General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• National Emergency (Article 352): This is proclaimed by the President of India when the security of the country or any part thereof is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. It requires the written recommendation of the Union Cabinet and must be approved by Parliament within one month by a special majority.
• State Emergency or President’s Rule (Article 356): This is imposed when the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor or otherwise, is satisfied that the state government cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution. It is also known as Constitutional Emergency and must be approved by Parliament within two months by a simple majority.
• Financial Emergency (Article 360): The President can declare this if the financial stability or credit of India is threatened. While this provision exists to protect the national economy, it has never been invoked in the history of independent India, not even during the economic crisis of 1991.

 Additional Information

• Part XVIII of the Constitution:
• This part contains Articles 352 to 360, which outline the emergency provisions designed to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of the nation.
• The 44^th Amendment Act (1978) introduced significant safeguards, such as replacing the term 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' for National Emergencies.
• During a National Emergency, the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended, and the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of other rights, except Articles 20 and 21.
• Under Article 356, the President assumes the functions of the State Government, and the powers of the State Legislature are exercised by or under the authority of Parliament.
• The 38^th Amendment Act (1975) made the declaration of emergency non-justiciable, but this was subsequently reversed by the 44^th Amendment Act, allowing for judicial review.

The correct answer is One-third of its members retire every two years.

Key Points

• The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body according to the Constitution of India and is not subject to dissolution by the President. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• There is no constitutional provision that grants the Prime Minister the authority to dissolve the Council of States. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• To ensure legislative continuity as a Continuing Chamber, the law mandates that one-third of the total members of the house shall retire every second year. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• While the Lok Sabha is dissolved every five years, the Rajya Sabha remains in existence, although its individual members serve a term of six years. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Basis:
• Article 83(1) explicitly states that the Council of States shall not be subject to dissolution, but nearly as may be, one-third of the members shall retire as soon as may be on the expiration of every second year.
• The Representation of the People Act, 1951 further details the term of office for members of the Rajya Sabha as six years.
• Leadership and Composition:
• Vice-President of India is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, while a Deputy Chairman is elected from among its members.
• The maximum strength of the house is 250, of which 12 members are nominated by the President for their contributions to Art, Literature, Science, and Social Service.
• The remaining members are elected by the Elected Members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories through Proportional Representation.

The correct answer is A fast-paced, vigorous dance performed by men and women in a circle.

Key Points

• Nati is the most iconic folk dance of Himachal Pradesh, widely performed in districts such as Kullu, Shimla, Sirmaur, Chamba, and Kinnaur.
• The dance is defined by its circular formation where dancers link hands or shoulders to move in a synchronized rhythm, symbolizing community bonding and collective joy.
• The performance is characterized by its tempo transition; it typically begins with slow, graceful steps (often called Dheeli Nati) and gradually builds into a fast-paced, vigorous finale.
• It is an inclusive folk dance performed by both men and women together, typically during the International Kullu Dussehra, local Melas (fairs), and marriage ceremonies.
• Participants wear traditional Pahari attire, including the famous Himachali Topi (cap), Gaddi dresses, and Ghaghra-Choli, often decorated with vibrant local embroidery.

 Additional Information

• Guinness World Record:
• In January 2016, the Kullu Nati was officially recognized by the Guinness Book of World Records as the largest folk dance in the world, featuring 9,892 participants performing simultaneously.
• Musical Elements:
• The dance is powered by live traditional music using wind and percussion instruments like the Dhol, Nagara, Shehnai, Karnal, and the copper-made Ransingha.
• Comparison with Other Forms:
• Unlike Classical Dances (such as Kathak or Sattriya), which are often solo and highly codified, Nati is a Folk Dance emphasizing social participation.
• It is distinct from Martial Dances like the Chholiya of Uttarakhand or Paika of Odisha, which specifically utilize swords and shields for combat-style choreography.
• Regional variations include Sirmauri Nati, Kinnauri Nati, and Mahasuvi Nati, each possessing unique rhythmic beats and local dialects in the accompanying songs.

The correct answer is Mekhela Chador (a traditional Assamese dress) with bright colors and jewelry.

Key Points

• The Bihu dance is the most popular folk dance of the Indian state of Assam, performed to celebrate the arrival of the spring season and the Assamese New Year.
• Female dancers traditionally wear the Mekhela Chador, a two-piece attire unique to the region, which is draped in a specific style to allow for the rhythmic and energetic movements of the dance.
• The Mekhela is a cylindrical cloth that is folded into pleats and tucked into the waist, while the Chador is a long fabric draped over the shoulder.
• The most authentic version of this attire is made from Muga Silk, which is globally renowned for its natural golden sheen and high durability.
• The outfit is characterized by its vibrant Assamese motifs, often featuring floral designs and traditional borders in contrasting colors like red and gold.
• Traditional accessories are essential to the performance, including Assamese jewelry such as Gaam-Kharu (broad bracelets), Jonbir (crescent-shaped necklace), and the Kopou Phul (foxtail orchid) placed in the hair.

 Additional Information

• Silk Varieties of Assam:
• Muga Silk: Produced by the silkworm Antheraea assamensis, it has a Geographical Indication (GI) tag and is exclusive to Assam.
• Pat Silk: A white or off-white mulberry silk used for making formal and festive Mekhela Chadors.
• Eri Silk: Known as the 'silk of peace', it is processed without killing the pupae and provides warmth.
• Musical Elements:
• The dance is accompanied by the Bihu Dhol (drum), the Pepa (an instrument made from Buffalo Horn), and the Gogona (a bamboo jaw harp).
• Performers also use Tala (cymbals) and Banh-hi (bamboo flute) to create the distinctive upbeat rhythm.
• Male Attire:
• Male dancers wear a Dhoti and Gamocha (traditional handwoven cloth with red patterns) around the head and waist.

The correct answer is Ganga.

 

Key Points

• The Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta, also known as the Sunderbans Delta, the Ganges Delta, or the Bengal Delta, is the largest river delta in the world, situated in the Bengal region of South Asia.
• It is primarily formed by the confluence of the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers, along with the Meghna river system, which collectively discharge vast amounts of sediment into the Bay of Bengal.
• The delta covers an expansive area of approximately 105,000 square kilometers (41,000 square miles), stretching across most of Bangladesh and the state of West Bengal in India.
• Geographically, it is classified as an arcuate delta (fan-shaped) and is characterized by a complex network of distributaries, swamps, and islands formed by the heavy alluvial deposits carried from the Himalayas.
• The region is home to the Sundarbans, which is the world’s largest mangrove forest and a designated UNESCO World Heritage Site, providing a critical habitat for the Royal Bengal Tiger.
• The delta is one of the most fertile regions on the planet, often referred to as the Green Delta, supporting the livelihoods of over 100 million people through intensive agriculture and fishing.

 Additional Information

• Godavari:
• Known as the Dakshin Ganga or Vriddha Ganga, it is the longest river in Peninsular India, originating from Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra.
• While it forms a significant delta on the eastern coast in Andhra Pradesh, it is much smaller compared to the Ganges-Brahmaputra system.
• Krishna:
• The Krishna River originates near Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghats and flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
• It forms a large delta at Hamsaladeevi before joining the Bay of Bengal, but it is localized to the Indian peninsula.
• Yamuna:
• The Yamuna is the longest tributary of the Ganga, originating from the Yamunotri Glacier in the Uttarkashi district.
• It merges with the Ganga at the Triveni Sangam in Prayagraj and does not independently reach the sea to form a delta.

The correct answer is 1905.

Key Points

• Die Brücke (The Bridge) was a major group of German Expressionist artists formed on June 7, 1905, in the city of Dresden.
• The group was established by four architecture students at the Dresden Technical University: Ernst Ludwig Kirchner, Fritz Bleyl, Erich Heckel, and Karl Schmidt-Rottluff.
• The name was inspired by a passage from Friedrich Nietzsche’s 'Thus Spoke Zarathustra', symbolizing the artists' desire to serve as a bridge between the art of the past and the modern avant-garde.
• In 1906, the group published a manifesto carved in wood, which declared their intent to achieve freedom of life and movement against established older forces.
• The artists are renowned for their bold, non-naturalistic colors and jagged, simplified forms that sought to convey powerful psychological and emotional states.

 Additional Information

• Development and Membership:
• Other significant artists joined the group later, including Emil Nolde and Max Pechstein in 1906, and Otto Mueller in 1910.
• The group shared a communal studio and developed a uniform collective style, heavily influenced by Primitivism and the Post-Impressionism of Vincent van Gogh and Paul Gauguin.
• Relocation and Dissolution:
• In 1911, the members moved to Berlin, where their work began to reflect the alienation and frantic energy of the modern metropolis.
• The group formally dissolved in 1913 following internal disagreements, particularly over Kirchner’s publication of the Chronik der Brücke, which other members felt exaggerated his personal role.
• Artistic Legacy:
• Die Brücke is credited with reviving the woodcut as a vital artistic medium, using its raw, coarse qualities to emphasize Expressionist themes.
• Their work laid the foundation for 20^th-century modernism in Germany, preceding and influencing the Der Blaue Reiter movement.

The correct answer is Indonesia.

Key Points

• Great Nicobar Island is the southernmost and largest of the Nicobar Islands in India, situated at the southern end of the Bay of Bengal.
• The island is separated from the Indonesian island of Sumatra by the Six Degree Channel, which is a major international shipping lane.
• The geographical distance between Indira Point (the southernmost tip of Great Nicobar) and Rondo Island of Indonesia is approximately 145 to 150 kilometers (90 miles).
• While Myanmar is the closest neighbor to the Andaman group of islands (specifically near the Coco Channel), it is significantly further from the Nicobar group compared to Sumatra.
• Sri Lanka is located to the west of the islands and Bangladesh to the north, both situated over 1,000 kilometers away from the Great Nicobar coast.

 Additional Information

• Indira Point:
• Located on Great Nicobar, it is the southernmost point of the Indian Union territory, situated at 6°45'N latitude.
• It was previously known as Pygmalion Point and Parsons Point before being renamed in honor of Indira Gandhi.
• Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve:
• The island is home to a UNESCO World Biosphere Reserve, protecting unique species like the Nicobar Megapode and the Giant Robber Crab.
• It encompasses the Galathea National Park and the Campbell Bay National Park.
• Six Degree Channel:
• This channel represents the maritime boundary between India and Indonesia.
• It is a vital strategic corridor connecting the Andaman Sea to the Indian Ocean and leads toward the Strait of Malacca.

The correct answer is Kuyili.

Key Points

• Kuyili was a valiant 18^th-century warrior and the commander-in-chief of the female wing of Queen Velu Nachiyar’s army, known as the Udaiyaal.
• She is historically celebrated as the first woman martyr and the first recorded suicide bomber in the Indian struggle against colonial rule.
• In 1780, during a decisive battle to reclaim the kingdom of Sivaganga from the British East India Company and the Nawab of Arcot, she executed a strategic suicide mission.
• Kuyili doused herself in ghee and oil, set herself on fire, and walked into the ammunition dump of the British located within the Kottai Mariamman Temple.
• The resulting explosion completely destroyed the British armory, providing the tactical advantage needed for Velu Nachiyar to defeat the forces and regain her throne.

 Additional Information

• Queen Velu Nachiyar:
• Known as Veeramangai (Brave Woman), she was the Queen of Sivaganga and the first Indian queen to wage a successful war against the British East India Company.
• Jhalkari Bai:
• A prominent warrior in Rani Lakshmibai’s army during the Revolt of 1857. She was a master of disguise who frequently posed as the Queen to facilitate the Queen’s escape from Jhansi Fort.
• Lakshmi Sahgal:
• A revolutionary officer of the Indian National Army (INA) and the Minister of Women’s Affairs in the Azad Hind government. She led the all-female Rani of Jhansi Regiment.
• Matangini Hazra:
• An Indian revolutionary affectionately known as Gandhi Buri. She was shot dead by British police in 1942 while leading a procession during the Quit India Movement in Tamluk, Bengal.

The correct answer is Similar temperature.

 

Key Points

• The Sun is classified as a G-type main-sequence star (G2V), characterized by an effective surface temperature of approximately 5,778 K. If an exoplanet orbits a star of the same spectral class, the Stellar Luminosity (total energy output) remains nearly identical to that of our Sun.
• Surface temperature is primarily governed by Stellar Flux, which follows the Inverse Square Law. This law states that the intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source.
• For an exoplanet to have a Similar temperature to Earth, it must be located within the Circumstellar Habitable Zone (CHZ). In a solar analog system, this zone is situated at an Orbital Radius of roughly 1 Astronomical Unit (AU).
• At 1 AU from a Sun-like star, a planet receives an Insolation (solar constant) of about 1,361 Watts per square meter. If the exoplanet possesses an Atmospheric Composition and Bond Albedo (reflectivity) comparable to Earth, its Radiative Equilibrium will result in similar thermal conditions.

Additional Information

• Factors Affecting Planetary Temperature:
• Greenhouse Effect: Even with similar stellar flux, a dense atmosphere rich in Carbon Dioxide or Methane can lead to extreme heating, as seen on Venus.
• Albedo: A planet with high ice cover reflects more Shortwave Radiation, potentially leading to a Cooler surface despite being in the habitable zone.
• Stellar Classification:
• M-Dwarfs (Red Dwarfs): These are much cooler than the Sun; planets must orbit much closer to achieve Earth-like temperatures, often becoming Tidally Locked.
• O or B Type Stars: These are massive and hot, pushing the habitable zone much further out into the star system.
• Stefan-Boltzmann Law: This principle explains that the power radiated per unit area of a Black Body is proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature, a critical factor in calculating Planetary Equilibrium Temperature.

The correct answer is Laxmi Narayan Temple, Orchha.

 

Key Points

• The Laxmi Narayan Temple, situated in Orchha, Madhya Pradesh, was constructed in 1622 by Raja Vir Singh Deo of the Bundela Dynasty.
• The temple is distinguished by its eclectic architectural style, which represents a rare fusion of Hindu temple design and Islamic (Mughal) elements.
• Architecturally, the building is unique for its triangular ground plan and fortress-like exterior, featuring octagonal bastions and cannon slots, which were atypical for traditional Hindu shrines.
• The Islamic influence is prominently seen in the use of pointed arches, domed rooftops, and symmetrical geometric patterns on the ceilings and walls.
• Internally, the temple is renowned for its Bundela school of painting; these frescoes depict diverse subjects ranging from the Ramayana and Lord Krishna to the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
• This synthesis reflects the Indo-Islamic cultural integration prevalent in the Bundelkhand region during the 17^th century, where local rulers incorporated Mughal aesthetics into religious structures.

 Additional Information

• Qutb Minar:
• Located in Delhi, this UNESCO World Heritage Site is a 73-meter minaret commissioned by Qutb-ud-din Aibak.
• While it is a primary example of Indo-Islamic architecture, it is a tower and not a Hindu temple.
• Sun Temple, Konark:
• A 13^th-century temple in Odisha built by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
• It follows the Kalinga architectural style, designed as a colossal chariot for the Sun God (Surya) with 24 stone wheels.
• Sanchi Stupa:
• Commissioned by Emperor Ashoka in the 3^rd century BCE, this site in Madhya Pradesh is a landmark of Buddhist architecture.
• The structure is characterized by its hemispherical dome and intricate Toranas (gateways) carved with Jataka tales.

The correct answer is Gravitational pull of the Sun and Moon.

Key Points

• The Earth is not a perfect sphere but an oblate spheroid, characterized by a distinct equatorial bulge caused by its rotation.
• Axial precession, also known as the precession of the equinoxes, is primarily caused by the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun acting upon this equatorial bulge.
• Because the Earth's rotational axis is tilted at an angle of approximately 23.5 degrees relative to the ecliptic plane (the plane of Earth's orbit), the gravitational pull of these celestial bodies creates a torque.
• This torque attempts to pull the Earth's axis into a perpendicular orientation relative to the ecliptic, but due to the Earth's angular momentum (rotation), the axis instead precesses like a spinning top.
• The Earth's axis completes one full circle of precession approximately every 25,800 years, causing the position of the North Star to change over long geological periods; for instance, Vega was the North Star around 12,000 BCE and will be again in roughly 12,000 years.

 Additional Information

• Milankovitch Cycles: Precession is a critical component of these cycles, which describe the collective effects of changes in the Earth's movements on its climate over thousands of years.
• Obliquity: Refers to the change in the angle of Earth's axial tilt, which varies between 22.1 and 24.5 degrees over a 41,000-year cycle.
• Eccentricity: Describes the variation in the shape of Earth's orbit around the Sun, changing from nearly circular to slightly elliptical over 100,000-year intervals.
• Solar Winds: These are streams of charged particles (plasma) ejected from the Sun's upper atmosphere. While they cause geomagnetic storms and auroras, they have no significant impact on the mechanical orientation of Earth's axis.
• Nutation: This is a small, periodic 'wobbling' superimposed on the larger precessional motion, largely caused by the specific tidal forces and the 18.6-year cycle of the Moon's nodes.

The correct answer is Argentina.

Key Points

• The inaugural FIBA World Championship (now known as the FIBA Basketball World Cup) was held in 1950 following a decision by the FIBA Congress during the 1948 London Olympics.
• Argentina was selected as the host nation for the first edition, with all matches taking place at the Luna Park Stadium in Buenos Aires.
• A total of ten nations participated in the tournament, including teams from South America, North America, and Europe.
• The championship was decided through a final round-robin stage rather than a single knockout game; however, the match between Argentina and the United States on November 3, 1950, served as the de facto final.
• Argentina emerged victorious by defeating the United States with a score of 64−50, securing the first-ever gold medal in the tournament's history.
• Oscar Furlong, a key player for the Argentine team, was the leading scorer of the final and was subsequently named the tournament's Most Valuable Player (MVP).

 Additional Information

• United States:
• In the 1950 tournament, the U.S. was represented by the Denver Chevrolets, an Amateur Athletic Union (AAU) team.
• They finished the competition as the silver medalists after their loss to the host nation.
• Brazil:
• Brazil finished in fourth place during the inaugural 1950 event.
• They later became a dominant force in international basketball, winning consecutive world titles in 1959 and 1963.
• Chile:
• Chile performed exceptionally well in the first edition, securing the bronze medal (third place) after defeating Brazil in the final round.
• Tournament Evolution:
• The competition was renamed the FIBA Basketball World Cup starting with the 2014 edition held in Spain.
• The Naismith Trophy, awarded to the champion, is named after James Naismith, the inventor of basketball.

The correct answer is Federation Internationale des Echecs.

Key Points

• FIDE is the standard acronym for the Fédération Internationale des Échecs, which translates from French to English as the International Chess Federation or World Chess Federation.
• It serves as the international governing body for the sport of chess, regulating all international chess competitions and overseen by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• The organization was officially founded on July 20, 1924, in Paris, France, during the first unofficial Chess Olympiad.
• Its primary role includes defining the Laws of Chess, calculating Elo ratings for players, and organizing high-level tournaments such as the World Chess Championship.
• The official motto of FIDE is 'Gens una sumus', which is a Latin phrase meaning 'We are one people', emphasizing global unity through the game.

 Additional Information

• Organizational Structure and Titles:
• FIDE is responsible for awarding prestigious international titles based on performance, including Grandmaster (GM), International Master (IM), FIDE Master (FM), and Candidate Master (CM).
• The administrative headquarters of the federation are currently located in Lausanne, Switzerland, known as the Olympic Capital.
• Major Tournaments:
• It conducts the biennial Chess Olympiad, where teams representing various nations compete against each other.
• It manages the Candidates Tournament, a critical event that determines the challenger who will play against the reigning World Chess Champion.
• The organization currently comprises over 190 national chess federations as member affiliates.

The correct answer is Suberin.

Key Points

• Cork cells, also known as phellem, constitute the outermost protective layer of the bark in woody plants, replacing the epidermis during secondary growth.
• These cells are characterized by the heavy deposition of a complex, waxy biopolymer called Suberin within their cell walls.
• Suberin is highly hydrophobic (water-repellent), which acts as a chemical barrier preventing the movement of water and dissolved solutes across the tissue.
• The accumulation of this substance makes the cell walls impermeable to gases and water, effectively sealing off the plant's internal tissues from environmental stress and desiccation.
• Due to this impermeability, mature cork cells become dead as they lose the ability to exchange essential nutrients and gases with their surroundings.

 Additional Information

• Cutin:
• It is a polyester of hydroxy fatty acids found primarily in the plant cuticle covering the epidermis of leaves and young stems.
• Its primary role is to restrict transpiration and provide protection against ultraviolet radiation and pathogens.
• Lignin:
• A complex organic polymer that provides mechanical strength and structural rigidity to the secondary cell walls of vascular plants.
• It is a vital component of Xylem vessels, allowing plants to grow tall and transport water under tension without the vessels collapsing.
• Cellulose:
• The most abundant organic polymer on Earth, consisting of linear chains of β-glucose units.
• It provides tensile strength to the primary cell wall, maintaining the structural integrity and shape of plant cells.

The correct answer is Two.

Key Points

• The mitochondrion is a specialized eukaryotic organelle defined by its complex structure consisting of two distinct phospholipid bilayer membranes.
• The outer membrane is a smooth, continuous boundary that contains large numbers of integral proteins called porins, which allow for the relatively free diffusion of small molecules and ions.
• The inner membrane is highly selective and much less permeable than the outer layer; it is extensively folded into finger-like projections called cristae to maximize the surface area available for metabolic reactions.
• These two membranes create two separate aqueous compartments: the intermembrane space (the narrow region between the membranes) and the mitochondrial matrix (the innermost space enclosed by the inner membrane).
• The inner membrane is the functional site for the Electron Transport Chain (ETC) and contains the enzyme ATP synthase, which is responsible for the production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) through oxidative phosphorylation.

 Additional Information

• Endosymbiotic Origin and Evolutionary Evidence:
• The double-membrane arrangement is a primary piece of evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory, which suggests that mitochondria evolved from an ancient aerobic prokaryote (likely an alpha-proteobacterium) that was engulfed by a primitive host cell.
• Similar to prokaryotic cells, the mitochondrial matrix contains its own circular DNA (mtDNA) and 70S ribosomes, enabling the organelle to synthesize some of its own proteins and replicate via binary fission.
• Organelle Membrane Classification:
• Double-Membrane Bound: This group includes the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts (found in plants and algae), all of which typically contain their own genetic information.
• Single-Membrane Bound: Most other organelles in the endomembrane system, such as the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and vacuoles, are enclosed by only one lipid bilayer.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• As per the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, Madhya Pradesh continues to hold the largest forest cover in India by area.
• The total forest area in Madhya Pradesh is 77,493 square kilometers, which represents approximately 25.14% of the state's total geographical territory.
• This assessment is conducted biennially by the Forest Survey of India (FSI), an organization under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, using LISS-III satellite data.
• The state’s vast forest resources are categorized into Reserved, Protected, and Unclassified forests, housing significant Tiger Reserves such as Kanha, Panna, and Pench.

 Additional Information

• Arunachal Pradesh:
• Ranks second in India in terms of forest area with 66,431 square kilometers.
• In terms of percentage of its own geographical area, it boasts a high density of 79.33%.
• Chhattisgarh:
• Holds the third-largest forest cover by area in the country, spanning 55,717 square kilometers.
• It is renowned for its high production of Tendu leaves and dense Sal and Teak forests.
• Mizoram:
• While smaller in total area, it leads the country in forest cover by percentage, with 84.53% of its land under forest.
• Forest Density Classification:
• Very Dense Forest (VDF): All lands with tree canopy density of 70% and above.
• Moderately Dense Forest (MDF): All lands with tree canopy density between 40% and 70%.
• Open Forest (OF): All lands with tree canopy density between 10% and 40%.

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

• The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Act, 2019, was enacted to modify the existing provisions regarding the No-Detention Policy under the original RTE Act, 2009.
• According to the amended Section 16, there shall be a regular examination in Class 5 and Class 8 at the end of every academic year to assess the learning outcomes of the students.
• The notification specifies that if a child fails in the regular examination, they must be provided with additional coaching by the school to address their learning gaps.
• The law explicitly states that the student will be given an opportunity for a re-examination within a period of two months from the date of the declaration of the results of the regular examination.
• The amendment grants the appropriate government (state or union territory) the authority to allow schools to detain a child in Class 5 or Class 8 if they fail the re-examination, although they cannot be expelled until they complete elementary education.

 Additional Information

• No-Detention Policy (NDP)
• This policy was a hallmark of the RTE Act, 2009, which mandated that no child could be held back or expelled from school until the completion of elementary education (Class 8).
• The primary objective was to reduce the dropout rate and eliminate the psychological fear of failure and examinations among children aged 6 to 14 years.
• Critics and various committees, including the TSR Subramanian Committee and the Vasudev Devnani Committee, observed that the lack of examinations led to a decline in learning standards and accountability.
• Elementary Education Scope
• Under the Indian Constitution and the RTE Act, elementary education refers to the period from Class 1 to Class 8.
• The 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, inserted Article 21-A, making education a Fundamental Right for children.

The correct answer is To collect rent from peasants and pay revenue to the Company.

Key Points

• The Permanent Settlement, also known as the Bengal Settlement or Sthayi Bandobast, was introduced by Governor-General Lord Cornwallis in 1793 through the Permanent Settlement Act.
• Under this system, zamindars were recognized as the legal owners of the land, effectively transforming them from mere tax collectors into a class of landlords.
• The main responsibility assigned to the zamindar was to serve as an intermediary between the East India Company and the peasants. They were required to collect rent from the cultivators and remit a specified portion to the Company Treasury.
• The revenue to be paid by the zamindars to the British Government was fixed permanently in perpetuity, meaning it could not be increased in the future, regardless of changes in agricultural productivity or prices.
• Failure to pay the stipulated revenue by a specific date resulted in the zamindar's land being confiscated and auctioned, a regulation famously known as the Sunset Law.

 Additional Information

• Revenue Division:
• The total revenue collected was divided into 11 parts. The East India Company received 10/11^th of the collection, while the zamindars were allowed to keep 1/11^th as their remuneration.
• Geographical Coverage:
• The system was primarily implemented in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, and was later extended to parts of the Madras Presidency and the Varanasi district.
• Economic Impact:
• While it provided financial stability for the British administration, it led to the severe exploitation of the ryots (peasants), who became tenants-at-will and lost their customary rights to the land.
• Other Land Revenue Systems:
• The Ryotwari System was introduced by Thomas Munro in the Madras and Bombay Presidencies, where the government dealt directly with the cultivators.
• The Mahalwari System was introduced in North-Western India, where the revenue was settled with the village community or Mahal.

The correct answer is Vernacular.

Key Points

• The term Vernacular is derived from the Latin word vernaculus, meaning 'native' or 'domestic'. During the British colonial period in India, it was used to refer to any local language or dialect spoken by the common people, as distinguished from the standard or literary language of the colonizers.
• The British utilized this terminology to create a clear division between English, which served as the official language of administration, judiciary, and higher education, and the numerous indigenous languages like Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, and Tamil.
• One of the most controversial uses of this term was in the Vernacular Press Act of 1878. Enacted by Viceroy Lord Lytton, this legislation aimed to suppress the freedom of the Indian-language press to prevent them from criticizing British policies, while English-language publications remained largely exempt.
• In the 19^th century, educational debates between the Anglicists and Orientalists revolved around whether the medium of instruction should be English or the vernacular. The Macaulay Minute of 1835 eventually prioritized English to create a loyalist class of intermediaries.

 Additional Information

• Provincial:
• Refers to matters relating to a Province, which was an administrative unit in British India.
• Key historical milestones include the Government of India Act 1919 (Diarchy) and the Government of India Act 1935, which introduced Provincial Autonomy.
• Federal:
• Relates to a system of government where power is shared between a central authority and various constituent units.
• The Government of India Act 1935 first proposed a Federal structure for India, consisting of British Provinces and Princely States.
• Linguist:
• A person who specializes in the study of languages or is proficient in multiple tongues.
• Famous figures like Sir William Jones, who founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal in 1784, were noted linguists who studied the historical connections between Sanskrit and European languages.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• The Democracy Index is an annual index that provides a snapshot of the state of democracy worldwide. It is compiled and published by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU), which is the research and analysis division of The Economist Group based in the United Kingdom. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is the flagship publication of Transparency International. Launched in 1995, it has become the leading global indicator of public sector corruption, ranking 180 countries and territories by their perceived levels of public sector corruption. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
• The Democracy Index bases its scores on sixty indicators grouped into five categories: electoral process and pluralism, civil liberties, functioning of government, political participation, and political culture.
• Transparency International is an international non-governmental organization founded in 1993 and headquartered in Berlin, Germany, with the primary goal of combating global corruption and preventing criminal activities arising from it.

 Additional Information

• Transparency International also publishes other significant reports including:
• Global Corruption Barometer: The only worldwide public opinion survey on views and experiences of corruption.
• Bribe Payers Index: A report that ranks leading exporting countries by the perceived likelihood of their firms to bribe public officials abroad.
• Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU):
• Established in 1946, it provides forecasting and advisory services through research and analysis, such as monthly country reports and five-year country economic forecasts.
• It is also well-known for publishing the Global Liveability Index, which assesses which global cities provide the best or worst living conditions.