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Southeast Asia

  2. BOption (b)

    Central Sahel region of sub-Saharan Africa

  3. COption (c)

    Central Asia

  4. DOption (d)

    Middle East and North Africa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Central Sahel region of sub-Saharan Africa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Central Sahel region of sub-Saharan Africa.

Key Points

  • The Central Sahel region of sub-Saharan Africa has been identified as the new epicenter of global terrorism, according to the Global Terrorism Index (GTI) 2024.
  • This region includes countries such as Mali, Burkina Faso, and Niger, which are experiencing a significant rise in terrorist activity.
  • Jihadist groups such as Islamic State (IS) affiliates and al-Qaeda-linked groups are active in this area, causing instability and violence.
  • Factors contributing to terrorism in the Central Sahel include weak governance, poverty, ethnic tensions, and competition over natural resources.
  • The number of deaths caused by terrorism in this region has surpassed those in the Middle East and North Africa, highlighting its growing significance in global security dynamics.

Additional Information

  • Global Terrorism Index (GTI):
  • The GTI is an annual report published by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) that measures the impact of terrorism worldwide.
  • It uses metrics such as the number of incidents, fatalities, injuries, and property damage to rank countries and regions.
  • Key Terrorist Groups in the Sahel:
  • Jama’at Nasr al-Islam wal Muslimin (JNIM): An al-Qaeda-affiliated group active in the Sahel.
  • Islamic State in the Greater Sahara (ISGS): An affiliate of ISIS causing significant instability in the region.
  • Drivers of Terrorism in the Sahel:
  • Political instability and lack of governance in countries like Mali and Burkina Faso.
  • Socioeconomic challenges such as poverty and unemployment.
  • Competition for scarce resources like water and arable land.
  • Regional and International Responses:
  • Efforts such as the G5 Sahel joint force, a regional security initiative, aim to combat terrorism.
  • International support from organizations like the United Nations and countries like France is critical for counter-terrorism operations.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 406

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Match the following Wildlife Sanctuaries (Column A) with their respective States (Column B). Choose the option correct option: 

Column A (Wildlife Sanctuary)Column B (State)
1. Gandhi Sagar WLSa. Assam
2. Sonai Rupai WLSb. Madhya Pradesh
3. Kaimur WLSc. Telangana
4. Eturnagaram WLSd. Bihar
  1. AOption (a)

    1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c 

  2. BOption (b)

    1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - d

  3. COption (c)

    1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - b

  4. DOption (d)

    1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Madhya Pradesh. It is situated near the Chambal River and is known for its rich biodiversity.
  • Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Assam. It lies in the foothills of the Himalayan ranges and is home to diverse flora and fauna, including elephants and tigers.
  • Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Bihar. It is the largest sanctuary in the state and is known for its waterfalls, archaeological sites, and wildlife.
  • Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Telangana. It is one of the oldest sanctuaries in the region and is noted for its teak forests and biodiversity.
  • The correct match is 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c, which corresponds to Option 1.

Additional Information

  • Wildlife Sanctuaries in India:
  • India has over 550 wildlife sanctuaries, which serve as protected areas for conserving biodiversity.
  • They are governed under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
  • These sanctuaries contribute to ecological balance and are vital for preserving endangered species.
  • Biodiversity Hotspots in India:
  • India is home to four biodiversity hotspots: the Himalayas, the Western Ghats, the Indo-Burma region, and the Sundaland (Nicobar Islands).
  • These regions are critical for global biodiversity conservation due to their unique ecosystems and endemic species.
  • Importance of Wildlife Sanctuaries:
  • They provide safe habitats for wildlife, especially endangered and vulnerable species.
  • They help maintain ecological balance and protect ecosystems from degradation.
  • They promote eco-tourism, which can benefit local economies while fostering conservation awareness.
  • Wildlife Protection Act, 1972:
  • This act forms the basis for wildlife conservation in India.
  • It provides for the establishment of protected areas such as national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and conservation reserves.
  • The act prohibits poaching, hunting, and illegal trade of wildlife.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 407

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which high-altitude observatory in India is known for hosting an optical-infrared telescope used for space observation in Ladakh? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Udaipur Solar Observatory

  2. BOption (b)

    Hanle Indian Astronomical Observatory

  3. COption (c)

    Nainital Aryabhatta Observatory

  4. DOption (d)

    Mount Abu Infrared Observatory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hanle Indian Astronomical Observatory

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hanle Indian Astronomical Observatory.

Key Points

  • The Hanle Indian Astronomical Observatory is situated at Hanle in the Union Territory of Ladakh, India.
  • It is managed by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru.
  • The observatory hosts a 2.01-meter Himalayan Chandra Telescope (HCT), which is an advanced optical-infrared telescope.
  • Hanle is one of the highest observatories in the world, located at an altitude of approximately 4,500 meters (14,764 feet) above sea level.
  • The site is ideal for astronomical observations due to clear skies for most of the year and minimal light pollution.

Additional Information

  • Himalayan Chandra Telescope (HCT):
  • The HCT is a 2.01-meter telescope equipped with state-of-the-art instruments for optical and infrared astronomy.
  • It is used for studying stellar objects, galaxies, and other celestial phenomena.
  • The telescope is remotely operated from the IIA's CREST campus in Bengaluru.
  • High-Altitude Observatories:
  • Such observatories are situated at high altitudes to minimize atmospheric distortion caused by Earth's dense lower atmosphere.
  • Examples include the Mauna Kea Observatories in Hawaii and the Very Large Telescope (VLT) in Chile.
  • Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA):
  • The IIA is an autonomous research institute under the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India.
  • It plays a key role in India's astronomical research and development.
  • Dark Sky Reserves:
  • Hanle is being developed as a Dark Sky Reserve to promote scientific research and eco-tourism.
  • Dark Sky Reserves are areas with minimal light pollution, ideal for stargazing and astronomical studies.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 408

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which type of galaxy has no regular shape and is rich in gas and dust? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Elliptical Galaxy

  2. BOption (b)

    Lenticular Galaxies

  3. COption (c)

    Irregular Galaxy

  4. DOption (d)

    Spiral Galaxy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Irregular Galaxy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Irregular Galaxy.

Key Points

  • An Irregular Galaxy is a type of galaxy that lacks a defined shape or structure and does not fall into the categories of elliptical, spiral, or lenticular galaxies.
  • These galaxies are rich in gas and dust, which makes them active regions for star formation.
  • Irregular galaxies are often influenced by gravitational interactions, such as collisions or close encounters with other galaxies, leading to their distorted appearance.
  • Examples of irregular galaxies include the Large Magellanic Cloud and Small Magellanic Cloud, which are satellite galaxies of the Milky Way.
  • They tend to be smaller than spiral and elliptical galaxies and can house young, hot stars due to ongoing star formation.

Additional Information

  • Galaxy Classification:
  • Galaxies are broadly classified into four types based on their shape: Spiral, Elliptical, Lenticular, and Irregular.
  • Spiral galaxies have a flat, rotating disk with arms, while elliptical galaxies are round or oval with little gas and dust.
  • Lenticular galaxies act as a transition between spiral and elliptical galaxies, featuring a disk but no spiral arms.
  • Star Formation in Irregular Galaxies:
  • The high concentration of gas and dust in irregular galaxies enables the formation of new stars.
  • These galaxies often host young and massive stars, which emit bright ultraviolet light.
  • Gravitational Interactions:
  • Irregular galaxies are frequently distorted due to gravitational forces from nearby galaxies.
  • Such interactions can trigger bursts of star formation and alter the galaxy's shape over time.
  • Large and Small Magellanic Clouds:
  • The Large and Small Magellanic Clouds are the most well-known examples of irregular galaxies.
  • They are visible from the Southern Hemisphere and are located relatively close to the Milky Way.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 409

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the emphasis placed on the public sector in India's industrial development strategy between 1947 and 1990. What was a key rationale behind giving the public sector a dominant role during this period? 

  1. AOption (a)

    There was a lack of demand for industrial goods in the domestic market, necessitating government intervention.

  2. BOption (b)

    Public sector industries were inherently more efficient than private sector ones.

  3. COption (c)

    The private sector had sufficient capital and technological expertise to drive industrialization in all key sectors. 

  4. DOption (d)

    The public sector was seen as a tool for achieving social goals, promoting balanced regional development, and controlling strategic industries.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The public sector was seen as a tool for achieving social goals, promoting balanced regional development, and controlling strategic industries.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The public sector was seen as a tool for achieving social goals, promoting balanced regional development, and controlling strategic industries..

Key Points

  • Post-independence, India adopted a planned economic model that emphasized state control over key sectors to achieve equitable growth and reduce socio-economic disparities.
  • The public sector was assigned a dominant role to address strategic industries like defense, infrastructure, and energy, ensuring national security and self-reliance.
  • Balanced regional development was a priority; public sector enterprises were established in economically backward areas to create employment and uplift local economies.
  • The government aimed to use public sector industries to fulfill social welfare goals, such as reducing income inequality and providing essential goods and services at affordable prices.
  • The private sector was relatively weak in terms of capital, technology, and organizational capacity, necessitating a strong public sector presence during this period.

Additional Information

  • Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956:
  • The policy classified industries into three categories, with the first group reserved exclusively for the public sector.
  • It emphasized state ownership and control over industries of national importance, such as defense, railways, and atomic energy.
  • Five-Year Plans:
  • The first Five-Year Plan (1951-1956) focused on agricultural development, while subsequent plans prioritized industrialization with public sector investments.
  • The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961) was heavily influenced by the Mahalanobis model, which advocated for public sector-led growth in heavy industries.
  • Strategic Industries:
  • Strategic industries like steel, coal, and petroleum were nationalized to ensure stability, security, and self-reliance in critical sectors.
  • These industries were considered vital for national defense and economic sovereignty.
  • Public Sector Contribution:
  • By the 1980s, public sector enterprises accounted for a significant share of industrial output, employment, and exports.
  • They played a pivotal role in building infrastructure like roads, railways, and power generation facilities.
  • Challenges Faced:
  • Despite its contributions, the public sector faced issues like inefficiency, overstaffing, and lack of competitiveness, leading to economic reforms in 1991.
  • The reforms introduced privatization and liberalization to address these challenges and encourage private sector participation.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 410

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

In what way did fiscal discipline reforms affect center-state financial relations post-1991? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Reduced tax sharing

  2. BOption (b)

    States had to adhere to fiscal targets

  3. COption (c)

    Increased state autonomy in tax policy

  4. DOption (d)

    Centralized control over agriculture pricing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

States had to adhere to fiscal targets

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is States had to adhere to fiscal targets.

Key Points

  • Post-1991 fiscal reforms, states were mandated to adhere to fiscal deficit reduction targets to qualify for central funds and grants.
  • The introduction of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act encouraged states to adopt disciplined fiscal practices.
  • States were required to implement measures such as limiting borrowings, improving tax collection efficiency, and reducing non-productive expenditures.
  • The central government provided incentives for states achieving fiscal targets, such as debt relief packages and additional financial assistance.
  • Such reforms aimed at strengthening macroeconomic stability and ensuring better utilization of resources at both the central and state levels.

Additional Information

  • Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act
  • The FRBM Act was enacted in 2003 to ensure fiscal discipline and reduce fiscal deficits.
  • It set targets for reducing the fiscal deficit and revenue deficit as a percentage of GDP.
  • States were encouraged to adopt their own FRBM legislation in alignment with the central framework.
  • Debt Relief Measures for States
  • Post-reforms, states achieving fiscal targets were provided with debt restructuring and relief packages by the central government.
  • These measures helped in reducing the financial burden on states and incentivized fiscal discipline.
  • Macro-Fiscal Stability
  • Fiscal discipline reforms contributed to improving macroeconomic stability by reducing the fiscal deficit and ensuring sustainable growth.
  • Efficient allocation of resources between the center and states became a key priority.
  • Tax Sharing Post-Reforms
  • The 1991 reforms emphasized rationalizing tax structures to improve revenue collection.
  • While states retained autonomy in certain tax domains, the central government introduced mechanisms for equitable tax sharing.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 411

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following agro-climatic and soil conditions is most suitable for the cultivation of wheat? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Arid crop; temperature above 40°C; sandy loam soil

  2. BOption (b)

    ubtropical crop; high humidity; laterite soil

  3. COption (c)

    Temperate crop; winter temp 10-15°C, summer 21-26°C; clay loam soil

  4. DOption (d)

    Tropical crop; 30-35°C temperature; sandy soil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Temperate crop; winter temp 10-15°C, summer 21-26°C; clay loam soil

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Temperate crop; winter temp 10-15ºC, summer 21-26ºC; clay loam soil.

Key Points

  • Wheat is a temperate crop that thrives in regions with moderate temperatures during its growing period.
  • Optimal temperature for wheat growth is 10-15ºC during winter (for germination and vegetative growth) and 21-26ºC during summer (during maturation).
  • Wheat requires clay loam soil with good water retention capacity and adequate drainage for proper root development.
  • Regions with low humidity and a well-distributed rainfall pattern are ideal for wheat cultivation.
  • India’s major wheat-growing regions include Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh, which have suitable agro-climatic conditions.

Additional Information

  • Wheat Cultivation:
  • Wheat is a rabi crop (winter crop) sown in October-November and harvested in March-April.
  • It is the second most important cereal crop in India after rice.
  • Major wheat varieties grown in India include HD 2967, PBW 343, and WH 1105.
  • India is the second-largest producer of wheat in the world after China.
  • Soil Requirements:
  • Clay loam soil is preferred as it retains moisture and provides essential nutrients.
  • Soil pH for wheat cultivation should ideally be between 6.0 and 7.5.
  • Proper soil aeration and drainage prevent root diseases and ensure healthy crop growth.
  • Climatic Requirements:
  • Wheat is a temperate crop requiring a cool climate during germination and growth stages.
  • Excessive heat (>30ºC) or frost can significantly affect wheat yield.
  • Rainfall between 50-75 cm during the growing period is ideal.
  • Global Wheat Production:
  • Globally, wheat is cultivated in temperate regions like the USA, Canada, Russia, and Europe.
  • Countries with advanced irrigation systems and soil management practices yield higher wheat productivity.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 412

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

According to Lenz's Law, what determines the direction of an induced current in a conductor? 

  1. AOption (a)

    It continuously reduces the applied magnetic flux,

  2. BOption (b)

    It always enhances the existing magnetic field.

  3. COption (c)

    It flows to oppose the variation in magnetic flux causing it.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is proportional to the strength of the magnetic field.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It flows to oppose the variation in magnetic flux causing it.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It flows to oppose the variation in magnetic flux causing it.

Key Points

  • Lenz's Law states that the direction of the induced current in a conductor is such that it opposes the change in magnetic flux that caused it.
  • The law is based on the principle of conservation of energy, ensuring that the induced current doesn't create energy out of nothing.
  • This opposition is achieved by the induced current generating a magnetic field that counters the change in the external magnetic flux.
  • Lenz's Law can be mathematically expressed as part of Faraday's Law: E = -dΦ/dt, where the negative sign indicates opposition to the change.
  • It plays a critical role in understanding electromagnetic induction and is widely applied in devices like electric generators, transformers, and inductors.

Additional Information

  • Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction:
  • It states that a change in magnetic flux through a circuit induces an electromotive force (EMF) in the circuit.
  • The induced EMF is proportional to the rate of change of the magnetic flux.
  • Faraday's Law forms the foundation for Lenz's Law.
  • Conservation of Energy:
  • Lenz's Law ensures that the induced current's opposition prevents the creation of perpetual motion, adhering to energy conservation.
  • The opposing magnetic field consumes energy equivalent to the work done to change the magnetic flux.
  • Applications of Lenz's Law:
  • Lenz's Law is crucial in designing electric generators, where mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy.
  • It is also applied in transformers to regulate voltage levels and prevent energy losses.
  • Induction cooktops utilize Lenz's Law to generate heat efficiently.
  • Key Terminology:
  • Magnetic Flux (Φ): The measure of the total magnetic field passing through a surface.
  • Electromotive Force (EMF): The voltage generated by changing magnetic flux.
  • Induced Current: The current generated due to electromagnetic induction.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 413

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What led to the decline of Timurid power in the second half of the 15th century? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Economic decline due to maritime trade shifts

  2. BOption (b)

    Internal wars due to partitioning

  3. COption (c)

    Rise of Uzbeks

  4. DOption (d)

    Ottoman invasions 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Internal wars due to partitioning

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Internal wars due to partitioning.

Key Points

  • The decline of Timurid power in the second half of the 15th century was significantly influenced by internal conflicts among the Timurid princes.
  • After the death of Timur (Tamerlane) in 1405, the empire was divided among his successors, leading to fragmented governance.
  • This partitioning resulted in widespread internal wars as various princes fought to expand their territories and consolidate power.
  • The weakening caused by these internal struggles allowed external forces, such as the Uzbeks, to exploit the situation and rise as a dominant power in Central Asia.
  • Timurid rulers also faced challenges in maintaining effective central authority due to their reliance on nomadic tribal alliances, which further destabilized the empire.

Additional Information

  • Timurid Empire:
  • Founded by Timur (Tamerlane) in the late 14th century, the Timurid Empire spanned parts of Central Asia, the Middle East, and South Asia.
  • Timur aimed to restore the Mongol Empire of Genghis Khan and ruled through a combination of military conquests and alliances.
  • Partitioning of the Empire:
  • Timur's empire was divided among his sons and grandsons, leading to decentralized rule and frequent conflicts.
  • Major centers of power included Samarkand, Herat, and Kabul, each under the control of a Timurid prince.
  • Role of the Uzbeks:
  • The Uzbeks, under the leadership of Muhammad Shaybani, emerged as a major force in Central Asia and conquered key Timurid territories.
  • The fall of Herat in 1507 marked the definitive end of Timurid dominance in the region.
  • Cultural Contributions:
  • Despite political decline, the Timurids made significant cultural contributions, particularly in art, architecture, and Persian literature.
  • Herat, under the patronage of rulers like Sultan Husayn Bayqara, became a renowned center of Timurid culture.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 414

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which planet has the longest day in the solar system? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Venus

  2. BOption (b)

    Mars

  3. COption (c)

    Jupiter

  4. DOption (d)

    Earth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Venus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Venus.

Key Points

  • Venus has the longest day in the solar system, with one day on Venus lasting approximately 243 Earth days.
  • The rotation of Venus is retrograde, meaning it rotates in the opposite direction to most other planets, including Earth.
  • Its slow rotation is due to gravitational interactions and tidal forces between Venus and the Sun.
  • A day on Venus is longer than its year, which lasts about 225 Earth days.
  • Venus' dense atmosphere and slow rotation contribute to extreme surface temperatures and atmospheric conditions.

Additional Information

  • Retrograde Rotation:
  • Retrograde rotation occurs when a planet spins in the opposite direction to its orbital motion around the Sun.
  • Venus and Uranus are the only planets in the solar system with retrograde rotation.
  • Atmosphere of Venus:
  • Venus has a thick atmosphere composed mostly of carbon dioxide, with clouds of sulfuric acid.
  • The atmospheric pressure on Venus is about 92 times that of Earth, making it the most extreme among terrestrial planets.
  • Temperature on Venus:
  • The surface temperature of Venus can reach up to 465°C (869°F), hotter than Mercury, despite being farther from the Sun.
  • This is due to a runaway greenhouse effect caused by its dense atmosphere.
  • Orbital Characteristics:
  • Venus is the second planet from the Sun and is sometimes referred to as Earth's "sister planet" due to its similar size and composition.
  • Its orbit is nearly circular, with an eccentricity of less than 0.01.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 415

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following schemes provides annual income support to farmers directly into their bank accounts? 

  1. AOption (a)

    PM Fasal Bima Yojana

  2. BOption (b)

    PM-KISAN

  3. COption (c)

    MGNREGA

  4. DOption (d)

    PM Jan Dhan Yojana 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

PM-KISAN

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is PM-KISAN.

Key Points

  • PM-KISAN stands for Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi, a flagship scheme of the Indian government.
  • Under this scheme, the government provides income support of Rs. 6,000 per year to all eligible small and marginal farmers.
  • The amount is directly transferred into the bank accounts of beneficiaries in three equal installments of Rs. 2,000 each.
  • It was launched on 24th February 2019 by PM Narendra Modi in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh.
  • The scheme aims to ensure financial stability and reduce the economic distress faced by farmers, particularly those owning cultivable land.

Additional Information

  • Eligibility for PM-KISAN:
  • All landholding farmer families with cultivable landholding in their names are eligible.
  • However, institutional landholders, taxpayers, and professionals like doctors, engineers, and government employees are excluded.
  • Funding and Implementation:
  • The scheme is fully funded by the central government and is implemented across India, including Union Territories.
  • State governments are responsible for identifying and verifying beneficiaries.
  • Benefits:
  • Direct cash transfer to farmers helps in reducing dependency on informal credit and strengthens rural financial infrastructure.
  • The scheme supports improved agricultural productivity and income stability.
  • Technology Integration:
  • The scheme utilizes technology and the Aadhaar database for beneficiary identification and fund transfer.
  • This ensures transparency and minimizes duplication in disbursal.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 416

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What is one of the major future impacts of ISRO's Aditya-L1 mission that studies the Sun's chromosphere and corona? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Mapping of asteroids beyond Neptune

  2. BOption (b)

    Enhanced rainfall prediction in monsoon regions 

  3. COption (c)

    Improved space weather forecasting to protect satellites and power systems

  4. DOption (d)

    Development of underwater navigation systems

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Improved space weather forecasting to protect satellites and power systems

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Improved space weather forecasting to protect satellites and power systems.

Key Points

  • ISRO's Aditya-L1 mission focuses on studying the Sun's chromosphere, corona, and solar magnetic field, which are crucial for understanding space weather dynamics.
  • One of the mission's primary objectives is to enhance space weather forecasting capabilities, helping mitigate disruptions to satellites, communication systems, and power grids.
  • By monitoring solar activity, including coronal mass ejections and solar flares, Aditya-L1 will provide real-time data to predict geomagnetic storms.
  • Improved space weather forecasting is essential for ensuring the safety of astronauts, satellites, and infrastructure critical to modern life, such as GPS and power systems.
  • Aditya-L1's positioning at the Lagrange Point 1 (L1) provides a continuous view of the Sun, enabling uninterrupted observations.

Additional Information

  • Space Weather:
  • Space weather refers to conditions on the Sun and in the solar wind that can influence Earth's magnetosphere, ionosphere, and thermosphere.
  • Major components include solar flares, coronal mass ejections (CMEs), and high-speed solar wind streams.
  • Geomagnetic storms caused by space weather can affect satellite functionality, disrupt GPS signals, and cause power outages.
  • Lagrange Point 1 (L1):
  • L1 is a stable point located between the Earth and the Sun where gravitational forces balance out, allowing a spacecraft to stay fixed relative to both celestial bodies.
  • This position provides uninterrupted views of the Sun, making it ideal for solar observation missions like Aditya-L1.
  • Aditya-L1 Instruments:
  • The spacecraft is equipped with seven payloads, including the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) and Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT).
  • These instruments are designed to study various aspects of the Sun, such as its magnetic field, solar winds, and energy transfer mechanisms.
  • Impact on Earth:
  • Improved understanding of solar activity can protect critical infrastructure like power grids, aviation routes, and communication networks.
  • Such insights can also aid in planning space missions and ensuring the safety of astronauts in space.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 417

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Identify the dance style recognized for its spiritual devotion and connection to the Vaishnavite movement. 

  1. AOption (a)

    Bharatnatyam

  2. BOption (b)

    Kathak

  3. COption (c)

    Odissi

  4. DOption (d)

    Sattriya 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sattriya 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sattriya.

Key Points

  • Sattriya is a classical dance form of India, originating from Assam and deeply rooted in the Vaishnavite movement.
  • This dance form was introduced in the 15th century by the saint-scholar Srimanta Sankardev, a key figure in the Vaishnavism revival in Assam.
  • Sattriya was traditionally performed in the monasteries (Satras) as a form of religious expression and devotion to Lord Krishna.
  • It incorporates themes from Bhagavat Purana and other ancient scriptures, emphasizing spirituality and divine love.
  • The dance style was officially recognized as a classical dance of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.

Additional Information

  • Vaishnavite Movement:
  • The Vaishnavite movement in Assam was led by Srimanta Sankardev, promoting devotion to Lord Vishnu or Krishna.
  • It emphasized Bhakti (devotion), egalitarianism, and the use of art forms like music, dance, and drama for spiritual expression.
  • Satras:
  • Satras are Vaishnavite monasteries established by Srimanta Sankardev and his disciples.
  • These monasteries serve as centers for spiritual and cultural learning, focusing on art, literature, and religious practices.
  • Sattriya Dance Features:
  • The dance style combines hand gestures (mudras), foot movements, expressions, and rhythmic patterns.
  • It includes solo, group, and dramatic performances, often with mythological narratives.
  • Recognition as Classical Dance:
  • Sattriya was recognized as a classical dance by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000, highlighting its cultural and historical significance.
  • This recognition helped bring Sattriya from the monasteries to broader platforms, both nationally and internationally.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 418

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Read the following statements about Trade Policy Reform:

Statement I: Trade policy reform in India involved removing quantitative restrictions on imports and exports.

Statement II: Trade policy reform increased import licensing to support domestic manufacturers.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both statements I and II are correct 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both statements I and II are incorrect

  3. COption (c)

    Only Statement II is correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Only Statement I is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only Statement I is correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4: Only Statement I is correct.

Key Points

  • Statement I: Trade policy reform in India involved removing quantitative restrictions on imports and exports. This was a key feature of the economic liberalization initiated in 1991.
  • Quantitative restrictions were removed to promote global trade integration and allow free-market principles to operate.
  • India reduced import tariffs, liberalized export policies, and removed licensing requirements for many goods and services during this reform phase.
  • Statement II: Incorrect—Import licensing was reduced, not increased, to foster competition and allow easier access to foreign goods.
  • The reforms aimed to make India a competitive player in the global market by reducing bureaucratic hurdles and encouraging foreign investments.

Additional Information

  • Economic Liberalization of 1991:
  • India faced a severe balance of payments crisis in the early 1990s, prompting the government to adopt economic liberalization measures.
  • The reforms were spearheaded by then Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh under PM P.V. Narasimha Rao’s leadership.
  • Key elements included trade liberalization, industrial deregulation, fiscal consolidation, and financial sector reforms.
  • Quantitative Restrictions:
  • These are non-tariff barriers that limit the quantity of goods that can be imported or exported.
  • India’s removal of these restrictions was aligned with WTO guidelines to promote fair trade practices.
  • Import Licensing:
  • Before 1991, many imported goods required government licensing, which restricted access to foreign products.
  • The reforms reduced licensing requirements to encourage competition and provide consumers access to high-quality goods.
  • Impact of Trade Policy Reform:
  • India witnessed a sharp increase in foreign trade, with exports and imports growing significantly.
  • Foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows increased, boosting industrial and economic growth.
  • The reforms led to greater integration of the Indian economy with global markets.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 419

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which type of vehicle is commonly used in zero-emission public transport systems? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Diesel buses

  2. BOption (b)

    Electric buses

  3. COption (c)

    Petrol cars

  4. DOption (d)

    Hybrid vehicles 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Electric buses

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Electric buses.

Key Points

  • Electric buses are a crucial component of zero-emission public transport systems as they run on electricity rather than fossil fuels, reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
  • These buses typically use rechargeable batteries or are powered by electricity supplied through overhead lines, making them environmentally friendly.
  • Many cities globally have adopted electric buses to combat air pollution and to meet climate change mitigation targets.
  • Electric buses contribute to improved urban air quality by eliminating tailpipe emissions, including carbon dioxide (CO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), and particulate matter.
  • Governments and transport authorities often incentivize the adoption of electric buses through subsidies, tax exemptions, and infrastructure development for charging stations.

Additional Information

  • Zero-emission vehicles (ZEVs):
  • These are vehicles that produce no tailpipe emissions, including electric vehicles (EVs) and hydrogen fuel cell vehicles.
  • They play a significant role in reducing air pollution and combating climate change.
  • Battery technology in electric buses:
  • Electric buses often use lithium-ion batteries due to their high energy density, long lifespan, and rapid charging capabilities.
  • Advances in battery technology have improved the range and efficiency of modern electric buses.
  • Economic benefits of electric buses:
  • Electric buses have lower operational and maintenance costs compared to diesel-powered buses.
  • They reduce dependence on imported fossil fuels, contributing to energy security.
  • Global adoption of electric buses:
  • Cities like Shenzhen (China) have fully transitioned to electric buses, showcasing their feasibility on a large scale.
  • India, under schemes such as FAME (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Hybrid and Electric Vehicles), is promoting electric buses in urban transport systems.
  • Challenges in electric bus implementation:
  • High upfront costs for purchasing electric buses and establishing charging infrastructure.
  • Limited range compared to traditional diesel buses, though ongoing technological advancements are addressing this issue.
SSC Stenographer 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 08 Aug, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 420

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

 Where was the Khelo India Youth Games 2024 held? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Goa

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

  • The Khelo India Youth Games 2024 were hosted in Tamil Nadu, showcasing the state's commitment to promoting sports at the grassroots level.
  • This multi-disciplinary sporting event aims to identify and nurture young talent across India by providing a competitive platform.
  • Over 4,000 athletes from various states and union territories participated in the event, competing across multiple disciplines.
  • The initiative aligns with the central government’s broader vision under the Khelo India programme, which aims to revive the sports culture in India.
  • State-of-the-art infrastructure and logistics were arranged to ensure a world-class experience for participants and spectators alike.

Additional Information

  • Khelo India Programme
  • Launched by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports in 2018, the programme aims to strengthen India’s sports ecosystem.
  • It focuses on talent identification, infrastructure development, and player support through scholarships and training.
  • The programme is designed to engage youth in sports to promote fitness and well-being while creating a pool of elite athletes for international events.
  • Importance of Youth Games
  • Youth Games act as a foundational platform for young athletes to showcase their talent and gain exposure.
  • These events help in the identification of future sports stars who could represent India in global competitions like the Olympics.
  • Past Host States
  • The inaugural Khelo India Youth Games (2018) were held in Delhi.
  • Subsequent editions were hosted by states like Maharashtra (2019), Assam (2020), and Madhya Pradesh (2023).
  • Role of Tamil Nadu in Sports
  • Tamil Nadu has a rich sports culture, with achievements in chess, squash, cricket, and athletics.
  • The state government has invested significantly in sports infrastructure and training facilities to nurture talent.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Stenographer?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.