SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 04 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

For 'HM' related to 'KN':

For 'XG' related to 'AT':

Applying the same logic to 'RD':

Thus, RD is related to UW.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

For the set (BS, DW, FA):

For the set (KD, MH, OL):

Applying the same logic to the clusters in Option 1 (NZ, PD, RH):

Thus, the group (NZ, PD, RH) follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

7 children P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. V is second to the right of R.
2. S and T are next to each other.
3. S is not the immediate neighbour of R or V.
4. Q is third to the left of P.
5. T is third to the right of U.
6. Q is the immediate neighbour of T.

R  is sitting fourth to the left of T.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

7 workers A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. B is the immediate neighbour of D and E.
2. C is second to the right of G.
3. F is to the immediate right of C.
4. A is third to the left of E.

E is sitting to the immediate right of F.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

For the numbers 5, 8, 9, and 10 →

The prime factors involved are 2, 3, and 5.

Highest power of 2 = 23 = 8

Highest power of 3 = 32 = 9

Highest power of 5 = 51 = 5

LCM calculation:

LCM = 8 × 9 × 5

LCM = 72 × 5

LCM = 360

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

40 students with an average score of 72 →

Total score = 40 × 72 = 2880

20 students with an average score of 78 →

Total score = 20 × 78 = 1560

let's find the combined average for all 60 students:

Total combined score = 2880 + 1560 = 4440

Total number of students = 40 + 20 = 60

Combined average score = 4440 ÷ 60 = 74

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

1. Ravi is younger than Sohan but older than Meena.

Sohan > Ravi > Meena.

2. Arjun is older than Ravi but younger than Karan.

Karan > Arjun > Ravi.

From the relationship Sohan > Ravi > Meena, we know that Sohan and Ravi are older than Meena.

From the second relationship,

Karan > Arjun > Ravi,

We know that Karan and Arjun are also older than Ravi.

Since Ravi is older than Meena, it follows that Meena is younger than Ravi, Sohan, Arjun, and Karan.

Therefore, Meena is the youngest person mentioned.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

logic followed here is,

22 + 13 = 35

35 + 16 = 51

51 + 19 = 70

70 + 22 = 92

92 + 25 = 117

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

16 × 2 = 32

32 × 2 = 64

64 × 2 = 128

128 × 2 = 256

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

AC300 : CG240 →

PK125 : RO65 → 

Similarly,

TV120 : ?  → 

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

UXY80 : UTQ120 →

LRP40 : LNH60 → 

TSK60 : ?  → 

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Dictionary order of given words:

3. Hunch
4. Hunger
5. Hunk 
6. Hunt
7. Hurl

Correct order is: 34215

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 4) + 6

For the first pair 527 : 2114

⇒ (527 × 4) + 6

⇒ 2108 + 6 = 2114.

Applying the same logic to the third pair

965 : 3866

⇒ (965 × 4) + 6

⇒ 3860 + 6 = 3866.

Similarly, for the second pair

408 : ?

⇒ (408 × 4) + 6

⇒ 1632 + 6 = 1638.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number − 278

For the first pair 398 : 120

⇒ 398 − 278 = 120

For the third pair 84 : −194

⇒ 84 − 278 = −194

Applying the same logic to the second pair

719 : ?

⇒ 719 − 278 = 441

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

BEGUN is coded as EHJXQ →

SIZED is coded as VLCHG →

Similarly,

let us find the code for BOULE →

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

DOTTY is coded as EPVWC →

CHIRP is coded as DIKUT →

Similarly,

let us find the code for FEELS:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is Part II.

Key Points

• Part II of the Indian Constitution comprises Articles 5 to 11, which govern the legal framework for Citizenship in India.
• These provisions specifically identified the persons who became citizens of India at the commencement of the Constitution on January 26, 1950, based on parameters like domicile, migration, and origin.
• Article 11 is a significant provision that empowers the Parliament of India to make any law regarding the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other related matters.
• Exercising this constitutional power, the Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act of 1955, which provides a comprehensive set of rules for citizenship after the initial constitutional phase.
• India adopts the principle of Single Citizenship, a concept borrowed from the British Constitution, which ensures that all citizens have the same rights across the entire nation, regardless of the state in which they reside.

 Additional Information

• Part I of the Constitution includes Articles 1 to 4 and deals with The Union and its Territory, outlining the territorial jurisdiction and the power to form or alter states.
• Part III encompasses Articles 12 to 35, which enumerate the Fundamental Rights, the basic civil liberties guaranteed to individuals to protect them from the arbitrary exercise of state power.
• Part IV contains Articles 36 to 51, representing the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are non-justiciable guidelines for the state to establish social and economic democracy and a Welfare State.
• The Citizenship Act, 1955 defines five ways to acquire citizenship: Birth, Descent, Registration, Naturalization, and Incorporation of Territory, while also providing for its loss through Renunciation, Termination, and Deprivation.

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

• According to Article 3 of the Constitution of India, the power to form new states and alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing states is vested solely in the Union Parliament.
• This authority allows Parliament to increase the area of any state, diminish the area of any state, or change the name of any state through a simple legislative process that does not require a complex constitutional amendment.
• A bill for the reorganization of states can be introduced in either House of Parliament (the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha) only after receiving the prior recommendation of the President.
• Before making such a recommendation, the President must refer the bill to the concerned State Legislature to express its views within a specified timeframe, although these views are not binding on the Union Parliament.
• The Parliament can proceed to pass the bill by a simple majority of the members present and voting, reflecting the unitary bias of the Indian federal system regarding territorial integrity.

 Additional Information

• Article 2 and Article 4
• Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit or establish new states into the Union of India that were not previously part of its territory.
• Article 4 clarifies that laws made under Article 2 and Article 3 are not to be considered amendments to the Constitution under Article 368, ensuring the process remains flexible.
• Role of Other Entities
• President of India: Acts as a facilitator by providing the mandatory prior recommendation for the bill but does not possess the legislative power to alter boundaries independently.
• State Legislature: Its role is strictly consultative; it cannot block the Parliament from redrawing boundaries even if it disagrees with the proposal.
• Supreme Court: While the Judiciary can exercise judicial review over the legality of the process, it has no power to create states or define territorial limits.
• Indestructible Union
• India is often described as an indestructible Union of destructible states because the Parliament can change the political map of the country at its discretion without the consent of the states.

The correct answer is Krishna.

Key Points

• Manipuri Dance, also known as Jagoi, is one of the eight major Indian classical dance forms, originating from the northeastern state of Manipur.
• While the dance form has ancient roots in the pre-Hindu festival of Lai Haraoba, its classical identity is predominantly centered on Vaishnavism, which focuses on the devotion to Lord Krishna.
• The most significant theme in the Manipuri repertoire is the Raslila, a divine dance-drama that depicts the eternal love and spiritual connection between Radha and Krishna.
• The performance is characterized by its Lasya style, emphasizing gentle, fluid, and circular movements that reflect a meditative and devotional state (Bhakti) rather than dramatic or aggressive posturing.

 Additional Information

• Historical Context:
• The formalization of the Vaishnavite Manipuri dance is largely attributed to King Bhagyachandra (reigned 1763−1798), who codified the Raslila after having a spiritual vision of Krishna.
• He introduced the unique Kumil costume, a stiff, barrel-shaped skirt decorated with gold and silver embroidery and mirrors, designed to hide the dancer's leg movements and create a gliding effect.
• Role of Shiva and Other Deities:
• Shiva is worshipped in the ancient Lai Haraoba tradition as Nongpok Ningthou, alongside Parvati (Panthoibi), representing the older indigenous beliefs of the Meitei people.
• Despite these older roots, the classical form recognized today focuses almost exclusively on the life of Krishna as narrated in the Bhagavata Purana and the Gita Govinda by Jayadeva.
• Rhythmic Elements:
• The Pung (a traditional drum) is central to the dance; the Pung Cholom is a masculine performance where dancers play the drum while performing acrobatic jumps and turns.

The correct answer is Fast and energetic beats.

Key Points

• Bhangra is a vibrant and high-energy folk music and dance form that originated in the Majha region of Punjab (encompassing parts of modern-day India and Pakistan).
• The most defining characteristic of the music is its rhythmic drive, primarily dictated by the Dhol, a large, double-headed barrel drum played with two wooden sticks.
• The music follows a specific rhythmic pattern called the Chaal, which consists of eight beats in a 4/4 time signature, creating the fast and energetic beats synonymous with the genre.
• Historically, Bhangra was performed by Punjabi farmers to celebrate the Vaisakhi festival, marking the successful harvest of the Rabi crops.
• It is characterized by its high-pitched vocals (often involving Boliyan or short couplets) and a tempo that typically ranges from 140 to 180 beats per minute (BPM).

 Additional Information

• Traditional Instruments:
• Tumbi: A single-stringed instrument that provides a distinctive high-pitched melodic hook.
• Chimta: A percussion instrument shaped like tongs with small brass jingles attached, used to maintain the tempo.
• Algoza: A pair of joined woodwind flutes played by a single musician to provide a continuous melodic drone.
• Global Evolution:
• In the late 20^th century, particularly during the 1970s and 1980s, the British Punjabi diaspora in cities like Southall and Birmingham fused traditional Bhangra with Western genres like Hip-hop, Reggae, and House.
• This modernization led to the creation of Modern Bhangra, which utilizes synthesizers, drum machines, and electronic sampling.
• Cultural Impact:
• The dance associated with the music involves vigorous aerobic movements, high leg kicks, and constant arm raised positions, reflecting the joyful and celebratory nature of the Punjabi culture.

The correct answer is 2006.

Key Points

• The Jaipur Literature Festival (JLF), frequently described as the 'greatest literary show on Earth', held its very first edition in the year 2006.
• It was co-founded by acclaimed writers Namita Gokhale and William Dalrymple with the vision of creating a democratic and inclusive platform for literary exchange.
• The inaugural event in 2006 was a modest gathering that featured approximately 18 writers, including notable figures like Hari Kunzru and Shobhaa De, and attracted a small audience of a few hundred people.
• The festival is traditionally hosted at the historic Diggi Palace Hotel in the heart of Jaipur, the capital city of Rajasthan, providing a majestic backdrop for intellectual discourse.

 Additional Information

• Organizational Structure:
• The festival is produced by Teamwork Arts, led by Managing Director Sanjoy K. Roy, which oversees the massive logistics of the international event.
• It has grown into the world's largest free literary festival, though it now offers delegate packages for enhanced access.
• Global Footprint:
• Following its success in India, the festival has expanded globally with satellite editions in locations such as London (British Library), Boulder (Colorado), Adelaide, and Doha.
• It hosts a wide array of speakers, including Nobel laureates, Booker Prize winners, and Sahitya Akademi awardees, covering themes from artificial intelligence to ancient history.

The correct answer is Ganga.

Key Points

• The Ganga river basin is the largest in India, encompassing a total catchment area of approximately 8,61,452 sq. km within the country's borders.
• It covers nearly 26.3 percent of the total geographical area of India, extending across the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, and the Union Territory of Delhi.
• The river originates as the Bhagirathi from the Gangotri Glacier at Gaumukh and acquires the name Ganga after meeting the Alaknanda at Devprayag.
• Its massive catchment is fed by major perennial and non-perennial tributaries, including the Yamuna, Son, Ramganga, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi, and Mahananda.

 Additional Information

• Godavari:
• Commonly known as the Dakshina Ganga, it is the largest river of Peninsular India.
• Its catchment area is about 3,12,812 sq. km, which is the second-largest in the country after the Ganga.
• Brahmaputra:
• Although it is a massive transboundary river, its catchment area within India is approximately 1,94,413 sq. km, primarily covering Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
• It originates from the Chemayungdung Glacier of the Kailas Range near Mansarovar Lake.
• Narmada:
• It is the largest west-flowing river in Peninsular India, originating from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh.
• Its drainage basin covers roughly 98,796 sq. km, flowing through a rift valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges.

The correct answer is Convergent boundary.

Key Points

• The Himalayas were formed as a result of the collision between the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
• This tectonic interaction began approximately 40 to 50 million years ago during the Cenozoic Era, leading to the closure of the Tethys Ocean that once existed between the two landmasses.
• A convergent boundary occurs where two tectonic plates move toward each other. In the case of the Himalayas, it is specifically a continent-continent collision.
• Because both continental plates have relatively low density, neither could be easily subducted into the mantle. This caused the crust to thicken and fold upward, creating the world's highest mountain range.
• The process is still ongoing today, as the Indian Plate continues to move northwards at a rate of about 5 cm per year, causing the Himalayas to rise and making the region highly seismically active.

 Additional Information

• Divergent Boundary:
• Characterized by plates moving away from each other.
• Leads to the formation of mid-oceanic ridges and rift valleys, such as the Great Rift Valley in Africa.
• Transform Boundary:
• Involves plates sliding horizontally past one another.
• The San Andreas Fault is a prime example, where crust is neither created nor destroyed, but significant earthquake activity occurs.
• Hotspot Boundary:
• Technically not a boundary but a volcanic area located above a mantle plume.
• Responsible for the formation of island chains like Hawaii and geological features like the Deccan Traps in India.
• Fold Mountains:
• The Himalayas are classified as young fold mountains, distinguished by their rugged relief and high conical peaks.

The correct answer is Venus has a slower rotation than revolution.

Key Points

• Venus takes approximately 243 Earth days to complete a single rotation on its axis, making it the slowest rotating planet in our Solar System.
• The planet completes one revolution or orbit around the Sun in about 225 Earth days.
• Because the time taken to rotate (sidereal day) is longer than the time taken to orbit (orbital period), a day on Venus is technically longer than its year.
• This unusually slow rotation is theorized to be the result of solar tidal torques acting on the planet's thick atmosphere, which gradually decelerated its spin over billions of years.
• Venus is nearly a perfect sphere and has a very small axial tilt of about 3 degrees, meaning it does not experience significant seasonal variations like Earth.

 Additional Information

• Retrograde Rotation:
• Venus exhibits retrograde motion, meaning it rotates in the opposite direction (clockwise) compared to most other planets (counter-clockwise).
• This results in the Sun rising in the West and setting in the East.
• Solar Day vs. Sidereal Day:
• While the sidereal day is 243 Earth days, the solar day (the time from one sunrise to the next) is only 117 Earth days due to the combination of its retrograde spin and orbital path.
• Atmospheric Pressure:
• The surface of Venus is characterized by an extreme greenhouse effect and a surface pressure 92 times that of Earth, roughly equivalent to the pressure 1,000 meters underwater.

The correct answer is Nagina Masjid.

Key Points

• The Nagina Masjid, also known as the Gem Mosque or Jewel Mosque, is a beautiful structure located within the northwestern corner of the Machchi Bhawan inside the Agra Fort complex.
• It was commissioned by the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan and was constructed between 1631 and 1640 AD using high-quality white marble.
• The mosque was specifically built for the secluded use of the royal ladies of the Mughal court, allowing them to offer prayers in private.
• Architecturally, it is a modest but elegant structure featuring a prayer hall with three bulbous domes and a three-arched facade.
• It overlooks the Meena Bazar, a specialized marketplace where royal women could view and purchase luxury items from the mosque's balcony without being seen by the public.
• The mosque is built on a raised platform and includes a small paved courtyard for worshippers.

 Additional Information

• Moti Masjid:
• Commonly known as the Pearl Mosque, it was built by Shah Jahan between 1648 and 1654 inside the Agra Fort.
• It was intended for the members of the Royal Court and is noted for its flawless Makrana marble construction.
• Mina Masjid:
• This is a very small, simple mosque located near the Khas Mahal in Agra Fort, also built by Shah Jahan.
• It is believed to have been used as a private chapel by the Emperor during his house arrest in the fort.
• Jama Masjid:
• The Jama Masjid of Agra is situated opposite the Agra Fort and was built by Jahanara Begum, the eldest daughter of Shah Jahan, in 1648.
• It is one of the largest mosques in India and is distinguished by its red sandstone construction and zigzag marble patterns on the domes.
• Agra Fort:
• Recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, it was the primary residence of the Mughal Emperors until 1638, when the capital was shifted to Delhi.

The correct answer is Uranus.

Key Points

• Uranus possesses a highly unusual and irregular magnetosphere. Unlike most planets where the magnetic field is roughly aligned with the rotation, Uranus's magnetic axis is tilted at an extreme angle of 59 degrees relative to its rotational axis.
• The magnetic field of Uranus is not generated from its geometric center; instead, it is offset by approximately one-third of the planetary radius (about 8,000 kilometers).
• This asymmetric magnetic field leads to a complex, twisting magnetotail that spirals behind the planet as it orbits the Sun.
• Data regarding these unique characteristics were primarily captured by the Voyager 2 spacecraft during its historic flyby in January 1986.
• Scientists believe this offset field is produced by motion within a conducting layer of salty, pressurized fluid (an 'icy' mantle of water, methane, and ammonia) rather than in a deep metallic core.

 Additional Information

• The magnetic field configurations of other planets differ significantly:
• Earth: The magnetic field is roughly dipolar and tilted at a modest angle of approximately 11 degrees from its rotational axis.
• Jupiter: It has the strongest magnetic field of any planet, tilted about 10 degrees from its axis of rotation and slightly offset from the center.
• Saturn: It is unique for having a magnetic field almost perfectly aligned with its rotational axis, with a tilt of less than 1 degree.
• Neptune: Similar to Uranus, Neptune also has a highly tilted (47 degrees) and offset magnetic field, likely due to similar internal fluid dynamics.

The correct answer is Three 3-min rounds.

Key Points

• Standard Olympic boxing matches for men consist of three rounds, with each round lasting exactly three minutes.
• A one-minute rest interval is provided between each round, allowing boxers to recover and receive instructions from their coaches.
• The bouts are scored using the 10-point must system, where five judges evaluate the performance based on the number of quality blows landed, technical superiority, and competitiveness.
• The International Olympic Committee (IOC) oversees the regulations for these events, ensuring that the high-intensity nature of amateur boxing is maintained within this time frame.
• The match can end before the completion of the three rounds if the referee stops the contest (RSC), a boxer is knocked out (KO), or through disqualification.

 Additional Information

• Women's Olympic Boxing:
• Historically, women's bouts consisted of four rounds lasting two minutes each, though rules have seen adjustments to align more closely with male standards in various international competitions.
• Equipment and Safety:
• Since the 2016 Rio Olympics, male boxers no longer wear headguards, whereas they remain mandatory for female boxers.
• Boxers use specific gloves weight (typically 10oz or 12oz) depending on the weight category to ensure safety.
• Professional vs. Amateur:
• While Olympic (amateur) boxing focuses on speed and technique over three rounds, professional boxing matches can last up to 12 rounds for championship titles.

The correct answer is 22.

Key Points

• India achieved its most successful performance in the sport of shooting at the 19^th Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China, in 2023.
• The Indian shooting contingent secured a total of 22 medals, comprising 7 gold, 9 silver, and 6 bronze medals, marking a historic milestone for the country in this discipline.
• This performance shattered India's previous best shooting medal haul at the Asian Games, which was 14 medals achieved during the 2006 Doha Games.
• The shooting events contributed the highest number of gold medals to India's overall tally during the early phase of the competition, helping the nation cross the 100-medal threshold for the first time.
• Individual brilliance was seen from shooters like Sift Kaur Samra, who won gold in the women's 50m rifle 3 positions, and Palak Gulia, who clinched gold in the women's 10m air pistol event.

 Additional Information

• The 19^th Asian Games were rescheduled from 2022 to September 23 to October 8, 2023, and featured 40 sports with athletes from 45 nations.
• Shooting Highlights:
• World Records: Indian shooters set multiple records, including a world record score of 1893.7 by the Men's 10m Air Rifle Team (Rudrankksh Patil, Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar, and Divyansh Singh Panwar).
• Sift Kaur Samra created a new World Record in the individual 50m Rifle 3 Positions final with a score of 469.6.
• Multi-medalists: Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar emerged as one of the most successful athletes, winning 4 medals in total across team and individual events.
• Overall India Performance:
• India finished in fourth place in the overall medal standings, behind China, Japan, and South Korea.
• The final medal count for India was 107 (28 gold, 38 silver, and 41 bronze), which is their highest-ever tally in the history of the Asian Games.

The correct answer is Connective tissue.

Key Points

• Blood is a specialized type of fluid connective tissue that plays a vital role in maintaining the body internal environment by circulating through the cardiovascular system.
• Biologically, it is classified as a connective tissue because it originates from the embryonic mesoderm, just like other connective tissues such as bone and cartilage.
• It consists of a straw-colored liquid extracellular matrix known as plasma, which constitutes nearly 55% of the total blood volume, and formed elements making up the remaining 45%.
• The formed elements are comprised of three main types of cells: Erythrocytes (Red Blood Cells) for oxygen transport, Leukocytes (White Blood Cells) for immune defense, and Thrombocytes (Platelets) for blood clotting.
• A unique characteristic of blood compared to other connective tissues is that its matrix is fluid and it lacks structural fibers like collagen or elastin under normal physiological conditions; however, fibrin fibers are formed during the process of coagulation.
• The primary functions of blood include the transport of metabolic wastes to the kidneys, delivery of hormones to target organs, and the regulation of body temperature and pH levels.

 Additional Information

• Epithelial tissue:
• Forms the outer covering of the body and the lining of internal organs and cavities.
• Cells are tightly packed with minimal intercellular space and rest on a basement membrane.
• Muscular tissue:
• Comprised of elongated cells called muscle fibers that contain contractile proteins like actin and myosin.
• It is divided into three types: skeletal (voluntary), smooth (involuntary), and cardiac (heart muscle).
• Nervous tissue:
• Specialized for the conduction of electrical impulses throughout the body to coordinate functions.
• Main components include neurons (nerve cells) and neuroglial cells which provide support and insulation.

The correct answer is Pollen tube growing towards ovule.

Key Points

• Chemotropism is a biological phenomenon where the growth or movement of a plant part occurs in response to a chemical stimulus.
• In flowering plants, the growth of the pollen tube towards the ovule is a classic example of positive chemotropism.
• When a pollen grain lands on the stigma, it germinates to form a tube that travels through the style.
• The ovule secretes certain chemical substances (such as sugars or specific proteins) that act as attractants, guiding the pollen tube directly to the embryo sac for fertilization.
• This directional growth ensures that the male gametes reach the female gamete (egg cell) efficiently within the ovary.

 Additional Information

• Phototropism:
• It involves the bending of plant shoots towards a light source.
• The hormone Auxin facilitates this by promoting cell elongation on the shaded side of the stem.
• Geotropism (Gravitropism):
• This is the growth of plant parts in response to gravity.
• Roots typically exhibit positive geotropism by growing downwards into the soil, while shoots show negative geotropism.
• Thigmonasty:
• This is a non-directional movement triggered by touch, famously seen in the Mimosa pudica (Touch-me-not) plant.
• Unlike tropisms, which are growth-related, this movement is caused by rapid turgor pressure changes in specialized cells called the pulvinus.

The correct answer is Forest conservation.

Key Points

• The Chipko Movement was a transformative environmental uprising that began in the early 1970s in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand (formerly part of Uttar Pradesh) to protest against large-scale deforestation.
• The movement is famously named after the Hindi word Chipko, which means to hug or to cling, as the protesters would physically embrace trees to prevent loggers from cutting them down.
• It was primarily a non-violent struggle led by rural villagers, particularly women, who depended on the forests for their basic needs like fodder, fuel, and water.
• The first major protest occurred in 1973 in Mandal village of the Alaknanda Valley, eventually spreading throughout the Himalayan region and influencing environmental policies across India.

 Additional Information

• Key Figures of the Movement:
• Sunderlal Bahuguna: An eminent environmentalist who gave the movement a proper direction and coined the famous slogan Ecology is permanent economy. He undertook a 5,000-kilometer trans-Himalaya march to spread awareness.
• Gaura Devi: A courageous peasant woman who led the mobilization of women in Reni village in 1974, successfully forcing the contractors to retreat.
• Chandi Prasad Bhatt: A social activist and pioneer of the movement who founded the Dasholi Gram Swarajya Sangh (DGSS), which became a breeding ground for the struggle.
• Impact:
• The movement led to a significant victory in 1980 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhi enacted a 15-year ban on commercial tree felling in the Himalayan forests of Uttar Pradesh.
• It inspired several other movements, most notably the Appiko Movement in Karnataka (1983), which focused on protecting the Western Ghats.

The correct answer is 2027.

Key Points

• The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the One Nation One Subscription (ONOS) scheme in November 2024 to provide unified access to scientific journals.
• The scheme is a Central Sector Scheme designed to benefit students, faculty, and researchers across all government-funded Higher Educational Institutions and Research and Development laboratories.
• The government has allocated a total financial outlay of Rs. 6,069 crore to support the implementation of this massive digital resource initiative.
• The approved duration for this phase of the One Nation One Subscription initiative spans three calendar years, beginning on 1^st January 2025 and concluding on 31^st December 2027.
• This initiative aims to eliminate the disparity in access to scientific knowledge between premier institutions like IITs and smaller regional universities by providing a national-level subscription.

 Additional Information

• Operational Framework:
• The Ministry of Education will serve as the nodal ministry, with the Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) Centre acting as the primary executing agency.
• The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) will also play a role in periodic reviews and impact assessment of the scheme.
• Scope and Reach:
• The program will provide access to nearly 13,000 international journals and a vast array of conference proceedings and databases from global publishers.
• It is expected to benefit over 1.8 crore students and researchers, significantly boosting India’s Global Innovation Index ranking.
• The One Nation One Subscription model is a key pillar of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, focusing on the democratization of research tools.

The correct answer is Cotton.

Key Points

• The British colonial administration followed a policy of commercialization of agriculture in India to transform the country into a supplier of raw materials for British industries.
• The Deccan Plateau, encompassing large parts of Maharashtra, was specifically targeted for Cotton production because of its fertile Black Soil (also known as Regur Soil), which is ideal for moisture retention and cotton growth.
• The Industrial Revolution in Britain, particularly the growth of the textile industry in Manchester and Lancashire, created a massive demand for cheap, high-quality raw cotton.
• The American Civil War (1861−1865) disrupted cotton supplies from the United States to Britain, leading the British to forcefully expand cotton cultivation in the Bombay Presidency and Maharashtra to fill the supply gap.
• Peasants were coerced into growing these cash crops instead of food grains through the imposition of high land revenue under the Ryotwari System, forcing them to borrow from moneylenders and enter a cycle of chronic indebtedness.

 Additional Information

• The British forced different regions to specialize in specific crops:
• Tea: Cultivation was heavily promoted in Assam and the hills of Darjeeling through the plantation system.
• Jute: Peasants in Bengal were forced to produce jute to meet the global demand for gunny bags and packaging materials.
• Indigo: Primarily cultivated in Bengal and Bihar, which eventually led to the Indigo Revolt of 1859.
• Sugarcane: The United Provinces (present-day Uttar Pradesh) was the primary center for sugarcane production.
• Wheat: Cultivation was encouraged in Punjab to ensure food security for the British army and for export to Europe.
• The forced cultivation of cash crops over food crops often resulted in severe famines and agrarian unrest, such as the Deccan Riots of 1875 in Maharashtra.

The correct answer is 1893.

Key Points

• The first World’s Parliament of Religions was held from September 11 to September 27, 1893, in Chicago, Illinois, United States.
• It was organized as part of the World’s Columbian Exposition, an international fair commemorating the 400^th anniversary of Christopher Columbus’s arrival in the New World in 1492.
• This event was a landmark moment in global history, representing the first formal attempt to create a global dialogue between the faiths of the East and the West, including Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, and Islam.
• Swami Vivekananda, representing Hinduism and India, delivered a historic speech on the opening day, September 11, 1893, which began with the iconic greeting, 'Sisters and brothers of America!'.
• The parliament aimed to find common ground between different religions and promote universal tolerance, which significantly influenced the modern Interfaith movement.

 Additional Information

• Foundational Context and Organizers:
• The parliament was the brainchild of Charles Carroll Bonney, a prominent lawyer and Swedenborgian layman, who served as the president of the World’s Congress Auxiliary.
• The meetings were held at the Permanent Memorial Art Palace, which today serves as the world-renowned Art Institute of Chicago.
• Apart from Vivekananda, other significant participants included Virchand Gandhi, who represented Jainism, and Anagarika Dharmapala, who represented Theravada Buddhism.
• The event played a pivotal role in introducing Eastern philosophies, particularly Yoga and Vedanta, to the Western audience, sparking widespread interest in Indian spirituality.
• In 2012, the site of the speech was renamed Swami Vivekananda Way to honor his contribution to religious harmony and his role in the 1893 assembly.

The correct answer is P. V. Sindhu.

Key Points

• Pusarla Venkata Sindhu scripted history at the 2016 Rio Olympics by becoming the first Indian woman to win an Olympic silver medal.
• She reached the final of the women singles badminton event after defeating high-ranked players like Wang Yihan and Nozomi Okuhara, eventually losing to Carolina Marin of Spain in a competitive three-set match.
• With this achievement, she surpassed the previous best Olympic performance by an Indian female shuttler, Saina Nehwal, who won a bronze medal at the 2012 London Olympics.
• Sindhu later became the first Indian woman to win two individual Olympic medals after securing a bronze medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics (held in 2021).
• For her extraordinary contributions to sports, she has been honored with India's highest sporting honor, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna (2016), and the Padma Bhushan (2020), the third-highest civilian award.

 Additional Information

• Dipa Karmakar:
• She is a pioneer in Indian gymnastics and became the first female gymnast from India to compete in the Olympics.
• At the 2016 Rio Olympics, she finished in fourth place in the women vault event, narrowly missing a medal while performing the difficult Produnova vault.
• Sania Mirza:
• A world-renowned tennis player, she reached the No. 1 ranking in the WTA doubles category.
• She has won six Grand Slam titles (three in women doubles and three in mixed doubles) and reached the semi-finals of the mixed doubles event at the 2016 Rio Olympics.
• Aanchal Thakur:
• She is an alpine skier from Manali, Himachal Pradesh, who made history in 2018.
• She became the first Indian to win a medal (Bronze) in an international skiing competition at the FIS Alpine Alpine Slalom championship held in Turkey.
• Karnam Malleswari:
• Though not in the options, she was the first Indian woman ever to win an Olympic medal, securing Bronze in weightlifting at the 2000 Sydney Olympics.

The correct answer is Ministry of Commerce & Industry.

Key Points

• The Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) 2024 report was released by the Union Ministry of Commerce & Industry to evaluate the efficiency of the logistics ecosystem across India.
• The report is prepared by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), providing a comprehensive assessment based on both perception and objective data from stakeholders.
• The primary objective of LEADS is to foster competitive federalism, encouraging states and Union Territories to improve their infrastructure and regulatory frameworks to reduce overall logistics costs.
• The 2024 edition marks the sixth version of this indigenous index, which was first introduced in 2018 to track progress in the logistics sector.
• This initiative is a critical component of the National Logistics Policy (NLP) and the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan, aiming to streamline multi-modal transport and supply chain management.

 Additional Information

• Performance Categorization:
• Achievers: States and Union Territories that demonstrate exceptional performance and efficient logistics ecosystems.
• Fast Movers: States that have initiated significant reforms and are showing rapid improvement in their logistics indicators.
• Aspirers: Regions that are in the early stages of developing modern logistics infrastructure and streamlining processes.
• Three Core Pillars of Assessment:
• Logistics Infrastructure: Evaluates the quality and availability of road networks, rail connectivity, warehousing, and air cargo facilities.
• Logistics Services: Focuses on the efficiency and reliability of transport providers, terminal operators, and value-added services.
• Operating and Regulatory Environment: Assesses the ease of obtaining permits, the impact of government facilitation, and the degree of digitalization in logistics processes.
• The LEADS report acts as a feedback mechanism for the government to identify bottlenecks and implement targeted interventions, such as the Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP), to enhance trade competitiveness.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the expression using the BODMAS rule by prioritising the bracket and multiplication.

73 + 88 − 64 + (62) × 2 − 99

161 − 64 + 124 − 99 = 122

∴ The correct answer is 122.

Alternate Method

Given: 73 + 88 − 64 + (47 + 15) × 2 − 99

Method Used: BODMAS Rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

⇒ 73 + 88 − 64 + (62) × 2 − 99

⇒ 73 + 88 − 64 + 124 − 99

⇒ (73 + 88 + 124) − (64 + 99)

⇒ 285 − 163

⇒ 122

∴ The correct answer is 122.

Additional Information

VBODMAS Rule

The acronym VBODMAS helps remember the order: Vinculum (Bar), Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Types of Brackets

Solve brackets in this specific order: Bar/Vinculum → Small Brackets ( ) → Curly Brackets { } → Square Brackets [ ].

Left to Right Rule

For operations of the same priority (like Addition/Subtraction or Multiplication/Division), always calculate from left to right.

Shortcut Trick

Apply BODMAS: Solve Of (33 × 1 = 33) and Division (26 ÷ 2 = 13) first.

Expression becomes: 63 + 41 − 29 + 33 − 18 + 13.

Combine positive terms: 63 + 41 + 33 + 13 = 150.

Combine negative terms: 29 + 18 = 47.

Subtract: 150 − 47 = 103.

∴ The correct answer is 103.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 63 + 41 − 29 + (33 of 1) − 18 + 26 ÷ 2

Using the BODMAS rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):

⇒ 63 + 41 − 29 + (33 × 1) − 18 + 26 ÷ 2

⇒ 63 + 41 − 29 + 33 − 18 + 26 ÷ 2 (Solving Of)

⇒ 63 + 41 − 29 + 33 − 18 + 13 (Solving Division)

⇒ 104 − 29 + 33 − 18 + 13 (Solving Addition from left)

⇒ 75 + 33 − 18 + 13 (Solving Subtraction)

⇒ 108 − 18 + 13

⇒ 90 + 13

⇒ 103

∴ The correct answer is 103.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It defines the order of operations: Brackets (), Of (multiplication priority), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Priority of Of

The Of operator is essentially a multiplication but must be evaluated before Division and Multiplication according to the hierarchy.

Sign Management

Grouping all positive integers together and all negative integers together can simplify long chains of Addition and Subtraction to prevent errors.

Shortcut Trick

Convert the given fractions into decimal values for faster comparison.

Target Range: 1/4 = 0.25 and 3/4 = 0.75.

Option (1): 7/11 ≈ 0.63 (Lies between 0.25 and 0.75).

Other options: 11/13 ≈ 0.84, 9/11 ≈ 0.81, 15/17 ≈ 0.88 (All > 0.75).

∴ The correct answer is 7/11.

Alternate Method

Given:

Lower limit fraction = 1/4

Upper limit fraction = 3/4

Formula Used:

To check if fraction x lies between a and b, the condition is: a < x < b.

Calculations:

⇒ Boundary 1 = 1 ÷ 4 = 0.25

⇒ Boundary 2 = 3 ÷ 4 = 0.75

⇒ Checking Option 1: 7 ÷ 11 = 0.6363... (0.25 < 0.636 < 0.75) → Valid

⇒ Checking Option 2: 11 ÷ 13 = 0.846... (0.846 > 0.75) → Invalid

⇒ Checking Option 3: 9 ÷ 11 = 0.818... (0.818 > 0.75) → Invalid

⇒ Checking Option 4: 15 ÷ 17 = 0.882... (0.882 > 0.75) → Invalid

∴ The correct answer is 7/11.

Additional Information

Comparing Fractions (Cross-Multiplication)

To compare a/b and c/d, check the products (a × d) and (b × c). If ad > bc, then a c/d.

Density Property of Rational Numbers

Between any two rational numbers, there are infinitely many other rational numbers. A simple way to find one is by taking the average: (a + b) ÷ 2.

Decimal Conversion Shortcut

Memorizing common fraction-to-decimal values (like 1/11 ≈ 0.09, 1/13 ≈ 0.077) helps in solving comparison questions within seconds.

Shortcut Trick

The given expression follows the Algebraic Identity: (a + b)² − 4ab = (a − b)².

Here, let a = 9.8 and b = 1.8.

Applying the identity: (9.8 − 1.8)² = 8².

Result = 64.

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Alternate Method

Given: (9.8 + 1.8)² − 4 × 9.8 × 1.8

Method: Direct Calculation using BODMAS and Squares.

⇒ Step 1: Solve the bracket (9.8 + 1.8) = 11.6

⇒ Step 2: Calculate the Square of 11.6 → 11.6 × 11.6 = 134.56

⇒ Step 3: Calculate the product 4 × 9.8 × 1.8

⇒ 4 × 17.64 = 70.56

⇒ Step 4: Subtract the values: 134.56 − 70.56 = 64

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Additional Information

Fundamental Algebraic Identities

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² and (a − b)² = a² − 2ab + b².

Relationship between Identities

(a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab, which can be rearranged as (a + b)² − 4ab = (a − b)².

Difference of Squares

a² − b² = (a − b)(a + b). This is useful for simplification of large products.

Shortcut Trick

Use the Area formula: Area = (1/2) × d₁ × d₂ ⇒ 336 = (1/2) × 14 × d₂ ⇒ d₂ = 48 cm.

Apply Pythagorean triplet (7, 24, 25) for the right triangle formed by half-diagonals: Side (a) = 25 cm.

Perimeter = 4 × side = 4 × 25 = 100 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 100 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Area of rhombus = 336 cm² and diagonal d₁ = 14 cm.

Formula Used:

1. Area = (1/2) × d₁ × d₂

2. Side (a) = √[(d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)²]

3. Perimeter = 4 × a

Calculations:

⇒ 336 = (1/2) × 14 × d₂

⇒ 336 = 7 × d₂

⇒ d₂ = 336 ÷ 7 = 48 cm

⇒ Half of diagonals: d₁/2 = 7 cm and d₂/2 = 24 cm

⇒ Side (a) = √[7² + 24²]

⇒ a = √[49 + 576] = √625 = 25 cm

⇒ Perimeter = 4 × 25 = 100 cm

∴ The correct answer is 100 cm.

Additional Information

Properties of a Rhombus

All four sides are equal, and the diagonals bisect each other at right angles (90°).

Relation between Sides and Diagonals

The side 'a' and diagonals 'd₁' and 'd₂' follow the relation: 4a² = d₁² + d₂².

Common Pythagorean Triplets

Triplets like (7, 24, 25), (5, 12, 13), and (8, 15, 17) are frequently used in geometry problems involving right-angled triangles.

Shortcut Trick

In a parallelogram, the sum of adjacent angles is always 180°.

Given ratio = 4 : 5

Total units = 4 + 5 = 9 units

9 units = 180° ⇒ 1 unit = 20°

Larger angle = 5 units = 5 × 20° = 100°

∴ The correct answer is 100°.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of adjacent angles = 4 : 5

Formula Used:

The adjacent angles of a parallelogram are supplementary (sum = 180°).

Calculations:

⇒ Let the measures of the adjacent angles be 4x and 5x.

⇒ 4x + 5x = 180°

⇒ 9x = 180°

⇒ x = 180° ÷ 9

⇒ x = 20°

⇒ Larger angle = 5x = 5 × 20° = 100°

⇒ Smaller angle = 4x = 4 × 20° = 80°

∴ The correct answer is 100°.

Additional Information

Properties of Parallelogram

Opposite angles are always equal, and the sum of all interior angles is 360°.

Consecutive Interior Angles

When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, consecutive interior angles (like adjacent angles in a parallelogram) are supplementary.

Diagonals of a Parallelogram

The diagonals bisect each other but are not necessarily equal in length unless the figure is a rectangle.

Shortcut Trick

Numbers 11 and 30 are co-prime (no common factors except 1).

For co-prime numbers, HCF (Y) = 1 and LCM (X) = Product of the numbers.

X = 11 × 30 = 330 and Y = 1.

Value = X − 2Y = 330 − 2(1) = 328.

∴ The correct answer is 328.

Alternate Method

Given: First number = 11, Second number = 30.

Formula Used: X = LCM (Least Common Multiple) and Y = HCF (Highest Common Factor).

⇒ Prime factorization of 11 = 11¹

⇒ Prime factorization of 30 = 2¹ × 3¹ × 5¹

⇒ Highest Common Factor (Y) = Product of common prime factors with lowest power = 1.

⇒ Least Common Multiple (X) = Product of all prime factors with highest power = 11 × 2 × 3 × 5 = 330.

⇒ Required calculation: X − 2Y

⇒ 330 − 2 × 1 = 330 − 2 = 328.

∴ The correct answer is 328.

Additional Information

Fundamental Relation

For any two positive integers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are called co-prime if their HCF is 1. The LCM of co-prime numbers is always equal to their product.

LCM of Fractions

The LCM of fractions is calculated as: LCM of numerators ÷ HCF of denominators.

Shortcut Trick

The Ratio of the two numbers is 9 : 4 and their Highest Common Factor (HCF) is 7.

Total ratio units = 9 + 4 = 13 units.

Since the HCF represents the value of 1 ratio unit, then 1 unit = 7.

Sum of the numbers = 13 units × 7 = 91.

∴ The correct answer is 91.

Alternate Method

Given:

HCF = 7

LCM = 252

Ratio of numbers = 9 : 4

Formula Used:

If ratio is a : b and HCF is x, then the numbers are ax and bx.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the two numbers be 9x and 4x.

⇒ Their HCF is x (as 9 and 4 are coprime).

⇒ Given HCF = 7, so x = 7.

⇒ Verify with LCM: LCM(9x, 4x) = 9 × 4 × x = 36 × 7 = 252 (Matches given LCM).

⇒ First number = 9 × 7 = 63

⇒ Second number = 4 × 7 = 28

⇒ Sum = 63 + 28 = 91.

∴ The correct answer is 91.

Additional Information

Product of Two Numbers

The product of two numbers is always equal to the product of their HCF and LCM. Formula: n₁ × n₂ = HCF × LCM.

LCM and HCF Relationship

LCM is always a multiple of HCF. If the ratio of two numbers is a : b, then LCM = HCF × a × b (where a and b are coprime).

Difference of Numbers

The difference between the two numbers in ratio a : b with HCF x is given by (a − b) × x.

Shortcut Trick

Required Value = (100 − 60)% of (50% of 600)

⇒ 40% × (50% × 600)

⇒ 0.4 × 300 = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Alternate Method

Given:

Base Number = 600

First Step: Find 50% of the number.

Second Step: Find the number which is 60% less than the result of the first step.

Step 1: Calculate 50% of 600

⇒ Value₁ = (50 ÷ 100) × 600

⇒ Value₁ = 0.5 × 600 = 300

Step 2: Calculate 60% less than Value₁

⇒ Final Value = Value₁ − (60% of Value₁)

⇒ Final Value = 300 − (0.6 × 300)

⇒ Final Value = 300 − 180

⇒ Final Value = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Additional Information

Percentage Decrease Formula

To find a value x% less than A, use the formula: Result = A × (100 − x) ÷ 100.

Successive Percentages

When multiple percentage changes are applied, the final multiplier is the product of individual multipliers (e.g., 0.5 × 0.4 = 0.2 of original).

Fraction Equivalents

Memorizing common fractions like 50% = 1/2 and 60% = 3/5 helps in faster mental calculation.

Shortcut Trick

Since 50% of the eggs are rotten, the remaining 50% are NOT rotten.

In mathematics, 50% is equivalent to half of the total value.

Number of eggs NOT rotten = 450 ÷ 2 = 225.

∴ The correct answer is 225 eggs.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of eggs = 450

Percentage of rotten eggs = 50%

Formula Used:

Number of items = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Total Quantity

Calculations:

⇒ Total eggs = 450

⇒ Number of rotten eggs = 50% of 450

⇒ Rotten eggs = (50 ÷ 100) × 450 = 225

⇒ Number of eggs NOT rotten = Total eggs − Rotten eggs

⇒ Number of eggs NOT rotten = 450 − 225 = 225

∴ The correct answer is 225 eggs.

Additional Information

Percentage Basics

Percentage means per hundred. To find x% of a value y, the calculation is (x × y) ÷ 100.

Fraction Equivalents

Converting common percentages to fractions can speed up calculations: 50% = 1/2, 25% = 1/4, 75% = 3/4, and 20% = 1/5.

Complementary Percentage

If a certain category is A% of a total, the remaining category is always (100 − A)% of that same total.

Shortcut Trick

If both the Cost Price and the Selling Price are multiplied by the same scaling factor, the Profit Percentage remains constant.

Decreasing both prices by 50 percent is equivalent to multiplying them by a factor of 0.5.

Since both are scaled equally, the ratio of Selling Price to Cost Price does not change.

∴ The correct answer is 40 percent.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Profit Percentage = 40 percent

Decrease in Cost Price (CP) = 50 percent

Decrease in Selling Price (SP) = 50 percent

Formula Used:

Profit = Selling Price (SP) − Cost Price (CP)

Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial Cost Price (CP) = 100 units

⇒ Since Profit is 40%, initial Selling Price (SP) = 100 + (40% of 100) = 140 units

⇒ New CP = 100 − (50% of 100) = 50 units

⇒ New SP = 140 − (50% of 140) = 70 units

⇒ New Profit = New SP − New CP = 70 − 50 = 20 units

⇒ New Profit Percentage = (New Profit ÷ New CP) × 100

⇒ New Profit Percentage = (20 ÷ 50) × 100 = 40 percent

∴ The correct answer is 40 percent.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Ratios

The profit percentage depends entirely on the ratio of SP to CP. If SP/CP = k, then Profit % = (k − 1) × 100.

Successive Changes in CP and SP

If CP changes by x% and SP changes by y%, the new profit percentage will change unless x = y.

Marked Price Relationship

SP = MP × (1 − Discount/100). Profit is always calculated on the CP unless stated otherwise.

Shortcut Trick

If both the Cost Price (CP) and Selling Price (SP) of an article are increased or decreased by the same percentage, the Profit or Loss percentage remains constant.

This occurs because the ratio between the Selling Price and Cost Price (SP/CP) does not change when both terms are multiplied by the same factor.

Initial loss = 30% ⇒ Final loss = 30%.

∴ The correct answer is 30%.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial loss = 30%, decrease in both CP and SP = 40%.

⇒ Let Initial CP = 100

⇒ Initial SP = 100 − 30% of 100 = 70

⇒ New CP = 100 − (40% of 100) = 100 − 40 = 60

⇒ New SP = 70 − (40% of 70) = 70 − 28 = 42

⇒ New Loss = New CP − New SP = 60 − 42 = 18

⇒ New Loss % = (New Loss ÷ New CP) × 100

⇒ New Loss % = (18 ÷ 60) × 100 = 3 ÷ 10 × 100 = 30%

∴ The correct answer is 30%.

Additional Information

Invariant Percentage Rule

When every component of a ratio (like SP and CP) is multiplied or divided by a constant non-zero value, the percentage relationship between them remains unchanged.

Loss Percentage Calculation

Loss % = [(CP − SP) ÷ CP] × 100. Always ensure the Cost Price is the denominator unless the problem specifies calculation on the selling price.

Selling Price for Loss

SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100. This formula helps calculate the price needed to maintain a specific loss threshold.

Shortcut Trick

Use the Successive Remainder method to find the final remaining part.

Remaining fraction after Day 1 = 1 − 2/3 = 1/3

Remaining fraction after Day 2 = 1/3 × (1 − 1/4) = 1/3 × 3/4 = 1/4

Remaining work = Total work × 1/4 = 84 × 1/4 = 21 units.

∴ The correct answer is 21 units.

Alternate Method

Given: Total work = 84 units, Day 1 work = 2/3 of total, Day 2 work = 1/4 of remaining.

⇒ Work done on Day 1 = 2/3 × 84 = 56 units

⇒ Remaining work after Day 1 = 84 − 56 = 28 units

⇒ Work done on Day 2 = 1/4 × 28 = 7 units

⇒ Final remaining work = 28 − 7 = 21 units

∴ The correct answer is 21 units.

Additional Information

Work-Fraction Relation

Total Work is always considered as 1 unit or 100%. If a fraction 'x' is done, then (1 − x) is the remaining work.

Successive Remainder Formula

If fractions a, b, c... are taken from the remaining amount successively, the final remainder is Total × (1−a) × (1−b) × (1−c)...

Work and Efficiency

Total Work = Efficiency × Time. In fractional problems, the denominator usually represents the 'Total units' relative to that specific step.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of work done by A and B = (Time × Efficiency)_A : (Time × Efficiency)_B

Work Ratio = (5 days × 3 units) : (6 days × 2 units) = 15 : 12 = 5 : 4

Difference in ratio parts = 5 − 4 = 1 part

Given, 1 part = ₹600

Share of A = 5 parts = 5 × 600 = ₹3000

∴ The correct answer is ₹3000.

Alternate Method

Given: A worked for 5 days with 3 units/day efficiency; B worked for 6 days with 2 units/day efficiency. Difference in their shares = ₹600.

Formula: Total Work = Time × Efficiency | Share ∝ Total Work Done

⇒ Work done by A = 5 × 3 = 15 units

⇒ Work done by B = 6 × 2 = 12 units

⇒ Difference in work = 15 − 12 = 3 units

⇒ According to the question, 3 units = ₹600

⇒ 1 unit = 600 ÷ 3 = ₹200

⇒ Share of A = 15 units × 200 = ₹3000

∴ The correct answer is ₹3000.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Rule

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the actual work performed. If the time worked is different for each person, use the formula: Wages Ratio = (E₁ × T₁) : (E₂ × T₂).

Efficiency and Wage Relationship

If all persons work for the same duration of time, their wages are distributed directly in the ratio of their individual efficiencies.

Total Wage Calculation

Total Wage = Wage per unit work × Total work units. Alternatively, Total Wage = Sum of individual shares.

Shortcut Trick

For a boat moving with the flow, Downstream Speed = Speed in Still Water + Speed of Stream.

Downstream Speed = 17 + 5 = 22 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 22 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the boat in still water (u) = 17 km/hr

Speed of the stream (v) = 5 km/hr

Formula Used:

Downstream speed (D_s) = u + v

Calculations:

⇒ Downstream speed = 17 + 5

⇒ Downstream speed = 22 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 22 km/hr.

Additional Information

Upstream Speed

When the boat moves against the flow of the stream: Upstream Speed = Speed in still water − Speed of stream.

Speed of Boat in Still Water

It can be calculated if downstream (D) and upstream (U) speeds are known: Speed in still water = (D + U) ÷ 2.

Speed of Stream

It can be calculated as: Speed of stream = (D − U) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Initial speed = 36 km ÷ 1 hr = 36 km/hr.

Reduced speed = 36 − 20 = 16 km/hr.

Speed ratio = 36 : 16 = 9 : 4.

Since distance is constant, Time ratio = 4 : 9.

4 units = 60 min ⇒ 9 units = (60 ÷ 4) × 9 = 15 × 9 = 135 min.

∴ The correct answer is 135 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance = 36 km

Initial time = 60 min = 1 hour

Decrease in speed = 20 km/hr

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Initial Speed = 36 km ÷ 1 hr = 36 km/hr

⇒ New Speed = 36 − 20 = 16 km/hr

⇒ New Time = Distance ÷ New Speed

⇒ New Time = 36 ÷ 16 hours

⇒ New Time in minutes = (36 ÷ 16) × 60

⇒ New Time = 2.25 × 60 = 135 min

∴ The correct answer is 135 min.

Additional Information

Speed-Time Relationship

When distance is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time (S₁ × T₁ = S₂ × T₂).

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert minutes to hours, divide by 60.

Average Speed

For two equal distances covered at speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Shortcut Trick

Initial Ratio A : B = 5 : 3 (Difference = 2 units)

Final Ratio A : B = 3 : 2 = 6 : 4 (Multiplied by 2 to make difference = 2 units)

Increase in each part = 6 − 5 = 1 unit → 5

Sum of initial values = 5 + 3 = 8 units

Total Sum = 8 × 5 = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Ratio of A and B is 5 : 3. Both increased by 5, new Ratio is 3 : 2.

Let the initial values be A = 5x and B = 3x.

According to the question:

⇒ (5x + 5) ÷ (3x + 5) = 3 ÷ 2

⇒ 2 × (5x + 5) = 3 × (3x + 5)

⇒ 10x + 10 = 9x + 15

⇒ 10x − 9x = 15 − 10

⇒ x = 5

⇒ Initial Value of A = 5 × 5 = 25

⇒ Initial Value of B = 3 × 5 = 15

⇒ Sum = 25 + 15 = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is calculated as √(a × b).

Duplicate and Sub-duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of a : b is a² : b², and the sub-duplicate ratio is √a : √b.

Componendo and Dividendo

If a/b = c/d, then according to the rule, (a + b) / (a − b) = (c + d) / (c − d).

Shortcut Trick

Let Marked Price (MP) = 14 units ⇒ Discount = 5 units.

Selling Price (SP) = 14 − 5 = 9 units.

Given Profit = 40% ⇒ CP = SP ÷ 1.4 = 9 ÷ 1.4 = 45/7 units.

Difference = 14 − 45/7 = 53/7 units.

Percentage less = (53/7 ÷ 14) × 100 = 5300 ÷ 98 ≈ 54.08%.

∴ The correct answer is 54.08%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit percentage = 40%

Discount = 5/14 of Marked Price (MP)

⇒ Let Marked Price (MP) = 14x

⇒ Discount = (5/14) × 14x = 5x

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount = 14x − 5x = 9x

⇒ Profit = 40%, so SP = 1.4 × Cost Price (CP)

⇒ 9x = 1.4 × CP

⇒ CP = 9x ÷ 1.4 = 90x ÷ 14 = 45x/7

⇒ Difference between MP and CP = 14x − 45x/7 = (98x − 45x)/7 = 53x/7

⇒ Required Percentage = (Difference ÷ MP) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = (53x/7 ÷ 14x) × 100 = 53/98 × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = 5400 ÷ 98 ≈ 54.08%

∴ The correct answer is 54.08%.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP and MP

The ratio of Marked Price to Cost Price can be expressed as MP/CP = (100 + Profit%)/(100 − Discount%).

Markup Percentage

Markup % is the percentage by which the cost price is increased to reach the marked price: Markup % = [(MP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁ and d₂ are given, the total effective discount is d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio CP : MP = 100 : 150 = 2 : 3.

Ratio CP : SP = 100 : 125 = 4 : 5 (since Profit is 25%).

Equating CP in both ratios: CP : SP : MP = 4 : 5 : 6.

Discount = MP − SP = 6 − 5 = 1 unit.

Discount % = (1 ÷ 6) × 100 = 16.67%.

∴ The correct answer is 16.67 percent.

Alternate Method

Given:

Markup Percentage = 50%

Profit Percentage = 25%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) + Profit

Discount = Marked Price (MP) − Selling Price (SP)

Discount % = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) of the article be 100.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = 100 + 50% of 100 = 150.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 100 + 25% of 100 = 125.

⇒ Discount Amount = 150 − 125 = 25.

⇒ Discount Percentage = (25 ÷ 150) × 100.

⇒ Discount Percentage = (1 ÷ 6) × 100 = 16.666...%

⇒ Discount Percentage ≈ 16.67%.

∴ The correct answer is 16.67 percent.

Additional Information

Markup and Profit Relation

The relationship between Marked Price (MP) and Cost Price (CP) can be expressed as: MP / CP = (100 + Profit %) / (100 − Discount %).

Effective Discount Formula

For two successive discounts of a% and b%, the single equivalent discount is given by: (a + b − ab/100)%.

Profit and Discount Calculation

Profit is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP), whereas the Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP).

Shortcut Trick

The Fourth Proportional (d) of three numbers a, b, and c is given by the formula:

d = (b × c) ÷ a

Here, a = 18, b = 4, and c = 45.

⇒ Fourth Proportional = (4 × 45) ÷ 18 = 180 ÷ 18 = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Alternate Method

Given: The three numbers are 18, 4, and 45.

Formula Used: If four numbers a, b, c, and d are in proportion, then a : b :: c : d, which implies a ÷ b = c ÷ d or a × d = b × c.

Let the fourth proportion be x.

⇒ 18 : 4 :: 45 : x

⇒ 18 ÷ 4 = 45 ÷ x

⇒ 18 × x = 45 × 4

⇒ 18x = 180

⇒ x = 180 ÷ 18

⇒ x = 10

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is calculated as √(a × b).

Third Proportional

If a, b, and c are in continued proportion (a : b = b : c), then c is the third proportional, given by c = b² ÷ a.

Invertendo and Alternendo

If a : b = c : d, then b : a = d : c (Invertendo) and a : c = b : d (Alternendo).

Question: From the alternatives given below, choose the correct meaning of the idiom 'trials and tribulations'.

The correct answer is: Various difficulties, hardships, or problems, especially those that test one's courage, endurance, or resolve.

Key Points

• The idiom 'trials and tribulations' refers to the troubles, challenges, or events that cause suffering and test a person's patience or endurance. (कठिनाइयां और कष्ट)
• Example: The book describes the trials and tribulations of a young woman growing up in a war-torn country.
• 'Various difficulties, hardships, or problems' accurately reflects the essence of this idiom, as it emphasizes the adversity one faces that tests their resolve or character. (विभिन्न कठिनाइयाँ, कष्ट या समस्याएँ)
• Example: Despite the many trials and tribulations they faced during the expedition, the team successfully reached the summit.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of the idiom is related to enduring tough situations.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Various difficulties, hardships, or problems, especially those that test one's courage, endurance, or resolve.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• A situation under extreme pressure/stress (कड़ी परीक्षा): This usually refers to a 'trial by fire', which is a test of one's ability to perform under great pressure.
• Example: Her first day as a surgeon was a trial by fire when she had to perform three emergency operations.
• A preliminary or tentative execution (प्रारंभिक परीक्षण): This refers to a 'trial run' or a 'pilot test' used to gauge reactions or functionality.
• Example: They did a trial run of the new production line before starting full-scale manufacturing.
• A process of determining the correct way by making attempts (प्रयत्न और भूल): This is known as 'trial and error', a method of solving problems by trying various means until one succeeds.
• Example: I finally fixed the computer through a long process of trial and error.

The correct answer is: To be helpful, useful, or what is needed in a certain situation.

Key Points

• The idiom 'to fit the bill' refers to being exactly what is required or suitable for a particular purpose, situation, or task. (उपयुक्त होना या सटीक बैठना)
• Example: We needed a quiet place to study, and this library fits the bill perfectly.
• 'To be helpful, useful, or what is needed in a certain situation' means to satisfy the specific criteria or needs of a given circumstance. (मददगार, उपयोगी या किसी स्थिति में आवश्यक होना)
• Example: His background in finance fits the bill for the role of a corporate treasurer.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of the idiom 'to fit the bill' is 'to be helpful, useful, or what is needed in a certain situation'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: To be helpful, useful, or what is needed in a certain situation.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To become very or unreasonably angry or upset (अत्यधिक क्रोधित या परेशान होना): Losing one's temper or reacting with intense frustration.
• Example: She began to become unreasonably angry when her orders were repeatedly ignored.
• To cram too much into a small container or space (कम स्थान में बहुत अधिक चीजें ठूंसना): Trying to force more items into a space than it can reasonably hold.
• Example: He tried to cram too much data into the presentation, making it difficult to follow.
• To occupy only a very small space when written down (लिखने पर बहुत कम जगह घेरना): Refers to text or symbols that take up minimal physical area on a page.
• Example: The fine print on the contract was designed to occupy only a very small space at the bottom.

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. Hate.

Key Points

• The word 'abhor' means to regard with disgust and hatred; it refers to a feeling of strong aversion or loathing toward something. (घृणा करना)
• Example: Vegetarians often abhor the idea of harming animals for food.
• 'Hate' refers to an intense dislike or ill will toward someone or something; it is the most appropriate synonym for abhor as both convey a strong sense of animosity. (नफरत करना)
• Example: The two rival groups hate each other because of their long-standing history of conflict.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'abhor' is 'hate'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Hate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Like (पसंद करना): To find something agreeable, enjoyable, or satisfactory.
• Example: I like the way she handles difficult situations with such grace.
• Adore (बहुत पसंद करना): To love and respect someone or something deeply.
• Example: The children adore their grandmother because she always tells them wonderful stories.
• Love (प्यार करना): To have a deep affection or intense feeling of deep romantic or maternal attachment.
• Example: They love spending their summer vacations at their cottage in the mountains.

The correct answer is: Telecomunication.

Key Points

• The word 'Telecomunication' is misspelt in the options; it refers to the transmission of signals, messages, images, and sounds by wire, radio, or other electromagnetic systems. (दूरसंचार)
• Example: The company is a major player in the telecommunication sector.
• 'Telecommunication' is the correct spelling of the word, which must contain a double 'm' (i.e., 'mm') instead of a single 'm'. (दूरसंचार)
• Example: We need to upgrade our telecommunication infrastructure to support high-speed internet.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word is 'Telecommunication'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Telecommunication.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Transmutation (रूपांतरण): The action of changing or the state of being changed into another form.
• Example: Alchemists spent centuries searching for a way to achieve the transmutation of lead into gold.
• Temperamental (तुनकमिज़ाज): Liable to unreasonable changes of mood.
• Example: The printer is highly temperamental and only works when it wants to.
• Transcontinental (पारमहाद्वीपीय): Crossing or extending across a continent.
• Example: The transcontinental railway played a vital role in connecting the country's distant regions.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. Unanimos.

Key Points

• The word "Unanimos" is misspelt.
• The correct spelling is "Unanimous", which means fully in agreement or sharing the same opinion.
• The other three words are correctly spelt: Ubiquitous, Utilitarian, and Unobtrusive.

Therefore, the correct answer is '1' i.e. Unanimos.

Additional Information

• Unanimous: In complete agreement. Example: The decision was unanimous.
• Ubiquitous: Present or found everywhere. Example: Smartphones are ubiquitous nowadays.
• Utilitarian: Designed to be useful or practical rather than attractive. Example: The building has a simple, utilitarian design.
• Unobtrusive: Not attracting attention or causing disturbance. Example: The security cameras are small and unobtrusive.

The correct answer is: Center.

Key Points

• The word 'Edge' refers to the outside limit of an object, area, or surface; it is the part furthest from the middle. (किनारा)
• Example: She sat on the edge of the bed, lost in her thoughts.
• 'Center' refers to the middle point or part of something, which is at the greatest distance from the edges or outer boundaries. (केंद्र)
• Example: The city center was crowded with tourists and shoppers.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Edge' is 'Center'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Center.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Border (सीमा): The line that separates two countries or regions, or the edge of something.
• Example: We were stopped at the border for a routine security check.
• Rim (घेरा/किनारा): The upper or outer edge of an object, typically something circular like a cup or a wheel.
• Example: The rim of the glass was chipped.
• Margin (हाशिया): The blank space on the left or right side of a page, or the edge of something.
• Example: He scribbled a few notes in the margin of his textbook.

The correct answer is: Option (2) i.e. Doppelganger.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A ghostly counterpart of a living person' refers to an apparition, phantom, or spectral double of a person who is still alive. (एक जीवित व्यक्ति का हमशक्ल या प्रेत-रूप)
• Example: In Gothic literature, the appearance of a ghostly counterpart of a living person is often used as a harbinger of doom.
• 'Doppelganger' is a term that refers to a non-biologically related look-alike or double of a living person, often portrayed as a paranormal phenomenon. (हमशक्ल)
• Example: She was stunned to discover her doppelganger in a photograph from a city she had never visited.
• Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitution for the given phrase is 'doppelganger'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Doppelganger.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Sybarite (विलासी): A person who is self-indulgent in their fondness for sensuous luxury and pleasure.
• Example: The billionaire lived like a sybarite, surrounded by the finest art and most expensive cars.
• Deja-vu (पहले जैसा अनुभव): A feeling of having already experienced the present situation.
• Example: When I stepped onto the platform, I had a sudden sense of deja-vu, as if I had been there in a dream.
• Neophyte (नौसिखिया): A person who is new to a subject, skill, or belief.
• Example: Even a neophyte in gardening knows that plants need sunlight and water to survive.

The correct answer is 'Besides'.

Key Points

• The preposition 'besides' means 'in addition to' or 'as well as'.
• In the given sentence, the speaker is indicating that two things were provided: a timely salary and travel expenses.
• Since the sentence describes an addition of one action to another, 'Besides' is the most appropriate choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "Besides paying him a timely salary, they also bore his travel expenses."

Additional Information

• Unless is a conjunction used to introduce a condition (meaning 'except if').
• Notwithstanding is a preposition or adverb meaning 'in spite of' or 'despite', which indicates contrast.
• Inasmuch as is a conjunction meaning 'to the extent that' or 'since', often used to explain a reason.

The correct answer is The President of the university will inaugurate the newly constructed library next week.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Passive Voice of the Future Indefinite Tense. The passive structure for this tense is Object + will be + Past Participle (V3) + by + Subject.
• To convert to Active Voice, the Subject of the passive sentence (The President of the university) must become the active subject that performs the action.
• The Object of the passive sentence (the newly constructed library) becomes the direct object that receives the action in the active sentence.
• The verb phrase will be inaugurated (passive) must be transformed into the Future Indefinite Active form, which is will + Base Form (V1), resulting in will inaugurate.
• The time reference next week remains unchanged as it modifies the timing of the action in both voices.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of Incorrect Tense Options:
• Simple Present Tense: Option 1 uses 'inaugurates', which is used for habitual actions or general truths. It does not reflect the specific future intent established by the passive 'will be'.
• Simple Past Tense: Option 2 uses 'inaugurated', indicating an action already concluded in the past. This creates a logical contradiction with the future time marker next week.
• Present Perfect Tense: Option 4 uses 'has inaugurated', signifying an action just completed or having present relevance. This tense cannot be used for scheduled events occurring in the upcoming week.

The correct answer is Vacate the premises immediately..

Key Points

• The sentence 'Let the premises be vacated immediately' is in the Passive Voice, specifically following the structure of an Imperative Sentence.
• The standard passive construction for a command or order is: Let + Object + be + V3 (Past Participle).
• To convert this into the Active Voice, the sentence must start with the Base Form of the Verb (V1), followed by the Object.
• In this case, the verb 'vacated' (V3) is changed back to its base form 'vacate' (V1).
• The word 'let' and the auxiliary verb 'be' are removed, as they are markers of the passive imperative form.
• The Object 'the premises' is placed immediately after the main verb, and the Adverb 'immediately' remains at the end to maintain the original meaning.

 Additional Information

• Imperative Sentences and Voice Conversion:
• Command/Order: Sentences like 'Shut the door' (Active) become 'Let the door be shut' (Passive).
• Requests: If the active voice includes 'Please', the passive voice uses the construction 'You are requested to...'. Option 1 is incorrect because the original sentence does not contain 'please' or indicate a request.
• Advice: For sentences giving advice, the passive structure is 'Object + should + be + V3' (e.g., 'Help him' becomes 'He should be helped').
• Grammatical Agreement: In Option 4, 'The premises' is a plural noun; using 'is' is grammatically incorrect, and the structure remains passive rather than active.
• Subject in Active Imperatives: In the active imperative form, the subject 'You' is always omitted but understood by the reader or listener.

The correct answer is 'for'.

Key Points

• The adjective sorry is most commonly followed by the preposition for when we want to express sympathy or pity for someone else's misfortune.
• In the given sentence, the people are expressing their sympathy toward the flood victims, who have suffered a disaster.
• Using for creates a grammatically correct and meaningful relationship between the feeling of sorrow and the recipients of that feeling.
• Options 2, 3, and 4 are contextually and grammatically inappropriate for this sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: "The people felt really sorry for the flood victims."

Additional Information

• Sorry for: Used when referring to a person or group (e.g., I feel sorry for them). It can also be used for an action in the gerund form (e.g., I am sorry for being late).
• Sorry about: Often used when referring to a situation, event, or thing (e.g., I am sorry about the accident).
• At and In are not typically used as collocations with sorry to express sympathy or regret.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The sentence uses the correlative conjunction Neither... nor to join two subjects: the chairman and the members.
• According to the rule of subject-verb agreement, when subjects are joined by either... or or neither... nor, the verb must agree with the closest subject (the second subject).
• In this sentence, the second subject is the members of the committee, which is plural.
• Therefore, the singular verb was must be replaced with the plural verb were to ensure grammatical correctness.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: 'Neither the chairman nor the members of the committee were able to find a solution to the pressing issue.'

Additional Information

• Proximity Rule: This rule states that the verb should agree with the noun or pronoun closest to it when using connectors like or, nor, either... or, and neither... nor.
• Option 1: was able to find out a solution – Incorrect because it retains the singular verb was.
• Option 3: had been able to find for a solution – Incorrect because the phrase find for is idiomatically wrong in this context; the verb find does not require the preposition for when looking for a result.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph begins with S1, which establishes the setting (a chill late August afternoon) and mentions a specific geographical condition regarding hunting near the Bristol Channel.
• Sentence C is the first sentence of the rearranged sequence because it directly addresses the condition mentioned in S1:
• 'Lady Blemley's house-party was not bounded on the north by the Bristol Channel, hence there was a full gathering of her guests round the tea-table on this particular afternoon.'
• Sentence D follows as it describes the atmosphere of this gathering at the tea-table:
• 'And, in spite of the blankness of the season and the triteness of the occasion, there was no trace in the company of that fatigued restlessness...'
• Sentence B is the third sentence because it explains why the guests were not restless, pointing to the object of their collective interest:
• 'The undisguised open-mouthed attention of the entire party was fixed on the homely negative personality of Mr. Cornelius Appin.'
• Sentence A is the fourth sentence as it provides context regarding the man introduced in Sentence B:
• 'Of all her guests, he was the one who had come to Lady Blemley with the vaguest reputation.'
• This sequence leads perfectly into S2, which elaborates on that vaguest reputation by mentioning that someone had called him 'clever'.
• The correct sequence is CDBA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'It was a chill, rain-washed afternoon of a late August day, that indefinite season when partridges are still in security or cold storage, and there is nothing to hunt - unless one is bounded on the north by the Bristol Channel, in which case one may lawfully gallop after fat red stags. Lady Blemley's house-party was not bounded on the north by the Bristol Channel, hence there was a full gathering of her guests round the tea-table on this particular afternoon. And, in spite of the blankness of the season and the triteness of the occasion, there was no trace in the company of that fatigued restlessness which means a dread of the pianola and a subdued hankering for auction bridge. The undisguised open-mouthed attention of the entire party was fixed on the homely negative personality of Mr. Cornelius Appin. Of all her guests, he was the one who had come to Lady Blemley with the vaguest reputation. Someone had said he was 'clever,' and he had got his invitation in the moderate expectation, on the part of his hostess, that some portion at least of his cleverness would be contributed to the general entertainment.'

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The paragraph follows a narrative arc starting from a personal resolution and moving through an action, its consequences, and a resulting confrontation.
• Sentence S1 introduces the narrator's objective: to conquer the fear of a person named Red.
• Sentence D follows S1 because it describes the specific action taken to address that fear:
• 'So, I wrote a poem about him.'
• Sentence A follows D as it provides further detail about the poem mentioned in the previous sentence, using the pronoun 'This' to refer to it:
• 'This was my first piece of journalism in verse.'
• Sentence C is the third in the sequence, illustrating the public reaction and the spread of the poem's influence:
• 'By the next day, the whole street knew it by heart and exulted with triumphant hatred.'
• Sentence B is the fourth, bringing the narrative to a climax where the narrator encounters the antagonist after having provoked him with the poem:
• 'One morning on my way to school, I suddenly came upon Red and his lieutenants.'
• Sentence S2 concludes the sequence by describing Red's reaction during this encounter: 'His eyes seemed to bore through me.'
• The logical sequence is DACB.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'I wanted to conquer my fear of Red. So, I wrote a poem about him. This was my first piece of journalism in verse. By the next day, the whole street knew it by heart and exulted with triumphant hatred. One morning on my way to school, I suddenly came upon Red and his lieutenants. His eyes seemed to bore through me.'

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The original sentence uses the reflexive pronoun oneself, which is used for indefinite subjects (like one).
• In this sentence, the subject is the third-person singular pronoun he. Therefore, the reflexive pronoun must agree with the subject and be changed to himself.
• The phrase no one to blame but correctly uses but as a preposition meaning except.
• Thus, the correct improvement is there was no one to blame but himself.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Correct Sentence: 'After failing the exam, he realised there was no one to blame but himself for not preparing better.'

Additional Information

• Option 1: Nothing is generally used for objects or abstract concepts. Since the context involves blaming a person (himself), no one is the appropriate term.
• Option 2: This option lacks the preposition but (meaning except), which makes the sentence grammatically incomplete and changes the intended meaning.
• Reflexive Pronouns: These are used when the object of a sentence is the same as the subject (e.g., I/myself, you/yourself, he/himself, she/herself, one/oneself).

The correct answer is 'have been'.

Key Points

• The sentence refers to a state that started in the past and continues to the present, indicated by the phrase 'for thousands of years'.
• The subject 'Horses' is plural.
• The Present Perfect Tense is required here to show a connection between the past and the present.
• 'Have been' is the correct helping verb and participle combination for a plural subject in the present perfect tense.
• Other options like 'was' (singular past), 'had' (requires a participle and usually refers to the past perfect), and 'will be' (future) do not fit the grammatical or temporal context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: Horses have been companions of humans for thousands of years. They carried warriors into battles, pulled carts across villages, and became symbols of power and grace. Even today, they remain important in sports, farming, and therapy sessions. Have you ever wondered why horses are often described as noble animals? Their strength, loyalty, and ability to understand human emotions make them unique. A horse does not simply run; it runs with a spirit that seems untamed and free. Take care of your horse well, for it depends on you for food, shelter, and affection. Groom it regularly and ensure it is treated with kindness. When horses are cared for, they respond with trust and gentleness, creating a bond that lasts a lifetime. How incredible it is to watch a herd of horses galloping across an open field! Their hooves thunder against the ground, their manes fly in the wind, and their eyes shine with energy. Truly, horses are living poetry in motion! As the saying goes, 'The wind of heaven is that which blows between a horse's ears.' Horses remind us that freedom, loyalty, and beauty can exist together in one magnificent creature. They are not just animals of burden but teachers of patience, courage, and respect.

Additional Information

• Present Perfect Tense: Used for actions or states that started in the past and continue to the present, or for past actions that have a result in the present. Structure: Subject + have/has + past participle (V3).
• Since 'Horses' is plural, we use 'have' instead of 'has'.