General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is State Legislature.

Key Points

• The governance of Indian states follows the Parliamentary system, where the executive is drawn from and remains accountable to the legislature.
• According to Article 164(2) of the Constitution of India, the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.
• The term collective responsibility implies that the entire ministry is viewed as a single unit; they share joint responsibility for all decisions made by the Cabinet.
• If the State Legislative Assembly passes a No-Confidence Motion against the government, all ministers, including those belonging to the Legislative Council (in bicameral states), must resign collectively.
• This mechanism ensures that the Council of Ministers retains power only as long as it commands the majority support of the elected representatives of the people.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Entities:
• Governor: While the ministers are collectively responsible to the legislature, they hold office during the pleasure of the Governor under Article 164(1), which represents their individual responsibility.
• President: The President of India is the constitutional head of the Union; state ministers do not have a direct line of responsibility to the President, though the Governor is appointed by the President.
• Supreme Court: The Judiciary acts as the guardian of the Constitution and can perform Judicial Review of executive actions, but the Council of Ministers is not politically responsible to the court.
• State Legislature: In many states, this includes both the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad), though collective responsibility specifically targets the Lower House.

The correct answer is Article 108.

Key Points

• Article 108 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to summon a joint sitting of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha to resolve a legislative deadlock.
• A deadlock occurs if a bill is rejected by the other House, if the Houses disagree on amendments, or if the second House remains silent for more than six months.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting. In the Speaker's absence, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha takes the chair.
• The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Vice-President) does not preside over a joint sitting because they are not a member of either House of Parliament.
• Decisions in a joint sitting are taken by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting.
• This provision is applicable only to Ordinary Bills and Financial Bills, and it cannot be invoked for Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills.

 Additional Information

• Article 107: Deals with the introduction and passing of Bills, specifying that except for Money and Financial Bills, a bill may originate in either House.
• Article 109: Details the special procedure for Money Bills, clarifying that they cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha and must be returned within 14 days.
• Article 110: Provides the definition of Money Bills, which includes matters related to taxation, public expenditure, and the Consolidated Fund of India.
• The Speaker's certificate is required to endorse a bill as a Money Bill, and this decision is final and cannot be challenged in court or Parliament.

The correct answer is Oral tradition.

Key Points

• Oral tradition is the fundamental medium for transmitting Indian folk and tribal music, where musical knowledge is inherited through auditory learning and mimicry rather than formal scripts or notation.
• This tradition relies on collective memory, allowing the lyrics, melodies, and rhythms to be passed down during festivals, harvests, and lifecycle rituals within communities like the Bhils, Santhals, and Munda tribes.
• It serves as a living archive for regional dialects, indigenous folklore, and mythological narratives, ensuring that the cultural identity of a group is preserved across centuries without the need for literacy.
• The flexibility of this medium allows for spontaneous improvisation and the evolution of styles, which is why folk forms like the Baul of Bengal or Pandavani of Chhattisgarh maintain a dynamic and organic character.
• In the absence of written records, the oral medium ensures that even the most complex polyrhythmic structures and microtonal variations are mastered by younger members through continuous participation in social gatherings.

 Additional Information

• Guru-Shishya tradition:
• This is a formal pedagogical system predominantly found in Indian Classical Music (both Hindustani and Carnatic).
• It involves a dedicated relationship where a disciple (shishya) lives with the teacher (guru) to master the intricacies of Ragas, Talas, and specific Gharana lineages.
• Written notation:
• While systems like the Bhatkhande and Paluskar notations were developed in the 20^th century to document classical compositions, they are rarely used in tribal music.
• The unscripted nature of folk music is what distinguishes it from academic or Margi Sangeet.
• Audio recordings:
• These are modern technological tools utilized by organizations like the Sangeet Natak Akademi and ethnomusicologists for archival purposes.
• While they help in the preservation of endangered art forms, they are not the traditional primary medium for the pedagogical transmission of folk music within indigenous communities.

The correct answer is Successive reflections of sound.

 

Key Points

• Thunder is the sound produced by the rapid expansion and contraction of air surrounding a path of lightning, which heats the air to approximately 30,000 Kelvin.
• The rolling effect or rumbling of thunder is primarily caused by the successive reflections of sound waves from various surfaces such as clouds, mountains, and different layers of air with varying densities.
• Since a lightning bolt can be several kilometers long, sound waves originate from different points along the bolt; these waves reach an observer at different times due to the distance variations and the echoes created by multiple reflections.
• The acoustic energy bounces between the ground and clouds, or between different cloud formations, preventing the sound from being a single sharp crack and turning it into a prolonged rumble.

 Additional Information

• Resonance of clouds:
• Resonance involves a system vibrating at its natural frequency. Clouds are composed of water droplets and ice and do not possess the structural rigidity required to resonate and produce the rolling sound of thunder.
• Interference of sound waves:
• While constructive and destructive interference can occur when sound waves meet, it typically results in variations in loudness or intensity rather than the sustained, multi-second duration characteristic of a thunder roll.
• Lightning effect:
• Lightning is the source of the sound (the cause of the shockwave), but the term 'lightning effect' is too broad and does not specifically explain the temporal prolongation and reflection mechanism that creates the rolling sensation.
• Speed of Sound vs. Light:
• Light travels at approximately 3 x 10⁸ meters per second, while sound travels at roughly 340 meters per second. This discrepancy explains why lightning is seen almost instantly, while thunder is heard later.

The correct answer is Northeast to Southwest.

 

Key Points

• The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, having its origins in the Proterozoic Era.
• The range extends for approximately 692 kilometers (430 miles), stretching from Delhi in the northeast, passing through Southern Haryana and Rajasthan, and ending at Palanpur in Gujarat in the southwest.
• The orientation of the range is Northeast to Southwest, a position that makes it nearly parallel to the direction of the Southwest Monsoon winds, leading to lower rainfall in the Thar Desert region.
• It serves as a major geographical divide, separating the semi-arid Marwar region from the more fertile Mewar region in Rajasthan.
• The range acts as a barrier to the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert, protecting the fertile Indo-Gangetic plains from wind erosion and sand deposition.

 Additional Information

• Guru Shikhar:
• Located in the Mount Abu hills, it is the highest peak of the Aravalli Range with an elevation of 1,722 meters.
• Hydrology and Rivers:
• Several important rivers originate or are fed by the Aravallis, including the Luni River (which flows into the Rann of Kutch), the Sabarmati, and the Banas River.
• Economic Significance:
• The range is exceptionally rich in mineral resources, providing significant deposits of copper, zinc, lead, silver, and construction materials like Makrana marble.
• Ecological Role:
• It functions as a wildlife corridor and contains several protected areas, such as the Sariska Tiger Reserve and the Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• The Rann of Kutch is a massive expanse of seasonal salt marshes located in the Kutch District of the Indian state of Gujarat.
• It is situated within the Thar Desert biogeographic province and is globally recognized as one of the largest salt deserts in the world.
• Geographically, the region is bifurcated into two distinct areas: the Great Rann of Kutch, which covers the northern part, and the Little Rann of Kutch, located to the southeast.
• The landscape is primarily composed of saline mudflats that remain underwater during the monsoon season and transform into a White Desert during the dry winter months due to salt crystallization.
• It shares an international boundary with the Sindh province of Pakistan to the north and is bordered by the Gulf of Kutch and the Arabian Sea to the south and west.

 Additional Information

• Wildlife and Conservation:
• The Little Rann of Kutch houses the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary, which is the last remaining natural habitat for the Indian Wild Ass (Khur).
• The Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary is famous for Flamingo City, a massive breeding ground for Greater Flamingos.
• Hydrology:
• Several rivers like the Luni, Banas, and Rupen drain into the Rann of Kutch, making it an endorheic basin where water does not flow out to the ocean.
• Culture and Economy:
• The Gujarat Tourism department hosts the Rann Utsav, a three-month-long festival that showcases Kutchi handicrafts, traditional Bhungas (mud houses), and local folk music.
• The region is a significant hub for salt production, contributing a substantial percentage of India total salt output.

The correct answer is Raja Rao.

Key Points

• The Serpent and the Rope is a landmark semi-autobiographical novel written by Raja Rao and was first published in 1960.
• The novel is deeply rooted in Advaita Vedanta philosophy and explores the quest for self-realization and the fundamental differences between Eastern and Western metaphysical perspectives.
• In 1964, Raja Rao received the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award for this work, which is considered one of the most profound philosophical novels in Indian English literature.
• The title refers to the classic Vedantic metaphor where an individual mistakes a rope for a serpent due to ignorance (Maya), symbolizing the nature of illusion and reality.
• The narrative follows Ramaswamy, a young Brahmin scholar in France, and his intellectual and spiritual struggle as his marriage to a French woman, Madeleine, begins to disintegrate.

 Additional Information

• Raja Rao (1908−2006):
• One of the founding fathers of modern Indian English fiction.
• Awarded the Neustadt International Prize for Literature in 1988.
• Famous for his debut novel Kanthapura (1938), which portrays the Gandhian struggle in a South Indian village.
• R.K. Narayan:
• Celebrated for creating the fictional town of Malgudi.
• Authored iconic works such as The Guide, Swami and Friends, and The Financial Expert.
• Mulk Raj Anand:
• Known for his realistic and empathetic depiction of the oppressed classes.
• Significant works include Untouchable (1935) and Coolie (1936).
• Khushwant Singh:
• Prominent journalist and novelist best known for Train to Pakistan (1956).
• Served as a member of the Rajya Sabha from 1980 to 1986.

The correct answer is Kerala.

 

Key Points

• The state of Kerala made history in the 1957 assembly elections by electing the first non-Congress government in independent India.
• The Communist Party of India (CPI) emerged as the single largest party, winning 60 out of 126 seats and securing the support of five independent members to form a majority.
• Elamkulam Manakkal Sankaran Namboodiripad, popularly known as E.M.S. Namboodiripad, was sworn in as the Chief Minister on April 5, 1957.
• This victory is widely recognized in political history as the first time a Communist government came to power through a parliamentary democratic election in a significant sub-national territory.
• The government initiated radical social changes, including the introduction of the Kerala Agrarian Relations Bill and the Education Bill, aimed at land redistribution and regulating private educational institutions.

 Additional Information

• Dismissal of the Government:
• In 1959, the central government led by the Indian National Congress invoked Article 356 of the Indian Constitution for the first time to dismiss the EMS Namboodiripad ministry.
• This followed the Vimochana Samaram (Liberation Struggle), an intense protest movement led by various religious and community organizations against the state's reforms.
• West Bengal:
• The Communist Party of India (Marxist), leading the Left Front, came to power in West Bengal much later, in 1977, under the leadership of Jyoti Basu.
• Tripura:
• The Left Front established its first government in Tripura in 1978, with Nripen Chakraborty serving as the first communist Chief Minister of the state.

The correct answer is Expected years of healthy living.

Key Points

• The World Happiness Report is a landmark survey that ranks global happiness based on six key variables: GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and perceptions of corruption.
• The metric for Healthy Life Expectancy specifically measures the average number of years a person is expected to live in full health, taking into account the years lived in less than full health due to disease or injury.
• The data used for this indicator is primarily extracted from the World Health Organization (WHO) Global Health Observatory database, which provides time-series data for over 190 countries.
• This indicator is distinct from standard life expectancy as it focuses on the quality of physical well-being rather than just the total duration of life, reflecting how long an individual can contribute to and enjoy society without significant disability.
• The Happiness Index is published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) to help guide public policy toward the well-being of citizens.

 Additional Information

• Average years of schooling:
• This is a critical component used in the Human Development Index (HDI) published by the UNDP.
• It measures the educational attainment of the population aged 25 years and older.
• Total fertility rate:
• This is a demographic indicator representing the average number of children a woman would have during her reproductive years.
• It is used to analyze population growth and replacement levels rather than subjective or objective happiness levels.
• Number of hospitals:
• This serves as a measure of healthcare infrastructure and physical capacity.
• While it supports health outcomes, it is considered an input variable rather than a direct outcome of population well-being in the Happiness Index framework.

The correct answer is Space debris tracking and situational awareness.

 

Key Points

• Project NETRA (Network for space object Tracking and Analysis) is a dedicated initiative by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) aimed at establishing an early warning system in space.
• The primary function of the project is to provide Space Situational Awareness (SSA), which involves monitoring, tracking, and predicting the movement of space debris and other orbital hazards.
• It helps in protecting India's functional satellites from potential collisions with defunct satellites, rocket bodies, and fragmentation pieces orbiting the Earth.
• By developing this indigenous capability, India significantly reduces its dependence on foreign agencies like the U.S. Space Command for information regarding orbital threats.

 Additional Information

• Infrastructure and Reach:
• The network includes high-power radars, optical telescopes, and a centralized control centre located at Bengaluru.
• The project is designed to detect and track objects as small as 10 cm at a range of up to 3,400 km, covering Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and eventually expanding to Geostationary Orbit (GEO).
• Operational Utility:
• The data collected is critical for performing Collision Avoidance Manoeuvres (CAM), where a satellite's path is altered to avoid a predicted impact.
• It also monitors space weather and keeps track of near-Earth objects (NEOs) such as asteroids that could pose a threat to the planet.
• The project is an essential component of India's strategy to safeguard strategic assets like INSAT and Remote Sensing satellites.

The correct answer is 1980.

Key Points

• The Indian men's hockey team secured its eighth and final Olympic gold medal at the 1980 Moscow Olympics, ending a 16-year wait since their previous gold in 1964.
• The team was led by captain Vasudevan Baskaran, and the final was played at the Minor Arena of the Central Lenin Stadium in Moscow, Soviet Union.
• In a high-stakes final match, India defeated Spain with a score of 4-3 to clinch the top spot on the podium.
• Surinder Singh Sodhi was the standout performer and the leading goal-scorer for the Indian side during the tournament, contributing 15 goals to the team's tally.
• This victory remains a landmark event as it was the last time the Indian hockey team stood on the highest pedestal at the Summer Olympic Games.

 Additional Information

• Legacy of Indian Olympic Hockey:
• India's dominance in Olympic field hockey is unparalleled, with a total of eight gold medals won in 1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964, and 1980.
• The Golden Era (1928-1956) saw India winning six consecutive gold medals, a record that remains unbroken in the sport.
• Apart from the gold medals, India has also won one silver medal (1960) and four bronze medals (1968, 1972, 2020, 2024).
• Transition Challenges:
• The introduction of synthetic turf (Astroturf) at the 1976 Montreal Olympics significantly impacted India's performance, leading to a temporary decline in their global ranking as the team struggled to adapt from grass fields.
• Following the 1980 triumph, India entered a long 41-year medal drought that was finally broken at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics under the captaincy of Manpreet Singh.

The correct answer is Shukrayaan (Venus Orbiter).

Key Points

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is developing the Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM), popularly referred to as Shukrayaan, to conduct a comprehensive study of the planet Venus.
• A primary objective of the mission is to explore the stratospheric chemistry and the runaway greenhouse effect that characterizes Venus's thick, toxic atmosphere, which is composed of over 96% Carbon Dioxide.
• The mission aims to study surface topography and subsurface layers using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR), helping scientists understand the geological processes and potential volcanic activity on the planet.
• Shukrayaan will also investigate the interaction of the solar wind with the Venusian ionosphere and the planet's lack of a global intrinsic magnetic field.
• The spacecraft is expected to be launched using the LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3), placing it into a highly elliptical orbit to allow for varying altitudes during scientific observations.

 Additional Information

• LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration Mission):
• This is a joint mission between ISRO and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
• It aims to send a lunar rover and lander to explore the South Pole region of the Moon specifically to investigate the quantity and quality of water ice.
• Chandrayaan-4:
• Following the success of Chandrayaan-3, this mission is conceptualized as a Lunar Sample Return Mission.
• Its core objective is to land on the lunar surface, collect regolith samples, and successfully return them to Earth for advanced laboratory analysis.
• MOM-2 (Mars Orbiter Mission-2):
• Also known as Mangalyaan-2, it is the planned successor to India's first interplanetary mission.
• It will focus on more detailed morphological, mineralogical, and atmospheric studies of Mars using a more advanced suite of scientific instruments.

The correct answer is K. Sanjay Murthy.

Key Points

• K. Sanjay Murthy, a veteran 1989-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the Himachal Pradesh cadre, was appointed as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
• He took the oath of office in November 2024, succeeding the outgoing CAG, and continues to hold this constitutional position as of February 2025.
• The oath was administered by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, at Rashtrapati Bhavan, marking the transition of leadership in India's supreme audit institution.
• Before being elevated to this role, he demonstrated significant administrative expertise serving as the Secretary of the Department of Higher Education within the Ministry of Education.
• As the new CAG, he is responsible for upholding the accountability of the executive to the Parliament in the sphere of financial administration.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework:
• The office of the CAG is established under Article 148 of the Constitution of India, ensuring its independence from the executive branch.
• Articles 149 to 151 further detail the duties, powers, and the process of submitting audit reports to the President or Governors.
• The CAG is often referred to as the guardian of the public purse and acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
• Tenure and Removal:
• The CAG holds office for a period of six years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• To maintain impartiality, the CAG is not eligible for further office under the Government of India or any State Government after retirement.
• Girish Chandra Murmu:
• He served as the 14^th CAG of India from August 2020 until November 2024.
• He was previously the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

The correct answer is Liberalization and structural adjustment.

Key Points

• In 1991, India faced a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis, with foreign exchange reserves falling to a level barely sufficient to finance two weeks of imports.
• Under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh, the government introduced the New Economic Policy (NEP) to stabilize the economy.
• The reforms were centered on Liberalization, which aimed to dismantle the License-Permit-Quota Raj by removing bureaucratic hurdles and industrial licensing for most sectors.
• The Structural Adjustment Program (SAP) was initiated as part of the conditions set by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank for providing financial assistance to India.
• These reforms focused on deregulation, privatization of public sector units, and globalization by integrating the Indian economy with the global market through reduced trade barriers.
• Key measures included the devaluation of the Rupee, reduction in import tariffs, and the opening of several sectors to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).

 Additional Information

• Banking Reforms:
• While part of the overall 1991 reforms, specific banking sector changes were primarily recommended by the M. Narasimham Committee.
• Key suggestions included the reduction of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) to increase liquidity in the banking system.
• Fiscal Reforms:
• The Raja Chelliah Committee (1991) was established to recommend reforms in the tax system, focusing on lowering tax rates and broadening the tax base.
• It aimed to improve revenue elasticity and simplify direct and indirect tax structures.
• Agricultural Reforms:
• Broad agricultural reforms were addressed later through various committees and policies like the National Agriculture Policy (2000), focusing on food security and subsidy management.

The correct answer is Extending credit to agriculture, small industries, and priority sectors.

Key Points

• On July 19, 1969, the Government of India, led by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, nationalized 14 major commercial banks through the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance.
• The primary objective was to ensure that credit was not concentrated in the hands of a few industrial houses and instead flowed to neglected sectors such as agriculture, small-scale industries (SSIs), and village artisans.
• Nationalization marked a transition from Class Banking to Mass Banking, aiming to mobilize domestic savings and direct them toward socially productive purposes as outlined in the Five-Year Plans.
• Prior to 1969, private banks were heavily focused on urban areas; nationalization facilitated massive branch expansion into unbanked rural and semi-urban regions to reduce regional disparities.
• The move was intended to support the Green Revolution by providing institutional credit to farmers, thereby reducing their dependence on local moneylenders and high-interest debt.

 Additional Information

• Priority Sector Lending (PSL):
• Following nationalization, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced PSL norms, mandating that a specific percentage of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) must go to sectors like agriculture, education, housing, and micro-enterprises.
• Second Phase of Nationalization:
• In April 1980, another 6 commercial banks were nationalized, bringing nearly 90% of the banking business under public sector control.
• Lead Bank Scheme:
• Introduced in 1969 based on the Nariman Committee recommendations, it assigned specific districts to banks to act as leaders in coordinating credit deployment and financial inclusion.
• Incorrect Options Context:
• Controlling inflation: This is a function of Monetary Policy managed by the RBI through tools like Repo Rate and CRR, rather than bank ownership.
• Promoting exports: While exports became a priority sector later, the 1969 act was more focused on domestic rural development and credit democratization.

The correct answer is Ricardo.

Key Points

• David Ricardo, a prominent 19^th-century British political economist, first formulated the Theory of Comparative Advantage in his seminal work, On the Principles of Political Economy and Taxation, published in 1817.
• The concept explains that international trade can be mutually beneficial even if one nation has an absolute advantage in producing every single good; the key lies in relative efficiency and opportunity cost.
• Opportunity cost refers to the value of the next best alternative foregone; Ricardo argued that countries should specialize in producing goods where their opportunity cost is the lowest compared to other nations.
• He famously illustrated this using the example of England and Portugal producing cloth and wine, demonstrating that total global output increases when each nation focuses on its comparative strength.
• This theory remains a cornerstone of classical international trade theory and provides the fundamental logical justification for free trade policies globally.

 Additional Information

• Adam Smith:
• Known as the Father of Modern Economics, he authored The Wealth of Nations in 1776.
• He introduced the Theory of Absolute Advantage, suggesting that a country should specialize in goods it can produce more efficiently than any other.
• John Maynard Keynes:
• A 20^th-century economist who founded Keynesian Economics and wrote The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money (1936).
• His work focused on macroeconomic management, aggregate demand, and the role of government intervention during economic recessions.
• John Hicks:
• An influential British economist known for his contributions to general equilibrium theory and welfare economics.
• He developed the IS-LM model, which serves as a graphical representation of Keynesian macroeconomic theory.

The correct answer is prioritize wider socio-economic developmental objectives.

 

Key Points

• Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) in India were established with the primary vision of achieving a socialistic pattern of society, as envisioned in the early Five-Year Plans.
• The fundamental orientation of these industries is to ensure balanced regional development by setting up units in backward or underdeveloped areas to stimulate local economies.
• Under the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956, the public sector was given the 'commanding heights' of the economy to build a strong industrial infrastructure (like steel and power) that the private sector was unable or unwilling to fund at the time.
• These enterprises focus on employment generation and providing essential goods and services at subsidized or controlled prices to ensure they remain accessible to the common masses.
• They serve as a tool for the redistribution of income and wealth, preventing the concentration of economic power in the hands of a few private individuals or corporations.

 Additional Information

• Profit Maximization vs. Social Welfare:
• While private sectors operate purely for shareholder profit, PSUs prioritize public interest. However, through reforms, the government now encourages financial viability and efficiency in these units.
• Ownership and Control:
• Public sector industries are defined by having at least 51 percent of the paid-up share capital held by the Central Government, State Government, or both. They are not under foreign control.
• Classification of PSUs:
• To improve competitiveness, the government grants specific statuses such as Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna based on their financial performance and global presence.
• Maharatna companies (like NTPC or ONGC) have the highest level of operational autonomy to make large-scale investments without prior government approval.
• Strategic Importance:
• Enterprises in the public sector often manage strategic sectors like atomic energy, defense equipment, and railway transport to maintain national security and sovereignty.

The correct answer is 77%.

 

Key Points

• According to reports highlighted by the World Health Organization (WHO) and research published in 2024, approximately 77% of children in India aged 6-23 months do not meet the criteria for Minimum Dietary Diversity (MDD).
• The Minimum Dietary Diversity is a proxy indicator for the micronutrient adequacy of the diet, which is crucial for the physical and cognitive development of children during the first two years of life.
• The data suggests that nearly three out of four children in this vulnerable age group are deprived of essential food groups, leading to a high prevalence of nutritional deficiencies in the country.
• The findings underscore a critical gap in Infant and Young Child Feeding (IYCF) practices, where the transition from exclusive breastfeeding to complementary feeding often lacks the necessary variety of nutrients.
• This statistic is often linked to socio-economic factors, lack of awareness regarding balanced nutrition, and food insecurity, contributing to India's high rates of stunting and wasting.

 Additional Information

• Minimum Dietary Diversity (MDD) Framework:
• The WHO defines MDD as the consumption of foods from at least five out of eight specified food groups within the last 24 hours.
• The eight food groups include:

1. Breast milk, 2. Grains, roots, and tubers, 3. Legumes and nuts, 4. Dairy products (milk, yogurt, cheese), 5. Flesh foods (meat, fish, poultry), 6. Eggs, 7. Vitamin A-rich fruits and vegetables, and 8. Other fruits and vegetables.

• Consequences of Low Diversity:
• Lack of diversity leads to 'hidden hunger', where a child might consume enough calories but remains deficient in iron, zinc, Vitamin A, and iodine.
• It significantly increases the risk of chronic malnutrition, which can cause permanent growth retardation and weakened immune systems.
• Relevant Reports:
• Studies in 2024, including those published in journals like JAMA Network Open, have highlighted that India has one of the highest percentages of 'zero-food children' (children who did not eat any solid or semi-solid food for 24 hours) alongside poor dietary diversity.
• The National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) also corroborated that only a small fraction of Indian children receive an Adequate Diet.

The correct answer is 1849.

Key Points

• The formal annexation of Punjab by the British East India Company took place on March 29, 1849, marking the end of the Sikh Empire founded by Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
• The annexation was the direct result of the Second Anglo-Sikh War (1848−1849), which concluded after the decisive British victory at the Battle of Gujrat in February 1849.
• Lord Dalhousie, the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856, issued the proclamation of annexation, citing the need to maintain stability on the northwestern frontier.
• The last Sikh ruler, Maharaja Duleep Singh, who was a minor at the time, was forced to sign the Treaty of Lahore, surrendering all claims to the sovereignty of the region and the Koh-i-Noor diamond.
• Following the annexation, Punjab was governed by a Board of Administration composed of Henry Lawrence, John Lawrence, and Charles Mansel, which focused on land reforms and infrastructure development.

 Additional Information

• Historical Context of Other Options:
• 1836: During this period, Maharaja Ranjit Singh was still in power and maintained a strong diplomatic relationship with the British through the Treaty of Amritsar (1809).
• 1841: This year was characterized by extreme internal political instability and successive assassinations within the Lahore Darbar following the death of Ranjit Singh in 1839.
• 1856: This year is notable for the annexation of Awadh (Oudh) by Lord Dalhousie under the pretext of alleged misgovernment, which was a significant catalyst for the Revolt of 1857.
• The First Anglo-Sikh War (1845−1846) preceded the annexation and resulted in the Treaty of Lahore, where the British established a residency and annexed the Jalandhar Doab.

The correct answer is 1854.

Key Points

• The Wood's Despatch was an educational dispatch sent in 1854 by the Court of Directors of the East India Company to the Governor-General of India.
• It was prepared by Sir Charles Wood, who served as the President of the Board of Control, and is famously known as the 'Magna Carta of English Education in India'.
• The primary objective of the dispatch was to create a properly articulated scheme of education from the primary school level up to the University level.
• It emphasized that the Government of India must take responsibility for the education of the masses, moving away from the earlier 'Downward Filtration Theory'.

 Additional Information

• Core Recommendations and Impact:
• It recommended the establishment of Departments of Public Instruction in provinces like Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Punjab, and the North-Western Provinces.
• The dispatch paved the way for the establishment of universities in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in 1857, modeled after the University of London.
• It advocated for English as the medium of instruction for higher studies, while Vernacular languages were encouraged at the school level to ensure wider reach.
• The policy stressed the importance of Female education and Vocational training, recognizing the need for practical and technical skills among the Indian population.
• It introduced a system of Grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise in the field of education, provided the schools maintained certain secular and academic standards.