SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 30 Apr, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

For 'ON' related to 'MG':

For 'UC' related to 'SV':

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Applying the same logic to find the term related to 'WW':

Thus, YD is related to WW.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

For the set '(SK, WO, AS)':

For the set '(BG, FK, JO)':

Applying the same logic to the options:

For Option 1: '(CO, GS, KW)':

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Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The given year is 2011, which is an Ordinary Year.

We need to count the odd days starting from 2011 until the sum is a multiple of 7:

• 2011: 1 odd day
• 2012: 2 odd days (Leap Year)
• 2013: 1 odd day
• 2014: 1 odd day
• 2015: 1 odd day
• 2016: 2 odd days (Leap Year)
• 2017: 1 odd day
• 2018: 1 odd day
• 2019: 1 odd day
• 2020: 2 odd days (Leap Year)
• 2021: 1 odd day

Sum of odd days = 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 14 odd days.

Since 14 is divisible by 7 (14 ÷ 7 = 2, with 0 remainder), the next year, 2022, will have the same calendar as 2011.

Both 2011 and 2022 are Ordinary Years, so the calendars are identical.

The calendar for the year 2011 will be the same as 2022.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Alternate Method

There is a specific pattern for the repetition of calendars:

1. If the year is Leap year + 1, the calendar repeats after 6 years.
2. If the year is Leap year + 2, the calendar repeats after 11 years.
3. If the year is Leap year + 3, the calendar repeats after 11 years.
4. If the year is a Leap year, the calendar repeats after 28 years.

The year 2011 follows the Leap year + 3 rule (as 2008 was a Leap year):

2011 = 2008 + 3

Repetition interval = 11 years.

Repeating year = 2011 + 11 = 2022.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

5 persons J, K, L, P and Q are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. L is second to the left of J.
2. L is second to the right of P.
3. K is second to the left of Q. 

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

7 students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. V is fourth to the right of Q.
2. Considering towards left of S, there is only 1 student between S and Q.
3. T is not the immediate neighbour of V or S.
4. P is fourth to the right of U. 

Considering towards left of T, three students are sitting between T and S.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given word: CATASTROPHE

(1) ATTACHED → Cannot be formed as it requires the letter "D", which is not present in the given word.

(2) CARPET → Can be formed as all the required letters are present in the given word.

(3) CHEAP → Can be formed as all the required letters are present in the given word.

(4) HORSE → Can be formed as all the required letters are present in the given word.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1.

Given word: CONGRATULATIONS

(1) GROAN → Can be formed as all the letters (G, R, O, A, N) are present in the given word.

(2) CONSENT → Can not be formed as it requires the letter "E", which is not present in the given word.

(3) UNIFORM → Can not be formed as it requires the letters "F" and "M", which are not present in the given word.

(4) RENT → Can not be formed as it requires the letter "E", which is not present in the given word.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is,

325 + 15 = 340

340 + 15 = 355

355 + 15 = 370

370 + 15 = 385

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

601 - 4 = 597

597 - 8 = 589

589 - 12 = 577

577 - 16 = 561

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is,

8 × 3 − 1 = 23

23 × 4 − 2 = 90

90 × 5 − 3 = 447

447 × 6 − 4 = 2678

2678 × 7 − 5 = 18741

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3';

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

AF150 : ZE270 → 

TL200 : SK320 → 

Similarly, 

? : JP190 → 

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

LM230 : ER330 → 

TU310 : MZ410 → 

Similarly,

JK420: ? → 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number − 50

For the second pair 6368 : 6318

⇒ 6368 − 50 = 6318.

For the third pair 6850 : 6800

⇒ 6850 − 50 = 6800.

Applying the same logic to the first pair

4543 : ?

⇒ 4543 − 50 = 4493.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 2) − 9

For the first pair 347 : 685

⇒ (347 × 2) − 9

⇒ 694 − 9 = 685.

For the third pair 610 : 1211

⇒ (610 × 2) − 9

⇒ 1220 − 9 = 1211.

Applying the same logic to the second pair ? : 1903

⇒ (Missing Number × 2) − 9 = 1903

⇒ Missing Number × 2 = 1903 + 9

⇒ Missing Number × 2 = 1912

⇒ Missing Number = 1912 ÷ 2 = 956.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

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For LOLL is coded as MSHG →

For ULNA is coded as VPJV →

Similarly,

let's find the code for YARN:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

'ELUTE' is coded as 'FNXXJ' 

'CRICK' is coded as 'DTLGP'

Similarly,

let's find the code for CLUED:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Time interval from 2:20 PM to 8:20 PM = 6 hours.

Initial error at 2:20 PM = 6 minutes slow.

Final error at 8:20 PM = 12 minutes slow.

Total time lost during this interval = 12 minutes − 6 minutes = 6 minutes.

Rate of losing time = 6 minutes ÷ 6 hours = 1 minute per hour.

Time taken to lose 6 minutes = 6 minutes ÷ 1 minute/hour = 6 hours.

Correct time = 2:20 PM − 6 hours = 8:20 AM.

Hence, the clock shows the correct time at 8:20 AM.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is State Legislature.

Key Points

• The governance of Indian states follows the Parliamentary system, where the executive is drawn from and remains accountable to the legislature.
• According to Article 164(2) of the Constitution of India, the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.
• The term collective responsibility implies that the entire ministry is viewed as a single unit; they share joint responsibility for all decisions made by the Cabinet.
• If the State Legislative Assembly passes a No-Confidence Motion against the government, all ministers, including those belonging to the Legislative Council (in bicameral states), must resign collectively.
• This mechanism ensures that the Council of Ministers retains power only as long as it commands the majority support of the elected representatives of the people.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Entities:
• Governor: While the ministers are collectively responsible to the legislature, they hold office during the pleasure of the Governor under Article 164(1), which represents their individual responsibility.
• President: The President of India is the constitutional head of the Union; state ministers do not have a direct line of responsibility to the President, though the Governor is appointed by the President.
• Supreme Court: The Judiciary acts as the guardian of the Constitution and can perform Judicial Review of executive actions, but the Council of Ministers is not politically responsible to the court.
• State Legislature: In many states, this includes both the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad), though collective responsibility specifically targets the Lower House.

The correct answer is Article 108.

Key Points

• Article 108 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to summon a joint sitting of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha to resolve a legislative deadlock.
• A deadlock occurs if a bill is rejected by the other House, if the Houses disagree on amendments, or if the second House remains silent for more than six months.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting. In the Speaker's absence, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha takes the chair.
• The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Vice-President) does not preside over a joint sitting because they are not a member of either House of Parliament.
• Decisions in a joint sitting are taken by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting.
• This provision is applicable only to Ordinary Bills and Financial Bills, and it cannot be invoked for Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills.

 Additional Information

• Article 107: Deals with the introduction and passing of Bills, specifying that except for Money and Financial Bills, a bill may originate in either House.
• Article 109: Details the special procedure for Money Bills, clarifying that they cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha and must be returned within 14 days.
• Article 110: Provides the definition of Money Bills, which includes matters related to taxation, public expenditure, and the Consolidated Fund of India.
• The Speaker's certificate is required to endorse a bill as a Money Bill, and this decision is final and cannot be challenged in court or Parliament.

The correct answer is Oral tradition.

Key Points

• Oral tradition is the fundamental medium for transmitting Indian folk and tribal music, where musical knowledge is inherited through auditory learning and mimicry rather than formal scripts or notation.
• This tradition relies on collective memory, allowing the lyrics, melodies, and rhythms to be passed down during festivals, harvests, and lifecycle rituals within communities like the Bhils, Santhals, and Munda tribes.
• It serves as a living archive for regional dialects, indigenous folklore, and mythological narratives, ensuring that the cultural identity of a group is preserved across centuries without the need for literacy.
• The flexibility of this medium allows for spontaneous improvisation and the evolution of styles, which is why folk forms like the Baul of Bengal or Pandavani of Chhattisgarh maintain a dynamic and organic character.
• In the absence of written records, the oral medium ensures that even the most complex polyrhythmic structures and microtonal variations are mastered by younger members through continuous participation in social gatherings.

 Additional Information

• Guru-Shishya tradition:
• This is a formal pedagogical system predominantly found in Indian Classical Music (both Hindustani and Carnatic).
• It involves a dedicated relationship where a disciple (shishya) lives with the teacher (guru) to master the intricacies of Ragas, Talas, and specific Gharana lineages.
• Written notation:
• While systems like the Bhatkhande and Paluskar notations were developed in the 20th century to document classical compositions, they are rarely used in tribal music.
• The unscripted nature of folk music is what distinguishes it from academic or Margi Sangeet.
• Audio recordings:
• These are modern technological tools utilized by organizations like the Sangeet Natak Akademi and ethnomusicologists for archival purposes.
• While they help in the preservation of endangered art forms, they are not the traditional primary medium for the pedagogical transmission of folk music within indigenous communities.

The correct answer is Successive reflections of sound.

 

Key Points

• Thunder is the sound produced by the rapid expansion and contraction of air surrounding a path of lightning, which heats the air to approximately 30,000 Kelvin.
• The rolling effect or rumbling of thunder is primarily caused by the successive reflections of sound waves from various surfaces such as clouds, mountains, and different layers of air with varying densities.
• Since a lightning bolt can be several kilometers long, sound waves originate from different points along the bolt; these waves reach an observer at different times due to the distance variations and the echoes created by multiple reflections.
• The acoustic energy bounces between the ground and clouds, or between different cloud formations, preventing the sound from being a single sharp crack and turning it into a prolonged rumble.

 Additional Information

• Resonance of clouds:
• Resonance involves a system vibrating at its natural frequency. Clouds are composed of water droplets and ice and do not possess the structural rigidity required to resonate and produce the rolling sound of thunder.
• Interference of sound waves:
• While constructive and destructive interference can occur when sound waves meet, it typically results in variations in loudness or intensity rather than the sustained, multi-second duration characteristic of a thunder roll.
• Lightning effect:
• Lightning is the source of the sound (the cause of the shockwave), but the term 'lightning effect' is too broad and does not specifically explain the temporal prolongation and reflection mechanism that creates the rolling sensation.
• Speed of Sound vs. Light:
• Light travels at approximately 3 x 10⁸ meters per second, while sound travels at roughly 340 meters per second. This discrepancy explains why lightning is seen almost instantly, while thunder is heard later.

The correct answer is Northeast to Southwest.

 

Key Points

• The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, having its origins in the Proterozoic Era.
• The range extends for approximately 692 kilometers (430 miles), stretching from Delhi in the northeast, passing through Southern Haryana and Rajasthan, and ending at Palanpur in Gujarat in the southwest.
• The orientation of the range is Northeast to Southwest, a position that makes it nearly parallel to the direction of the Southwest Monsoon winds, leading to lower rainfall in the Thar Desert region.
• It serves as a major geographical divide, separating the semi-arid Marwar region from the more fertile Mewar region in Rajasthan.
• The range acts as a barrier to the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert, protecting the fertile Indo-Gangetic plains from wind erosion and sand deposition.

 Additional Information

• Guru Shikhar:
• Located in the Mount Abu hills, it is the highest peak of the Aravalli Range with an elevation of 1,722 meters.
• Hydrology and Rivers:
• Several important rivers originate or are fed by the Aravallis, including the Luni River (which flows into the Rann of Kutch), the Sabarmati, and the Banas River.
• Economic Significance:
• The range is exceptionally rich in mineral resources, providing significant deposits of copper, zinc, lead, silver, and construction materials like Makrana marble.
• Ecological Role:
• It functions as a wildlife corridor and contains several protected areas, such as the Sariska Tiger Reserve and the Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• The Rann of Kutch is a massive expanse of seasonal salt marshes located in the Kutch District of the Indian state of Gujarat.
• It is situated within the Thar Desert biogeographic province and is globally recognized as one of the largest salt deserts in the world.
• Geographically, the region is bifurcated into two distinct areas: the Great Rann of Kutch, which covers the northern part, and the Little Rann of Kutch, located to the southeast.
• The landscape is primarily composed of saline mudflats that remain underwater during the monsoon season and transform into a White Desert during the dry winter months due to salt crystallization.
• It shares an international boundary with the Sindh province of Pakistan to the north and is bordered by the Gulf of Kutch and the Arabian Sea to the south and west.

 Additional Information

• Wildlife and Conservation:
• The Little Rann of Kutch houses the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary, which is the last remaining natural habitat for the Indian Wild Ass (Khur).
• The Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary is famous for Flamingo City, a massive breeding ground for Greater Flamingos.
• Hydrology:
• Several rivers like the Luni, Banas, and Rupen drain into the Rann of Kutch, making it an endorheic basin where water does not flow out to the ocean.
• Culture and Economy:
• The Gujarat Tourism department hosts the Rann Utsav, a three-month-long festival that showcases Kutchi handicrafts, traditional Bhungas (mud houses), and local folk music.
• The region is a significant hub for salt production, contributing a substantial percentage of India total salt output.

The correct answer is Raja Rao.

Key Points

• The Serpent and the Rope is a landmark semi-autobiographical novel written by Raja Rao and was first published in 1960.
• The novel is deeply rooted in Advaita Vedanta philosophy and explores the quest for self-realization and the fundamental differences between Eastern and Western metaphysical perspectives.
• In 1964, Raja Rao received the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award for this work, which is considered one of the most profound philosophical novels in Indian English literature.
• The title refers to the classic Vedantic metaphor where an individual mistakes a rope for a serpent due to ignorance (Maya), symbolizing the nature of illusion and reality.
• The narrative follows Ramaswamy, a young Brahmin scholar in France, and his intellectual and spiritual struggle as his marriage to a French woman, Madeleine, begins to disintegrate.

 Additional Information

• Raja Rao (1908−2006):
• One of the founding fathers of modern Indian English fiction.
• Awarded the Neustadt International Prize for Literature in 1988.
• Famous for his debut novel Kanthapura (1938), which portrays the Gandhian struggle in a South Indian village.
• R.K. Narayan:
• Celebrated for creating the fictional town of Malgudi.
• Authored iconic works such as The Guide, Swami and Friends, and The Financial Expert.
• Mulk Raj Anand:
• Known for his realistic and empathetic depiction of the oppressed classes.
• Significant works include Untouchable (1935) and Coolie (1936).
• Khushwant Singh:
• Prominent journalist and novelist best known for Train to Pakistan (1956).
• Served as a member of the Rajya Sabha from 1980 to 1986.

The correct answer is Kerala.

 

Key Points

• The state of Kerala made history in the 1957 assembly elections by electing the first non-Congress government in independent India.
• The Communist Party of India (CPI) emerged as the single largest party, winning 60 out of 126 seats and securing the support of five independent members to form a majority.
• Elamkulam Manakkal Sankaran Namboodiripad, popularly known as E.M.S. Namboodiripad, was sworn in as the Chief Minister on April 5, 1957.
• This victory is widely recognized in political history as the first time a Communist government came to power through a parliamentary democratic election in a significant sub-national territory.
• The government initiated radical social changes, including the introduction of the Kerala Agrarian Relations Bill and the Education Bill, aimed at land redistribution and regulating private educational institutions.

 Additional Information

• Dismissal of the Government:
• In 1959, the central government led by the Indian National Congress invoked Article 356 of the Indian Constitution for the first time to dismiss the EMS Namboodiripad ministry.
• This followed the Vimochana Samaram (Liberation Struggle), an intense protest movement led by various religious and community organizations against the state's reforms.
• West Bengal:
• The Communist Party of India (Marxist), leading the Left Front, came to power in West Bengal much later, in 1977, under the leadership of Jyoti Basu.
• Tripura:
• The Left Front established its first government in Tripura in 1978, with Nripen Chakraborty serving as the first communist Chief Minister of the state.

The correct answer is Expected years of healthy living.

Key Points

• The World Happiness Report is a landmark survey that ranks global happiness based on six key variables: GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and perceptions of corruption.
• The metric for Healthy Life Expectancy specifically measures the average number of years a person is expected to live in full health, taking into account the years lived in less than full health due to disease or injury.
• The data used for this indicator is primarily extracted from the World Health Organization (WHO) Global Health Observatory database, which provides time-series data for over 190 countries.
• This indicator is distinct from standard life expectancy as it focuses on the quality of physical well-being rather than just the total duration of life, reflecting how long an individual can contribute to and enjoy society without significant disability.
• The Happiness Index is published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) to help guide public policy toward the well-being of citizens.

 Additional Information

• Average years of schooling:
• This is a critical component used in the Human Development Index (HDI) published by the UNDP.
• It measures the educational attainment of the population aged 25 years and older.
• Total fertility rate:
• This is a demographic indicator representing the average number of children a woman would have during her reproductive years.
• It is used to analyze population growth and replacement levels rather than subjective or objective happiness levels.
• Number of hospitals:
• This serves as a measure of healthcare infrastructure and physical capacity.
• While it supports health outcomes, it is considered an input variable rather than a direct outcome of population well-being in the Happiness Index framework.

The correct answer is Space debris tracking and situational awareness.

 

Key Points

• Project NETRA (Network for space object Tracking and Analysis) is a dedicated initiative by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) aimed at establishing an early warning system in space.
• The primary function of the project is to provide Space Situational Awareness (SSA), which involves monitoring, tracking, and predicting the movement of space debris and other orbital hazards.
• It helps in protecting India's functional satellites from potential collisions with defunct satellites, rocket bodies, and fragmentation pieces orbiting the Earth.
• By developing this indigenous capability, India significantly reduces its dependence on foreign agencies like the U.S. Space Command for information regarding orbital threats.

 Additional Information

• Infrastructure and Reach:
• The network includes high-power radars, optical telescopes, and a centralized control centre located at Bengaluru.
• The project is designed to detect and track objects as small as 10 cm at a range of up to 3,400 km, covering Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and eventually expanding to Geostationary Orbit (GEO).
• Operational Utility:
• The data collected is critical for performing Collision Avoidance Manoeuvres (CAM), where a satellite's path is altered to avoid a predicted impact.
• It also monitors space weather and keeps track of near-Earth objects (NEOs) such as asteroids that could pose a threat to the planet.
• The project is an essential component of India's strategy to safeguard strategic assets like INSAT and Remote Sensing satellites.

The correct answer is 1980.

Key Points

• The Indian men's hockey team secured its eighth and final Olympic gold medal at the 1980 Moscow Olympics, ending a 16-year wait since their previous gold in 1964.
• The team was led by captain Vasudevan Baskaran, and the final was played at the Minor Arena of the Central Lenin Stadium in Moscow, Soviet Union.
• In a high-stakes final match, India defeated Spain with a score of 4-3 to clinch the top spot on the podium.
• Surinder Singh Sodhi was the standout performer and the leading goal-scorer for the Indian side during the tournament, contributing 15 goals to the team's tally.
• This victory remains a landmark event as it was the last time the Indian hockey team stood on the highest pedestal at the Summer Olympic Games.

 Additional Information

• Legacy of Indian Olympic Hockey:
• India's dominance in Olympic field hockey is unparalleled, with a total of eight gold medals won in 1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964, and 1980.
• The Golden Era (1928-1956) saw India winning six consecutive gold medals, a record that remains unbroken in the sport.
• Apart from the gold medals, India has also won one silver medal (1960) and four bronze medals (1968, 1972, 2020, 2024).
• Transition Challenges:
• The introduction of synthetic turf (Astroturf) at the 1976 Montreal Olympics significantly impacted India's performance, leading to a temporary decline in their global ranking as the team struggled to adapt from grass fields.
• Following the 1980 triumph, India entered a long 41-year medal drought that was finally broken at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics under the captaincy of Manpreet Singh.

The correct answer is Shukrayaan (Venus Orbiter).

Key Points

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is developing the Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM), popularly referred to as Shukrayaan, to conduct a comprehensive study of the planet Venus.
• A primary objective of the mission is to explore the stratospheric chemistry and the runaway greenhouse effect that characterizes Venus's thick, toxic atmosphere, which is composed of over 96% Carbon Dioxide.
• The mission aims to study surface topography and subsurface layers using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR), helping scientists understand the geological processes and potential volcanic activity on the planet.
• Shukrayaan will also investigate the interaction of the solar wind with the Venusian ionosphere and the planet's lack of a global intrinsic magnetic field.
• The spacecraft is expected to be launched using the LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3), placing it into a highly elliptical orbit to allow for varying altitudes during scientific observations.

 Additional Information

• LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration Mission):
• This is a joint mission between ISRO and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
• It aims to send a lunar rover and lander to explore the South Pole region of the Moon specifically to investigate the quantity and quality of water ice.
• Chandrayaan-4:
• Following the success of Chandrayaan-3, this mission is conceptualized as a Lunar Sample Return Mission.
• Its core objective is to land on the lunar surface, collect regolith samples, and successfully return them to Earth for advanced laboratory analysis.
• MOM-2 (Mars Orbiter Mission-2):
• Also known as Mangalyaan-2, it is the planned successor to India's first interplanetary mission.
• It will focus on more detailed morphological, mineralogical, and atmospheric studies of Mars using a more advanced suite of scientific instruments.

The correct answer is K. Sanjay Murthy.

Key Points

• K. Sanjay Murthy, a veteran 1989-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the Himachal Pradesh cadre, was appointed as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
• He took the oath of office in November 2024, succeeding the outgoing CAG, and continues to hold this constitutional position as of February 2025.
• The oath was administered by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, at Rashtrapati Bhavan, marking the transition of leadership in India's supreme audit institution.
• Before being elevated to this role, he demonstrated significant administrative expertise serving as the Secretary of the Department of Higher Education within the Ministry of Education.
• As the new CAG, he is responsible for upholding the accountability of the executive to the Parliament in the sphere of financial administration.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework:
• The office of the CAG is established under Article 148 of the Constitution of India, ensuring its independence from the executive branch.
• Articles 149 to 151 further detail the duties, powers, and the process of submitting audit reports to the President or Governors.
• The CAG is often referred to as the guardian of the public purse and acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
• Tenure and Removal:
• The CAG holds office for a period of six years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• To maintain impartiality, the CAG is not eligible for further office under the Government of India or any State Government after retirement.
• Girish Chandra Murmu:
• He served as the 14th CAG of India from August 2020 until November 2024.
• He was previously the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

The correct answer is Liberalization and structural adjustment.

Key Points

• In 1991, India faced a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis, with foreign exchange reserves falling to a level barely sufficient to finance two weeks of imports.
• Under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh, the government introduced the New Economic Policy (NEP) to stabilize the economy.
• The reforms were centered on Liberalization, which aimed to dismantle the License-Permit-Quota Raj by removing bureaucratic hurdles and industrial licensing for most sectors.
• The Structural Adjustment Program (SAP) was initiated as part of the conditions set by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank for providing financial assistance to India.
• These reforms focused on deregulation, privatization of public sector units, and globalization by integrating the Indian economy with the global market through reduced trade barriers.
• Key measures included the devaluation of the Rupee, reduction in import tariffs, and the opening of several sectors to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).

 Additional Information

• Banking Reforms:
• While part of the overall 1991 reforms, specific banking sector changes were primarily recommended by the M. Narasimham Committee.
• Key suggestions included the reduction of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) to increase liquidity in the banking system.
• Fiscal Reforms:
• The Raja Chelliah Committee (1991) was established to recommend reforms in the tax system, focusing on lowering tax rates and broadening the tax base.
• It aimed to improve revenue elasticity and simplify direct and indirect tax structures.
• Agricultural Reforms:
• Broad agricultural reforms were addressed later through various committees and policies like the National Agriculture Policy (2000), focusing on food security and subsidy management.

The correct answer is Extending credit to agriculture, small industries, and priority sectors.

Key Points

• On July 19, 1969, the Government of India, led by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, nationalized 14 major commercial banks through the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance.
• The primary objective was to ensure that credit was not concentrated in the hands of a few industrial houses and instead flowed to neglected sectors such as agriculture, small-scale industries (SSIs), and village artisans.
• Nationalization marked a transition from Class Banking to Mass Banking, aiming to mobilize domestic savings and direct them toward socially productive purposes as outlined in the Five-Year Plans.
• Prior to 1969, private banks were heavily focused on urban areas; nationalization facilitated massive branch expansion into unbanked rural and semi-urban regions to reduce regional disparities.
• The move was intended to support the Green Revolution by providing institutional credit to farmers, thereby reducing their dependence on local moneylenders and high-interest debt.

 Additional Information

• Priority Sector Lending (PSL):
• Following nationalization, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced PSL norms, mandating that a specific percentage of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) must go to sectors like agriculture, education, housing, and micro-enterprises.
• Second Phase of Nationalization:
• In April 1980, another 6 commercial banks were nationalized, bringing nearly 90% of the banking business under public sector control.
• Lead Bank Scheme:
• Introduced in 1969 based on the Nariman Committee recommendations, it assigned specific districts to banks to act as leaders in coordinating credit deployment and financial inclusion.
• Incorrect Options Context:
• Controlling inflation: This is a function of Monetary Policy managed by the RBI through tools like Repo Rate and CRR, rather than bank ownership.
• Promoting exports: While exports became a priority sector later, the 1969 act was more focused on domestic rural development and credit democratization.

The correct answer is Ricardo.

Key Points

• David Ricardo, a prominent 19th-century British political economist, first formulated the Theory of Comparative Advantage in his seminal work, On the Principles of Political Economy and Taxation, published in 1817.
• The concept explains that international trade can be mutually beneficial even if one nation has an absolute advantage in producing every single good; the key lies in relative efficiency and opportunity cost.
• Opportunity cost refers to the value of the next best alternative foregone; Ricardo argued that countries should specialize in producing goods where their opportunity cost is the lowest compared to other nations.
• He famously illustrated this using the example of England and Portugal producing cloth and wine, demonstrating that total global output increases when each nation focuses on its comparative strength.
• This theory remains a cornerstone of classical international trade theory and provides the fundamental logical justification for free trade policies globally.

 Additional Information

• Adam Smith:
• Known as the Father of Modern Economics, he authored The Wealth of Nations in 1776.
• He introduced the Theory of Absolute Advantage, suggesting that a country should specialize in goods it can produce more efficiently than any other.
• John Maynard Keynes:
• A 20th-century economist who founded Keynesian Economics and wrote The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money (1936).
• His work focused on macroeconomic management, aggregate demand, and the role of government intervention during economic recessions.
• John Hicks:
• An influential British economist known for his contributions to general equilibrium theory and welfare economics.
• He developed the IS-LM model, which serves as a graphical representation of Keynesian macroeconomic theory.

The correct answer is prioritize wider socio-economic developmental objectives.

 

Key Points

• Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) in India were established with the primary vision of achieving a socialistic pattern of society, as envisioned in the early Five-Year Plans.
• The fundamental orientation of these industries is to ensure balanced regional development by setting up units in backward or underdeveloped areas to stimulate local economies.
• Under the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956, the public sector was given the 'commanding heights' of the economy to build a strong industrial infrastructure (like steel and power) that the private sector was unable or unwilling to fund at the time.
• These enterprises focus on employment generation and providing essential goods and services at subsidized or controlled prices to ensure they remain accessible to the common masses.
• They serve as a tool for the redistribution of income and wealth, preventing the concentration of economic power in the hands of a few private individuals or corporations.

 Additional Information

• Profit Maximization vs. Social Welfare:
• While private sectors operate purely for shareholder profit, PSUs prioritize public interest. However, through reforms, the government now encourages financial viability and efficiency in these units.
• Ownership and Control:
• Public sector industries are defined by having at least 51 percent of the paid-up share capital held by the Central Government, State Government, or both. They are not under foreign control.
• Classification of PSUs:
• To improve competitiveness, the government grants specific statuses such as Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna based on their financial performance and global presence.
• Maharatna companies (like NTPC or ONGC) have the highest level of operational autonomy to make large-scale investments without prior government approval.
• Strategic Importance:
• Enterprises in the public sector often manage strategic sectors like atomic energy, defense equipment, and railway transport to maintain national security and sovereignty.

The correct answer is 77%.

 

Key Points

• According to reports highlighted by the World Health Organization (WHO) and research published in 2024, approximately 77% of children in India aged 6-23 months do not meet the criteria for Minimum Dietary Diversity (MDD).
• The Minimum Dietary Diversity is a proxy indicator for the micronutrient adequacy of the diet, which is crucial for the physical and cognitive development of children during the first two years of life.
• The data suggests that nearly three out of four children in this vulnerable age group are deprived of essential food groups, leading to a high prevalence of nutritional deficiencies in the country.
• The findings underscore a critical gap in Infant and Young Child Feeding (IYCF) practices, where the transition from exclusive breastfeeding to complementary feeding often lacks the necessary variety of nutrients.
• This statistic is often linked to socio-economic factors, lack of awareness regarding balanced nutrition, and food insecurity, contributing to India's high rates of stunting and wasting.

 Additional Information

• Minimum Dietary Diversity (MDD) Framework:
• The WHO defines MDD as the consumption of foods from at least five out of eight specified food groups within the last 24 hours.
• The eight food groups include: 1. Breast milk, 2. Grains, roots, and tubers, 3. Legumes and nuts, 4. Dairy products (milk, yogurt, cheese), 5. Flesh foods (meat, fish, poultry), 6. Eggs, 7. Vitamin A-rich fruits and vegetables, and 8. Other fruits and vegetables.
• Consequences of Low Diversity:
• Lack of diversity leads to 'hidden hunger', where a child might consume enough calories but remains deficient in iron, zinc, Vitamin A, and iodine.
• It significantly increases the risk of chronic malnutrition, which can cause permanent growth retardation and weakened immune systems.
• Relevant Reports:
• Studies in 2024, including those published in journals like JAMA Network Open, have highlighted that India has one of the highest percentages of 'zero-food children' (children who did not eat any solid or semi-solid food for 24 hours) alongside poor dietary diversity.
• The National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) also corroborated that only a small fraction of Indian children receive an Adequate Diet.

The correct answer is 1849.

Key Points

• The formal annexation of Punjab by the British East India Company took place on March 29, 1849, marking the end of the Sikh Empire founded by Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
• The annexation was the direct result of the Second Anglo-Sikh War (1848−1849), which concluded after the decisive British victory at the Battle of Gujrat in February 1849.
• Lord Dalhousie, the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856, issued the proclamation of annexation, citing the need to maintain stability on the northwestern frontier.
• The last Sikh ruler, Maharaja Duleep Singh, who was a minor at the time, was forced to sign the Treaty of Lahore, surrendering all claims to the sovereignty of the region and the Koh-i-Noor diamond.
• Following the annexation, Punjab was governed by a Board of Administration composed of Henry Lawrence, John Lawrence, and Charles Mansel, which focused on land reforms and infrastructure development.

 Additional Information

• Historical Context of Other Options:
• 1836: During this period, Maharaja Ranjit Singh was still in power and maintained a strong diplomatic relationship with the British through the Treaty of Amritsar (1809).
• 1841: This year was characterized by extreme internal political instability and successive assassinations within the Lahore Darbar following the death of Ranjit Singh in 1839.
• 1856: This year is notable for the annexation of Awadh (Oudh) by Lord Dalhousie under the pretext of alleged misgovernment, which was a significant catalyst for the Revolt of 1857.
• The First Anglo-Sikh War (1845−1846) preceded the annexation and resulted in the Treaty of Lahore, where the British established a residency and annexed the Jalandhar Doab.

The correct answer is 1854.

Key Points

• The Wood's Despatch was an educational dispatch sent in 1854 by the Court of Directors of the East India Company to the Governor-General of India.
• It was prepared by Sir Charles Wood, who served as the President of the Board of Control, and is famously known as the 'Magna Carta of English Education in India'.
• The primary objective of the dispatch was to create a properly articulated scheme of education from the primary school level up to the University level.
• It emphasized that the Government of India must take responsibility for the education of the masses, moving away from the earlier 'Downward Filtration Theory'.

 Additional Information

• Core Recommendations and Impact:
• It recommended the establishment of Departments of Public Instruction in provinces like Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Punjab, and the North-Western Provinces.
• The dispatch paved the way for the establishment of universities in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras in 1857, modeled after the University of London.
• It advocated for English as the medium of instruction for higher studies, while Vernacular languages were encouraged at the school level to ensure wider reach.
• The policy stressed the importance of Female education and Vocational training, recognizing the need for practical and technical skills among the Indian population.
• It introduced a system of Grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise in the field of education, provided the schools maintained certain secular and academic standards.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the bracket first: (39 + 16) = 55.

Perform multiplication: 55 × 2 = 110.

Sum the positive terms: 65 + 83 + 110 = 258.

Sum the negative terms: 44 + 88 = 132.

Calculate the difference: 258 − 132 = 126.

∴ The correct answer is 126.

Alternate Method

Given:

65 + 83 − 44 + (39 + 16) × 2 − 88 = ?

Formula used:

Follow the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

Calculations:

⇒ ? = 65 + 83 − 44 + (55) × 2 − 88

⇒ ? = 65 + 83 − 44 + 110 − 88

⇒ ? = 148 − 44 + 110 − 88

⇒ ? = 104 + 110 − 88

⇒ ? = 214 − 88

⇒ ? = 126

∴ The correct answer is 126.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It defines the order of operations: Brackets ( ), Orders/Of, Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Grouping Terms

In long addition and subtraction strings, grouping positive and negative values separately can minimize errors.

Types of Brackets

Always solve from inner to outer: Parentheses ( ), Braces { }, and Square Brackets [ ].

Shortcut Trick

Solve using the BODMAS sequence: 53 + 45 − 18 + (66 ÷ 6) − (24 × 1) + 37.

Perform Division and Of operations first: 11 and 24.

Combine all positive values: 53 + 45 + 11 + 37 = 146.

Subtract the total negative values: 146 − (18 + 24) = 146 − 42 = 104.

∴ The correct answer is 104.

Alternate Method

Given expression: 53 + 45 − 18 + 66 ÷ 6 − (24 of 1) + 37

According to the BODMAS rule, we solve in order: Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

⇒ 53 + 45 − 18 + 66 ÷ 6 − 24 + 37 (Solving Of/Bracket)

⇒ 53 + 45 − 18 + 11 − 24 + 37 (Solving Division)

⇒ 98 − 18 + 11 − 24 + 37 (Solving Addition from left)

⇒ 80 + 11 − 24 + 37

⇒ 91 − 24 + 37

⇒ 67 + 37

⇒ 104

∴ The correct answer is 104.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It defines the order of operations to solve mathematical expressions: B (Brackets), O (Of), D (Division), M (Multiplication), A (Addition), S (Subtraction).

Of Operator

The word Of represents multiplication but must be performed before division and after brackets in any simplification problem.

V-BODMAS

The V stands for Vinculum (a bar bracket like —), which is solved even before standard round brackets.

Shortcut Trick

Separate the whole number part and the decimal part for quick calculation.

Sum of whole numbers = 420 + 42 + 4 + 0 = 466

Sum of decimal numbers = 0.005 + 0.2005 + 0.42005 = 0.62555

Total summation = 466 + 0.62555 = 466.62555

∴ The correct answer is 466.62555.

Alternate Method

Given: 420, 42.005, 4.2005, 0.42005

To add decimal numbers, convert them into like decimals by adding placeholder zeros so that each number has five decimal places.

⇒ 420.00000

⇒ 042.00500

⇒ 004.20050

⇒ 000.42005

Performing column addition by aligning the decimal points:

⇒ 420.00000 + 42.00500 + 4.20050 + 0.42005 = 466.62555

∴ The correct answer is 466.62555.

Additional Information

Like Decimals

Decimals having the same number of digits after the decimal point are called like decimals. This is essential for accurate column addition.

Place Value in Decimals

Each position after the decimal point represents a power of 10 in the denominator: tenths (10⁻¹), hundredths (10⁻²), thousandths (10⁻³), etc.

BODMAS Rule

In more complex simplifications, always follow the BODMAS (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction) priority for calculations.

Shortcut Trick

The given expression follows the pattern of the algebraic identity a³ − 3a²b + 3ab² − b³ = (a − b)³.

Identify a = 2.5 and b = 0.5 from the terms.

Direct calculation: (2.5 − 0.5)³ = (2)³.

Final result: 8.

∴ The correct answer is 8.0.

Alternate Method

Given: (2.5)² × 2.5 − 3 × 0.5 × (2.5)² + 3 × 2.5 × (0.5)² − (0.5)³

Formula used: (a − b)³ = a³ − 3a²b + 3ab² − b³

⇒ Let the variable a = 2.5 and b = 0.5.

⇒ Substituting these values into the given expression:

⇒ a³ − 3a²b + 3ab² − b³

⇒ This is equivalent to (a − b)³.

⇒ (2.5 − 0.5)³

⇒ (2.0)³

⇒ 2 × 2 × 2 = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8.0.

Additional Information

Standard Algebraic Cubic Identities

(a + b)³ = a³ + 3a²b + 3ab² + b³ and (a − b)³ = a³ − 3a²b + 3ab² − b³.

Difference and Sum of Cubes

a³ − b³ = (a − b)(a² + ab + b²) and a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² − ab + b²).

Special Case

If a + b + c = 0, then a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc.

Shortcut Trick

The sum of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula: [n × (n + 1)] ÷ 2.

Here, the series ends at 30, so n = 30.

Applying the values: (30 × 31) ÷ 2 ⇒ 15 × 31.

Result = 465.

∴ The correct answer is 465.

Alternate Method

Given:

The series is an Arithmetic Progression (AP): 1, 2, 3, ..., 30.

First term (a) = 1

Last term (l) = 30

Number of terms (n) = 30

Formula Used:

Sum of AP = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l)

Calculations:

⇒ Sum = (30 ÷ 2) × (1 + 30)

⇒ Sum = 15 × 31

⇒ Sum = 465

∴ The correct answer is 465.

Additional Information

Sum of Squares of First n Natural Numbers

The formula for the sum 1² + 2² + ... + n² is [n(n + 1)(2n + 1)] ÷ 6.

Sum of Cubes of First n Natural Numbers

The formula for the sum 1³ + 2³ + ... + n³ is [n(n + 1) ÷ 2]².

Sum of First n Odd Natural Numbers

The sum of the first n odd numbers (1 + 3 + 5 + ...) is always equal to n².

Sum of First n Even Natural Numbers

The sum of the first n even numbers (2 + 4 + 6 + ...) is given by n(n + 1).

Shortcut Trick

Side of rhombus = Perimeter ÷ 4 = 52 ÷ 4 = 13 cm.

Half of the given diagonal = 24 ÷ 2 = 12 cm.

Using Pythagorean Triplet (5, 12, 13), half of the other diagonal must be 5 cm.

Length of the other diagonal = 5 × 2 = 10 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 10 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Perimeter = 52 cm, One diagonal (d₁) = 24 cm.

Formula Used: Side² = (d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)²

Calculations:

⇒ Side = Perimeter ÷ 4 = 52 ÷ 4 = 13 cm.

⇒ Let the other diagonal be d₂.

⇒ (13)² = (24 ÷ 2)² + (d₂ ÷ 2)²

⇒ 169 = (12)² + (d₂ ÷ 2)²

⇒ 169 = 144 + (d₂ ÷ 2)²

⇒ (d₂ ÷ 2)² = 169 − 144 = 25

⇒ d₂ ÷ 2 = √25 = 5

⇒ d₂ = 5 × 2 = 10 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 10 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Rhombus

The area of a rhombus can be calculated as Area = 1/2 × d₁ × d₂, where d₁ and d₂ are the lengths of the diagonals.

Properties of Diagonals

The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at right angles (90°), forming four congruent right-angled triangles.

Side-Diagonal Relationship

A direct relationship between side (a) and diagonals is given by 4a² = d₁² + d₂².

Shortcut Trick

Relation: (d₁ + d₂)² = 4a² + 4 × Area

Given d₁ + d₂ = 46 cm and side a = 17 cm

⇒ 46² = 4 × 17² + 4 × Area

⇒ 2116 = 1156 + 4 × Area

⇒ 4 × Area = 960 ⇒ Area = 240 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 240 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of diagonals (d₁ + d₂) = 46 cm

Side of the rhombus (a) = 17 cm

Formula Used:

1. 4a² = d₁² + d₂² (Relation between side and diagonals)

2. Area of rhombus = 1/2 × d₁ × d₂

Calculations:

⇒ d₁² + d₂² = 4 × (17)²

⇒ d₁² + d₂² = 4 × 289 = 1156

⇒ We know, (d₁ + d₂)² = d₁² + d₂² + 2d₁d₂

⇒ (46)² = 1156 + 2d₁d₂

⇒ 2116 = 1156 + 2d₁d₂

⇒ 2d₁d₂ = 2116 − 1156 = 960

⇒ d₁d₂ = 480

⇒ Area = 1/2 × 480 = 240 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 240 cm².

Additional Information

Properties of a Rhombus

All four sides of a rhombus are equal, and the diagonals bisect each other at 90° (perpendicularly).

Diagonal and Side Relation

The relation between the side 'a' and diagonals d₁, d₂ is given by 4a² = d₁² + d₂², which is derived from the Pythagoras theorem.

Area Formulas

Area of a rhombus = 1/2 × d₁ × d₂ OR Area = Base × Height.

Shortcut Trick

Convert all fractions to their simplest irreducible form: 3/4, 6/8 → 3/4, and 9/10.

Shortcut formula: LCM of Fractions = LCM of Numerators ÷ HCF of Denominators.

Numerators are 3 and 9 ⇒ LCM(3, 9) = 9.

Denominators are 4 and 10 ⇒ HCF(4, 10) = 2.

Required LCM = 9/2.

∴ The correct answer is 9/2.

Alternate Method

Given: The fractions are 3/4, 6/8, and 9/10.

Formula Used: LCM of fractions = [LCM of Numerators] ÷ [HCF of Denominators]

⇒ First, simplify the given fractions to their lowest terms: 3/4 remains 3/4, 6/8 becomes 3/4, and 9/10 remains 9/10.

⇒ Identification of terms: Numerators = 3, 3, 9; Denominators = 4, 4, 10.

⇒ Calculate the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the Numerators: LCM(3, 3, 9) = 9.

⇒ Calculate the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of the Denominators: HCF(4, 4, 10) = 2.

⇒ Applying the formula: LCM = 9/2.

∴ The correct answer is 9/2.

Additional Information

HCF of Fractions

The Highest Common Factor of fractions is calculated as: HCF of Fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators).

Simplification Rule

Before calculating the LCM or HCF of any group of fractions, it is mandatory to reduce every fraction to its lowest terms (simplest form) to avoid incorrect results.

Fundamental Definitions

LCM is the simplest positive integer divisible by all numbers in a set, while HCF is the largest positive integer that divides all numbers in the set without leaving a remainder.

Shortcut Trick

Direct Property: Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM.

Required Product = 18 × 540

Required Product = 9720

∴ The correct answer is 9720.

Alternate Method

Given:

Highest Common Factor (HCF) of two numbers = 18

Least Common Multiple (LCM) of two numbers = 540

Formula Used:

Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

Calculations:

⇒ Product = 18 × 540

⇒ Product = 18 × (500 + 40)

⇒ Product = (18 × 500) + (18 × 40)

⇒ Product = 9000 + 720

⇒ Product = 9720

∴ The correct answer is 9720.

Additional Information

Relationship for Two Numbers

For any two positive integers a and b, the product of the numbers is always equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

HCF and LCM of Fractions

HCF of fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators) and LCM of fractions = (LCM of Numerators) ÷ (HCF of Denominators).

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime, their HCF is 1, and their LCM is simply the product of the two numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Loss Percentage = 40% = 2/5 (where 5 units is CP and 2 units is Loss).

Ratio of Selling Price = 5 − 2 = 3 units.

Given, 5 units = ₹4800 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹960.

Selling Price = 3 units = 3 × 960 = ₹2880.

∴ The correct answer is ₹2880.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) of the article = ₹4800

Loss Percentage = 40%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price × (100 − Loss%) / 100

Calculations:

⇒ Selling Price = 4800 × (100 − 40) / 100

⇒ Selling Price = 4800 × 60 / 100

⇒ Selling Price = 48 × 60

⇒ Selling Price = 2880

∴ The correct answer is ₹2880.

Additional Information

Profit Calculation

When the Selling Price is higher than the Cost Price, Profit = SP − CP.

Selling Price with Profit %

To find SP when profit percentage is given: SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) / 100.

Discount and Marked Price

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount.

Shortcut Trick

If 30% of the eggs are rotten, then (100% − 30%) = 70% of the eggs are not rotten.

Calculate 70% of the total eggs directly:

⇒ 70% × 420 = 0.7 × 420 = 294

∴ The correct answer is 294 eggs.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of eggs = 420

Percentage of rotten eggs = 30%

Formula Used:

Number of not rotten eggs = Total Eggs − (Percentage of Rotten Eggs × Total Eggs ÷ 100)

Calculations:

⇒ Number of rotten eggs = 30% of 420

⇒ Rotten eggs = (30 ÷ 100) × 420 = 126

⇒ Number of not rotten eggs = Total Eggs − Rotten Eggs

⇒ Not rotten eggs = 420 − 126

⇒ Not rotten eggs = 294

∴ The correct answer is 294 eggs.

Additional Information

Percentage Complement Rule

If a certain part of a whole is x%, the remaining part is always (100 − x)% of the whole.

Percentage to Value Conversion

To find the absolute value from a percentage, use the formula: Value = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Total Base Value.

Fraction Equivalents

Common percentages can be simplified: 25% = 1/4, 50% = 1/2, 75% = 3/4, and 10% = 1/10.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Selling Price (SP) to Cost Price (CP) = 5 : 4.

Profit = 5 − 4 = 1 unit.

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

Profit % = (1 ÷ 4) × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25 percent.

Alternate Method

Given: The ratio of the selling price (SP) of an article to the cost price (CP) of the article is 5 : 4.

Formula Used: Profit Percentage = [(Selling Price − Cost Price) ÷ Cost Price] × 100

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) be 4x.

⇒ Then, the Selling Price (SP) is 5x.

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 5x − 4x = x.

⇒ Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (x ÷ 4x) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 1/4 × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25 percent.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage

When SP < CP, Loss Percentage = [(CP − SP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Selling Price Formulas

SP = CP × (100 + Profit %) ÷ 100 or SP = CP × (100 − Loss %) ÷ 100.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of numbers = (3/5 x 30) : (1/4 x 80) = 18 : 20 = 9 : 10.

Difference between parts = 10 − 9 = 1 unit → 400.

Sum of numbers = 9 + 10 = 19 units → 19 x 400 = 7600.

Required Value = 25% of 7600 = 7600 ÷ 4 = 1900.

∴ The correct answer is 1900.

Alternate Method

Given: One-fourth of 80 percent of x = 3/5 of 30 percent of y. Difference = 400.

Formula: Percentage of a number = (Rate ÷ 100) x Number.

⇒ (1/4) x (80/100) x x = (3/5) x (30/100) x y

⇒ (20/100) x x = (18/100) x y

⇒ 20x = 18y

⇒ x/y = 18/20 = 9/10

⇒ Let numbers be 9k and 10k.

⇒ Difference = 10k − 9k = 1k = 400.

⇒ Sum = 9k + 10k = 19k = 19 x 400 = 7600.

⇒ 25 percent of sum = 7600 x (25/100) = 1900.

∴ The correct answer is 1900.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To simplify calculations, convert percentages to fractions: 25% = 1/4, 20% = 1/5, 80% = 4/5, and 30% = 3/10.

Ratio and Proportionality

If x : y = a : b, then the difference is |a − b| parts and the sum is (a + b) parts. Value of 1 part = Actual Difference ÷ |a − b|.

Distributive Property of Percentages

P% of (x + y) = P% of x + P% of y. This property allows calculating the percentage of a total by summing individual percentage results.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Efficiency is the reciprocal of Time taken: 1/18 : 1/24 : 1/36.

Multiply by LCM (72) to get the ratio: 4 : 3 : 2.

Total efficiency parts = 4 + 3 + 2 = 9 parts.

P's share = (Efficiency of P ÷ Total Efficiency) × Total Wage.

P's share = (3 ÷ 9) × 7200 = 1/3 × 7200 = ₹2400.

∴ The correct answer is ₹2400.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by R = 18 days

Time taken by P = 24 days

Time taken by G = 36 days

Total amount received = ₹7200

Formula Used:

When multiple people work for the same amount of time, their Wages are distributed in the ratio of their Efficiencies.

Calculations:

⇒ Ratio of Efficiency (R : P : G) = 4 : 3 : 2

⇒ Sum of Efficiency ratios = 4 + 3 + 2 = 9 units

⇒ 9 units = ₹7200

⇒ 1 unit = 7200 ÷ 9 = ₹800

⇒ P's share (3 units) = 3 × 800

⇒ P's share = ₹2400

∴ The correct answer is ₹2400.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Relationship

Wages are directly proportional to the Work Done. If time is constant, Wage ∝ Efficiency.

Efficiency and Time

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the Time taken to complete a task. Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time.

Total Work Calculation

The Total Work is generally assumed as the LCM (Least Common Multiple) of the individual days to simplify efficiency calculations.

Shortcut Trick

Total hours for R = 12 × 4 = 48 hr.

Total hours for S = 6 × 8 = 48 hr.

Total hours together = (48 × 48) ÷ (48 + 48) = 24 hr.

Hours per day for 4 days = Total hours ÷ Days = 24 ÷ 4 = 6 hr.

∴ The correct answer is 6 hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Work duration for R = 12 days × 4 hr = 48 hr.

Work duration for S = 6 days × 8 hr = 48 hr.

⇒ Total combined efficiency of R and S = 1 + 1 = 2 units/hr.

⇒ Total time required by R and S together = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency

⇒ Total time = 48 ÷ 2 = 24 hr.

⇒ They need to complete the work in 4 days.

⇒ Hours per day needed = 24 hr ÷ 4 days = 6 hr/day.

∴ The correct answer is 6 hr.

Additional Information

Combined Work Formula

If two people A and B can do a work in x and y hours respectively, they together take (x × y) ÷ (x + y) hours to finish it.

Man-Days-Hours (MDH) Relation

Total Work = Persons × Days × Hours per day. For constant work, M₁D₁H₁ = M₂D₂H₂.

Efficiency and Time

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a specific task (Efficiency = 1 ÷ Time).

Shortcut Trick

To convert speed from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Speed = 50 × (18/5)

Speed = 10 × 18 = 180 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 180 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the train = 50 m/s

Formula Used:

Speed (km/hr) = Speed (m/s) × (3600 / 1000) = Speed (m/s) × (18 / 5)

Calculations:

⇒ Speed = 50 m/s

⇒ 1 m/s = (1/1000) km / (1/3600) hr

⇒ 1 m/s = 3600 / 1000 km/hr = 18 / 5 km/hr

⇒ Speed in km/hr = 50 × (18 / 5)

⇒ Speed in km/hr = 10 × 18

⇒ Speed in km/hr = 180 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 180 km/hr.

Additional Information

km/hr to m/s Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply the value by 5/18.

Average Speed Formula

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. For two equal distances with speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy / (x + y).

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the opposite direction, relative speed is the sum of their speeds (S₁ + S₂). In the same direction, it is the difference (S₁ − S₂).

Shortcut Trick

Assume each equal distance is the LCM of speeds (10, 30, 60) = 60 km.

Total Distance = 3 × 60 = 180 km.

Total Time = (60 ÷ 10) + (60 ÷ 30) + (60 ÷ 60) = 6 + 2 + 1 = 9 hours.

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time = 180 ÷ 9 = 20 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 20 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given: Speeds of three equal parts of the journey are 10 km/hr, 30 km/hr, and 60 km/hr.

Formula Used: Average Speed = (3 × v₁ × v₂ × v₃) ÷ (v₁v₂ + v₂v₃ + v₃v₁)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the three equal distances be d each.

⇒ Total Distance = d + d + d = 3d

⇒ Total Time = (d ÷ 10) + (d ÷ 30) + (d ÷ 60)

⇒ Total Time = (6d + 2d + d) ÷ 60 = 9d ÷ 60 = 3d ÷ 20

⇒ Average Speed = (3d) ÷ (3d ÷ 20)

⇒ Average Speed = 3d × (20 ÷ 3d) = 20 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 20 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed for Two Equal Distances

When a journey is divided into two equal distances with speeds x and y, the Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Unit Conversion

To convert Speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply the value by 5 ÷ 18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18 ÷ 5.

Constant Time Case

If a person travels for equal intervals of time at different speeds v₁ and v₂, the Average Speed is simply the arithmetic mean: (v₁ + v₂) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Let Cost Price (CP) = 100

Marked Price (MP) = 450% of 100 = 450

Selling Price (SP) = 100 ÷ 25% = 400

Discount % = (MP − SP) / MP × 100 = (50 / 450) × 100 = 11.11%

∴ The correct answer is 11.11 percent.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = 450% of Cost Price (CP)

Cost Price (CP) = 25% of Selling Price (SP)

Formula Used:

Discount = Marked Price − Selling Price

Discount Percentage = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let CP = 100x

⇒ MP = 450% of 100x = 450x

⇒ CP = 25% of SP ⇒ 100x = (25/100) × SP

⇒ SP = 100x × 4 = 400x

⇒ Discount = MP − SP = 450x − 400x = 50x

⇒ Discount % = (50x ÷ 450x) × 100

⇒ Discount % = (1 ÷ 9) × 100 = 11.111...

∴ The correct answer is 11.11 percent.

Additional Information

Mark-up Percentage

It is the percentage by which the Cost Price is increased to reach the Marked Price. Formula: Mark-up % = (MP − CP) ÷ CP × 100.

Profit and Discount Relation

The relationship between CP and MP using Profit % and Discount % is: MP ÷ CP = (100 + Profit %) ÷ (100 − Discount %).

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁ and d₂ are given, the Equivalent Discount = d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

Convert percentage discounts into ratios: 20% = 1/5 and 25% = 1/4.

Initial Marked Price (MP) to Selling Price (SP) ratios: 5 : 4 and 4 : 3.

Combined Ratio = (5 × 4) : (4 × 3) = 20 : 12 or 5 : 3.

Given 3 units = Rs. 18000 ⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 6000.

MP (5 units) = 5 × 6000 = Rs. 30000.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 30000.

Alternate Method

Given: Final Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 18000, 1^st Discount (d₁) = 20%, 2^nd Discount (d₂) = 25%.

Formula Used: Final SP = Marked Price × (100 − d₁)/100 × (100 − d₂)/100

⇒ 18000 = MP × (100 − 20)/100 × (100 − 25)/100

⇒ 18000 = MP × (80/100) × (75/100)

⇒ 18000 = MP × (4/5) × (3/4)

⇒ 18000 = MP × (3/5)

⇒ MP = (18000 × 5) ÷ 3

⇒ MP = 6000 × 5

⇒ MP = Rs. 30000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 30000.

Additional Information

Single Equivalent Discount

For two successive discounts a% and b%, the effective discount is (a + b − ab/100)%. Here, 20 + 25 − (20 × 25 / 100) = 45 − 5 = 40%.

Marked Price (MP) Relation

If SP and discount % are known, MP = [SP ÷ (100 − Discount%)] × 100. For successive discounts, multiply the factors for each step.

Profit and Markup

Relation between CP, MP, and Profit: MP/CP = (100 + Profit%)/(100 − Discount%). This helps find CP when Profit and Discount percentages are given.

Shortcut Trick

Marked Price = ₹4000

Price after first discount of 25% = 4000 − (25% of 4000) = ₹3000

Final Selling Price = ₹2400

Second discount amount = 3000 − 2400 = ₹600

Value of A = (600 ÷ 3000) × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹4000

First discount = 25%

Second discount = A%

Final Selling Price (SP) = ₹2400

Formula used:

SP = MP × (100 − d₁)/100 × (100 − d₂)/100

Calculations:

⇒ Price after first discount = 4000 × (100 − 25) ÷ 100

⇒ 4000 × 75/100 = ₹3000

⇒ Final SP = 3000 × (100 − A) ÷ 100

⇒ 2400 = 3000 × (100 − A) ÷ 100

⇒ 2400 ÷ 30 = 100 − A

⇒ 80 = 100 − A

⇒ A = 100 − 80

⇒ A = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Successive Discount Formula

The single equivalent discount for two successive discounts of x% and y% is given by [x + y − (xy ÷ 100)]%.

Relationship between MP and SP

The final selling price can be directly calculated as SP = MP × (1 − d₁/100) × (1 − d₂/100) × ... × (1 − d_n/100).

Effective Discount Rate

Total Discount % = [(Marked Price − Final Selling Price) ÷ Marked Price] × 100.

Question 1: Which among the following is an idiom?

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. Water under the bridge.

Key Points

• The word idiom refers to a set expression or a phrase comprising two or more words that has a specific meaning which is different from the literal meaning of its individual components. (मुहावरा)
• Example: 'Piece of cake' is a common idiom used to describe a task that is very easy to perform.
• Water under the bridge is an idiom used to refer to something that has happened in the past and cannot now be changed, so it is no longer worth worrying about or being upset about. (बीती बात जो अब महत्वपूर्ण नहीं है)
• Example: They had a huge fight last year, but it is all water under the bridge now, and they are friends again.
• Hence, we can infer that among the given options, only 'Water under the bridge' functions as a standard English idiom.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Water under the bridge.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Water under the ocean (समुद्र के नीचे का पानी): This is a literal phrase referring to the water mass located beneath the surface or within the crust of the ocean floor.
• Example: Geologists discovered massive reservoirs of water under the ocean floor.
• Water under the soil (मिट्टी के नीचे का पानी): This refers to groundwater or moisture that is trapped in the layers of the earth.
• Example: The roots of the tree are deep enough to reach the water under the soil.
• Water under the tunnel (सुरंग के नीचे का पानी): This is a literal description of water situated below a tunnel structure.
• Example: Proper drainage is required to manage the water under the tunnel to prevent structural damage.

The correct answer is: A leader, boss, chief person in a group.

Key Points

• The idiom 'top banana' refers to the most powerful or important person in a group, organization, or hierarchy. (प्रमुख व्यक्ति)
• Example: In that law firm, she is the top banana and has the final word on all legal strategies.
• 'A leader, boss, chief person in a group' describes someone who holds the highest rank or authority within a specific set of people. (एक समूह का नेता, बॉस, या मुख्य व्यक्ति)
• Example: After years of hard work, he finally became the top banana of the engineering team.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of the idiom 'top banana' is 'a leader, boss, chief person in a group'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: A leader, boss, chief person in a group.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings:

• A person whose hands are very thin (एक व्यक्ति जिसके हाथ बहुत पतले हैं): This is a literal physical description and does not carry an idiomatic meaning in this context.
• A beggar or a very poor person (एक भिखारी या बहुत गरीब व्यक्ति): This refers to someone in extreme poverty; common idioms for this include 'church mouse' or 'down-and-out'.
• A person whose neck is long (एक व्यक्ति जिसकी गर्दन लंबी है): This is a physical observation and is not related to the meaning of 'top banana'.

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. significant.

Key Points

• The word 'considerable' means notably large in size, amount, or extent; it refers to something that is substantial or worthy of attention. (काफी/महत्वपूर्ण)
• Example: The charity received a considerable donation from an anonymous benefactor.
• 'significant' refers to something that is sufficiently great or important to be worthy of attention; it often describes a notable amount or a meaningful effect. (महत्वपूर्ण)
• Example: The new evidence played a significant role in solving the case.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'considerable' is 'significant'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- significant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Tiny (बहुत छोटा): Extremely small in size or amount.
• Example: The microscope was necessary to see the tiny details on the insect’s wing.
• Limited (सीमित): Restricted in size, amount, or extent; not very large or numerous.
• Example: The restaurant offers a limited menu during the afternoon hours.
• Differentiate (अंतर करना): To recognize or ascertain what makes someone or something different from others.
• Example: It can be difficult to differentiate between genuine and counterfeit products.

The correct answer is: Admit.

Key Points

• The word 'confess' means to state or admit that one has committed a crime or is at fault in some way. (स्वीकार करना / दोष स्वीकार करना)
• Example: He decided to confess his crimes to the police after feeling guilty for months.
• 'Admit' refers to acknowledging that something is true, often reluctantly or under pressure; it is the closest synonym to 'confess'. (मान लेना / स्वीकार करना)
• Example: Although he was hesitant, he finally admitted that he had broken the vase.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym of 'confess' is 'admit'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Admit.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Deny (अस्वीकार करना): To state that something is not true or to refuse to admit something.
• Example: The suspect continued to deny any involvement in the robbery despite the evidence.
• Refuse (इनकार करना): To indicate that one is not willing to do, accept, or grant something.
• Example: The manager had to refuse her request for a salary increase due to budget cuts.
• Ignore (अनदेखा करना): To fail to consider or to refuse to take notice of someone or something.
• Example: It is better to ignore rude comments rather than arguing with everyone.

The correct answer is: Wretchedness.

Key Points

• The word 'Wrechedness' is misspelt. It is the incorrect spelling of the word 'wretchedness', which means a state of being very unhappy, ill, or in a very bad social or physical condition. (दुर्दशा)
• Example: The refugees were living in conditions of extreme wretchedness.
• 'Wretchedness' is the correct spelling of the word, which refers to the state of being wretched or miserable. (कष्ट)
• Example: She could not bear to see the wretchedness of the poor children.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word is 'Wretchedness'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Wretchedness.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Whimsical (सनकी): Playful, quaint, or fanciful, especially in an appealing and amusing way.
• Example: The book is filled with whimsical drawings of animals.
• Whistleblower (सचेतक): A person who informs on a person or organization engaged in an illicit activity.
• Example: The whistleblower revealed secrets about the company's tax evasion.
• Wilderness (निर्जन स्थान): An uncultivated, uninhabited, and wild region.
• Example: The area was preserved as a wilderness where no motorized vehicles were allowed.

The correct answer is: Backward.

Key Points

• The word developed refers to a country or region that has a high level of economic growth and industrialization. (विकसित)
• Example: Japan is a highly developed nation with a strong economy.
• Backward refers to something that is not advanced or has not made much progress in social, economic, or cultural fields. (पिछड़ा)
• Example: The government is working to improve infrastructure in backward regions of the country.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of developed is backward.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Backward.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Advanced (उन्नत): Far on in development or progress.
• Example: This laboratory uses advanced techniques for DNA sequencing.
• Evolved (विकसित हुआ): Having developed gradually from a simple to a more complex form.
• Example: The species has evolved over millions of years to survive in harsh conditions.
• Modern (आधुनिक): Relating to the present or recent times as opposed to the remote past.
• Example: Modern technology has made communication much faster and easier.

The correct answer is Option (1) i.e. Scriptwriter.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A person who writes screenplays' refers to an individual who creates the scripts for films, television shows, or radio programs, detailing the dialogue and actions. (पटकथा लिखने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: The production house is looking for a talented person who writes screenplays to adapt the popular novel into a movie.
• 'Scriptwriter' is the professional term for a person who writes the text of a stage play, movie, or broadcast. (पटकथा लेखक)
• Example: The scriptwriter won an award for the best original screenplay at the film festival.
• Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitution for 'A person who writes screenplays' is 'Scriptwriter'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Scriptwriter.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Screenplayer (एक अमानक शब्द): This is not a standard English term; the correct professional designation is either a screenwriter or a scriptwriter.
• Example: He incorrectly used the word screenplayer while trying to describe the writer of the film.
• Playwright (नाटककार): A person who writes plays specifically for theater performance on a stage.
• Example: William Shakespeare is considered one of the greatest playwrights in history.
• Ghostwriter (छद्म लेखक): A person who is hired to write books, articles, or other texts that are officially credited to another person as the author.
• Example: The retired politician hired a ghostwriter to help him complete his autobiography.

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. Fugitive.

Key Points

• The phrase 'One who is escaping from the law' refers to a person who is fleeing from legal authorities, such as the police, to avoid arrest, trial, or punishment. (कानून से भागने वाला)
• Example: The authorities launched a statewide search for the individual who was escaping from the law after the prison break.
• 'Fugitive' refers to a person who has escaped from a place or is in hiding, especially to avoid arrest or persecution. (भगोड़ा)
• Example: The fugitive was eventually caught hiding in a remote cabin in the woods.
• Hence, we can infer that the most suitable one-word substitution for the given phrase is 'Fugitive'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Fugitive.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Inmate (कैदी/अन्तःवासी): A person confined to an institution such as a prison or a hospital.
• Example: The prison inmate spent his time reading books in the library.
• Suspect (संदिग्ध): A person thought to be guilty of a crime or offense, but not yet proven so by a court.
• Example: The police questioned the suspect for several hours regarding the robbery.
• Criminal (अपराधी): A person who has committed a crime and is found guilty by the law.
• Example: He was a known criminal who had been convicted of several thefts in the past.

The correct answer is 'in token of'.

 

Key Points

• The prepositional phrase 'in token of' is used to indicate that something is done as a sign, symbol, or evidence of a particular feeling, fact, or event.
• In the given sentence, wearing white-colored shirts is a symbolic gesture performed to represent or honor their friendship.
• The other options do not fit the contextual meaning of a symbolic gesture.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: 'Both of them wore white-colored shirts in token of their friendship.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'in lieu of' means instead of or in place of something. (e.g., He gave us a day off in lieu of extra pay.)
• Option 3: 'by dint of' means by means of or as a result of something, typically referring to effort or persistence. (e.g., He succeeded by dint of hard work.)
• Option 4: 'with respect to' means concerning, regarding, or in relation to a specific subject. (e.g., I am writing with respect to your recent application.)

The correct answer is Were amazing tricks performed at the fair by the magician?.

Key Points

• The original sentence is an Interrogative Sentence in the Simple Past Tense, as indicated by the auxiliary verb Did followed by the base form of the verb perform.
• In the Active Voice, the structure of a Simple Past question is: Did + Subject + V1 (Base Verb) + Object. Here, the Subject is the magician and the Object is amazing tricks.
• To transform this into Passive Voice, the Object (amazing tricks) of the active sentence becomes the Subject of the passive sentence.
• The structure for Passive Voice in Simple Past Interrogative is: Was/Were + New Subject + V3 (Past Participle) + by + Agent.
• Since the new subject amazing tricks is plural, the correct auxiliary verb to be used at the beginning of the sentence is Were.
• The main verb perform must be changed to its Past Participle form, which is performed.
• The phrase at the fair is an adverbial adjunct and remains in its relative position, while the agent the magician is introduced using the preposition by.

 Additional Information

• Comparison with incorrect options based on Tense and Aspect:
• Present Perfect Passive: Option 2 uses Have... been performed. This structure is used only if the active sentence is in the Present Perfect Tense (e.g., Has the magician performed...).
• Simple Present Passive: Option 3 uses Are... performed. This is used for habitual actions or general truths in the Simple Present Tense (e.g., Does the magician perform...).
• Simple Future Passive: Option 4 uses Will... be performed. This is reserved for actions that have not yet occurred, corresponding to the Simple Future Tense (e.g., Will the magician perform...).
• Number Agreement: In passive constructions, the verb must always agree with the new subject. If the object were singular (e.g., an amazing trick), the auxiliary Was would have been used instead of Were.

The correct answer is Will the government have completed the infrastructure projects before the deadline set by the council?.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Passive Voice of the Future Perfect Tense, indicated by the construction will + object + have been + past participle (completed).
• To convert a sentence from passive to active voice in the Future Perfect Tense, the structure must follow: Will + Subject + have + Past Participle (V3) + Object?
• In the passive sentence, the government is the agent (doer), and the infrastructure projects is the patient (receiver). In the active voice, the government shifts to the subject position.
• The auxiliary verb will remains at the start to maintain the interrogative form, followed immediately by the new subject.
• The phrase before the deadline set by the council is an adverbial modifier that provides temporal context and remains unchanged in its position at the end of the sentence.

 Additional Information

• Future Perfect Tense:
• It denotes an action that will be completed between now and a specific point in the future.
• In Active Voice, the helping verbs are will have followed by the third form of the verb.
• Common Structural Errors:
• Future Simple: Using will complete (as seen in Option 1) changes the aspect of the verb from perfect to simple.
• Syntax Errors: Placing the auxiliary have before the subject (as in Option 3) creates an incorrect interrogative structure in English.
• Morphological Errors: Using will directly with completed (as in Option 4) without have is grammatically invalid.

The correct answer is 'in'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition 'in' is used to indicate a person's participation or appearance within a specific medium of entertainment, such as movies, films, plays, or books.
• In the given sentence, the subject (Bipasha) has performed roles within the context of Hindi movies, making 'in' the grammatically correct choice.
• The phrase 'acted in' is a standard idiomatic expression used to describe an actor's work in a production.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Bipasha has acted in several Hindi movies in the last decade."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'on' is generally used for surfaces or specific electronic platforms (e.g., on television, on stage, on screen), but not usually for the creative work itself (the movie).
• Option 3: 'ãI' appears to be a typographical error or a nonsensical string and has no grammatical function.
• Option 4: 'with' would imply acting alongside a co-star (e.g., acted with another actor) rather than within the movie production itself.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The primary grammatical issue in the sentence is the Subject-Verb Agreement.
• The subject of the sentence is 'Each', which is a singular distributive pronoun.
• In English grammar, when 'Each of' is followed by a plural noun (in this case, 'representatives'), the verb must always remain singular.
• The original sentence incorrectly uses the plural verb 'have presented'. To make it grammatically correct, it must be replaced by the singular verb 'has presented'.
• While traditional grammar often preferred 'his or her' with 'each', modern usage commonly accepts 'their' as a singular gender-neutral pronoun, making Option 2 the most suitable choice among the given alternatives.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: 'Each of the representatives from the various states has presented their reports on healthcare reforms.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'have presented their report' – This is incorrect because it retains the plural verb 'have'.
• Option 3: 'were presented their reports' – This is incorrect because 'were' is a plural verb and the passive construction changes the meaning of the sentence.
• Option 4: 'No improvement required' – This is incorrect because the original sentence contains a clear subject-verb agreement error where a plural verb is used for a singular subject.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph follows a chronological and logical sequence describing an encounter between a herdsman, some young snakes, and their mother.
• Sentence S1 sets the scene where a person sees young snakes coming out of a hole.
• Sentence D follows S1 as it describes the condition of the snakes mentioned in the first sentence:
• 'They looked thin and miserable.'
• Sentence C follows D as it explains the herdsman's compassionate response to their poor condition:
• 'The herdsman felt sorry for them, so every day he gave them some milk.'
• Sentence B follows C, showing the result of the feeding and introducing a new character:
• 'When they grew strong and began to move about in the jungle, they met their mother, who exclaimed: 'I can't believe it!'
• Sentence A follows B as it completes the mother's dialogue expressing her shock:
• 'I left you starving, and now here you are, well and strong!'
• Finally, Sentence S2 concludes the narrative by explaining that the snakes told their mother about the herdsman's care.
• The correct logical sequence is DCBA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'One day, as he was walking about beneath the tree, he saw several young snakes coming out of a hole in the ground. They looked thin and miserable. The herdsman felt sorry for them, so every day he gave them some milk. When they grew strong and began to move about in the jungle, they met their mother, who exclaimed: 'I can't believe it! I left you starving, and now here you are, well and strong!' They told her how the herdsman had taken care of them.'

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The underlined part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• The sentence is set in the past tense, as indicated by the phrase was unable in the second clause.
• In the simple past tense (negative), the structure used is subject + did not (didn't) + base form of the verb.
• The phrase didn't study correctly follows this rule, where didn't is the auxiliary verb and study is the base form (V1).
• Therefore, the sentence is consistent in tense and logically sound.

Therefore, the correct answer is No improvement required.

 

Correct Sentence: 'She didn't study for the test, so she was unable to answer most of the questions.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'She didn't studied' is incorrect because the auxiliary verb did is already in the past tense; the main verb must remain in its base form.
• Option 2: 'She don't study' is incorrect because don't is used with plural subjects (and I/you), while She is third-person singular. Furthermore, it is in the present tense.
• Option 3: 'She doesn't study' is grammatically correct as a standalone phrase in the present tense, but it creates a tense mismatch with the rest of the sentence (was unable).

The correct answer is 'coming'.

Key Points

• The passage describes the source of renewable energy in Iceland.
• The blank follows the preposition 'with' in an absolute construction (with + noun phrase + participle).
• In this structure, a present participle (verb + ing) is used to describe a state or ongoing action related to the noun phrase.
• 'Coming' correctly functions as a participle indicating the origin or source of electricity and heating.
• Finite verb forms like 'comes' or 'came' cannot be used directly after the noun in this specific prepositional phrase structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: Life in Iceland is shaped by its dramatic natural environment, from glaciers and volcanoes to hot springs and long, dark winters. Despite the challenging climate, Icelanders enjoy one of the highest standards of living in the world. Much of this is thanks to the country's use of renewable energy, with all electricity and heating 1. coming from geothermal and hydroelectric sources. Iceland is also known for its keen sense of community. In smaller towns, people rarely lock their doors, and children often play outside without close supervision. The crime rate is among the lowest globally, which many attribute to the country's high level of education and 2. strong trust in public institutions. Winters in Iceland are long and dark, with some parts receiving only a few hr of daylight each day. However, locals adapt through cultural events, cozy indoor traditions, and even public festivals celebrating the return of sunlight. Summer, on the other hand, brings the 3. midnight sun, where daylight can last 24 hr in parts of the country. Tourism has become an important part of the economy, as more people come to experience the Northern Lights, unique landscapes, and 4. Lively Reykjavik culture. Yet, Icelanders continue to balance modern life with deep respect for ancient traditions and a close connection to nature. Life in Iceland may be isolated, but it is rich, resilient, and deeply rooted in both 5. History and traditions and innovation.

Additional Information

• Comes: A third-person singular present tense verb, used as a main verb in a sentence (e.g., The heat comes from the ground).
• Come: The base form or past participle; it does not indicate the continuous state of sourcing required here.
• Came: The past tense form, which does not fit the present context of Iceland's current energy usage.

The correct answer is 'strong'.

Key Points

• The sentence discusses the factors that contribute to Iceland's low crime rate, specifically education and a certain level of trust.
• The word 'trust' in this context is a noun, and it requires an adjective to modify it and describe its intensity or quality.
• 'Strong' is an adjective that fits perfectly, indicating a high degree of confidence or belief in public institutions.
• Using 'strong trust' creates a logical parallel with 'high level of education', both describing positive attributes of the society.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: Life in Iceland is shaped by its dramatic natural environment, from glaciers and volcanoes to hot springs and long, dark winters. Despite the challenging climate, Icelanders enjoy one of the highest standards of living in the world. Much of this is thanks to the country's use of renewable energy, with all electricity and heating 1. coming from geothermal and hydroelectric sources. Iceland is also known for its keen sense of community. In smaller towns, people rarely lock their doors, and children often play outside without close supervision. The crime rate is among the lowest globally, which many attribute to the country's high level of education and 2. strong trust in public institutions. Winters in Iceland are long and dark, with some parts receiving only a few hr of daylight each day. However, locals adapt through cultural events, cozy indoor traditions, and even public festivals celebrating the return of sunlight. Summer, on the other hand, brings the 3. midnight sun, where daylight can last 24 hr in parts of the country. Tourism has become an important part of the economy, as more people come to experience the Northern Lights, unique landscapes, and 4. Lively Reykjavik culture. Yet, Icelanders continue to balance modern life with deep respect for ancient traditions and a close connection to nature. Life in Iceland may be isolated, but it is rich, resilient, and deeply rooted in both 5. History and traditions and innovation.

Additional Information

• Strongly: This is an adverb and is typically used to modify verbs (e.g., 'they strongly believe') or other adjectives, not a noun like 'trust'.
• Strength: This is a noun. Using two nouns together like 'strength trust' is grammatically incorrect in this context.
• Strengthening: This is a present participle or gerund, implying an ongoing process. The passage refers to a stable, existing state of trust.

The correct answer is 'midnight'.

Key Points

• The passage describes the unique environmental and cultural characteristics of Iceland.
• Blank (C) refers to the specific summer phenomenon where daylight can last for 24 hours in certain parts of the country.
• The standard geographical term for this occurrence in regions near the Arctic Circle is the 'midnight sun'.
• 'Midnight' is the most appropriate adjective as it correctly completes the idiomatic expression used to describe the sun being visible at the local midnight during summer.
• Other options like 'always shining' or 'forever' are either too descriptive or factually incorrect as the phenomenon is seasonal.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: Life in Iceland is shaped by its dramatic natural environment, from glaciers and volcanoes to hot springs and long, dark winters. Despite the challenging climate, Icelanders enjoy one of the highest standards of living in the world. Much of this is thanks to the country's use of renewable energy, with all electricity and heating 1. coming from geothermal and hydroelectric sources. Iceland is also known for its keen sense of community. In smaller towns, people rarely lock their doors, and children often play outside without close supervision. The crime rate is among the lowest globally, which many attribute to the country's high level of education and 2. strong trust in public institutions. Winters in Iceland are long and dark, with some parts receiving only a few hr of daylight each day. However, locals adapt through cultural events, cozy indoor traditions, and even public festivals celebrating the return of sunlight. Summer, on the other hand, brings the 3. midnight sun, where daylight can last 24 hr in parts of the country. Tourism has become an important part of the economy, as more people come to experience the Northern Lights, unique landscapes, and 4. Lively Reykjavik culture. Yet, Icelanders continue to balance modern life with deep respect for ancient traditions and a close connection to nature. Life in Iceland may be isolated, but it is rich, resilient, and deeply rooted in both 5. History and traditions and innovation.

Additional Information

• Midnight Sun: A natural phenomenon occurring in the summer months at latitudes north of the Arctic Circle or south of the Antarctic Circle.
• Always shining: While the sun shines continuously, this is not the formal name of the phenomenon.
• Forever: Incorrect because the phenomenon only lasts for a few weeks or months surrounding the summer solstice.

The correct answer is 'Lively'.

Key Points

• The word 'vibrant' used in the passage describes the culture of Reykjavik.
• In this context, 'vibrant' refers to something that is full of energy, enthusiasm, and life.
• 'Lively' is a synonym that perfectly matches this meaning, as it denotes being full of life and spirit.
• The other options do not fit the description of a bustling and energetic city culture.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: Life in Iceland is shaped by its dramatic natural environment, from glaciers and volcanoes to hot springs and long, dark winters. Despite the challenging climate, Icelanders enjoy one of the highest standards of living in the world. Much of this is thanks to the country's use of renewable energy, with all electricity and heating A. coming from geothermal and hydroelectric sources. Iceland is also known for its keen sense of community. In smaller towns, people rarely lock their doors, and children often play outside without close supervision. The crime rate is among the lowest globally, which many attribute to the country's high level of education and B. strong trust in public institutions. Winters in Iceland are long and dark, with some parts receiving only a few hr of daylight each day. However, locals adapt through cultural events, cozy indoor traditions, and even public festivals celebrating the return of sunlight. Summer, on the other hand, brings the C. midnight sun, where daylight can last 24 hr in parts of the country. Tourism has become an important part of the economy, as more people come to experience the Northern Lights, unique landscapes, and D. Lively Reykjavik culture. Yet, Icelanders continue to balance modern life with deep respect for ancient traditions and a close connection to nature. Life in Iceland may be isolated, but it is rich, resilient, and deeply rooted in both E. History and traditions and innovation.

Additional Information

• Quiet: Making very little noise; not busy or active. This is the opposite of vibrant.
• Dull: Lacking interest, excitement, or brightness. This is an antonym for vibrant.
• Simple: Easily understood or done; plain and basic. It does not convey the energy associated with vibrant.

The correct answer is 'History and traditions'.

Key Points

• The sentence describes how Icelandic life is deeply rooted in both its heritage and modern innovation.
• The word 'heritage' refers to the valued objects and qualities such as cultural traditions, unspoiled countryside, and historic buildings that have been passed down from previous generations.
• 'History and traditions' is the best synonym in this context because it encompasses the collective historical narrative and the long-standing customs of a society.
• The other options do not fully capture the cultural and societal scope of heritage as used in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: Life in Iceland is shaped by its dramatic natural environment, from glaciers and volcanoes to hot springs and long, dark winters. Despite the challenging climate, Icelanders enjoy one of the highest standards of living in the world. Much of this is thanks to the country's use of renewable energy, with all electricity and heating 1. coming from geothermal and hydroelectric sources. Iceland is also known for its keen sense of community. In smaller towns, people rarely lock their doors, and children often play outside without close supervision. The crime rate is among the lowest globally, which many attribute to the country's high level of education and 2. strong trust in public institutions. Winters in Iceland are long and dark, with some parts receiving only a few hr of daylight each day. However, locals adapt through cultural events, cozy indoor traditions, and even public festivals celebrating the return of sunlight. Summer, on the other hand, brings the 3. midnight sun, where daylight can last 24 hr in parts of the country. Tourism has become an important part of the economy, as more people come to experience the Northern Lights, unique landscapes, and 4. Lively Reykjavik culture. Yet, Icelanders continue to balance modern life with deep respect for ancient traditions and a close connection to nature. Life in Iceland may be isolated, but it is rich, resilient, and deeply rooted in both 5. History and traditions and innovation.

Additional Information

• Property: This refers to things that are owned by individuals, like land or possessions, rather than a collective cultural legacy.
• Ancestors: This refers specifically to the people from whom one is descended, whereas heritage refers to the legacy they left behind.
• Inheritance: This usually refers to money or property received after someone's death, or a genetic trait, which is more specific than the broad cultural heritage mentioned here.

शुद्ध शब्द है - आजकल

Key Points

• दिए गए विकल्पों में 'आजकल' शब्द की वर्तनी व्याकरणिक रूप से पूर्णतः शुद्ध है।
• आजकल एक अव्यय (क्रियाविशेषण) शब्द है, जिसका अर्थ 'वर्तमान समय में' या 'इन दिनों' होता है।
• वर्तनी का अर्थ है शब्दों में वर्णों को सही क्रम में लिखने की रीति। यदि शब्द का उच्चारण अशुद्ध होता है, तो उसकी वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध हो जाती है।

Additional Information

कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

शुद्ध शब्द है - अधीन

Key Points

• दिए गए विकल्पों में से अधीन शब्द की वर्तनी पूर्णतः शुद्ध है।
• अधीन का अर्थ होता है - पराश्रित, किसी के वश में होना या गुलाम।
• अक्सर लोग उच्चारण दोष के कारण इसे 'आधीन' लिख देते हैं, जो कि व्याकरण की दृष्टि से त्रुटिपूर्ण है।
• वर्तनी का सीधा संबंध उच्चारण से होता है। यदि शब्द का उच्चारण अशुद्ध होगा, तो उसकी वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध होगी।

Additional Information

कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

शुद्ध शब्द है - ढकना

Key Points

• उपर्युक्त विकल्पों में ढकना शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द है।
• ढकना एक क्रिया शब्द है, जिसका अर्थ किसी वस्तु को किसी दूसरी वस्तु से आच्छादित करना या छिपाना होता है।
• लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी या अक्षरी कहते हैं। यदि उच्चारण अशुद्ध होता है तो वर्तनी भी अशुद्ध हो जाती है।
• अन्य विकल्प जैसे ढाकना, ढकन्ना और ढांकना वर्तनी की दृष्टि से त्रुटिपूर्ण हैं।

Additional Information

कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

शुद्ध शब्द है - गृहस्थ

Key Points

• गृहस्थ शब्द व्याकरणिक रूप से पूर्णतः शुद्ध है।
• इसका अर्थ घर-परिवार वाला व्यक्ति या वह जो सांसारिक जीवन व्यतीत कर रहा हो, होता है।
• लेखन की वह रीति जिसमें वर्णों और मात्राओं का सही संयोजन हो, वर्तनी कहलाती है।
• विकल्पों में दिए गए अन्य शब्द जैसे ग्रहस्थ (ग्रह संबंधी अशुद्धि) और गृहस्थ्य (प्रत्यय संबंधी त्रुटि) अशुद्ध हैं।

Additional Information

कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

सही उत्तर है- खुफिया स���चना

Key Points

• अंग्रेजी शब्दावली 'Intelligence input' का सटीक हिंदी पारिभाषिक अर्थ 'खुफिया सूचना' होता है।
• प्रशासनिक और सुरक्षा के क्षेत्र में, जब किसी गुप्त स्रोत या एजेंसी से कोई महत्वपूर्ण जानकारी प्राप्त होती है, तो उसे Intelligence input कहा जाता है।
• Intelligence का अर्थ होता है- खुफिया या गुप्तचर और Input का अर्थ यहाँ सूचना या जानकारी से है।
• उदाहरण के तौर पर: 'The police received an intelligence input about the smuggling.' (पुलिस को तस्करी के बारे में खुफिया सूचना मिली थी।)

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 प्रशासनिक शब्दावली की विशेषताएँ-

1. निश्चितता: इन शब्दों का अर्थ सरकारी कामकाज में निश्चित और रूढ़ होता है।
2. पारिभाषिकता: ये शब्द सामान्य बोलचाल से अलग एक विशेष तकनीकी अर्थ वहन करते हैं।
3. शुद्धता: अनुवाद के समय इन शब्दों की सटीकता का विशेष ध्यान रखा जाता है ताकि अर्थ का अनर्थ न हो।

Additional Information

‘जिस दस्तावेज़ में सभी कर्मचारियों की उपस्थिति दर्ज होती है’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - हाजिरी रजिस्टर।

Key Points

• दिए गए वाक्यांश ‘जिस दस्तावेज़ में सभी कर्मचारियों की उपस्थिति दर्ज होती है’ के लिए सार्थक शब्द ‘हाजिरी रजिस्टर’ है।
• ‘हाजिरी रजिस्टर’ वह आधिकारिक प्रलेख या पंजिका है, जिसका उपयोग किसी कार्यालय, विद्यालय या संस्थान में व्यक्तियों की उपस्थिति और अनुपस्थिति का लेखा-जोखा रखने के लिए किया जाता है।
• कम से कम शब्दों में किसी वाक्यांश या विचार को पूर्णतः स्पष्ट करना ही ‘वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द’ कहलाता है, इससे भाषा संक्षिप्त और प्रभावशाली बनती है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

‘वर्दी पर लगाया जाने वाला पहचान चिह्न’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द है - बैज।

Key Points

• ‘वर्दी पर लगाया जाने वाला पहचान चिह्न’ वाक्यांश के लिए सार्थक शब्द ‘बैज’ है।
• ‘बैज’ (Badge) एक ऐसा प्रतीक या चिह्न होता है जो किसी व्यक्ति की सदस्यता, पद, रैंक या किसी विशिष्ट संस्था से जुड़ाव को प्रदर्शित करता है।
• जब किसी विस्तृत कथन या वाक्यांश के अर्थ को एक ही शब्द में समाहित किया जाता है, तो उसे ‘वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द’ या ‘अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द’ कहते हैं।
• हिंदी व्याकरण में इस प्रकार के शब्दों का प्रयोग भाषा की संक्षिप्तता और सुंदरता बढ़ाने के लिए किया जाता है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

कुछ महत्वपूर्ण वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द -

सही उत्तर है- जल्दी से जगह खाली करो

Key Points

• दिए गए वाक्यांश तुरंत हट जाओ का सीधा अर्थ किसी स्थान को शीघ्रता से छोड़ने या वहां से चले जाने के लिए कहना है।
• व्याकरण की दृष्टि से तुरंत एक क्रिया-विशेषण है जो क्रिया के होने के समय (तात्कालिकता) को दर्शाता है।
• हट जाओ एक क्रिया पद है जो स्थान परिवर्तन या स्थान खाली करने का बोध कराता है।
• अन्य उदाहरण: अभी निकल जाओ, जल्दी हटो।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points
 अर्थ के आधार पर वाक्य के भेद-

1. विधानवाचक वाक्य (सकारात्मक सूचना)
2. निषेधवाचक वाक्य (नकारात्मकता का बोध)
3. आज्ञावाचक वाक्य (आदेश, निर्देश या प्रार्थना)
4. प्रश्नवाचक वाक्य (प्रश्न पूछना)

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है- रोज़ की घटनाओं को लिखना

Key Points

• घटना पुस्तिका (Logbook) का मुख्य उद्देश्य किसी संस्थान, कार्यालय या विशेष सेवा में होने वाली दैनिक गतिविधियों और महत्वपूर्ण घटनाओं का व्यवस्थित रिकॉर्ड रखना है।
• यह एक ऐसी पंजी होती है जिसमें समय और तिथि के अनुसार हर छोटी-बड़ी घटना को दर्ज किया जाता है ताकि भविष्य में उसकी समीक्षा की जा सके।
• इसका उपयोग प्रशासनिक पारदर्शिता और जवाबदेही सुनिश्चित करने के लिए किया जाता है।
• उदाहरण के लिए: किसी पुलिस स्टेशन की दैनिक डायरी में उस दिन की सभी शिकायतों, गश्त और अन्य कानूनी कार्रवाइयों को दर्ज किया जाता है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 घटना पुस्तिका के लाभ-

1. कानूनी साक्ष्य: यह कानूनी विवादों की स्थिति में एक प्रामाणिक दस्तावेज के रूप में कार्य करती है।
2. कार्य की निरंतरता: जब शिफ्ट बदलती है, तो आने वाले कर्मचारी पिछली घटनाओं को पढ़कर काम जारी रख सकते हैं।
3. सुरक्षा ऑडिट: सुरक्षा से संबंधित घटनाओं की पहचान और विश्लेषण करने में सहायक होती है।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है- एक निश्चित स्थान पर रहकर निगरानी करना

Key Points

• स्थैतिक ड्यूटी (Static Duty) का शाब्दिक अर्थ है ऐसी ड्यूटी जिसमें व्यक्ति को एक ही निश्चित या स्थिर स्थान पर तैनात किया जाता है।
• इस प्रकार की ड्यूटी में कर्मचारी या सुरक्षाकर्मी को किसी विशेष प्रवेश द्वार, भवन (Building), या महत्वपूर्ण प्रतिष्ठान की सुरक्षा की जिम्मेदारी दी जाती है।
• इसमें व्यक्ति को गश्त लगाने के बजाय अपनी पोस्ट (Post) पर रहकर आने-जाने वाले व्यक्तियों और गतिविधियों पर पैनी नजर रखनी होती है।
• उदाहरण के तौर पर: किसी बैंक के एटीएम (ATM) या मुख्य द्वार पर तैनात सुरक्षा गार्ड की ड्यूटी स्थैतिक ड्यूटी कहलाती है।

अन्य विकल्पों का विश्लेषण -

Important Points

सुरक्षा ड्यूटी के मुख्य प्रकार-

1. स्थैतिक सुरक्षा (Static Security): एक स्थान पर केंद्रित सुरक्षा व्यवस्था।
2. गश्ती दल (Patrolling Squad): मोबाइल वाहन या पैदल चलकर की जाने वाली निगरानी।
3. प्रवेश नियंत्रण (Access Control): केवल अधिकृत व्यक्तियों को ही अंदर आने देना।
4. खोजबीन (Frisking): सुरक्षा कारणों से व्यक्तियों या सामान की जांच करना।

Additional Information

सही उत्तर है- किसी स्थान में प्रवेश की अनुमति देना

Key Points

• प्रवेश प्राधिकरण (Entry Authority) का मुख्य कार्य किसी भी संस्थान, भवन या प्रतिबंधित क्षेत्र में व्यक्तियों या वाहनों के आगमन को नियंत्रित करना है।
• इसका उद्देश्य सुरक्षा व्यवस्था को बनाए रखना और यह सुनिश्चित करना है कि केवल वैध अनुमति प्राप्त व्यक्ति ही भीतर जा सकें।
• प्रवेश प्राधिकरण अक्सर पास जारी करने, आगंतुकों की पहचान सत्यापित करने और परिसर के नियमों का पालन सुनिश्चित करने के लिए उत्तरदायी होता है।
• प्रशासनिक दृष्टिकोण से, यह अभिगम नियंत्रण (Access Control) का एक हिस्सा है।

अन्य विकल्प -

Important Points 

 प्रशासनिक शब्दावली का महत्व-

1. प्राधिकरण (Authority): वह व्यक्ति या निकाय जिसके पास निर्णय लेने और आदेश देने की कानूनी शक्ति होती है।
2. प्रवेश (Entry): किसी स्थान के भीतर जाने की क्रिया या अधिकार।
3. अनुमति (Permission): किसी कार्य को करने की औपचारिक सहमति या आदेश।

Additional Information