SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 04 May, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

For 'FA' related to 'DW':

For 'PK' related to 'NG':

Applying the same logic to find the first cluster related to 'PA':

Thus, RE is related to PA in the same manner.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

For the set '(AR, CW, EB)':

For the set '(GU, IZ, KE)':

Applying the same logic to 'Option 2' clusters:

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The standard rules for calendar repetition are:

1. If the year is a leap year + 1, it repeats after 6 years.
2. If the year is a leap year + 2, it repeats after 11 years.
3. If the year is a leap year + 3, it repeats after 11 years.
4. If the year is a leap year, it repeats after 28 years.

Calculation:

The given year is 2017.

First, we determine the type of year. We divide the year by 4 to check for leap years:

The year 2016 is a leap year (divisible by 4).

Thus, 2017 = 2016 + 1 (i.e., it is a Leap year + 1).

According to the rule, a Leap year + 1 repeats after 6 years.

Repetition Year = 2017 + 6 = 2023.

Since both 2017 and 2023 are ordinary years, they have identical calendars.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Alternate Method

We can verify the year by counting odd days until the sum is divisible by 7 (Note: an ordinary year has 1 odd day and a leap year has 2 odd days):

O dd days in 2017 = 1

Odd days in 2018 = 1

Odd days in 2019 = 1

Odd days in 2020 = 2 (Leap year)

Odd days in 2021 = 1

Odd days in 2022 = 1

Total sum of odd days = 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 7.

Since the total sum of odd days is 7 (which is a multiple of 7), the next year 2023 will start on the same day as 2017. Because both are ordinary years, the entire calendar will be the same.

Hence, the correct answer is 2023.

5 boys A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. A is second to the left of C.
2. B is to the immediate left of A.
3. D is second to the left of E.

Two boys are sitting between A and E.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

7 girls A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. D sits fifth to the right of A.
2. D does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the row.
3. F sits exactly in the middle of row.
4. Two girls sit between F and B.
5. G is third to the left of E. 

E is sitting at third position from the right end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given word: EXTINCTION

(1) NICE → Can be formed as all the letters (N, I, C, E) are present in the given word.

(2) TENT → Can be formed as all the letters (T, E, N, T) are present in the given word. The word contains two T's.

(3) TEXTS → Can not be formed as the letter "S" is not present in the given word.

(4) EXIT → Can be formed as all the letters (E, X, I, T) are present in the given word.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

218 + 18 = 236

236 + 36 = 272

272 + 54 = 326

326 + 72 = 398

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

147 + 21 = 168

168 + 21 = 189

189 + 21 = 210

210 + 21 = 231

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is,

6 × 4 − 1² = 24 − 1 = 23

23 × 5 − 2² = 115 − 4 = 111

111 × 6 − 3² = 666 − 9 = 657

657 × 7 − 4² = 4599 − 16 = 4583

4583 × 8 − 5² = 36664 − 25 = 36,639

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1';

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

JT310 : WM218 →

AT520 : WD428 →

Similarly,

LD620 : ? →

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

SP120 : PY180 → 

EB200 : BK300 → 

Similarly,

KP135 : ? → 

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 43

For the first pair 2458 : 2501

⇒ 2458 + 43 = 2501

Applying the same logic to the second pair

7327 : 7370

⇒ 7327 + 43 = 7370

Applying the same logic to the third pair

7635 : ?

⇒ 7635 + 43 = 7678

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 3) − 5

For the first pair 13 : 34

⇒ (13 × 3) − 5

⇒ 39 − 5 = 34.

For the second pair 587 : 1756

⇒ (587 × 3) − 5

⇒ 1761 − 5 = 1756.

Applying the same logic to the third pair

575 : ?

⇒ (575 × 3) − 5

⇒ 1725 − 5 = 1720.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

LOIN is coded as MTHI →

NUTS is coded as OZSN →

Similarly,

let's find the code for DEAF:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given:

"flowers smell" be coded in that code language as "ta rq".

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

At 2:00 PM, the minute hand is at the 12 o clock position (0°), and the hour hand is at the 2 o clock position.

The angle covered by the hour hand at 2:00 = 2 × 30° = 60°.

For the hands to be at an angle of 90 degrees, the minute hand must first cover the initial 60° gap to catch up with the hour hand and then move an additional 90° ahead of it.

Total relative angular distance to be covered = 60° + 90° = 150°.

Time taken = Distance ÷ Relative speed

Time = 150 ÷ 5.5 ≈ 27.27 minutes.

Rounding to the nearest whole number, the time taken is approximately 27 minutes.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Alternate Method

The angle between the hour hand and minute hand is given by the formula:

Angle = $|60H - 11M| \over 2$

Where H = hours and M = minutes.

Given H = 2 and Angle = 90°:

90 = $|60 \times 2 - 11M| \over 2$

180 = |120 − 11M|

To find the time after the hands have crossed each other (since 120 − 11M = 90 would give a negative value for M):

180 = 11M − 120

11M = 180 + 120

11M = 300

M = 300 ÷ 11 ≈ 27.27 minutes.

The approximate time is 27 minutes.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given initial time = 9:00 AM

Given final time = 3:00 PM

Total time interval from 9:00 AM to 3:00 PM = 6 hours

Clock status at 9:00 AM = 3 minutes slow (−3 min)

Clock status at 3:00 PM = 7 minutes fast (+7 min)

Total gain in 6 hours = 7 − (−3) = 10 minutes

The clock gains 10 minutes in 6 hours.

To show the correct time, the clock must gain the initial lag of 3 minutes.

Time taken to gain 10 minutes = 6 hours

Time taken to gain 1 minute = 6 / 10 hours

Time taken to gain 3 minutes = (6 / 10) × 3 hours

Time = 18 / 10 hours = 1.8 hours

Converting 1.8 hours into minutes:

1.8 hours = 1 hour + 0.8 × 60 minutes

1.8 hours = 1 hour + 48 minutes

The clock shows the correct time 1 hour and 48 minutes after 9:00 AM.

Correct time = 9:00 AM + 1 hour 48 minutes = 10:48 AM

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

• According to Article 158(3) of the Constitution of India, the Governor is entitled to such emoluments, allowances, and privileges as may be determined by Parliament by law.
• Until the Parliament makes such a law, these emoluments are governed by the provisions specified in the Second Schedule of the Constitution.
• The Parliament enacted the Governors (Emoluments, Allowances and Privileges) Act, 1982, to regulate these financial aspects. In 2018, the salary of the Governor was significantly increased to 3.5 lakh rupees per month.
• The expenditure for the salary and allowances of the Governor is charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the State, meaning it is not subject to the vote of the state legislative assembly.
• If the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more states, the emoluments and allowances payable are allocated among the states in such proportion as the President may by order determine.

 Additional Information

• President:
• Under Article 155, the President appoints the Governor by warrant under his hand and seal.
• The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President as per Article 156, but the President does not determine the salary.
• Finance Commission:
• This is a Constitutional Body constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution.
• Its primary function is to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States and among the states themselves.
• Salary Immunity:
• The Constitution ensures that the emoluments and allowances of a Governor cannot be diminished during his or her term of office to maintain the independence of the post.

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

• The salary and allowances of the Vice President are determined by the Parliament of India by law.
• According to Article 97 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament has the authority to fix the salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), as well as the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• The Vice President does not receive a salary specifically for the office of Vice President; instead, they receive remuneration in their capacity as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• The Salaries and Allowances of Officers of Parliament Act, 1953, is the legislation through which these financial provisions are regulated and updated periodically.
• The current salary of the Vice President was significantly revised in 2018, increasing from 1.25 lakh to 4 lakh per month, plus other allowances.

 Additional Information

• Article 63 of the Constitution states that there shall be a Vice President of India, who is the second-highest constitutional authority in the country.
• Article 64 specifies that the Vice President shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
• Consolidated Fund of India:
• The salary and allowances of the Vice President (as Chairman of Rajya Sabha) are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, meaning they are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament.
• President of India:
• While the President is the Head of State, they do not decide the salary of the Vice President; the President's own salary (5 lakh per month) is also determined by Parliament.
• Election Commission:
• The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting the election of the Vice President under Article 66, but it has no role in administrative or financial decisions like salary fixation.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Yakshagana is a traditional folk theater form that originated in the Coastal Karnataka region and the Malenadu districts of India.
• The art form is a sophisticated blend of dance, music, improvised dialogue, costume, makeup, and stage techniques, dating back to at least the 11^th to 16^th century.
• A typical performance is led by the Bhagavatha, who acts as the singer, narrator, and director, controlling the pace of the play while playing the Tala (cymbals).
• The themes are primarily drawn from ancient Indian epics such as the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and the Bhagavata Purana, focusing on the triumph of good over evil.
• The performers, known as Mummela, wear elaborate headgear called Kirita, vibrant costumes, and heavy facial makeup to depict various supernatural, heroic, or demonic characters.
• The background musicians, or Himmela, use traditional percussion instruments like the Maddale (hand drum) and the Chande (loud drum used for war scenes).

 Additional Information

• Styles of Yakshagana:
• Badagutittu: Prevalent in the northern coastal areas like Uttara Kannada and Udupi, it is characterized by its emphasis on forceful dance and elaborate headgear.
• Tenkutittu: Popular in the southern regions like Dakshina Kannada and Kasaragod, this style features complex percussion patterns and more graceful movements.
• Other State Folk Traditions:
• Kerala: Known for Kathakali, a highly stylized classical dance-drama, and Theyyam, a ritualistic performance.
• Tamil Nadu: Famous for Therukoothu (street theater) and Karakattam, which are deeply rooted in village temple festivals.
• Andhra Pradesh: Home to Kuchipudi (classical dance) and Burra Katha, a narrative storytelling technique using a stringed instrument.

The correct answer is An applied force compels a change.

Key Points

• Newton's First Law of Motion, often referred to as the Law of Inertia, was first published by Sir Isaac Newton in his 1687 landmark work, Philosophiæ Naturalis Principia Mathematica.
• The law states that an object will remain in its current state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless it is acted upon by an unbalanced external force. This implies that motion does not require a force to maintain it, but a change in motion does.
• Inertia is the fundamental property of matter that describes its tendency to resist any change in its state of motion. The amount of inertia an object possesses is directly proportional to its mass.
• From a mathematical perspective, if the net force (ΣF) acting on a body is zero, the velocity of the body remains constant, meaning its acceleration (a) is zero. An applied force is the necessary input to break this equilibrium.
• This law effectively defines force qualitatively as an agency that can change the state of rest or uniform motion of a body.

 Additional Information

• Balanced Forces:
• These occur when multiple forces acting on an object have a net sum of zero. While balanced forces can cause deformation (change in shape), they cannot change the object's velocity or direction.
• Friction:
• A contact force that opposes the relative motion or tendency of motion between two surfaces. While friction often slows objects down in real-world scenarios, the first law applies broadly to any external force, not just friction.
• Gravity:
• A non-contact force of attraction between two masses. In the context of Newtonian mechanics, gravity acts as an external force that can change an object's speed or path, such as in projectile motion or orbital mechanics.
• Frames of Reference:
• Newton's laws are strictly valid in inertial frames of reference, which are frames that are not accelerating or rotating relative to the 'fixed' stars.

The correct answer is Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra.

Key Points

• Ruskin Bond, a prolific Indian author of British descent, was honored with the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award in 1992 for his literary excellence in English.
• The award-winning work, 'Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra', is a poignant collection of semi-autobiographical short stories that vividly capture the author's deep connection with the Himalayan foothills and the town of Dehradun.
• The stories in this collection span several decades of Bond's life, reflecting themes of nature, nostalgia, and the simplicity of life in the Garhwal hills.
• The Sahitya Akademi recognized this work for its evocative prose and its ability to portray the Indian landscape and its people with immense sensitivity and clarity.

 Additional Information

• Other Notable Works by Ruskin Bond:
• The Blue Umbrella: Published in 1980, this is a beloved children's novel centered on a young girl named Binya. It was later adapted into a National Award-winning film.
• Angry River: This was Bond's first novel written specifically for children, published in 1972, featuring the character Sita and her struggle against a natural disaster.
• Delhi Is Not Far: A classic novel that explores the life and aspirations of people in a small town called Pipalnagar, highlighting their desire to move to the capital city.
• The Room on the Roof: His debut novel, written at the age of 17, which won the John Llewellyn Rhys Prize in 1957.
• Major Honors:
• Beyond the Sahitya Akademi Award, Ruskin Bond was conferred with the Padma Shri in 1999 and the Padma Bhushan in 2014 for his monumental contributions to children's literature and Indian writing in English.

The correct answer is East to West.

Key Points

• The Narmada River is the largest west-flowing river in peninsular India, traversing a distance of approximately 1,312 km.
• It originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in the Anuppur district of Madhya Pradesh at an elevation of about 1,057 meters.
• The river flows through a Rift Valley created by down-faulting, situated between the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south.
• Its drainage basin covers parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Chhattisgarh, eventually emptying into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat.
• Unlike most major peninsular rivers that flow towards the east and form deltas, the Narmada flows East to West and forms a broad estuary.

 Additional Information

• Geographical and Cultural Significance:
• It is often referred to as the Lifeline of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat due to its huge contribution to the state economies through irrigation and power.
• The Sardar Sarovar Dam, one of the largest water resources projects in India, is built across this river in Gujarat.
• The river creates the famous Dhuandhar Falls (Marble Rocks) near Jabalpur, where the water plunges over steep rocks.
• Major tributaries of the Narmada include the Hiran, Orsang, Barna, and Kolar on the right bank, and the Sher, Shakkar, Dudhi, and Tawa on the left bank.
• The Tapi River (Tapti) is the other major river in India that flows in the same East to West direction within a rift valley.

The correct answer is Northern Plains.

Key Points

• The Northern Plains of India are formed by the alluvial deposits brought down by three major river systems: the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra, along with their numerous tributaries.
• This physiographic division is characterized by the presence of Alluvial Soil, which is considered the most fertile soil type in India due to its rich content of potash, phosphoric acid, and lime.
• The plains were formed over millions of years as alluvium was deposited in a vast foredeep basin located at the foothills of the Himalayas, creating a level land surface ideal for intensive agriculture.
• With a total area of approximately 7 lakh square kilometers, this region is one of the world's most agriculturally productive areas, supporting a high population density due to favorable climate and perennial water supply.
• The soil is consistently renewed by annual river floods, particularly in the Khadar regions, ensuring sustained fertility for crops like rice, wheat, sugarcane, and jute.

 Additional Information

• Coastal Plains:
• Divided into the Western Coastal Plains and the Eastern Coastal Plains.
• While the deltas of the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri are very fertile, the overall extent is much smaller than the Northern Plains.
• Peninsular Plateau:
• The oldest landmass of India, primarily composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
• Contains the Deccan Trap region, famous for Black Soil (Regur), which is excellent for cotton cultivation but lacks the widespread versatility of alluvium.
• Himalayan Mountains:
• Feature Mountain Soils or Forest Soils which vary significantly with altitude.
• In high-altitude snow-bound areas, these soils are often acidic with low humus content and are generally immature and skeletal.

The correct answer is James Chadwick.

Key Points

• In 1932, the British physicist James Chadwick discovered the neutron, a subatomic particle that carries no electrical charge and has a mass slightly greater than that of a proton.
• Chadwick conducted an experiment where he bombarded beryllium with alpha particles emitted from a polonium source. This interaction produced a highly penetrating radiation that was not deflected by electric or magnetic fields.
• He concluded that this radiation consisted of neutral particles, which he termed neutrons. This discovery solved the mystery of why the atomic mass of most elements was higher than the combined mass of their protons and electrons.
• The identification of the neutron was a pivotal moment in nuclear physics, providing the necessary tool for the fission of uranium-235 and leading directly to the development of the atomic bomb.
• For his significant contribution to science, James Chadwick was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1935.

 Additional Information

• Ernest Rutherford:
• He is widely known as the Father of Nuclear Physics and discovered the atomic nucleus in 1911 through the famous Gold Foil Experiment.
• In 1917, he performed the first artificial transmutation of an element and is credited with the discovery of the proton.
• Niels Bohr:
• In 1913, he proposed the Bohr Model of the atom, which integrated quantum theory to describe how electrons revolve in stable, circular orbits around the nucleus.
• He explained that electrons can only occupy specific quantized energy levels.
• Wolfgang Pauli:
• He was an Austrian theoretical physicist known for formulating the Pauli Exclusion Principle in 1925.
• The principle states that no two electrons (or other fermions) in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.

The correct answer is Cost, time, and procedures to obtain electricity.

Key Points

• The Getting Electricity indicator is a crucial component of the Ease of Doing Business (EODB) Index, formerly published annually by the World Bank Group.
• It measures the efficiency of the public utility in providing a permanent electricity connection to a newly constructed standardized warehouse.
• The Procedures metric tracks every interaction between the business owner and external agencies, such as the utility company, government departments, or electrical inspectorates.
• The Time metric records the number of calendar days required to complete each procedure, from the initial application to the actual flow of electricity.
• The Cost metric includes all fees associated with the connection, including security deposits and costs for external works, expressed as a percentage of the economy’s Gross National Income (GNI) per capita.
• Since 2015, the indicator also incorporates the Reliability of Supply and Transparency of Tariffs Index, which evaluates the frequency and duration of power outages (using SAIDI and SAIFI indices).

 Additional Information

• Ease of Doing Business Index:
• Launched in 2003, it ranked 190 economies based on regulatory environments.
• Other key indicators included Starting a Business, Registering Property, and Resolving Insolvency.
• The report was officially discontinued in September 2021 following internal audits regarding data integrity.
• It has been replaced by a new flagship framework called Business Ready (B-READY), which focuses on the private sector development and the overall investment climate.
• Technical Specifications:
• The Getting Electricity data is based on a specific case study: a warehouse with a subscribed capacity of 140 kVA located in the largest business city of the country.
• The connection is assumed to be low-voltage, three-phase, and overhead or underground depending on the local norm.

The correct answer is Aditya-L1.

Key Points

• Aditya-L1 is India's premier space-based observatory dedicated to studying the Sun, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on September 2, 2023.
• The mission is positioned in a halo orbit around the Lagrangian Point 1 (L1), which is situated approximately 1.5 million kilometers from Earth, providing an unobstructed view of the Sun.
• The Solar Ultra-violet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) is one of the seven primary payloads on board, designed to capture high-resolution images of the solar photosphere and chromosphere in the near-ultraviolet (200-400 nm) wavelength range.
• In early 2025, ISRO transitioned SUIT into its regular science operations phase, releasing the first comprehensive sets of science data to the global research community for analyzing solar irradiance and space weather.
• The SUIT instrument is critical for understanding the coupling and dynamics of the solar atmosphere and measuring the total solar irradiance variations that impact Earth's climate.

 Additional Information

• Solar Ultra-violet Imaging Telescope (SUIT):
• Developed by the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA), Pune, in collaboration with various ISRO centers.
• It helps in monitoring solar flares and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) that can disrupt satellite communications and power grids on Earth.
• XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite):
• Launched in January 2024, it is India's first dedicated mission to study the polarization of cosmic X-rays from sources like black holes and neutron stars.
• AstroSat:
• India's first multi-wavelength space observatory, launched in 2015, capable of simultaneous observations in Optical, UV, and X-ray bands.
• Chandrayaan-3:
• A highly successful lunar mission that achieved a historic soft landing near the Lunar South Pole on August 23, 2023, making India the fourth nation to land on the Moon.

The correct answer is 1965.

Key Points

• The Judo Federation of India (JFI) was formally established in 1965 to unify various regional groups and standardize the practice of Judo across the nation.
• Upon its formation in 1965, the federation immediately sought and obtained official affiliation with the International Judo Federation (IJF), the global authority for the sport.
• The JFI is also affiliated with the Judo Union of Asia (JUA) and is recognized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
• The first National Judo Championship under the aegis of the JFI was organized in 1966 at Hyderabad, marking the beginning of organized competitive Judo in India.
• Key pioneers like Sheri N.D. Dewan, who served as the first General Secretary, played a crucial role in the institutionalization of the federation.

 Additional Information

• Evolution and Significant Milestones:
• Historical Background: While the federation was formed in 1965, Judo was introduced to India much earlier; Rabindranath Tagore invited a Japanese instructor to Shantiniketan in 1905, and the Kodokan Judo Academy was later established in Mumbai (then Bombay) in 1929.
• 1986 Seoul Asian Games: This year was a turning point for Indian Judo as the sport was included for the first time in the Asian Games, and Indian judokas secured four bronze medals, boosting the federation's prominence.
• Core Functions: The JFI is responsible for conducting technical seminars, grading examinations for Dan (Black Belt) rankings, and selecting the national team for international events like the Commonwealth Games and the Olympic Games.
• Administrative Hub: The federation operates with its headquarters currently based in New Delhi, managing state associations across India to promote the sport at the grassroots level.

The correct answer is Its orbiter continues to send data.

Key Points

• Chandrayaan-2 was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on July 22, 2019, from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre using the GSLV MK-III M1 launch vehicle.
• The mission was designed as a composite module consisting of a lunar Orbiter, the Vikram Lander, and the Pragyan Rover to explore the uncharted Lunar South Pole.
• While the Vikram lander suffered a hard landing on September 7, 2019, due to a technical anomaly in the final braking phase, the Orbiter was successfully placed in a polar orbit around the Moon.
• The Orbiter carries eight sophisticated scientific instruments and has enough fuel to remain operational for approximately seven years, significantly exceeding its initial one-year mission life.
• It continues to transmit high-resolution imagery and data regarding the lunar topography, mineralogy, and the distribution of water ice. Hence, the statement regarding the orbiter's continuous data transmission is correct.

 Additional Information

• Orbiter Payloads:
• The Orbiter High-Resolution Camera (OHRC) provides the sharpest images ever from a lunar mission, with a resolution of 0.3 meters.
• The CLASS (Chandrayaan-2 Large Area Soft X-ray Spectrometer) maps the abundance of major rock-forming elements like Magnesium, Aluminum, and Silicon.
• Successor Mission:
• The infrastructure and communication relay of the Chandrayaan-2 Orbiter played a pivotal role in the success of Chandrayaan-3, which achieved a historic soft landing in August 2023.
• Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM):
• Known as Mangalyaan, it was launched in November 2013, making India the first nation to reach Mars orbit on its maiden attempt.
• Gaganyaan Mission:
• This represents India's first manned space mission, intended to carry Indian astronauts (Gaganauts) into a Low Earth Orbit (LEO).

The correct answer is M. Visvesvaraya.

Key Points

• Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya was a distinguished civil engineer and the 19^th Diwan of Mysore, serving from 1912 to 1918.
• He is celebrated as the Father of Indian Planning because he was the first to propose a structured economic plan for the nation to combat poverty and underdevelopment.
• In 1934, he authored the landmark book 'Planned Economy for India', which presented a ten-year blueprint for economic development and industrialization.
• Visvesvaraya famously coined the slogan 'Industrialize or Perish', emphasizing that India's survival depended on transitioning from a purely agrarian society to an industrialized economy.
• His contributions to infrastructure, including the Krishna Raja Sagara dam, and his vision for technical education laid the foundation for modern Indian engineering.

 Additional Information

• Dadabhai Naoroji:
• Known as the Grand Old Man of India, he was a key figure in the Indian National Congress.
• He authored 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India' and formulated the Drain of Wealth theory.
• Jawaharlal Nehru:
• The first Prime Minister of India and the first Chairman of the Planning Commission established in 1950.
• He was the architect of the Mixed Economy model and advocated for state-led Socialist planning.
• P.C. Mahalanobis:
• Regarded as the Father of Indian Statistics and founder of the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI).
• He designed the Mahalanobis Model, which served as the cornerstone for the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961), focusing on heavy industries.

The correct answer is 1951.

Key Points

• The industrial licensing system in India was formally established through the enactment of the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act (IDRA) in 1951, which came into force in May 1952.
• The primary objective of this act was to provide the Central Government with the necessary powers to regulate and develop industries in accordance with national priorities and the objectives set out in the Five-Year Plans.
• Under the 1951 Act, a license was mandatory for establishing any new industrial undertaking, manufacturing a New Article in an existing plant, or carrying out a substantial expansion of production capacity.
• The system was designed to prevent the Concentration of Economic Power, protect the interests of Small-Scale Industries (SSI), and ensure Balanced Regional Development by incentivizing industries in backward areas.
• This regulatory framework formed the core of the License Permit Raj, which allowed the state to control the allocation of capital and resources to ensure they served the Socialistic Pattern of Society.

 Additional Information

• Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1948:
• This was the first official policy statement after independence, which introduced the concept of a Mixed Economy where both the public and private sectors co-existed.
• It reserved certain sectors like Arms and Ammunition, Atomic Energy, and Railway Transport exclusively for the state.
• Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956:
• Often termed the Economic Constitution of India, it expanded the public sector's scope and classified industries into three schedules: Schedule A (State monopoly), Schedule B (State-led), and Schedule C (Private sector).
• It emphasized the development of Heavy and Machine-building Industries as part of the Mahalanobis Model of growth.
• New Industrial Policy (NIP) 1991:
• Marked by the Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) reforms, this policy abolished industrial licensing for almost all industries.
• Currently, compulsory licensing is limited to only five sectors, including Defense Equipment, Industrial Explosives, and Hazardous Chemicals, primarily for security and safety reasons.

The correct answer is INDIA-AI Mission.

Key Points

• The IndiaAI Mission is a comprehensive national-level initiative designed to establish a robust Artificial Intelligence ecosystem in India by fostering innovation and ensuring technological sovereignty.
• A primary objective of the mission is the creation of a massive AI Computing Infrastructure, which involves the deployment of over 10,000 Graphics Processing Units (GPUs) through public-private partnerships to support startups and researchers.
• The mission establishes the IndiaAI Datasets Platform, which acts as a central repository for high-quality, non-personal datasets to help Indian developers train advanced AI models.
• It focuses on indigenous development through the IndiaAI Innovation Centre, which is tasked with building Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and foundational models specifically tailored to Indian languages and sectors like agriculture and healthcare.
• The framework aims to democratize AI benefits by supporting Deep-Tech startups and integrating AI education into the national curriculum to bridge the digital talent gap.

 Additional Information

• Financial Allocation and Governance:
• The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, approved a total financial outlay of ₹10,372.92 crore for this mission.
• The mission is implemented by the 'IndiaAI' Independent Business Division (IBD) under the Digital India Corporation (DIC) within the Ministry of Electronics and IT.
• Key Pillars:
• IndiaAI FutureSkills: This component focuses on creating AI-ready vocational courses and establishing Data and AI Labs in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities.
• Safe & Trusted AI: This pillar ensures the development of ethical AI frameworks, focusing on bias mitigation and establishing guardrails for responsible deployment.
• IndiaAI Startup Financing: Provides streamlined access to capital for early-stage deep-tech AI firms to accelerate commercialization.

The correct answer is Reduce fiscal deficit.

Key Points

• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was enacted in August 2003 with the primary goal of institutionalizing fiscal discipline in the Indian economy.
• The act aims to reduce the government's fiscal deficit and eliminate the revenue deficit to ensure long-term macroeconomic stability and inter-generational equity in fiscal management.
• It provides a legal framework that requires the Central Government to limit its fiscal deficit to a sustainable percentage of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP), originally targeting a reduction to 3% by March 2009.
• Under this act, the government is mandated to lay three significant documents before the Parliament along with the annual budget: the Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement, the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, and the Macroeconomic Framework Statement.
• By restricting government borrowing, the act prevents the crowding out of private investment and helps control inflationary pressures within the economy.

 Additional Information

• Evolution and Reviews:
• The N.K. Singh Committee was constituted in 2016 to review the FRBM Act; it recommended a Debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% (40% for the Centre and 20% for States) as a target for 2023.
• The act contains an Escape Clause, which allows the government to deviate from the deficit targets during national security concerns, war, natural calamities, or a collapse of agriculture.
• Distinction from other functions:
• Control money supply: This is a function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) through its Monetary Policy tools like the Repo Rate, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
• Manage exports: Export management is handled via the Foreign Trade Policy formulated by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT).
• Promote cooperative banking: This is governed by the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and falls under the supervisory jurisdiction of the RBI and NABARD.

The correct answer is Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS).

Key Points

• The Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) was introduced in the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2015-20 to promote the export of notified goods produced in India.
• The scheme specifically includes Special Economic Zones (SEZs) units, making them eligible for financial rewards to offset infrastructural inefficiencies and associated costs involved in exporting.
• Incentives under MEIS are provided in the form of Duty Credit Scrips, which are calculated as a percentage (usually 2% to 7%) of the realized Free on Board (FOB) value of exports in free foreign exchange.
• The scheme consolidated five earlier incentive programs, such as the Focus Product Scheme (FPS) and Market Linked Focus Product Scheme (MLFPS), into a single unified framework to simplify the process for exporters.
• By providing these incentives, the Ministry of Commerce and Industry aimed to enhance the global competitiveness of Indian manufactured goods and increase India’s share in world trade.

 Additional Information

• Duty Credit Scrips:
• These are freely transferable instruments that can be used to pay Basic Customs Duty on the import of inputs, capital goods, or other notified items.
• If an exporter cannot use the scrips for their own imports, they can be sold in the secondary market at a premium.
• Special Economic Zones (SEZs):
• Governed by the SEZ Act, 2005, these zones are treated as foreign territories for trade operations and duties, offering tax holidays and simplified procedures.
• Units in SEZs enjoy 100% Income Tax exemption on export income for the first 5 years under Section 10AA of the Income Tax Act.
• Transition to RoDTEP:
• To align with World Trade Organization (WTO) requirements regarding export subsidies, the MEIS was replaced by the Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP) scheme effective from January 1, 2021.

The correct answer is 15%.

Key Points

• The Economic Survey 2024-25 (presented in July 2024) provides a comprehensive analysis of the General Government expenditure, which includes the combined spending of the Central Government and State Governments.
• According to the survey data, the total expenditure on Social Services has grown at a Compounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 15% during the period from FY 2021 to FY 2025 (Budget Estimates).
• Social services expenditure primarily consists of three major heads: Education, Health, and Other Social Sectors (which covers housing, water supply, and sanitation).
• In absolute terms, the spending on social services increased significantly from ₹12.8 lakh crore in FY 2019 to approximately ₹21.3 lakh crore in FY 2023 (Revised Estimates), maintaining a robust trajectory through the FY 2025 budget.
• The share of Social Services expenditure as a percentage of the total Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has remained stable at around 6.7% to 7.8% over this period, highlighting the government’s commitment to social welfare.

 Additional Information

• Health Sector Focus:
• The Health expenditure share within the social services segment saw a notable rise, driven by post-pandemic infrastructure strengthening and the expansion of the Ayushman Bharat scheme.
• Education Sector Trends:
• Investment in Education remains the largest component of social sector spending, with a renewed focus on the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and digital learning initiatives.
• Budgetary Priorities:
• The 15% growth reflects the transition from crisis-response spending in FY 2021 to long-term Social Infrastructure development, ensuring that the benefits of economic growth reach the vulnerable sections of society.

The correct answer is Tantia Tope.

Key Points

• Rani Lakshmi Bai, the legendary queen of the princely state of Jhansi, was a central figure in the Indian Rebellion of 1857, resisting British annexation under the Doctrine of Lapse.
• When the British forces, commanded by Sir Hugh Rose, besieged the Jhansi Fort in March 1858, the Rani led a fierce defense of her territory.
• Tantia Tope, a highly skilled general and close associate of Nana Saheb, marched with an army of approximately 20,000 men to assist the Rani and relieve the siege at Jhansi.
• Despite the defeat at the Battle of Betwa, Tantia Tope and Rani Lakshmi Bai successfully coordinated their escape and retreated toward Kalpi.
• The two leaders, along with Rao Sahib, executed a daring plan to capture the Gwalior Fort from the Scindia rulers, who remained loyal to the British, making it a major stronghold for the rebel forces.
• The partnership between Rani Lakshmi Bai and Tantia Tope represented one of the most significant military alliances during the First War of Independence.

 Additional Information

• Tantia Tope:
• His original name was Ramachandra Panduranga and he was born in Yeola, Maharashtra.
• He was known for his expertise in guerrilla warfare and continued the struggle against the British in the jungles of Central India until his capture and execution in April 1859.
• Begum Hazrat Mahal:
• She was the wife of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah and took charge of the rebellion in Lucknow (Awadh).
• She declared her son, Birjis Qadr, as the Wali of Awadh and organized resistance against Sir Henry Lawrence.
• Bahadur Shah Zafar:
• The last Mughal Emperor of India, he was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan by the sepoys in Delhi during the 1857 Revolt.
• He was later tried for treason and exiled to Rangoon, Burma, by the British.
• Rani Avantibai Lodhi:
• The queen of Ramgarh (Mandla district), she raised an army of 4,000 to fight the British and is remembered for her sacrifice in the Central Provinces.

The correct answer is Indian National Army (INA).

Key Points

• The Indian National Army (INA), also known as the Azad Hind Fauj, was an armed force formed by Indian nationalists in 1942 in Southeast Asia during World War II.
• While the army was initially conceived by Captain Mohan Singh with the assistance of the Japanese, it was later reorganized and revitalized under the leadership of Subhas Chandra Bose after his arrival in Singapore in July 1943.
• The primary objective of the INA was to liberate India from British colonial rule through an armed struggle, operating in conjunction with the Japanese Imperial Army during the Burma Campaign.
• Subhas Chandra Bose assumed the role of Supreme Commander of the army and established the Provisional Government of Free India (Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind) in October 1943.
• Under Netaji's leadership, the INA consisted of various regiments named after prominent leaders like Gandhi, Nehru, and Azad, symbolizing a united front for National Independence.

 Additional Information

• Structure and Special Units:
• The INA was unique for its time as it featured a dedicated all-female combat unit known as the Rani of Jhansi Regiment, commanded by Captain Lakshmi Sahgal.
• The force was largely composed of Indian Prisoners of War (POWs) who had been captured by the Japanese after the fall of Singapore in 1942.
• Famous Slogans and Legacy:
• Subhas Chandra Bose motivated his troops with the powerful slogan Give me blood, and I shall give you freedom.
• The Red Fort Trials of 1945, where INA officers were prosecuted by the British, triggered massive public demonstrations and significantly weakened the British Raj's control over the Indian military.

Shortcut Trick

Solve brackets and multiplication first, then group positive and negative terms.

132 − 44 + 42 − 18

⇒ (132 + 42) − (44 + 18)

⇒ 174 − 62 = 112

∴ The correct answer is 112.

Alternate Method

Given expression: 66 × 2 − 44 + (23 + 19) − 18

Formula Used: BODMAS Rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

⇒ 66 × 2 − 44 + (42) − 18 (Solving the Bracket)

⇒ 132 − 44 + 42 − 18 (Performing Multiplication)

⇒ 132 + 42 − 44 − 18 (Rearranging Addition terms)

⇒ 174 − 62 (Performing Addition for both groups)

⇒ 112 (Final Subtraction)

∴ The correct answer is 112.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

This rule dictates the hierarchy of operations: Brackets first, then Orders (powers/roots), followed by Division and Multiplication, and finally Addition and Subtraction.

Digital Sum Verification

To verify, find the digital sum of the expression: (6+6)×2 − (4+4) + (2+3+1+9) − (1+8) → 3×2 − 8 + 6 − 9 = 4. The digital sum of 112 is 1+1+2 = 4, confirming the result.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the expression using the VBODMAS priority order.

Perform Of calculation first: (28 of 2) = 56.

Perform Division and Multiplication: 36 ÷ 6 = 6 and 17 × 2 = 34.

Final calculation: 64 + 6 − 56 + 34 = 48.

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Alternate Method

Given: 64 + 36 ÷ 6 − (28 of 2) + 17 × 2

Using the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):

⇒ 64 + 36 ÷ 6 − (28 × 2) + 17 × 2

⇒ 64 + 36 ÷ 6 − 56 + 17 × 2 (Solved Of inside bracket)

⇒ 64 + 6 − 56 + 17 × 2 (Solved Division: 36 ÷ 6 = 6)

⇒ 64 + 6 − 56 + 34 (Solved Multiplication: 17 × 2 = 34)

⇒ 70 − 56 + 34 (Solved Addition: 64 + 6 = 70)

⇒ 14 + 34 = 48 (Solved Subtraction then final Addition)

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Additional Information

VBODMAS Rule

The acronym stands for Vinculum, Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction, representing the hierarchy of mathematical operations.

The 'Of' Operator

The Of operator is mathematically equivalent to multiplication but must be executed before division and standard multiplication.

Left-to-Right Precedence

When multiple operators of the same level (like addition and subtraction) appear, they are generally solved from left to right for consistency.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the factors of the denominators: 1×2, 2×3, 3×4, ..., 9×10.

For a telescoping series where the difference between factors is 1:

Sum = (1 ÷ Difference) × [(1 ÷ First Factor) − (1 ÷ Last Factor)]

Sum = (1 ÷ 1) × [1/1 − 1/10] = 1 − 0.1 = 9/10.

∴ The correct answer is 9/10.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: (1/2) + (1/6) + (1/12) + (1/20) + ... + (1/90)

Method: Convert each term into partial fractions.

⇒ 1/(1×2) + 1/(2×3) + 1/(3×4) + 1/(4×5) + ... + 1/(9×10)

⇒ (1/1 − 1/2) + (1/2 − 1/3) + (1/3 − 1/4) + (1/4 − 1/5) + ... + (1/9 − 1/10)

⇒ 1 − 1/2 + 1/2 − 1/3 + 1/3 − 1/4 + ... + 1/9 − 1/10

⇒ On cancelling intermediate terms: 1 − 1/10

⇒ (10 − 1) / 10

⇒ 9/10

∴ The correct answer is 9/10.

Additional Information

Telescoping Series Formula

For a series of the form Σ 1/[n(n+k)], the sum is (1/k) × [Σ(1/n − 1/(n+k))]. All intermediate terms cancel out except the first 'k' and last 'k' terms.

Sum of First 'n' Terms

The sum of the first 'n' terms of the series 1/(1×2) + 1/(2×3) + ... + 1/[n(n+1)] is always given by the direct formula: n / (n+1).

Partial Fraction Decomposition

It is a method used to break down complex rational expressions into sums of simpler fractions, which is highly useful in calculus and infinite series.

Shortcut Trick

Convert the recurring decimals into their expanded form for direct comparison.

Target value: 0.63̅ = 0.6333...

Option 1: 0.64 = 0.6400... (Greater)

Option 2: 0.67̅ = 0.6777... (Greater)

Option 3: 0.61̅ = 0.6111... (Smaller)

Option 4: 0.69 = 0.6900... (Greater)

∴ The correct answer is 0.61̅.

Alternate Method

Given: The decimal value is 0.63̅.

Formula Used: To convert a mixed recurring decimal to a fraction: (Full number − Non-recurring part) ÷ (9 for every repeating digit followed by 0 for every non-repeating digit after decimal).

⇒ Convert 0.63̅ to a fraction: (63 − 6) ÷ 90 = 57/90

⇒ Check Option 1: 0.64 = 64/100 = 57.6/90 (Greater than 57/90)

⇒ Check Option 2: 0.67̅ = (67 − 6) ÷ 90 = 61/90 (Greater than 57/90)

⇒ Check Option 3: 0.61̅ = (61 − 6) ÷ 90 = 55/90 (Smaller than 57/90)

⇒ Check Option 4: 0.69 = 69/100 = 62.1/90 (Greater than 57/90)

⇒ Comparing the numerators with a common denominator of 90: 55 < 57.

∴ The correct answer is 0.61̅.

Additional Information

Pure Recurring Decimal

A decimal in which all the figures after the decimal point are repeated. Example: 0.3̅ = 3/9 = 1/3.

Mixed Recurring Decimal

A decimal in which at least one figure after the decimal point is not repeated and then some figures are repeated. Example: 0.12̅ = (12 − 1)/90 = 11/90.

Comparison of Decimals

Compare the digits from left to right. The first place where digits differ determines which decimal is larger (e.g., 0.63 vs 0.61, since 3 > 1, 0.63 is larger).

Shortcut Trick

Convert the mixed fractions and options into decimal values for quick comparison.

Range: 2 1/3 ≈ 2.33 and 2 5/6 ≈ 2.83.

Option 1: 18/7 ≈ 2.57 (Lies within the range 2.33 to 2.83).

Option 2 & 3: 17/9 ≈ 1.89 and 20/11 ≈ 1.82 (Both are less than 2.33).

Option 4: 38/13 ≈ 2.92 (This is greater than 2.83).

∴ The correct answer is 18/7.

Alternate Method

Given:

Lower Limit: 2 1/3 = 7/3

Upper Limit: 2 5/6 = 17/6

Method: Convert all fractions to common denominators or use cross-multiplication to verify the inequality.

⇒ Convert 7/3 and 18/7 to compare: (7 × 7) = 49 and (18 × 3) = 54. Since 54 > 49, then 18/7 > 7/3.

⇒ Convert 18/7 and 17/6 to compare: (18 × 6) = 108 and (17 × 7) = 119. Since 108 < 119, then 18/7 < 17/6.

⇒ Since 7/3 < 18/7 < 17/6, the value lies in the required interval.

⇒ Checking other options: 17/9 = 1.88, 20/11 = 1.81, and 38/13 = 2.92. None fall between 2.33 and 2.83.

∴ The correct answer is 18/7.

Additional Information

Comparison of Fractions

To compare two fractions a/b and c/d, check the products (a × d) and (b × c). If ad > bc, then a c/d.

Mixed Fraction Conversion

A mixed fraction a b/c is converted to an improper fraction using the formula: (a × c + b) / c.

Density Property of Rational Numbers

Between any two rational numbers, there are infinitely many other rational numbers that can be found by taking the average or using common denominators.

Shortcut Trick

In a Rhombus, the Area is given by half the product of its Diagonals.

Second Diagonal (d₂) = (2 × Area) ÷ d₁

d₂ = (2 × 112) ÷ 14 = 224 ÷ 14 = 16 cm

∴ The correct answer is 16 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of the Rhombus = 112 cm²

Length of one Diagonal (d₁) = 14 cm

Formula Used:

Area of Rhombus = (1 ÷ 2) × d₁ × d₂

Calculations:

⇒ 112 = (1 ÷ 2) × 14 × d₂

⇒ 112 = 7 × d₂

⇒ d₂ = 112 ÷ 7

⇒ d₂ = 16 cm

∴ The correct answer is 16 cm.

Additional Information

Side Length of a Rhombus

The side 'a' can be calculated using the diagonals: a = (1 ÷ 2) × √(d₁² + d₂²).

Relationship between Side and Diagonals

For any Rhombus, the sum of the squares of the Diagonals is equal to four times the square of its side: d₁² + d₂² = 4a².

Perimeter of a Rhombus

Since all sides are equal in a Rhombus, the perimeter is simply 4 × side.

Shortcut Trick

Side of the Rhombus = 100 ÷ 4 = 25 cm.

Half of the given diagonal (d₁/2) = 40 ÷ 2 = 20 cm.

Recognize the Pythagorean triplet (15, 20, 25) ⇒ Half of other diagonal (d₂/2) = 15 cm.

Total second diagonal (d₂) = 15 × 2 = 30 cm.

Required ratio = 40 : 30 = 4 : 3.

∴ The correct answer is 4:3.

Alternate Method

Given: Perimeter = 100 cm, Diagonal₁ (d₁) = 40 cm.

Formula: Side (a) = Perimeter ÷ 4; (Side)² = (d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)².

⇒ Side (a) = 100 ÷ 4 = 25 cm.

⇒ (25)² = (40 ÷ 2)² + (d₂ ÷ 2)²

⇒ 625 = 20² + (d₂ ÷ 2)²

⇒ 625 = 400 + (d₂ ÷ 2)²

⇒ (d₂ ÷ 2)² = 625 − 400 = 225

⇒ d₂ ÷ 2 = √225 = 15 cm

⇒ Diagonal₂ (d₂) = 15 × 2 = 30 cm.

⇒ Ratio = d₁ : d₂ = 40 : 30 = 4 : 3.

∴ The correct answer is 4:3.

Additional Information

Area of Rhombus

The area of a rhombus is calculated as half the product of its diagonals: Area = 1/2 × d₁ × d₂.

Diagonals Property

The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at right angles (90°) and also bisect the interior angles.

Relation between Side and Diagonals

The sum of the squares of the diagonals is equal to four times the square of the side: d₁² + d₂² = 4 × a².

Shortcut Trick

For any two numbers, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM.

Other number = (Product of HCF × LCM) ÷ Given number

Other number = 6930 ÷ 154 = 45

∴ The correct answer is 45.

Alternate Method

Given:

Product of HCF and LCM = 6930

One number (n₁) = 154

Formula Used:

n₁ × n₂ = HCF × LCM

Calculations:

⇒ 154 × n₂ = 6930

⇒ n₂ = 6930 ÷ 154

⇒ n₂ = 3465 ÷ 77 (Dividing by 2)

⇒ n₂ = 495 ÷ 11 (Dividing by 7)

⇒ n₂ = 45

∴ The correct answer is 45.

Additional Information

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two numbers a and b, the product of the numbers is always equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are said to be co-prime if their Highest Common Factor (HCF) is 1. For such numbers, their LCM is simply the product of the numbers.

Divisibility by HCF

The LCM of any set of numbers is always exactly divisible by their HCF.

Shortcut Trick

For two numbers in the ratio a : b, if a and b are co-prime, then HCF = LCM ÷ (a × b).

Here, Ratio = 2 : 3 and LCM = 60.

HCF = 60 ÷ (2 × 3) = 60 ÷ 6 = 10.

Numbers = (2 × 10) and (3 × 10) = 20 and 30.

∴ The correct answer is 20, 30.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of two numbers = 2 : 3

Least Common Multiple (LCM) = 60

Formula Used:

If two numbers are ax and bx, their LCM is x × LCM(a, b).

Calculations:

⇒ Let the two numbers be 2x and 3x, where x is the Highest Common Factor (HCF).

⇒ LCM of 2x and 3x = 6x.

⇒ According to the question, 6x = 60.

⇒ x = 60 ÷ 6 = 10.

⇒ First number = 2x = 2 × 10 = 20.

⇒ Second number = 3x = 3 × 10 = 30.

∴ The correct answer is 20, 30.

Additional Information

Product Rule of Two Numbers

The product of two numbers is always equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: n₁ × n₂ = HCF × LCM.

LCM of Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime (their HCF is 1), then their LCM is simply the product of the two numbers.

HCF as a Component

Any two numbers can be written as Hx and Hy, where H is the HCF and x, y are co-prime integers.

Shortcut Trick

Let B = 1 unit.

A is 5 times more than B ⇒ A = 1 + 5 = 6 units.

Difference = 6 − 1 = 5 units.

Required percentage = (5 / 6) × 100 = 83.33%.

∴ The correct answer is 83.33%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Let the value of B be 100.

According to the question, A is 5 times more than B.

⇒ Value of A = B + 5 × B

⇒ Value of A = 100 + 500 = 600

⇒ Difference = A − B = 600 − 100 = 500

⇒ Percentage B is less than A = (Difference / A) × 100

⇒ Required % = (500 / 600) × 100

⇒ Required % = 5/6 × 100 = 83.33%

∴ The correct answer is 83.33%.

Additional Information

Difference between "Times" and "Times More"

If A is n times B, then A = n × B. If A is n times more than B, then A = B + (n × B) = (n + 1) × B.

Percentage Less Formula

Percentage Less = [(Higher Value − Lower Value) / Higher Value] × 100.

Standard Fraction Conversion

1/6 ≈ 16.66% | 5/6 ≈ 83.33% | 1/3 ≈ 33.33% | 2/3 ≈ 66.66%.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP) = 800 : 1000 = 4 : 5.

Profit = 5 − 4 = 1 unit on base of 4 units.

Profit percentage = (1 ÷ 4) × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹800

Selling Price (SP) = ₹1000

Formula Used:

Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price

Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Profit = 1000 − 800 = ₹200

⇒ Profit Percentage = (200 ÷ 800) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = (1 ÷ 4) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 25%

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage

When the Cost Price is greater than the Selling Price, a loss occurs. Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100, where Loss = CP − SP.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

Calculating SP from Profit %

The Selling Price can be directly found using the formula: SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of numbers (x : y) is found by: (1/4) × 70% × x = (1/5) × 50% × y

⇒ 7/40 × x = 1/10 × y ⇒ 7x = 4y ⇒ x : y = 4 : 7

Difference (7 − 4) = 3 units = 240 ⇒ 1 unit = 80

Sum (4 + 7) = 11 units = 11 × 80 = 880

Required value = 150% of 880 = 1.5 × 880 = 1320

∴ The correct answer is 1320.

Alternate Method

Given:

First number (A) condition: 1/4 × 70% × A

Second number (B) condition: 1/5 × 50% × B

Difference between numbers (B − A) = 240

Calculation:

⇒ (1/4) × (7/10) × A = (1/5) × (1/2) × B

⇒ 7/40 × A = 1/10 × B

⇒ 7A = 4B ⇒ A/B = 4/7

⇒ Let A = 4k and B = 7k

⇒ Difference = 7k − 4k = 3k = 240

⇒ k = 240 ÷ 3 = 80

⇒ Sum = A + B = 4k + 7k = 11k = 11 × 80 = 880

⇒ Required value = 150% of 880 = (150/100) × 880

⇒ Required value = 1.5 × 880 = 1320

∴ The correct answer is 1320.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

Converting percentages to simplified fractions (e.g., 70% = 7/10, 50% = 1/2) speeds up calculations in ratio-based problems.

Ratio Property

If aA = bB, then the ratio A : B is b : a. This inverse relationship is fundamental in solving comparison equations.

150 Percent Calculation

Calculating 150% of a value is equivalent to adding half of the value to itself (Value + 0.5 × Value).

Shortcut Trick

Total difference in Selling Prices = 2000 − 1200 = 800.

Ratio of Profit to Loss = 19 : 1 (Total units = 20).

Value of 1 unit (Loss) = 800 ÷ 20 = 40.

Cost Price (CP) = 1200 + 40 = 1240.

Profit % at 2000 = (760 ÷ 1240) × 100 = 61.29%.

∴ The correct answer is 61.29%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price 1 (SP₁) = ₹2000

Selling Price 2 (SP₂) = ₹1200

Profit = 19 × Loss

Formula Used:

Profit = SP − CP | Loss = CP − SP

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Let the Cost Price be x.

⇒ Profit at ₹2000 = 2000 − x

⇒ Loss at ₹1200 = x − 1200

⇒ According to the question: 2000 − x = 19 × (x − 1200)

⇒ 2000 − x = 19x − 22800

⇒ 20x = 24800

⇒ x = 1240

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = ₹1240

⇒ Profit at ₹2000 = 2000 − 1240 = 760

⇒ Profit % = (760 ÷ 1240) × 100 = 61.29%

∴ The correct answer is 61.29%.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when Selling Price is greater than Cost Price, while Loss occurs when Cost Price is greater than Selling Price.

Percentage Calculation

Both Profit Percentage and Loss Percentage are always calculated on the Cost Price unless otherwise specified in the question.

Relation between Profit and SP

If Profit % is P%, then SP = CP × (100 + P) ÷ 100. If Loss % is L%, then SP = CP × (100 − L) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Total Work as LCM of (9, 12, 18) = 36 units.

Efficiency of A = 36 ÷ 9 = 4 units/day.

Efficiency of B = 36 ÷ 12 = 3 units/day.

Efficiency of C = 36 ÷ 18 = 2 units/day.

Combined efficiency = 4 + 3 + 2 = 9 units/day.

Time taken = Total Work ÷ Total Efficiency = 36 ÷ 9 = 4 days.

∴ The correct answer is 4 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 9 days

Time taken by B = 12 days

Time taken by C = 18 days

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time Taken

Total Work = LCM of days taken by individuals.

Calculations:

⇒ Total efficiency of A, B, and C = 4 + 3 + 2 = 9

⇒ Time taken by A, B, and C together = Total Work ÷ Combined Efficiency

⇒ Time = 36 ÷ 9

⇒ Time = 4 days

∴ The correct answer is 4 days.

Additional Information

Combined Work Rate

If A and B can do a work in x and y days, together they take (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days.

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work (Efficiency ∝ 1/Time).

Work and Wages

When multiple people work together, wages are distributed in the ratio of their efficiencies or the amount of work done by each.

Shortcut Trick

When workers work for the same duration, their wage ratio is the inverse of their time ratio.

Time ratio of A : B = 25 : 30 = 5 : 6.

Efficiency (Wage) ratio A : B = 6 : 5.

Total units = 6 + 5 = 11 units → ₹6600.

Difference in shares = 6 − 5 = 1 unit → ₹6600 ÷ 11.

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 25 days

Time taken by B = 30 days

Total wage = ₹6600

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time taken; Wage is distributed in the ratio of efficiency when time is constant.

Calculations:

⇒ Total Efficiency of (A + B) = 6 + 5 = 11 units.

⇒ Share of A = (6 ÷ 11) × 6600 = ₹3600.

⇒ Share of B = (5 ÷ 11) × 6600 = ₹3000.

⇒ Difference in their amounts = 3600 − 3000 = ₹600.

∴ The correct answer is ₹600.

Additional Information

Wages and Efficiency

Wages are directly proportional to the amount of work done. If workers work for the same number of days, the ratio of their wages is equal to the ratio of their efficiencies.

Inverse Variation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work (E = W/T). For two people, E₁:E₂ = T₂:T₁.

Work and Wages Case

If a person finishes a work in D days, their one-day work (efficiency) is 1/D. The total wage is divided based on the total work contribution of each person.

Shortcut Trick

Speed of boat in still water = 24 km/hr

Upstream speed (Against the flow) = 16 km/hr

Speed of stream = Still water speed − Upstream speed

Speed of stream = 24 − 16 = 8 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 8 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the boat in still water (u) = 24 km/hr

Upstream speed of the boat (U) = 16 km/hr

Formula Used:

Upstream Speed (U) = Speed of boat in still water (u) − Speed of stream (v)

Calculations:

⇒ 16 = 24 − v

⇒ v = 24 − 16

⇒ v = 8 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 8 km/hr.

Additional Information

Downstream Speed

It is the speed of the boat in the direction of the stream. Formula: Downstream Speed (D) = u + v.

Still Water Speed Formula

If downstream (D) and upstream (U) speeds are known, speed in still water (u) = (D + U) ÷ 2.

Stream Speed Formula

If downstream (D) and upstream (U) speeds are known, speed of stream (v) = (D − U) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

The difference in time can be calculated by dividing the difference in distance by the constant speed.

Difference in distance = 540 km − 225 km = 315 km

Time difference = 315 km ÷ 15 km/hr = 21 hr

∴ The correct answer is 21 hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

First distance (D₁) = 540 km

Second distance (D₂) = 225 km

Speed (S) = 15 km/hr

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Time taken for first distance (T₁) = 540 ÷ 15

⇒ T₁ = 36 hr

⇒ Time taken for second distance (T₂) = 225 ÷ 15

⇒ T₂ = 15 hr

⇒ Difference between time = T₁ − T₂

⇒ Difference = 36 hr − 15 hr = 21 hr

∴ The correct answer is 21 hr.

Additional Information

Speed-Distance-Time Relation

The fundamental relation is Distance = Speed × Time. When speed is constant, distance is directly proportional to time.

Average Speed

Total distance covered divided by the total time taken. For two equal distances at speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = S₁ − S₂. When they move in opposite directions, relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Successive Percentage formula for net profit:

Net Profit % = M − D − (M × D ÷ 100)

Where Markup (M) = 80% and Discount (D) = 40%

Profit % = 80 − 40 − (80 × 40 ÷ 100) = 40 − 32 = 8%

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) of the article be 100.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) is 80% more than CP.

⇒ Discount offered is 40% on MP.

Calculations:

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = 100 + (80% of 100) = 180

⇒ Discount Amount = 40% of 180 = (40 ÷ 100) × 180 = 72

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount = 180 − 72 = 108

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 108 − 100 = 8

⇒ Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 = (8 ÷ 100) × 100 = 8%

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Additional Information

CP, MP, Profit and Discount Relation

The relationship between cost, marked price, profit, and discount is given by: CP × (100 + P%) = MP × (100 − D%).

Markup Percentage

Markup percentage is calculated on the cost price: Markup % = [(MP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of d₁% and d₂% are given, the equivalent single discount is [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂ ÷ 100)]%.

Shortcut Trick

Use the ratio-unitary method where Marked Price (MP) is 100%.

If Discount is 20%, then Selling Price (SP) = 80% of MP.

Checking Option (3): 80% = ₹3600 ⇒ 1% = ₹45 ⇒ 100% = ₹4500.

Since the result matches the required MP, Option (3) is correct.

∴ The correct answer is Selling price = Rs. 3600 and Discount = 20 percent.

Alternate Method

Given:

For the correct case, Selling Price (SP) = ₹3600 and Discount = 20%.

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = (SP × 100) ÷ (100 − Discount%)

Calculations:

⇒ Marked Price = (3600 × 100) ÷ (100 − 20)

⇒ MP = 360000 ÷ 80

⇒ MP = ₹4500

Similarly, checking other options:

⇒ Option 1: MP = 4200 ÷ 0.88 ≈ ₹4772.7

⇒ Option 2: MP = 3800 ÷ 0.86 ≈ ₹4418.6

⇒ Option 4: MP = 4100 ÷ 0.81 ≈ ₹5061.7

∴ The correct answer is Selling price = Rs. 3600 and Discount = 20 percent.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP)

Also known as the list price or printed price, it is the value before any discount is applied.

Discount Calculation

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price. Formula: Discount = MP − SP.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts a% and b% are given, the equivalent discount is (a + b − (ab/100))%.

Shortcut Trick

Let the Cost Price (CP) of the article be 100.

Based on the 25% mark-up, the Marked Price (MP) becomes 125.

With an 18% Profit, the Selling Price (SP) becomes 100 + 18 = 118.

The Discount offered is MP − SP = 125 − 118 = 7.

Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100 = (7 ÷ 125) × 100 = 5.6%.

∴ The correct answer is 5.6%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Mark-up percentage = 25%

Profit percentage = 18%

Calculations:

⇒ Let CP = 100.

⇒ MP = CP + 25% of CP = 100 + 25 = 125.

⇒ SP = CP + 18% of CP = 100 + 18 = 118.

⇒ Discount Amount = MP − SP = 125 − 118 = 7.

⇒ Discount % = (Discount Amount ÷ MP) × 100

⇒ Discount % = (7 ÷ 125) × 100 = 5.6%.

∴ The correct answer is 5.6%.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP and MP

The ratio of Marked Price to Cost Price is given by: MP ÷ CP = (100 + Profit%) ÷ (100 − Discount%).

Successive Percentage Formula

The net Profit % can also be calculated using the formula: P = M − D − (M × D) ÷ 100, where M is Mark-up % and D is Discount %.

Effective Discount

For two successive discounts of d₁% and d₂%, the single equivalent discount is: d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂) ÷ 100.

The correct answer is 'twist in the wind'.

 

Key Points

• The idiom 'twist in the wind' means to be left in a state of suspense or to be left to suffer or face a difficult situation without assistance or support.
• In the context of the sentence, it implies that Sohan abandoned his friend when the situation became too difficult to handle, leaving the friend to face the consequences alone.
• The other phrases like 'twist in the machine', 'twist in the grate', and 'twist in the vice' are not recognized idioms in the English language.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: When Sohan noticed that he could not handle the situation, he decided to leave his friend to twist in the wind.

Additional Information

• The origin of the phrase 'twist in the wind' is often attributed to the image of a body left hanging after an execution, but in modern usage, it is strictly a metaphor for being ignored or abandoned by those who could help.
• Synonyms for this idiom include left in the lurch or left high and dry.

Question 1. Which among the following alternatives is an idiom that means 'to start to rain heavily' ?

The correct answer is: The heavens open.

Key Points

• The phrase 'to start to rain heavily' refers to the commencement of rain with great intensity and volume. (मूसलाधार बारिश शुरू होना)
• Example: We had to cancel our football match because it started to rain heavily.
• 'The heavens open' is an English idiom used to describe a situation where it suddenly begins to rain very hard. (अचानक बहुत तेज़ बारिश शुरू होना)
• Example: No sooner had we stepped out of the house than the heavens opened, and we were drenched.
• Hence, we can infer that the idiom that means 'to start to rain heavily' is 'the heavens open'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- The heavens open.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• The stars open (सितारों का खुलना): This is not a standard English idiom and does not have a specific metaphorical meaning related to weather.
• Example: The phrase 'the stars open' is not used in common English parlance to describe rain.
• The lightening open (बिजली का खुलना): This is an incorrect phrase; the standard term is 'lightning strikes' or 'flashes', but 'open' is not used idiomatically here.
• Example: While there was a lot of thunder, the lightening open is not a recognized expression.
• Zeus' pitcher open (ज़्यूस के घड़े का खुलना): While Zeus is the Greek god of sky and rain, this specific combination of words is not an established English idiom.
• Example: Authors might use 'Zeus' pitcher' as a poetic reference, but it is not a common idiom for heavy rain.

The correct answer is: Fragrance.

Key Points

• The word 'aroma' refers to a distinctive, typically pleasant smell, often associated with food, spices, or flowers. (सुगंध)
• Example: The wonderful aroma of freshly baked cookies filled the entire house.
• 'Fragrance' refers to a pleasant, sweet smell, especially one that is produced by flowers, perfumes, or plants. (खुशबू)
• Example: The fragrance of jasmine in the garden is particularly strong at night.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym to the word 'aroma' is 'fragrance'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Fragrance.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Noise (शोर): A sound, especially one that is loud, unpleasant, or causes a disturbance.
• Example: The constant noise from the heavy traffic made it difficult to concentrate on my work.
• Delight (आनंद): A feeling of great pleasure, satisfaction, or happiness.
• Example: The little girl danced with delight when she received her birthday presents.
• Insight (अंतर्दृष्टि): The capacity to gain an accurate and deep intuitive understanding of a person or thing.
• Example: The documentary provides a fascinating insight into the hidden lives of deep-sea creatures.

The correct answer is: Applaud.

Key Points

• The word 'praise' means to express warm approval or admiration of someone or something, often for their achievements or qualities. (प्रशंसा करना)
• Example: The principal gave her high praise for winning the national debate competition.
• 'Applaud' refers to showing strong approval or praise for someone, typically by clapping hands or expressing verbal admiration. (सराहना करना/तालियाँ बजाना)
• Example: The audience began to applaud enthusiastically as the play came to an end.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate synonym of 'praise' is 'applaud'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Applaud.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Criticize (आलोचना करना): To indicate the faults or shortcomings of someone or something in a disapproving way.
• Example: It is easier to criticize someone else's work than to do it yourself.
• Blame (दोष देना): To assign responsibility for a fault, mistake, or wrong action.
• Example: You cannot blame the weather for your lack of preparation.
• Complain (शिकायत करना): To express dissatisfaction, pain, or annoyance about a state of affairs or an event.
• Example: She went to the manager to complain about the rude behavior of the staff.

The correct answer is: None of the options are misspelt.

Key Points

• The word 'Valedictory' refers to a farewell or an address given at a graduation ceremony; it is used to describe something that serves as an expression of goodbye. (विदाई संबंधी)
• Example: She was honored to deliver the valedictory speech during the graduation ceremony.
• Upon careful examination of the provided options—'Voracious', 'Valedictory', 'Vivacious', and 'Vindictive'—it is observed that all four words are spelled correctly according to standard English dictionaries.
• As every word in the list is spelled correctly, there is no misspelt word among the choices given.

Therefore, the correct answer is: None of the options are misspelt.

Additional Information

Here are the definitions and Hindi meanings for the other correctly spelled options:

• Voracious (अति-उत्सुक/पेटू): Engaging in an activity with great eagerness or having a huge appetite for food.
• Example: He has a voracious appetite for reading and often finishes a novel in a single day.
• Vivacious (जीवंत): Someone, especially a person's behavior, that is attractively lively and animated.
• Example: Her vivacious personality and constant energy made her the life of the party.
• Vindictive (प्रतिशोधी): Having or showing a strong or unreasoning desire for revenge.
• Example: The king was known to be vindictive toward anyone who dared to challenge his authority.

The correct answer is: Depart.

Key Points

• The word 'stay' refers to the act of remaining in a particular place or continuing in a specific state; it implies not leaving or moving away. (ठहरना)
• Example: We decided to stay at a small cottage near the lake for our vacation.
• 'Depart' means to leave a place, typically to start a journey; it represents the action of going away, which is the direct opposite of remaining or staying. (प्रस्थान करना)
• Example: The international flight is scheduled to depart from the airport at midnight.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate antonym of 'stay' is 'depart'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Depart.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Settle (बसना): To establish a permanent home or to resolve a particular situation or dispute.
• Example: After years of traveling, they finally decided to settle in a quiet town.
• Delay (देरी करना): To make someone or something late or to postpone an event until a later time.
• Example: The heavy fog caused a significant delay in the morning commute.
• Reside (निवास करना): To live or have one's home in a specific place for a long period.
• Example: Many researchers reside on the island to study the local wildlife.

The correct answer is: Director.

Key Points

• The phrase 'supervises the making of a film' refers to the role of an individual who oversees the artistic and technical aspects of a movie production, ensuring that the script is translated into a visual performance. (फिल्म निर्माण की देखरेख करने वाला)
• Example: In the film industry, the task of the person who supervises the making of a film is to guide the actors and the camera crew to achieve a specific vision.
• 'Director' is the specific term for a person who manages the creative direction of a film, play, or television show, including controlling the acting, visuals, and sound. (निर्देशक)
• Example: The Director shouted 'Action!' as the lead actor began his emotional monologue on the set.
• Hence, we can infer that the most suitable one-word substitution for the given phrase is 'Director'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Director.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Producer (निर्माता): A person who handles the financial and logistical management of a film production.
• Example: The Producer spent months raising funds and hiring the staff necessary to begin filming the documentary.
• Editor (संपादक): A person responsible for selecting and assembling recorded footage into a finished product.
• Example: After filming was complete, the Editor worked in the studio to cut the scenes together for the final version of the movie.
• Choreographer (नृत्य निर्देशक): A person who designs and coordinates dance sequences or complex physical movements in a production.
• Example: The Choreographer spent weeks training the background dancers for the grand musical finale of the film.

The correct answer is: Welter.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A large and confused mass of things' refers to a state where numerous items are jumbled, disordered, or muddled together without any specific order. (वस्तुओं का भारी और अस्त-व्यस्त ढेर)
• Example: The attic was filled with a large and confused mass of things collected by the family over several decades.
• 'Welter' refers to a large and confused number or mass of something, often used to describe a state of turmoil or chaos. (अव्यवस्था/ढेर)
• Example: The students had to navigate through a welter of confusing rules and regulations.
• Hence, we can infer that the most suitable one-word substitution for the given phrase is 'welter'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Welter.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Peri (परी): In Persian mythology, a beautiful and benevolent supernatural being or fairy.
• Example: In the ancient legends, a peri would often guide lost travelers to safety.
• Jeopardy (खतरा): The state of being in danger of loss, harm, or failure.
• Example: The lack of proper maintenance put the safety of the entire building in jeopardy.
• Archetype (आद्यरूप): A very typical or perfect example of a certain person or thing; an original model.
• Example: The character of the brave hero is a classic archetype found in the myths of almost every culture.

The correct answer is 'by'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase 'learn by heart' is a common idiomatic expression in the English language.
• It means to memorize something so thoroughly that it can be recited or written from memory without looking at the source.
• In the sentence, Madhusudan is in the process of memorizing poems, so the preposition 'by' is the only grammatically and idiomatically correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: 'Madhusudan is learning the poems by heart.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'through' is used to indicate moving from one side to another or the means of completing a task, but it does not form a standard idiom with 'heart'.
• Option 3: 'on' usually refers to the position of something on a surface or specific dates/days. It is incorrect in the context of memorization.
• The word 'heart' in this idiom historically refers to the heart being the seat of memory and emotion.

The correct answer is Fine dresses are stitched by her for the queen.

Key Points

• The original sentence 'She stitches fine dresses for the queen' is in the Simple Present Tense, identified by the verb stitches (V1+s).
• In Active Voice, the structure is: Subject (She) + Verb (stitches) + Object (fine dresses) + Prepositional Phrase (for the queen).
• To convert Simple Present into Passive Voice, the rule is: Object + is/am/are + Past Participle (V3) + by + Subject.
• The Object 'fine dresses' is plural, so the auxiliary verb are must be used to maintain subject-verb agreement.
• The Past Participle or V3 form of the verb 'stitch' is stitched.
• The Subject pronoun 'She' is transformed into its objective case 'her' when placed after the preposition 'by'.
• The phrase 'for the queen' remains as an adjunct or secondary object in the sentence, typically following the main passive construction.

 Additional Information

• Tense Mismatch:
• Options using were stitched represent the Simple Past Passive tense. These are incorrect because the active sentence is in the Present Tense. The tense of the sentence must remain consistent during voice conversion.
• Verb Form Error:
• A fundamental rule of Passive Voice across all tenses is the mandatory use of the Past Participle (V3) form. Phrases like 'are stitch' are grammatically invalid in passive constructions.
• Voice Definition:
• Passive Voice is used when the focus is on the action or the receiver of the action (the dresses) rather than the performer (she).

The correct answer is The aviation authority has introduced a new set of safety regulations across all domestic airports..

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Passive Voice and uses the Present Perfect Tense, as evidenced by the auxiliary structure has been followed by the past participle verb introduced.
• To convert a sentence from passive to active voice, the agent mentioned after the preposition by (the aviation authority) must become the grammatical subject of the new sentence.
• The Present Perfect Active voice follows the specific syntax: Subject + has/have + V3 (Past Participle) + Object. Since the aviation authority is a singular noun, the auxiliary has is retained.
• The patient or receiver of the action in the passive sentence (a new set of safety regulations) shifts to the object position in the active construction.
• The phrase across all domestic airports serves as an adverbial adjunct of place and remains positioned at the end of the sentence to maintain the original context and flow.
• By combining these elements, the sentence becomes: The aviation authority (Subject) + has introduced (Verb) + a new set of safety regulations (Object) + across all domestic airports (Place).

 Additional Information

• Understanding Tense Variations:
• Simple Present Tense: Option 1 uses introduces, which denotes a routine or universal fact, failing to match the completed action aspect of has been introduced.
• Simple Past Tense: Option 2 uses introduced. While it signifies a completed action, it lacks the present relevance or connection implied by the Perfect Tense.
• Simple Future Tense: Option 4 uses will introduce, which incorrectly shifts the timeline of the action to a future occurrence that has not yet happened.
• Voice Conversion Fundamentals:
• In Active Voice, the subject performs the action. It is often more direct, concise, and authoritative in professional writing.
• In Passive Voice, the subject receives the action. It is typically used when the action itself or the receiver is more important than the person or entity performing it.

The correct answer is 'into'.

 

Key Points

• The verb enter is followed by the preposition into when it refers to formally beginning or becoming involved in something such as an agreement, treaty, contract, or negotiation.
• The phrase entered into an agreement is a standard idiomatic expression used in legal and formal contexts.
• When enter is used to describe physical movement (e.g., walking into a room), no preposition is used (e.g., 'He entered the hall').

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: 'India has just entered into an agreement with Russia.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'for' is incorrect because it does not form the required phrasal verb to signify participation in a pact.
• Option 3: 'in' is grammatically incorrect in this context; into is necessary to show the transition into a state or agreement.
• Option 4: 'to' is not used with enter to mean signing or joining an agreement.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The primary grammatical error in the underlined part is the incorrect use of the preposition 'since' with a duration of time.
• In English grammar, 'since' is used to refer to a specific point in time (e.g., 4 o'clock, Monday, or last year).
• On the other hand, 'for' is used to describe a period or duration of time (e.g., two hours, ten minutes, or five days).
• The phrase 'two hr' (two hours) represents a duration, so it must be preceded by 'for' instead of 'since'.
• The structure 'wait for someone to arrive' is the standard idiomatic way to express expectation in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: 'The members of the club have been waiting eagerly for the chief guest to arrive for two hr.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Incorrectly uses 'to' after the verb wait (which usually takes 'for') and fails to fix the 'since' error.
• Option 3: Uses 'from', which is generally used to indicate the starting point of an action but is not the standard preposition for expressing a total duration in the Present Perfect Continuous tense.
• Option 4: Is incorrect because the original sentence uses 'since' wrongly for a measurement of time.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes a character observing the approach to land from a ship and the subsequent arrival of another character, Mrs Davidson.
• Sentence C follows S1 as it captures the character's immediate reaction to the land mentioned in the first sentence:
• 'He looked at it with greedy eyes.' (Here, 'it' refers back to the land introduced in S1).
• Sentence A follows C by beginning the physical description of the scenery the character is observing:
• 'There was a thin strip of silver beach rising quickly to hills covered to the top with luxuriant vegetation.'
• Sentence B continues the description of the landscape, providing more specific details:
• 'The coconut trees, thick and green, came nearly to the water's edge, and among them you saw the grass houses of the Samoans; and here and there, gleaming white, a little church.'
• Sentence D is the fourth sentence as it introduces a new character into the scene:
• 'Mrs Davidson came and stood beside him.'
• Sentence S2 is the final sentence (fixed), providing a physical description of the character introduced in Sentence D:
• 'She was dressed in black and wore round her neck a gold chain, from which dangled a small cross.' (The pronoun 'She' logically refers back to Mrs Davidson).
• The correct sequence is CABD.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'When he came on deck next morning they were close to land. He looked at it with greedy eyes. There was a thin strip of silver beach rising quickly to hills covered to the top with luxuriant vegetation. The coconut trees, thick and green, came nearly to the water's edge, and among them you saw the grass houses of the Samoans; and here and there, gleaming white, a little church. Mrs Davidson came and stood beside him. She was dressed in black and wore round her neck a gold chain, from which dangled a small cross.'