SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 05 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

For 'EQ' related to 'ZK':

For 'CJ' related to 'XD':

Applying the same logic to find the cluster related to 'IR':

Thus, the cluster NX is related to IR in the same way.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

For the set '(HA, JC, OH)':

For the set '(QC, SE, XJ)':

Applying the same logic to '(EI, GK, LP)':

Thus, the group (EI, GK, LP) follows the same logic as the given sets.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

For '(QT, LN, GH)':

For '(AU, VO, QI)':

Applying the same logic to '(KD, FX, AR)':

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The given reference date is 19 June 2024, which is a Saturday. We need to find the day on 25 December 2024.

Number of days from 19 June 2024 to 25 December 2024:

June: 30 − 19 = 11 days

July: 31 days

August: 31 days

September: 30 days

October: 31 days

November: 30 days

December: 25 days (up to the target date)

Total number of days = 11 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 25 = 189 days

Now, calculate the number of odd days by dividing the total days by 7:

189 ÷ 7 = 27 weeks and 0 remainder.

The number of odd days is 0.

The day on 25 December 2024 = Saturday + 0 odd days = Saturday.

Hence, 25 December 2024 will be a Saturday.

Alternate Method

We can calculate odd days for each month separately to find the total odd days:

June (remaining 11 days): 11 ÷ 7 ⇒ 4 odd days

July (31 days): 31 ÷ 7 ⇒ 3 odd days

August (31 days): 31 ÷ 7 ⇒ 3 odd days

September (30 days): 30 ÷ 7 ⇒ 2 odd days

October (31 days): 31 ÷ 7 ⇒ 3 odd days

November (30 days): 30 ÷ 7 ⇒ 2 odd days

December (25 days): 25 ÷ 7 ⇒ 4 odd days

Total odd days = 4 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 4 = 21 odd days

Final odd days = 21 ÷ 7 ⇒ 0 remainder.

Day = Saturday + 0 = Saturday.

Hence, the correct answer is Saturday.

Given that January 2019 ended on a Wednesday, it means January 31, 2019, was a Wednesday.

First, we calculate the total number of days from February 1 to June 30, 2019:

Total days = 28 (Feb) + 31 (Mar) + 30 (Apr) + 31 (May) + 30 (Jun) = 150 days

Number of odd days = 150 ÷ 7

150 = (21 × 7) + 3

The remainder is 3, so there are 3 odd days.

The day on June 30, 2019 = Wednesday + 3 days = Saturday.

Now, we count backward from June 30 to find the last Wednesday of the month:

• June 30 = Saturday
• June 29 = Friday
• June 28 = Thursday
• June 27 = Wednesday

The last Wednesday of June 2019 was the 27^th.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

7 girls A, B, C, X, Y, W and Z are sitting around a circular table facing opposite to the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. W is second to the left of X.
2. W is the immediate neighbour of B and C.
3. Z is fourth to the left of B.
4. Y is not the immediate neighbour of C. 

I. X and W are immediate neighbours of B → Correct.

II. C is to the immediate left of W → Correct.

Both I and II are correct.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

7 workers P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in same order).

1. R is the immediate neighbour of T and U.
2. S is the immediate neighbour of P and V.
3. V is second to the left of U.
4. T is second to the right of U. 

P is sitting third to the left of Q.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

1. Since all persons face opposite to the centre: Right = Clockwise, Left = Counterclockwise. Fix G at pos(1). F is fifth to the right of G (clockwise): G(1) → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 → F(6).

2. C is fourth to the left of G (counterclockwise): G(1) → 7 → 6 → 5 → C(4). B is an immediate neighbour of F and G; the only position between them is pos(7), so B is at pos(7).

3. A is second to the left of B (counterclockwise): B(7) → 6 → A(5).

4. D is not an immediate neighbour of C(4). Neighbours of 4 are pos(3) and pos(5). Since pos(5) is occupied by A, D cannot be at 3. Thus, D must be at pos(2).

5. The remaining position, pos(3), is filled by E. Final arrangement: G(1), D(2), E(3), C(4), A(5), F(6), B(7).

Position of E with respect to F: Starting at F(6) and moving left (counterclockwise direction for outward-facing seats): 6 → 5(A) → 4(C) → 3(E). Thus, E is third to the left of F.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

" "

Given word: EXPLANATION

(1) PLAN → Can be formed as all the letters (P, L, A, N) are present in the given word.

(2) CAT → Cannot be formed as the letter "C" is not present in the given word.

(3) AXLE → Can be formed as all the letters (A, X, L, E) are present in the given word.

(4) LATE → Can be formed as all the letters (L, A, T, E) are present in the given word.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given word: CONSIDERATION

(1) DENOMINATION → Can not be formed as the given word contains no letter "M", so this word cannot be formed.

(2) DONATION → Can be formed as all the required letters are present in the given word.

(3) RATION → Can be formed as all the required letters are present in the given word.

(4) CONSIDER → Can be formed as all the required letters are present in the given word.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Let the number of cows be C and the number of hens be H.

Total heads = 50, so the equation is: C + H = 50 — (i)

Total legs = 140, so the equation is: 4C + 2H = 140 — (ii)

From equation (i), we can express C as: C = 50 − H

Now, substitute the value of C in equation (ii):

4 × (50 − H) + 2H = 140

200 − 4H + 2H = 140

200 − 2H = 140

2H = 200 − 140

2H = 60

H = 60 ÷ 2

H = 30

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2';

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

TVP250 : SYW470 →

UKL350 : ONX570 →

Similarly,

LQT150 : ?→

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Dictionary order of given words:

5. Sin
6. Since
7. Sing
8. Single
9. Sink

Correct order is: 51342

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number − 35

For the first pair 546 : 511

⇒ 546 − 35 = 511

For the second pair 9745 : 9710

⇒ 9745 − 35 = 9710

Applying the same logic to the third pair

5736 : ?

⇒ 5736 − 35 = 5701

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

PART is coded as QDPO →

GUNS is coded as HXLN →

Similarly, let us find the code for BONK:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

BEAMS is coded as CHFLQ →

ARISE is coded as BUNRC →

Similarly,

let's find the code for CONGO:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The correct answer is Article 213.

Key Points

• Article 213 of the Indian Constitution grants the Governor of a state the authority to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature.
• This legislative power is exercised only when the Governor is satisfied that circumstances exist which require immediate action and the Legislative Assembly (or both Houses in bicameral states) is not in session.
• An ordinance issued under this article possesses the same legal force and effect as an Act of the State Legislature, but it is a temporary measure.
• Every ordinance must be laid before the State Legislature once it reassembles; it ceases to operate at the end of six weeks from the date of reassembly unless it is passed or withdrawn earlier.
• The Governor cannot issue an ordinance without Presidential instructions if a similar Bill would have required the President’s prior sanction or if the Governor would have reserved such a Bill for the President’s consideration.

 Additional Information

• Article 200:
• Defines the procedure for Assent to Bills passed by the state legislature.
• The Governor can grant assent, withhold assent, return the bill for reconsideration, or reserve it for the President’s consideration.
• Article 356:
• Commonly known as President’s Rule, it deals with the failure of constitutional machinery in a state.
• It allows the President to assume the functions of the State Government upon receiving a report from the Governor.
• Article 368:
• Outlines the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India.
• It specifies the procedures for amendment, including Special Majority and ratification by states for certain federal provisions.
• Article 123:
• Provides the President of India with the power to promulgate ordinances at the Union level when Parliament is not in session.

The correct answer is Dhol, Harmonium, and Manjira.

Key Points

• The Gaur dance is one of the most prominent folk dances of the Bison-Horn Maria tribes, who primarily reside in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh.
• The dance is traditionally performed during festive occasions and as a tribute to the spirit of the hunt, specifically mimicking the majestic movements of the Indian Bison (Gaur).
• The Dhol (a large double-headed drum) is the central instrument used to provide a powerful rhythmic pulse that dictates the pace and energy of the dancers.
• The Manjira (small brass cymbals) provides a sharp, metallic rhythmic accompaniment that complements the deep beats of the drum.
• The Harmonium is frequently used in contemporary and staged folk performances to provide a melodic foundation for the traditional songs that accompany the Gaur dance.
• Male dancers typically wear a striking headdress made of bison horns, decorated with peacock feathers and cowrie shells, while women carry Tirududi (iron rattles) to add to the soundscape.

 Additional Information

• Sitar and Tabla:
• The Sitar is a plucked string instrument used in Hindustani classical music.
• The Tabla consists of a pair of hand drums and is the primary percussion in North Indian classical traditions.
• Mridangam:
• This is a primary percussion instrument of Carnatic music from South India, known for its distinct barrel shape and complex tonal variations.
• Shehnai:
• A double-reed oboe-like instrument associated with auspicious events and weddings, popularized globally by Ustad Bismillah Khan.
• Bastar Cultural Heritage:
• The Muria and Maria tribes possess a rich heritage of ethno-musicology, often using instruments crafted from local wood, bamboo, and animal hide.
• The Gaur dance is considered a symbol of tribal strength and communal harmony within the Gond cultural complex.

The correct answer is Four.

Key Points

• The Natyasastra, an ancient Indian treatise on performing arts attributed to the sage Bharata Muni, provides the earliest systematic classification of musical instruments, categorizing them into four distinct groups.
• These four categories are collectively referred to as Atodya or Vadya, based on the physical characteristics of the instrument and the method of sound production.
• The first category is Tata Vadya, which refers to stringed instruments or chordophones, where sound is produced by the vibration of strings.
• The second category is Sushira Vadya, encompassing wind instruments or aerophones, where sound is generated by the passage of air through a hollow column.
• The third category is Avanaddha Vadya, denoting percussion instruments or membranophones, which consist of a hollow vessel covered with a stretched skin or membrane.
• The fourth category is Ghana Vadya, which includes solid instruments or idiophones made of metal or wood that produce sound by striking and do not require tuning.

 Additional Information

• Detailed Characteristics of the Four Categories:
• Tata Vadya: These instruments are played by plucking, bowing, or striking strings. Key examples mentioned in historical texts include the Veena, Ektara, and later developments like the Sitar and Sarod.
• Sushira Vadya: These are characterized by air pressure. The Venu (flute) and Shankha (conch) are classic examples. The pitch is controlled by opening or closing finger holes.
• Avanaddha Vadya: Primarily used for maintaining Tala (rhythm), these include the Mridangam, Tabla, Dholak, and Pakhawaj. They are essential for both Carnatic and Hindustani classical music.
• Ghana Vadya: These are non-membranous percussion instruments. Examples include Manjira (cymbals), Karthal, and Ghatam (clay pot). They are typically used to keep time during performances.
• The Natyasastra is believed to have been composed between 200 BCE and 200 CE and serves as the foundational text for Indian Classical Music, dance, and drama.

The correct answer is A concave and a convex lens.

Key Points

• A bifocal lens is an optical lens that contains two distinct zones with different optical powers to correct vision at two different distances, typically used by individuals suffering from presbyopia.
• The upper portion of a standard bifocal lens is designed for distance vision and consists of a concave lens (diverging lens), which helps in correcting myopia (nearsightedness).
• The lower portion of the lens is designed for near vision tasks, such as reading, and consists of a convex lens (converging lens), which aids in correcting presbyopia or hypermetropia.
• The combination allows the wearer to see distant objects clearly through the top half and perform close-up work by looking through the bottom segment, which provides the necessary magnification.
• This dual-lens system works because the human eye naturally looks straight ahead for distant objects and tilts downward for reading or close-range activities.

 Additional Information

• Presbyopia:
• A natural, age-related condition where the crystalline lens of the eye becomes less flexible and the ciliary muscles weaken.
• This loss of elasticity prevents the eye from focusing light directly on the retina from nearby objects, causing them to appear blurry.
• Lens Types and Functions:
• Concave Lenses: Thinner at the center than at the edges; they diverge light rays and are used to shift the focal point further back onto the retina in myopic eyes.
• Convex Lenses: Thicker at the center; they converge light rays and are used to bring the focal point forward onto the retina in hypermetropic or presbyopic eyes.
• Cylindrical Lenses: These are specifically used to correct astigmatism, where the cornea or lens has an irregular curvature, causing distorted vision.
• Historical Background:
• The invention of the bifocal lens is widely attributed to Benjamin Franklin in 1784, who grew tired of switching between two different pairs of spectacles for distance and reading.

The correct answer is Rupa Bajwa.

Key Points

• The Sari Shop is the debut novel of Indian author Rupa Bajwa, first published in 2004.
• The story is set in the city of Amritsar, Punjab, and centers on the life of Ramchand, a shop assistant working at a high-end clothing store called Seva Ram and Sons.
• The narrative masterfully explores the social hierarchy and class divide in modern India by contrasting the mundane, restricted life of the shop assistants with the opulent lifestyles of their wealthy clientele.
• The novel received critical acclaim for its poignant portrayal of urban poverty, aspiration, and the harsh realities faced by the working class in provincial India.
• For this work, Rupa Bajwa was awarded the Commonwealth Writers Prize for Best First Book (Eurasia) in 2005.

 Additional Information

• Rupa Bajwa:
• She is an Amritsar-based novelist who achieved international fame with her first book.
• In 2006, she was honored with the Sahitya Akademi Award in English for The Sari Shop.
• R.K. Narayan:
• One of the most famous early Indian novelists in English, best known for creating the fictional town of Malgudi and writing The Guide and Swami and Friends.
• Shashi Tharoor:
• A prominent Indian politician and author of several acclaimed works including The Great Indian Novel, An Era of Darkness, and Show Business.
• Anjali Banerjee:
• An Indian-American author known for novels such as Maya Running, Haunting Jasmine, and Seaglass Summer.

The correct answer is Air quality may cause health effects for sensitive groups.

Key Points

• The Air Quality Index (AQI) is a standardized system used to report daily air quality and communicate the associated health risks to the public.
• In the Moderate category, which typically corresponds to an index range of 101 to 200 on the National Air Quality Index (NAQI) scale in India, air quality is considered acceptable for the general population.
• However, for individuals belonging to sensitive groups—such as children, the elderly, and those with pre-existing respiratory diseases like asthma or cardiovascular conditions—this level of pollution can trigger breathing discomfort.
• The Moderate level indicates that while the air is not yet hazardous to all, there is a sufficient concentration of pollutants like PM2.5 or Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) to affect vulnerable biological systems.
• The primary health implication in this category is the aggravation of symptoms in patients with lung and heart ailments, requiring them to limit heavy outdoor exertion.

 Additional Information

• The AQI structure is divided into six distinct categories, each defined by a specific color code and health advisory:
• Good (0–50): Minimal impact; the air quality is considered excellent and poses little to no health risk.
• Satisfactory (51–100): May cause minor breathing discomfort to sensitive people.
• Poor (201–300): Likely to cause breathing discomfort to most people on prolonged exposure.
• Very Poor (301–400): May lead to respiratory illness on prolonged exposure and has a more pronounced effect on people with lung and heart diseases.
• Severe (401–500): Air quality is hazardous; it affects healthy people and seriously impacts those with existing diseases, even with light physical activity.
• The calculation of AQI in India considers eight major pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb (Lead).

The correct answer is 24 hr.

Key Points

• A geostationary satellite is a satellite that circles the Earth in an orbit such that it remains exactly above a fixed point on the equator at all times.
• For a satellite to appear stationary relative to the Earth, its angular velocity must be equal to the Earth's rotation angular velocity around its own axis.
• The orbital period of a geostationary satellite is precisely one sidereal day, which is approximately 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds. In the context of most general physics problems and competitive exams, this is rounded to 24 hr.
• At an orbital radius of approximately 42,200 km (which corresponds to an altitude of about 35,786 km above the Earth's surface), the centripetal force required for the circular motion is perfectly balanced by the Earth's gravitational pull.
• Since the satellite moves from west to east (prograde motion) with the same period as the Earth, its relative velocity with respect to any fixed observer on the ground is zero.

 Additional Information

• Kepler's Third Law:
• The law states that the square of the orbital period (T) is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis (r) of its orbit, expressed as T² ∝ r³.
• For the Earth, when r is roughly 42,200 km, T calculates to approximately 86,164 seconds.
• Orbital Velocity:
• A satellite in this orbit travels at a constant orbital speed of approximately 3.07 km/s to maintain its position.
• Historical Context:
• This specific orbital belt is often called the Clarke Belt, named after the scientist and writer Arthur C. Clarke, who first proposed the use of geostationary orbits for worldwide telecommunications relays.
• Common Uses:
• Geostationary satellites are primary tools for weather forecasting, satellite television (DTH), and radio broadcasting because they provide continuous coverage of a specific geographic area.

The correct answer is Kolkata.

Key Points

• The 132^nd edition of the Durand Cup, which is the oldest football tournament in Asia, was hosted across three cities in 2023: Kolkata, Guwahati, and Kokrajhar.
• The grand final of the Durand Cup 2023 was held at the Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan, popularly known as the Salt Lake Stadium, in Kolkata on September 3, 2023.
• The final match was a high-profile Kolkata Derby contested between Mohun Bagan Super Giant and East Bengal FC.
• Mohun Bagan Super Giant clinched the title by defeating East Bengal FC with a score of 1-0, thanks to a decisive goal by Dimitri Petratos.
• With this victory, Mohun Bagan Super Giant became the most successful team in the history of the tournament, securing their 17^th Durand Cup title.

 Additional Information

• History and Significance of Durand Cup:
• The tournament was first held in 1888 at Shimla and was founded by Sir Mortimer Durand, the then Foreign Secretary of British India.
• It is currently the third oldest football competition in the world, trailing only the FA Cup and the Scottish Cup.
• The competition is unique as it is organized by the Durand Football Tournament Society (DFTS) in collaboration with the Indian Armed Forces.
• 2023 Tournament Highlights:
• A total of 24 teams participated in the 2023 edition, including teams from the Indian Super League (ISL), I-League, and the Indian Armed Forces.
• The Golden Ball (Best Player) of the 2023 edition was awarded to Nandhakumar Sekar of East Bengal FC.
• The Golden Boot (Top Scorer) was won by David Lalhlansanga of Mohammedan SC, while the Golden Glove (Best Goalkeeper) went to Vishal Kaith of Mohun Bagan Super Giant.

The correct answer is Urban service sector expanded rapidly while agriculture stagnated.

Key Points

• The 1991 Economic Reforms, characterized by Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG), shifted the Indian economy toward a market-oriented system. While these reforms significantly boosted the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth rate, the benefits were not distributed equitably across all sectors.
• A primary indicator of growth with inequality is the sectoral imbalance where the Service Sector (including IT, telecommunications, and finance) witnessed exponential growth, often exceeding 8−10% annually, primarily benefiting urban centers and skilled professionals.
• In stark contrast, the Agricultural Sector, which supports nearly half of India's population, experienced stagnation or low growth rates (often below 3%). This was due to a decline in public investment, withdrawal of subsidies, and increased exposure to volatile global market prices.
• The concentration of wealth in the Tertiary Sector led to a widening rural-urban divide. Urban areas saw a rise in high-income jobs and modern infrastructure, while rural areas faced distress migration and stagnant real wages, illustrating the phenomenon of dualism in the post-reform era.
• This trend is often described as jobless growth because the fast-growing service sectors are capital-intensive or skill-intensive, failing to absorb the massive surplus labor moving away from the struggling agricultural base.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Inequality Metrics:
• Gini Coefficient: A statistical measure of distributional inequality; in India, this coefficient rose post-1991, indicating that income gains were concentrated among the top deciles of the population.
• Informalization of Labor: Contrary to the hope that reforms would shrink the informal sector, a large portion of new employment in the industrial sector became informal or contractual, lacking social security benefits.
• Regional Disparity: The reforms favored states with better existing infrastructure and coastal access, leading to a growth gap between advanced states (like Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu) and lagging states (like Bihar and Uttar Pradesh).
• Structural Transformation: Unlike the traditional economic model where labor moves from agriculture to manufacturing and then to services, India skipped the manufacturing-led growth phase, moving directly to a service-led economy, which exacerbated income disparity.

The correct answer is Strait of Hormuz.

Key Points

• Chabahar Port is located in the Sistan-Baluchestan province on the southeastern coast of Iran, along the Gulf of Oman.
• The port's strategic location allows maritime trade to bypass the Strait of Hormuz, which is a narrow and often congested waterway that serves as the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean.
• By operating outside the Strait of Hormuz, Chabahar reduces the dependency of international shipping on this sensitive chokepoint, through which approximately one-fifth of the world's total oil consumption passes daily.
• It serves as a critical transit hub for India to access Afghanistan and Central Asian landlocked republics, effectively bypassing the land routes through Pakistan.
• The port is a key component of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), aimed at reducing freight costs and transit time between India, Iran, and Russia.

 Additional Information

• Strait of Malacca
• Located between the Malay Peninsula and the Indonesian island of Sumatra.
• It is the main shipping channel between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean.
• Strait of Gibraltar
• A narrow strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.
• It separates the continents of Europe (Spain) and Africa (Morocco).
• Bab el-Mandeb Strait
• Located between Yemen on the Arabian Peninsula and Djibouti and Eritrea in the Horn of Africa.
• It connects the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and the Arabian Sea.
• Chabahar Port Development
• The port consists of two separate terminals: Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.
• India's involvement is primarily focused on the development of the Shahid Beheshti terminal through India Ports Global Limited (IPGL).

The correct answer is 22.

Key Points

• Chromosomes are organized thread-like structures found within the nucleus of cells, containing the genetic blueprint of an organism in the form of DNA.
• In humans, each somatic cell (body cell) typically contains a total of 46 chromosomes, which are arranged into 23 pairs.
• These 23 pairs are categorized into two types: autosomes and allosomes (sex chromosomes).
• Autosomes are the chromosomes that determine somatic traits and characteristics other than biological sex; they are numbered 1 through 22 based on their physical size and gene density.
• There are exactly 22 pairs of autosomes in humans, which are identical in both males and females in terms of their morphology and the genes they carry.
• The 23^rd pair is the sex chromosome pair, consisting of either XX (in females) or XY (in males), bringing the total number of pairs to 23.

 Additional Information

• Sex Determination:
• While the 22 autosome pairs are homologous, the 23^rd pair (allosomes) differs. The Y chromosome is significantly smaller than the X chromosome and contains the SRY gene, which is essential for male sex development.
• Ploidy Levels:
• Human somatic cells are diploid (2n), meaning they contain 46 chromosomes. However, gametes (sperm and egg cells) are haploid (n), containing only 23 single chromosomes (22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome).
• Karyotyping:
• A karyotype is a laboratory technique used to visualize the complete set of an individuals chromosomes. It is used to identify chromosomal disorders such as Down Syndrome, which involves an extra copy of an autosome (specifically Trisomy 21).
• Genetic Composition:
• The human genome comprises approximately 20,000 to 25,000 genes distributed across the 22 autosome pairs and the sex chromosomes. Chromosome 1 is the largest autosome, containing nearly 3,000 genes.

The correct answer is All of these.

Key Points

• The financial sector reforms post-1991, based on the Narasimham Committee recommendations, allowed the entry of private sector banks to foster competition and improve efficiency in the banking system, leading to the birth of institutions like HDFC Bank and ICICI Bank. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Strengthening capital markets was achieved by granting statutory powers to the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1992, which helped regulate the stock exchanges, protect investors, and promote a transparent trading environment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The deregulation of interest rates was a major reform where the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allowed commercial banks to determine their own lending and deposit rates based on market forces, shifting away from a centrally controlled administered interest rate regime. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• These reforms collectively aimed at liberalization, privatization, and globalization of the Indian economy to integrate it with the global financial system. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Narasimham Committee (1991):
• Recommended the reduction of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) to increase the availability of funds for the private sector.
• Introduced Prudential Norms and Asset Classification to ensure banks maintain a healthy balance sheet and Capital Adequacy Ratio.
• Market Infrastructure:
• The establishment of the National Stock Exchange (NSE) in 1992 introduced screen-based trading, replacing the traditional floor-based system.
• Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) were permitted to invest in Indian debt and equity markets starting in 1992-93.

The correct answer is Sudarshan Pattnaik.

Key Points

• Sudarshan Pattnaik, the world-renowned Indian sand artist hailing from Puri, Odisha, was honored with the prestigious Fred Darrington Award for Excellence in Art and Culture.
• The honor was bestowed upon him at the 21^st International Sand Sculpting Festival held at Revere Beach in Boston, USA, highlighting his global influence in the realm of sculpture.
• The Fred Darrington Award is named after the pioneer of sand sculpting at Revere Beach, who is credited with initiating the craft in the late 19^th century; it recognizes artists who demonstrate exceptional skill and creative mastery.
• Pattnaik is celebrated for his unique 3D sand art style and his commitment to using the medium for social activism, covering themes such as World Peace, Global Warming, and Environmental Protection.
• With over 27 international awards to his credit, Pattnaik has represented India in more than 65 international championships across countries like Italy, Russia, and Japan.

 Additional Information

• Sudarshan Pattnaik’s Career Highlights:
• He was awarded the Padma Shri, India’s fourth-highest civilian award, in 2014 for his unparalleled contributions to the field of arts.
• He achieved a Guinness World Record in 2017 for building the world’s tallest sandcastle, which stood at a height of 14.84 meters (approximately 48 feet).
• Pattnaik established the Sudarshan Sand Art Institute in Puri to provide formal training to aspiring sand artists, fostering the next generation of sculptors.
• Revere Beach International Sand Sculpting Festival:
• Established as a major event in Massachusetts, it is considered one of the largest and most competitive sand art festivals in the Western Hemisphere.
• The festival attracts approximately 1 million visitors annually and features master sculptors from around the globe competing for top honors.

The correct answer is Godavari.

Key Points

• The Godavari is the largest Peninsular river system in India, often referred to as the Dakshina Ganga (Ganges of the South) due to its extensive length and the vast area it covers.
• It originates from the Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra, situated in the Western Ghats at an elevation of about 1,067 meters.
• The river flows for a total length of approximately 1,465 kilometers, traversing through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh before draining into the Bay of Bengal.
• Its drainage basin is the second largest in India after the Ganga, covering about 3,12,812 square kilometers, which is nearly 9.5 percent of the total geographical area of the country.
• The river is also known as Vridha Ganga (Old Ganga) because of its ancient geological origin and its religious significance in Hinduism.

 Additional Information

• Krishna
• The Krishna River is the second-largest eastward-flowing peninsular river, originating near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra.
• Its major tributaries include the Tungabhadra, Koyna, Ghataprabha, Musl, and Bhima.
• Cauvery
• Originating from the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats in Karnataka, it is often called the Dakshin Bharat ki Ganga.
• It is a perennial river due to receiving rainfall from both the Southwest and Northeast monsoons.
• Narmada
• The Narmada is a major west-flowing river that originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh.
• It flows through a rift valley formed by faulting between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges.

The correct answer is Ahmedabad.

Key Points

• Ahmedabad, located in Gujarat on the banks of the Sabarmati River, is historically renowned as the Manchester of India due to its massive cotton textile industry.
• The city earned this moniker because its textile development mirrored that of Manchester in England, which was the global center of the cotton industry during the Industrial Revolution.
• The first cotton textile mill in Ahmedabad was established in 1861 by Shri Ranchhodlal Chhotalal, marking the beginning of an industrial era for the city.
• The growth of the industry was supported by the proximity of cotton-growing regions in Gujarat and Maharashtra, ensuring a steady supply of raw materials.
• The humid climate of the region is naturally suited for spinning and weaving, as it prevents the cotton thread from breaking easily during processing.
• Strategic location with access to Kandla Port and a well-developed railway network facilitated the export of finished goods and the import of machinery.

 Additional Information

• Mumbai-Pune Region:
• Mumbai was traditionally known as the Cottonopolis of India because the first successful mechanized textile mill was established here in 1854 by Cowasji Nanabhoy Davar.
• Kanpur:
• Located in Uttar Pradesh, Kanpur is often referred to as the Manchester of North India due to its significant concentration of textile and leather industries.
• Coimbatore:
• Situated in Tamil Nadu, this city is called the Manchester of South India because it houses over 1,000 textile mills and contributes significantly to India's cotton exports.
• Textile Industry Significance:
• It is the second-largest employment generator in India after agriculture and accounts for a substantial portion of the country's Industrial Production and GDP.

The correct answer is Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS).

Key Points

• The Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS) was launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME) to facilitate technology upgradation by providing upfront capital subsidies.
• The scheme aims at helping MSMEs modernize their production techniques and equipment to improve product quality and reduce production costs.
• Under this scheme, a 15 percent capital subsidy is provided to eligible MSMEs on institutional finance (bank loans) availed by them for the induction of well-established and improved technology.
• The maximum limit of the loan eligible for subsidy under the current guidelines is Rs. 1 crore, meaning the maximum subsidy amount an enterprise can receive is capped at Rs. 15 lakh.
• Implementation is carried out through Nodal Agencies such as the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI), NABARD, and designated public sector banks.
• It covers a wide range of industries including food processing, textiles, leather, pharmaceuticals, and electronic equipment.

 Additional Information

• Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP):
• A credit-linked subsidy program aimed at generating self-employment opportunities through the establishment of micro-enterprises.
• It is implemented by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) at the national level.
• Make in India Scheme:
• Launched in September 2014, this initiative focuses on transforming India into a global manufacturing hub by encouraging domestic and foreign investment.
• It targets 25 key sectors including automobiles, chemicals, and IT.
• Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):
• A flagship initiative by NITI Aayog to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship.
• It manages programs like Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) and Atal Incubation Centres (AICs).

The correct answer is Prakrit.

Key Points

• Prakrit was the primary language adopted by Jainism for its sacred scriptures and teachings to ensure accessibility to the common people of ancient India.
• Lord Mahavira, the 24^th Tirthankara, predominantly used Ardhamagadhi, a specific dialect of Prakrit, for his sermons to break the monopoly of Sanskrit, which was then considered the language of the elite.
• The Jain Agamas, which constitute the canonical literature of the Svetambara sect, were originally composed and preserved in Ardhamagadhi Prakrit.
• Various other forms of Prakrit, such as Sauraseni and Maharashtri, were also used by Jain monks to write philosophical treatises and epic poetry, significantly contributing to the Middle Indo-Aryan linguistic tradition.
• The choice of Prakrit allowed Jainism to spread rapidly among traders, farmers, and the general populace, as it was the vernacular language of the time.

 Additional Information

• Urdu:
• It is a Central Indo-Aryan language that developed much later, around the 12^th century CE, during the Delhi Sultanate period.
• It evolved as a synthesis of Persian, Arabic, and local Khari Boli, primarily in Northern India.
• Telugu:
• A classical Dravidian language spoken mainly in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• While Jainism had a historical presence in South India, Telugu was a regional language and not the primary language of the original Jain canons.
• Bengali:
• An Indo-Aryan language that evolved from Magadhi Prakrit and Apabhramsa around the 10^th-12^th century CE.
• It is native to the Bengal region and was not used as a sacred language during the formative years of ancient Jainism.

The correct answer is Pandya kings.

Key Points

• The term Sangam refers to an academy or assembly of Tamil poets and scholars that flourished under the royal patronage of the Pandya kings of Madurai.
• According to Tamil legends, there were three Sangams (assemblies) held in Ancient South India, spanning thousands of years, collectively referred to as Muchchangam.
• The First Sangam (Mudal Sangam) is believed to have been held at Thenmadurai (Old Madurai). It was reportedly attended by gods and legendary sages like Agastya; however, no literary works from this period are available today.
• The Second Sangam (Idai Sangam) was held at Kapatapuram. The only surviving literary work from this assembly is the Tolkappiyam, which is a comprehensive treatise on Tamil grammar and poetics.
• The Third Sangam (Kadai Sangam) was situated at the modern city of Madurai. Most of the surviving Sangam literature, including the Ettutogai (Eight Anthologies) and the Pattupattu (Ten Idylls), belongs to this period.

 Additional Information

• Sangam Dynasties:
• While the Pandya kings were the specific patrons of the Sangams, the literature produced describes the Muventar (Three Crowned Kings): the Cheras, Cholas, and Pandyas.
• Major Literary Works:
• Tolkappiyam: Authored by Tolkappiyar, it is the oldest extant Tamil work, providing insights into the social and linguistic structure of the Sangam Age.
• Pathinenkilkanakku: A collection of eighteen lower ethical works, including the famous Tirukkural by Thiruvalluvar, which focuses on ethics and philosophy.
• Social Structure: The Sangam society was classified based on five ecological zones or Thinai, namely Kurinji (hilly), Mullai (pastoral), Marutham (agricultural), Neithal (coastal), and Palai (desert).

The correct answer is Poona.

Key Points

• The administrative and political capital of the Maratha Empire shifted from Satara to Poona (now Pune) during the 18^th century under the rule of the Peshwas, who were the hereditary Prime Ministers.
• While the Chhatrapati (the monarch) continued to reside in Satara, the Peshwas became the functional heads of the state, making Poona the de facto seat of power.
• Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath was the first to establish significant influence in the region, but it was Peshwa Baji Rao I who officially shifted the base and commissioned the construction of the Shaniwar Wada in 1732.
• The Shaniwar Wada served as the primary residence and the central secretariat for the Maratha Confederacy, symbolizing the height of Peshwa authority over the Indian subcontinent.
• Under Peshwa Balaji Baji Rao (Nanasaheb), the city underwent massive urban expansion, becoming a major cultural, banking, and military hub for the Marathas.

 Additional Information

• Strategic Locations in Maratha History:
• Mumbai: During the 18^th century, it was a British Presidency and a crucial maritime trade post, eventually becoming the site from where the British launched campaigns against the Marathas.
• Nagpur: This city was the capital of the Bhonsle clan, one of the five major houses of the Maratha Confederacy, governing the eastern territories.
• Aurangabad: Originally named Khadki, it was a major stronghold for the Mughal Empire and later the Nizams of Hyderabad, serving as a frequent site of conflict during Maratha expansion.
• Satara: It remained the formal capital where the descendants of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj held court, though their political power diminished as the Peshwas consolidated control.
• The downfall of Poona as the capital occurred in 1818 following the Third Anglo-Maratha War, after which the Peshwa title was abolished and the region was annexed into the Bombay Presidency.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The Brahmaputra Plains, primarily located in Assam, represent a significant physiographic division characterized by a level topography and rich alluvial deposits. While the surrounding northeastern hills are sparsely populated, the valley floor supports high population densities due to intensive rice cultivation and tea plantations. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The Ganga Plains constitute the largest part of the Great Northern Plains of India, stretching across states like Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal. This region is one of the most densely populated tracts in the world because of its extremely fertile soil, perennial water supply from the Ganga river system, and favorable climate for year-round agriculture. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• Factors Influencing High Population Density:
• Topography: The flat terrain of these plains facilitates the construction of massive transportation networks (roads and railways) and the establishment of large industrial hubs.
• Agriculture: The deposition of Khadar (new alluvium) and Bhangar (old alluvium) makes these plains the granary of India, supporting high food security for a large population.
• Water Availability: The presence of Himalayan rivers ensures a constant supply of water for irrigation, domestic use, and industrial processes.
• Urbanization: Historical centers and modern megacities like Kolkata, Patna, and Kanpur are situated in these plains, acting as magnets for migration.
• Demographic Contrast: In contrast to these plains, the Himalayan mountains and the Thar Desert exhibit low population density due to rugged terrain, extreme climatic conditions, and limited arable land.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the expression using the BODMAS rule: Brackets first, then Multiplication, then Addition/Subtraction.

Step 1 (Brackets): (38 + 19) = 57.

Step 2 (Multiplication): 57 × 2 = 114.

Step 3 (Simplify remaining): 82 + 41 − 27 + 114 − 77 = 133.

∴ The correct answer is 133.

Alternate Method

Given:

82 + 41 − 27 + (38 + 19) × 2 − 77

Formula Used:

Operations are performed in the order defined by BODMAS:

B: Brackets | O: Of (Orders/Powers) | D: Division | M: Multiplication | A: Addition | S: Subtraction

Calculations:

⇒ 82 + 41 − 27 + (57) × 2 − 77 (Solving Bracket)

⇒ 82 + 41 − 27 + 114 − 77 (Solving Multiplication)

⇒ 123 − 27 + 114 − 77 (Solving Addition from left)

⇒ 96 + 114 − 77 (Solving Subtraction)

⇒ 210 − 77 (Solving Addition)

⇒ 133 (Final Subtraction)

∴ The correct answer is 133.

Additional Information

BODMAS Priority

Division and Multiplication hold the same priority level, as do Addition and Subtraction. When they appear together, solve from left to right.

Types of Brackets

Always solve inside-out: Small Brackets ( ) → Curly Brackets { } → Square Brackets [ ].

VBODMAS

V stands for Vinculum (Bar bracket). If a bar is present over numbers, solve that part before any other bracket or operation.

Shortcut Trick

Expression: 92 + 63 − 36 ÷ 6 + (33 of 2) − 58 + 29

Solve 'Of' and Division first: 33 × 2 = 66 and 36 ÷ 6 = 6.

Simplified: 92 + 63 − 6 + 66 − 58 + 29

Group positive and negative terms: (92 + 63 + 66 + 29) − (6 + 58) = 250 − 64 = 186.

∴ The correct answer is 186.

Alternate Method

Given: 92 + 63 − 36 ÷ 6 + (33 of 2) − 58 + 29

Formula Used: Apply BODMAS (Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction) rule.

⇒ 92 + 63 − 36 ÷ 6 + (33 × 2) − 58 + 29

⇒ 92 + 63 − 36 ÷ 6 + 66 − 58 + 29 (Solving 'Of')

⇒ 92 + 63 − 6 + 66 − 58 + 29 (Solving Division)

⇒ 155 − 6 + 66 − 58 + 29 (Solving Addition step 1)

⇒ 221 − 6 − 58 + 29 (Solving Addition step 2)

⇒ 250 − 6 − 58 (Solving Addition step 3)

⇒ 244 − 58 (Solving Subtraction step 1)

⇒ 186

∴ The correct answer is 186.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It defines the sequence of operations: Brackets (), then Of/Orders (square roots/indices), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Operator Priority of 'Of'

The operator 'of' acts as multiplication but has a higher priority than division and multiplication in mathematical expressions.

Grouping Terms

In long addition and subtraction chains, grouping all positive numbers and all negative numbers separately before the final subtraction reduces the chance of calculation errors.

Shortcut Trick

Convert decimal values into simple fractions for faster calculation.

0.625 = 5/8 | 0.4 = 2/5 | 0.25 = 1/4 | 0.8 = 4/5 | 0.18 = 18/100

⇒ [(5/8 × 2/5) + (1/4 × 4/5)] ÷ (18/100) = [1/4 + 1/5] ÷ (9/50)

⇒ (9/20) ÷ (9/50) = (9/20) × (50/9) = 5/2 = 2.5

∴ The correct answer is 2.5.

Alternate Method

Given: ((0.625 × 0.4) + (0.25 × 0.8)) / (0.18)

Following the BODMAS rule, we solve the brackets and multiplication first:

⇒ 0.625 × 0.4 = 0.25

⇒ 0.25 × 0.8 = 0.2

Now, add the terms in the numerator:

⇒ 0.25 + 0.2 = 0.45

Now, perform the division by the denominator:

⇒ 0.45 ÷ 0.18

⇒ 45 ÷ 18 (By multiplying both by 100 to remove decimals)

⇒ 5 ÷ 2 = 2.5

∴ The correct answer is 2.5.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

Simplification follows the order: Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Decimal to Fraction Conversion

Identifying standard fractions like 0.625 = 5/8 or 0.125 = 1/8 helps in reducing calculation time significantly.

Division of Decimals

To divide two decimals, shift the decimal point in both divisor and dividend to the right until the divisor becomes a whole number.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the expression as the algebraic identity (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab.

Here, a = 4.25 and b = 3.75.

The middle term 2ab = 2 × 4.25 × 3.75 = 8.5 × 3.75 = 31.875.

Result = (4.25 + 3.75)² = 8² = 64.

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression: 4.25 × 4.25 + 3.75 × 3.75 + 31.875

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

Calculations:

⇒ Let a = 4.25 and b = 3.75.

⇒ Calculating a² = 4.25 × 4.25 = 18.0625

⇒ Calculating b² = 3.75 × 3.75 = 14.0625

⇒ Checking the third term: 2 × a × b = 2 × 4.25 × 3.75 = 31.875

⇒ Therefore, the expression is in the form a² + b² + 2ab.

⇒ Expression = (4.25 + 3.75)²

⇒ Expression = (8.0)²

⇒ Result = 64

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Additional Information

Square of Difference Identity

The formula (a − b)² = a² + b² − 2ab is used when the middle term is subtracted instead of added.

Difference of Two Squares

The formula a² − b² = (a − b)(a + b) is a fundamental identity used to factorize the difference between two perfect squares.

Square of a Trinomial

For three terms, the identity is (a + b + c)² = a² + b² + c² + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca.

BODMAS Rule

Always follow the order of operations: Brackets, Orders (powers), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the BODMAS rule: first evaluate the square, then multiplication, and finally addition/subtraction.

Evaluate: 15² = 225; 5 × 7 = 35; 4 × 18 = 72.

Combine terms: √(225 + 35 − 72 + 8) = √196.

The square root of 196 is 14.

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Alternate Method

Given: √(15² + 5 × 7 − 4 × 18 + 8)

Formula Used: BODMAS (Brackets, Orders/Powers, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

⇒ √(225 + 5 × 7 − 4 × 18 + 8)

⇒ √(225 + 35 − 72 + 8)

⇒ √(260 − 72 + 8)

⇒ √(188 + 8)

⇒ √196

⇒ 14

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It provides the standard order of operations to solve mathematical expressions: Brackets, Orders (Powers and Roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Perfect Squares

A perfect square is a number that is the result of multiplying an integer by itself. For example, 14 × 14 = 196, making 196 a perfect square.

Square Root Calculation

Finding the square root is the inverse operation of squaring a number. Memorizing squares from 1 to 30 is helpful for rapid simplification in exams.

Shortcut Trick

The diagonal of a square with side 'a' is always a√2.

Given the side = 12 cm.

Diagonal = 12 × √2 = 12√2 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 12√2 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Side of the square (a) = 12 cm

Formula Used:

In a right-angled triangle formed by two sides and the diagonal, by Pythagoras Theorem:

Diagonal (d)² = Side² + Side²

Calculations:

⇒ d² = 12² + 12²

⇒ d² = 144 + 144

⇒ d² = 288

⇒ d = √(144 × 2)

⇒ d = 12√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 12√2 cm.

Additional Information

Area of a Square

The Area can be calculated as side² or as (diagonal² / 2).

Perimeter of a Square

The Perimeter is the total length of the boundary, calculated as 4 × side.

Inradius and Circumradius

The Inradius is side/2 and the Circumradius is diagonal/2 or (side × √2)/2.

Shortcut Trick

In a rhombus, the relation between sides and diagonals is: 4 × Side² = d₁² + d₂²

Side = Perimeter ÷ 4 = 58 ÷ 4 = 14.5 cm

4 × (14.5)² = 20² + d₂² ⇒ 4 × 210.25 = 400 + d₂²

841 − 400 = d₂² ⇒ d₂ = √441 = 21 cm

Sum of diagonals = 20 + 21 = 41 cm

∴ The correct answer is 41 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Perimeter of rhombus = 58 cm and one diagonal (d₁) = 20 cm.

Formula Used: Side = Perimeter ÷ 4; In a right triangle formed by diagonals, Side² = (d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)².

⇒ Side of the rhombus = 58 ÷ 4 = 14.5 cm

⇒ The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at 90°.

⇒ Half of the first diagonal (d₁/2) = 20 ÷ 2 = 10 cm

⇒ In ΔAOD, OA² + OD² = AD²

⇒ 10² + (d₂/2)² = 14.5²

⇒ 100 + (d₂/2)² = 210.25

⇒ (d₂/2)² = 210.25 − 100 = 110.25

⇒ Half of the second diagonal (d₂/2) = √110.25 = 10.5 cm

⇒ Second diagonal (d₂) = 10.5 × 2 = 21 cm

⇒ Sum of diagonals = 20 + 21 = 41 cm

∴ The correct answer is 41 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Rhombus

The area of a rhombus can be calculated using the lengths of its diagonals: Area = 1/2 × d₁ × d₂.

Diagonal Properties

The diagonals of a rhombus are not necessarily equal, but they always bisect each other at right angles (90°) and bisect the internal angles.

Perimeter and Side Relation

For any rhombus with side 'a', the perimeter is 4a and the relation with diagonals is given by 4a² = d₁² + d₂².

Shortcut Trick

Use the direct relation: (Sum of diagonals)² = 4 × (Side² + Area)

(d₁ + d₂)² = 4 × (37² + 840)

(d₁ + d₂)² = 4 × (1369 + 840) = 4 × 2209

(d₁ + d₂)² = 8836

d₁ + d₂ = √8836 = 94 cm

∴ The correct answer is 94 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Side of the rhombus (s) = 37 cm, Area of the rhombus (A) = 840 cm².

Formula Used: Area = (d₁ × d₂)/2 and 4s² = d₁² + d₂².

⇒ Area = (d₁ × d₂)/2 = 840

⇒ d₁ × d₂ = 1680

⇒ 4 × (Side)² = d₁² + d₂²

⇒ 4 × (37)² = d₁² + d₂²

⇒ 4 × 1369 = d₁² + d₂² = 5476

⇒ (d₁ + d₂)² = d₁² + d₂² + 2d₁d₂

⇒ (d₁ + d₂)² = 5476 + 2(1680)

⇒ (d₁ + d₂)² = 5476 + 3360 = 8836

⇒ d₁ + d₂ = √8836 = 94 cm

∴ The correct answer is 94 cm.

Additional Information

Properties of Rhombus Diagonals

The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at right angles (90°), forming four congruent right-angled triangles.

Perimeter of a Rhombus

Since all sides of a rhombus are equal, the perimeter is calculated as 4 × side.

Relation between Side and Diagonals

Applying Pythagoras Theorem in one of the small triangles: (d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)² = side².

Shortcut Trick

The Highest Common Factor (HCF) of three numbers A, B, and C is determined by HCF(HCF(A, B), C).

Given HCF(A, B) = 36 and C = 18, we calculate HCF(36, 18).

Since 18 is a direct factor of 36 (18 × 2 = 36), the HCF must be 18.

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Alternate Method

Given:

Highest Common Factor of A and B = 36

The value of number C = 18

Formula Used:

HCF(A, B, C) = HCF(HCF(A, B), C)

Calculations:

⇒ HCF(A, B, C) = HCF(36, 18)

⇒ Prime factors of 36 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3

⇒ Prime factors of 18 = 2 × 3 × 3

⇒ Common prime factors = 2 × 3 × 3 = 18

⇒ Therefore, HCF(36, 18) = 18

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Additional Information

HCF Definition

The Highest Common Factor (HCF) or Greatest Common Divisor (GCD) is the largest positive integer that divides each of the numbers without leaving a remainder.

Associative Property of HCF

For any set of numbers, the HCF can be found by taking the HCF of any two numbers first, then taking the HCF of that result and the third number: HCF(x, y, z) = HCF(HCF(x, y), z).

Divisibility Rule for HCF

If one number is a factor of another number (i.e., it divides the other number completely), then the smaller number is the HCF of those two numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Find the LCM of the given intervals: 90, 120, and 150 seconds.

LCM (90, 120, 150) = 1800 seconds.

Convert seconds to minutes: 1800 ÷ 60 = 30 minutes.

Next simultaneous change = 5:20 p.m. + 30 minutes = 5:50 p.m.

∴ The correct answer is 5:50 p.m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Intervals of traffic lights = 90 sec, 120 sec, and 150 sec.

Initial simultaneous change time = 5:20 p.m.

Formula Used:

Next simultaneous event = Initial Time + LCM of individual intervals.

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factors of 90 = 2 × 3² × 5

⇒ Prime factors of 120 = 2³ × 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factors of 150 = 2 × 3 × 5²

⇒ LCM = 2³ × 3² × 5² = 8 × 9 × 25 = 1800 seconds.

⇒ Time in minutes = 1800 ÷ 60 = 30 minutes.

⇒ Required time = 5:20 p.m. + 30 minutes = 5:50 p.m.

∴ The correct answer is 5:50 p.m.

Additional Information

LCM for Recurring Events

The Least Common Multiple (LCM) is used to find the next time multiple independent events with different periodicities will occur at the same time.

Time Conversion

To convert seconds to minutes, divide the total seconds by 60 (1 minute = 60 seconds).

LCM of Fractions

If intervals are given in fractions, LCM = (LCM of Numerators) ÷ (HCF of Denominators).

Shortcut Trick

Time for 100% of the tank = 100 min

Time for 80% of the tank = 80% × 100 = 80 min

Convert minutes to seconds: 80 × 60 = 4800 sec

∴ The correct answer is 4800 sec.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Total time to fill the tank = 100 minutes

⇒ Required filling level = 80%

Formula Used:

⇒ Time taken for part = Total Time × Percentage Part

⇒ 1 minute = 60 seconds

Calculations:

⇒ Time required for 80% capacity = 100 × (80 ÷ 100) min

⇒ Time in minutes = 80 min

⇒ Total time in seconds = 80 × 60

⇒ Required time = 4800 sec

∴ The correct answer is 4800 sec.

Additional Information

Rate and Time Relation

The amount of work done (or tank filled) is directly proportional to the time spent when the rate of flow is constant.

Unit Conversions

Standard time conversions: 1 hour = 60 minutes = 3600 seconds; 1 minute = 60 seconds.

Pipe Capacity

If a pipe fills a tank in 'x' minutes, the part filled in 1 minute is 1/x.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of efficiencies: (Q + R) : P = 3 : 1 (Sum = 4) and (P + R) : Q = 5 : 2 (Sum = 7).

To equalize total efficiency (P + Q + R), multiply first ratio by 7 and second by 4.

⇒ (Q + R) : P = 21 : 7 and (P + R) : Q = 20 : 8.

Efficiency of P = 7 units/day and efficiency of (Q + R) = 21 units/day.

⇒ Total Work = 21 × 60 days. Time for P = (21 × 60) ÷ 7 = 180 days.

∴ The correct answer is 180 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Efficiency of (Q + R) = 3 × P; Efficiency of (P + R) = 2.5 × Q; Time for (Q + R) = 60 days.

Step 1: Determine efficiency ratios.

⇒ (Q + R) / P = 3 / 1 ⇒ (P + Q + R) = 4 units.

⇒ (P + R) / Q = 2.5 / 1 = 5 / 2 ⇒ (P + Q + R) = 7 units.

Step 2: Equalize total efficiency.

⇒ LCM of 4 and 7 = 28.

⇒ Efficiency of P = (1 ÷ 4) × 28 = 7 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of Q = (2 ÷ 7) × 28 = 8 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of R = 28 − (7 + 8) = 13 units/day.

Step 3: Calculate total work.

⇒ Total Work = (Efficiency of Q + Efficiency of R) × Time

⇒ Total Work = (8 + 13) × 60 = 21 × 60 = 1260 units.

Step 4: Calculate time taken by P.

⇒ Time for P = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of P

⇒ Time = 1260 ÷ 7 = 180 days.

∴ The correct answer is 180 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a work. If efficiency is in the ratio a : b, then time taken is in the ratio b : a.

Combined Work Formula

Total Work = (Efficiency₁ + Efficiency₂ + ...) × Time taken by all together. Efficiency is always additive for people working together.

Ratio Balancing

To compare ratios where the sum of parts represents the same total quantity, equalize the sum by multiplying each ratio by the appropriate factor (LCM method).

Shortcut Trick

To find time in minutes: Time = [Distance (m) ÷ Speed (km/hr)] × (60/1000)

Time = [450 ÷ 20] × (6/100)

Time = 22.5 × 0.06 = 1.35 minutes

In fraction: 135/100 = 27/20 min

∴ The correct answer is 27/20 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the train = 20 km/hr

Length of the train (Distance) = 450 m

Formula: Time = Distance ÷ Speed

⇒ First, convert speed into m/s:

⇒ Speed = 20 × (5/18) = 50/9 m/s

⇒ Time taken to cross the man (in seconds) = 450 ÷ (50/9)

⇒ Time = (450 × 9) ÷ 50 = 9 × 9 = 81 seconds

⇒ Convert seconds to minutes: Time = 81 ÷ 60 minutes

⇒ Time = 27/20 min

∴ The correct answer is 27/20 min.

Additional Information

Crossing Objects without Length

When a train crosses a pole, a tree, or a standing man, the distance covered is equal to the length of the train.

Crossing Objects with Length

When a train crosses a platform, bridge, or tunnel, the total distance is the sum of the lengths of the train and the object.

Relative Speed

If two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = S₁ − S₂. If they move in opposite directions, relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Shortcut Trick

Distance to be covered = Length of train = 500 m = 0.5 km.

Speed of the train = 40 km/hr.

Time (in hours) = Distance ÷ Speed = 0.5 ÷ 40 = 1/80 hr.

Time (in minutes) = (1/80) × 60 = 60/80 = 3/4 min.

∴ The correct answer is 3/4 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the train = 40 km/hr

Length of the train = 500 m

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

When a train crosses a stationary man, the distance covered is equal to the length of the train.

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = 500 m

⇒ 1 km = 1000 m ∴ 500 m = 500/1000 = 0.5 km

⇒ Speed = 40 km/hr

⇒ Time (in hours) = 0.5 ÷ 40

⇒ Time (in minutes) = (0.5 ÷ 40) × 60

⇒ Time = (1/2 × 1/40) × 60

⇒ Time = 60 ÷ 80

⇒ Time = 3/4 min

∴ The correct answer is 3/4 min.

Additional Information

Speed Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Train crossing an Object with Length

If a train of length L₁ crosses a bridge or platform of length L₂, the total distance covered is L₁ + L₂.

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = S₁ − S₂. In opposite directions, relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Shortcut Trick

Observe the ratio parts: 3 + 4 = 7.

This implies (p − q) + (q − r) = (r − s).

⇒ p − r = r − s

⇒ p + s = 2r

⇒ (p + s) : r = 2 : 1.

∴ The correct answer is 2 : 1.

Alternate Method

Given: The ratio of differences is (p − q) : (q − r) : (r − s) = 3 : 4 : 7.

Let the common proportionality constant be k.

⇒ p − q = 3k — (Eq. 1)

⇒ q − r = 4k — (Eq. 2)

⇒ r − s = 7k — (Eq. 3)

⇒ Adding Eq. 1 and Eq. 2:

⇒ (p − q) + (q − r) = 3k + 4k

⇒ p − r = 7k

⇒ From Eq. 3, we have r − s = 7k

⇒ Therefore, p − r = r − s

⇒ p + s = 2r

⇒ (p + s) / r = 2 / 1

∴ The correct answer is 2 : 1.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Progression (AP) Property

If three numbers a, b, and c are in Arithmetic Progression, then the common difference is constant: b − a = c − b, which simplifies to 2b = a + c.

Ratio and Proportion

When multiple ratios are given in a chain like a:b:c = x:y:z, we can assume a = xk, b = yk, and c = zk to solve for individual variables.

Midpoint Relation

In any sequence where the gap between the first and second terms equals the gap between the second and third terms, the middle term is the Arithmetic Mean of the outer terms.

Shortcut Trick

Initial ratio A : B = 3 : 1 (Difference = 2 parts)

New ratio A : B = 5 : 3 (Difference = 2 parts)

Since the difference is the same, compare the increase: 3 → 5 or 1 → 3 is 2 units.

Given increase = 2, so 2 units = 2 ⇒ 1 unit = 1.

Initial sum = 3 + 1 = 4 units ⇒ 4 × 1 = 4.

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial ratio of A and B = 3 : 1, Increment in both = 2, Final ratio = 5 : 3.

Formula Used: New Value = Initial Value + Increase

⇒ Let initial values be 3x and x.

⇒ (3x + 2) ÷ (x + 2) = 5 ÷ 3

⇒ 3 × (3x + 2) = 5 × (x + 2)

⇒ 9x + 6 = 5x + 10

⇒ 9x − 5x = 10 − 6

⇒ 4x = 4

⇒ x = 1

⇒ Sum of initial values = 3x + x = 4x

⇒ Sum = 4 × 1 = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Additional Information

Ratio Constant Difference Concept

If the same value is added to or subtracted from two numbers, the difference between them remains unchanged. In ratios, we multiply to make the term differences equal before comparing parts.

Proportion Rule

If a : b = c : d, then the product of extremes (a × d) is equal to the product of means (b × c).

Scaling Ratios

To compare different ratios, always bring them to a common scale by equating the shared component or the difference between components.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Marked Price (MP) = 5 : 7

Ratio of Marked Price (MP) to Selling Price (SP) = 7 : 6

Combining the ratios, CP : MP : SP = 5 : 7 : 6

Profit Percentage = [(6 − 5) ÷ 5] × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given:

MP = (7/5) × CP

SP = (6/7) × MP

Calculations:

⇒ Let Cost Price (CP) = ₹100

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = (7/5) × 100 = ₹140

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = (6/7) × 140 = 6 × 20 = ₹120

⇒ Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price = 120 − 100 = ₹20

⇒ Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (20 ÷ 100) × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP, SP, and MP

Selling Price (SP) can be derived from either Cost Price (SP = CP + Profit) or Marked Price (SP = MP − Discount).

Markup Percentage

Markup is the extra price added to the CP to reach the MP. Markup % = [(MP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Discount Percentage

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price. Discount % = [(MP − SP) ÷ MP] × 100.

Profit/Loss Base

Profit and Loss are always calculated on the Cost Price unless specified otherwise in the question.

Shortcut Trick

To find the highest selling price, compare cases with the highest Marked Price (MP) and lowest Discount.

Between Option 1 (MP 8000, 25% discount) and Option 4 (MP 8000, 30% discount), Option 1 results in a higher price because the discount is lower.

Comparing 8000 at 25% discount with MP 6000 or 5000 is unnecessary as the base value (8000) is significantly larger.

8000 × 0.75 = ₹6000, while 8000 × 0.70 = ₹5600, 6000 × 0.75 = ₹4500, and 5000 × 0.70 = ₹3500.

∴ The correct answer is Marked price = Rs. 8000 and Discount = 25 percent.

Alternate Method

Given: Four different combinations of Marked Price and Discount percentage.

Formula Used: Selling Price (SP) = MP × (100 − Discount%)/100

⇒ Option 1: SP = 8000 × (1 − 25/100) = 8000 × 0.75 = ₹6000

⇒ Option 2: SP = 6000 × (1 − 25/100) = 6000 × 0.75 = ₹4500

⇒ Option 3: SP = 5000 × (1 − 30/100) = 5000 × 0.70 = ₹3500

⇒ Option 4: SP = 8000 × (1 − 30/100) = 8000 × 0.70 = ₹5600

Comparing the calculated values: 6000 > 5600 > 4500 > 3500.

∴ The correct answer is Marked price = Rs. 8000 and Discount = 25 percent.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP) and Discount

The Marked Price is the price printed on the label. Discount is always calculated as a percentage of the MP: Discount = MP × (D / 100).

Selling Price (SP) Relation

SP is the final price after discount. SP = MP − Discount. Alternatively, SP = MP × (100 − D)%.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁% and d₂% are given, the single equivalent discount is (d₁ + d₂ − d₁d₂/100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Use the Ratio Method for 25% discount: 25% = 1/4 ⇒ MP = 4 units, Discount = 1 unit.

Selling Price (SP) = 4 − 1 = 3 units.

Given SP = Rs. 3000 ⇒ 3 units = 3000 ⇒ 1 unit = 1000.

Marked Price (MP) = 4 units × 1000 = Rs. 4000.

This condition directly satisfies the question requirement.

∴ The correct answer is SP = Rs. 3000 and Discount = 25%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 3000

Discount = 25%

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = [SP × 100] ÷ [100 − Discount%]

Calculations:

⇒ MP = [3000 × 100] ÷ [100 − 25]

⇒ MP = 300000 ÷ 75

⇒ MP = Rs. 4000

Similarly, checking other options:

⇒ Option 2: MP = 2500 ÷ 0.85 ≈ Rs. 2941.17

⇒ Option 3: MP = 3800 ÷ 0.88 ≈ Rs. 4318.18

⇒ Option 4: MP = 3200 ÷ 0.85 ≈ Rs. 3764.70

∴ The correct answer is SP = Rs. 3000 and Discount = 25%.

Additional Information

Relationship between MP, SP and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). Formula: SP = MP − Discount.

Successive Discounts

Two successive discounts of a% and b% are equivalent to a single discount of [a + b − (a × b)/100]%.

Markup Percentage

It is the percentage by which the Marked Price is higher than the Cost Price (CP). Formula: Markup % = [(MP − CP) / CP] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

The fourth proportional to a, b, and c is calculated as (b × c) ÷ a.

Given values: a = 12, b = 4, c = 18.

Required value = (4 × 18) ÷ 12

Required value = 72 ÷ 12 = 6.

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Alternate Method

Given:

First term (a) = 12

Second term (b) = 4

Third term (c) = 18

Formula Used:

In a proportion a : b :: c : d, the Product of Extremes is equal to the Product of Means.

⇒ a × d = b × c

Calculations:

⇒ 12 × d = 4 × 18

⇒ 12d = 72

⇒ d = 72 ÷ 12

⇒ d = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

For two numbers a and b, the mean proportional x is calculated as x = √(a × b).

Third Proportional

If a, b, and c are in continued proportion (a:b = b:c), then c is the third proportional and c = b² ÷ a.

Properties of Proportion

Invertendo: If a/b = c/d, then b/a = d/c. Alternando: If a/b = c/d, then a/c = b/d.

The correct answer is 'Option (1)' i.e. 'To disrupt, foil, or cause problems to a plan, activity, or project'.

Key Points

• The idiom 'throw a wrench in the works' means to do something that prevents a plan or activity from succeeding or being completed as intended. (किसी योजना या कार्य में बाधा डालना या उसे बिगाड़ना)
• Example: We were all set to start the construction, but the new regulations threw a wrench in the works.
• 'To disrupt, foil, or cause problems to a plan, activity, or project' refers to the act of interfering with the progress of something so it cannot function normally. (किसी योजना, गतिविधि या परियोजना को बाधित करना, विफल करना या उसमें समस्याएँ पैदा करना)
• Example: Unexpected bad weather can disrupt even the best-laid outdoor event plans.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct meaning of the idiom 'throw a wrench in the works' is to 'disrupt, foil, or cause problems to a plan, activity, or project'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- To disrupt, foil, or cause problems to a plan, activity, or project.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To have a severe effect on one's feelings (किसी की भावनाओं पर गहरा प्रभाव डालना): To cause a deep emotional impact or distress to someone.
• Example: The loss of his childhood home had a severe effect on his feelings and general well-being.
• Use of a tool to trick someone who is new to a field or industry (किसी क्षेत्र या उद्योग में नए व्यक्ति को धोखा देने के लिए उपकरण का उपयोग करना): Using specific methods or objects to deceive an inexperienced person.
• Example: The seasoned mechanic warned the apprentice that some people might try to trick him with faulty equipment.
• To take someone or something away from someone or something by pulling in a violent, wrenching manner (किसी को या किसी चीज़ को हिंसक, मरोड़ने वाले तरीके से खींचकर दूर ले जाना): A physical action involving force and twisting.
• Example: The thief tried to wrench the handbag away from the woman in a violent manner.

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. To evoke strong emotions, usually feelings of sadness, pity, or sympathy, by causing deep emotional stirring.

Key Points

• The idiom 'tug at the heartstrings' means to cause someone to feel strong emotions, such as pity, sympathy, or sadness. (दिल की भावनाओं को झकझोरना या भावुक करना)
• Example: The documentary about homeless children really tugged at the heartstrings of the viewers.
• 'To evoke strong emotions' refers to the act of bringing out deep feelings or sentiments in a person through a particular experience or story. (गहरी भावनाओं को जागृत करना)
• Example: The poet's words were so powerful that they could evoke strong emotions in even the toughest critics.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of the idiom 'tug at the heartstrings' is to evoke strong emotions.

Therefore, the correct answer is- To evoke strong emotions, usually feelings of sadness, pity, or sympathy, by causing deep emotional stirring.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To keep someone awaiting a decision (किसी को निर्णय के लिए प्रतीक्षारत रखना): This refers to making someone wait for a final choice or judgment, often causing anxiety.
• Example: It is unfair for the interviewers to keep the candidates awaiting a decision for so long.
• To have great influence over someone (किसी पर बहुत प्रभाव होना): To have the power to affect the character, development, or behavior of someone.
• Example: Mentors often have a great influence over their students' professional careers.
• To stretch, unwind, or extend something (किसी चीज़ को फैलाना या खोलना): The physical act of pulling or straightening an object like a string or cord.
• Example: She began to unwind the long string to start flying the kite.

The correct answer is: Exaggerate.

Key Points

• The word 'Exaggerate' means to represent something as being larger, better, or worse than it really is; it refers to the act of overstating a fact or situation. (बढ़ा-चढ़ाकर कहना)
• Example: Don't exaggerate the difficulty of the exam; it was quite manageable.
• 'Exaggerate' is the correctly spelt word, following the Latin root 'exaggerare'. It is spelled with a double 'g' and a single 't'. (अतिशयोक्ति करना)
• Example: He has a tendency to exaggerate his athletic achievements to impress his friends.
• Hence, we can conclude that the spelling in option 3 and 4 is the correct one.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Exaggerate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained:

• Exaggeratte (No Hindi meaning as it is misspelt): This is an incorrect spelling because it uses a double 't' instead of a single 't'.
• Correct Spelling: Exaggerate
• Ecaxaggerate (No Hindi meaning as it is misspelt): This is an incorrect spelling as it adds an unnecessary 'c' before the 'a'.
• Correct Spelling: Exaggerate

The correct answer is 'Option (3)' i.e. 'Limit'.

Key Points

• The word 'confine' means to keep someone or something within certain boundaries or limits, such as space, time, or activity. (सीमित करना / कैद करना)
• Example: The heavy rains confined the children to the house all afternoon.
• 'Limit' means a point or level beyond which something does not or may not extend or pass; it refers to the act of restricting something. (सीमित करना / मर्यादा)
• Example: The school decided to limit the number of students in each classroom to ensure better learning.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'confine' is 'limit'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Limit.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Free (स्वतंत्र / मुक्त): Not under the control or in the power of another; able to act or be done as one wishes.
• Example: After years of hard work, he was finally free to pursue his passion for travel.
• Release (रिहा करना / छोड़ना): To allow or enable to escape from confinement; to set free.
• Example: The police had to release the suspect because there was not enough evidence.
• Expand (विस्तार करना / फैलाना): To become or make larger or more extensive in size, volume, or scope.
• Example: The company is looking for new investors to expand its operations globally.

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. Yatchsman.

Key Points

• The word 'Yatchsman' is the misspelt word in the provided options because it lacks the letter 'h' which is necessary for the standard spelling. (गलत वर्तनी)
• Example: The teacher pointed out that the student had written yatchsman instead of the correct term in his essay.
• 'Yachtsman' is the correctly spelled word, which refers to a person who owns or sails a yacht. (नौका चालक)
• Example: The yachtsman skillfully navigated the large vessel through the choppy waters of the bay.
• Hence, we can identify that the misspelt word among the given choices is 'Yatchsman'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Yatchsman.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Yammering (बड़बड़ाना): This refers to the act of talking volubly and loudly, often in an annoying or complaining way.
• Example: I could not hear the announcement over the constant yammering of the people sitting behind me.
• Yearningly (तड़प के साथ / लालसापूर्वक): This means doing something in a way that shows an intense feeling of longing or desire.
• Example: He looked yearningly at the trophy, wishing he had trained harder for the competition.
• Youthfulness (यौवन / युवावस्था): This is the state or quality of being young or having the characteristics associated with young people, such as energy and health.
• Example: The actor is often praised for his incredible youthfulness and vibrant personality.

The correct answer is: Novice.

Key Points

• The word 'Expert' refers to a person who has a comprehensive and authoritative knowledge of or skill in a particular area. (विशेषज्ञ)
• Example: She is an expert in molecular biology and has published many papers.
• 'Novice' refers to a person who is new to and has little experience in a job or situation; a beginner. (नौसिखिया)
• Example: The training program is designed to help a novice become comfortable with the new software.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Expert' is 'Novice'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Novice.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Skilled (कुशल): Having or showing the knowledge, ability, or training to perform a certain activity or task well.
• Example: The project requires skilled workers who can handle complex machinery.
• Master (माहिर): A person who has complete control of something or is very skilled in a particular art or activity.
• Example: He is a master of classical music and has performed worldwide.
• Professional (पेशेवर): Relating to or belonging to a profession; engaged in a specified activity as one's main paid occupation.
• Example: It is important to maintain a professional appearance during a job interview.

1. Choose the most suitable one-word substitution for the following. An act of disrespect towards any religious custom or belief. Options: (1) obeisance (2) Alchemy (3) Blasphemy (4) Syllogism

The correct answer is: Blasphemy.

Key Points

• The phrase 'An act of disrespect towards any religious custom or belief' refers to the action of showing contempt or a lack of reverence for sacred things or deities. (ईश-निंदा/धार्मिक अनादर)
• Example: In medieval times, many scientists were persecuted because their theories were perceived as an act of disrespect towards established religious beliefs.
• 'Blasphemy' is the specific term used to describe the offense of speaking sacrilegiously about God or sacred things, or acting in a way that insults religious customs. (ईश-निंदा)
• Example: The author faced a huge outcry and legal challenges after being accused of blasphemy in his latest novel.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct one-word substitution for the given phrase is 'Blasphemy'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Blasphemy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Obeisance (सम्मान/अभिवादन): A gesture expressing deferential respect, such as a bow or curtsy.
• Example: The commoners paid obeisance to the king by bowing low as he passed through the streets.
• Alchemy (कीमियागरी): A medieval chemical science and speculative philosophy aiming to achieve the transmutation of base metals into gold.
• Example: Ancient practitioners of alchemy spent their lives searching for the philosopher's stone.
• Syllogism (न्यायवाक्य/तर्कवाक्य): A form of deductive reasoning where a conclusion is reached based on two premises.
• Example: A classic syllogism follows the structure: All men are mortal; Socrates is a man; therefore, Socrates is mortal.

The correct answer is: Ambiguous.

Key Points

• The phrase 'Something that can be interpreted in more than one way' refers to a statement, word, or situation that is open to multiple meanings and lacks a single, clear definition. (अनेकार्थी या अस्पष्ट)
• Example: The sentence 'I saw the man with the telescope' is ambiguous because it is unclear who has the telescope.
• 'Ambiguous' refers to language that is not clear or decided, or having more than one possible meaning. (अस्पष्ट)
• Example: The legal contract was written in ambiguous language, leading to a long court battle.
• Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitution for the given phrase is 'Ambiguous'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Ambiguous.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Repatriate (स्वदेश भेजना/लौटाना): To send or bring someone back to their own country.
• Example: The government worked hard to repatriate the citizens who were stuck abroad during the crisis.
• Vivacious (जिंदादिल): Someone, especially a woman, who is attractively lively and animated.
• Example: She is a vivacious hostess who makes every guest feel welcome and entertained.
• Profane (अपवित्र): Showing a lack of respect for God or holy things.
• Example: The teenager was scolded for using profane language in the church.

The correct answer is A new library has been built in the town by them..

Key Points

• The provided sentence 'They have built a new library in the town' is in the Active Voice and follows the Present Perfect Tense structure.
• The active voice structure for the present perfect tense is: Subject + has/have + V3 (Past Participle) + Object. Here, 'They' is the Subject, 'have built' is the Verb, and 'a new library' is the Object.
• When converting to Passive Voice, the object of the active sentence becomes the subject of the passive sentence. The structure becomes: New Subject + has/have + been + V3 (Past Participle) + by + Agent.
• Since the new subject 'a new library' is singular, the auxiliary verb 'has' is used followed by 'been'.
• The past participle form of the verb 'build' is 'built', which is used in the passive construction.
• The agent 'they' changes to its objective form 'them' after the preposition 'by'. Therefore, the correct transformation is 'A new library has been built in the town by them'.

 Additional Information

• Understanding other tense conversions in passive voice:
• Simple Present: Active 'build/builds' becomes 'is/am/are + built'. (e.g., 'A new library is built...').
• Simple Past: Active 'built' becomes 'was/were + built'. (e.g., 'A new library was built...').
• Simple Future: Active 'will build' becomes 'will be + built'. (e.g., 'A new library will be built...').
• Present Continuous: Active 'is/am/are building' becomes 'is/am/are + being + built'.
• Present Perfect: Crucially, the addition of 'been' is mandatory to distinguish it from the active perfect form.

The correct answer is Have the curators installed the sculptures in the newly established museum wing?.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Passive Voice of the Present Perfect Tense. This is identified by the auxiliary verb Have, the marker been, and the Past Participle (V3) form of the verb installed.
• In an interrogative sentence of the Present Perfect Tense, the Passive Voice structure is: Have/Has + Object + been + V3 + by + Subject?.
• To convert this into Active Voice, the structure must change to: Have/Has + Subject + V3 + Object?.
• The Subject in the active voice will be the curators (the agent performing the action), and the Object will be the sculptures (the entity receiving the action).
• Since the curators is a plural noun, it must be preceded by the auxiliary verb Have to maintain Subject-Verb Agreement.
• The main verb installed remains in its V3 form for the Present Perfect active structure. Therefore, the construction becomes: Have (Auxiliary) + the curators (Subject) + installed (V3) + the sculptures (Object) + in the newly established museum wing? (Adverbial Phrase).

 Additional Information

• Understanding why other options are incorrect:
• Simple Past Tense: Option 1 uses Did, which belongs to the Simple Past Tense. Converting a sentence from passive to active requires maintaining the original tense.
• Subject-Verb Agreement Error: Option 2 uses Has with a plural subject curators. In English grammar, Has is strictly reserved for third-person singular subjects (He, She, It), whereas Have is used for plural subjects and first/second-person pronouns.
• Future Tense: Option 3 uses Will, indicating the Simple Future Tense, which fundamentally changes the timeline of the action from the Present Perfect.
• Active vs. Passive Markers: The word been is the primary indicator of the passive voice in perfect tenses; its removal is mandatory when reverting to the Active Voice.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The error lies in the use of the preposition in in the second part of the sentence.
• The verb spend, when used in the context of using money to pay for something or an event, is grammatically followed by the preposition on.
• The standard structure is: Subject + spend + money + on + something.
• In this sentence, the preposition in should be replaced with on to correctly link the act of spending to the event (his daughter's marriage).
• Therefore, the error is located in the part wanted to spend a lot of money in his.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: 'Mr. Barik was a millionaire and he wanted to spend a lot of money on his daughter's marriage to make it a memorable event.'

Additional Information

• Part (1): 'Mr. Barik was a millionaire and he' – This part is grammatically correct as it uses the past tense correctly to describe a state.
• Part (3): 'daughter's marriage to make' – This part correctly uses the possessive form (daughter's) and the infinitive (to make) to show purpose.
• Part (4): 'it a memorable event.' – This part is correct, where 'it' refers back to the marriage/event.
• Note: While wedding refers specifically to the ceremony and marriage to the relationship, the term marriage is often used to denote the ceremony in various English dialects; however, the prepositional error (on vs in) remains the primary grammatical flaw.

The correct answer is 'From'.

Key Points

• The phrase 'From now on' is a standard English idiom used to indicate that a new situation, behavior, or rule will begin at the present moment and continue indefinitely into the future.
• The word 'From' functions as a preposition here, marking the starting point of the time period during which the action (not fighting over trifles) will occur.
• Trifles refers to things of little value or importance.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: 'From now on, we are not going to fight over trifles.'

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'since' is used to describe a point in the past until now (e.g., since yesterday) and is generally used with the present perfect tense.
• Option 2: 'Hence' is an adverb meaning 'for this reason' or 'from this time'. While 'henceforth' is a synonym for 'from now on', the construction 'Hence now on' is grammatically incorrect.
• Option 4: 'For' is used to indicate a duration or period of time (e.g., for two weeks) rather than a specific starting point in this phrase.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The paragraph presents a philosophical classroom discussion about death and the meaning of life. The sentences follow a logical dialogue flow between the students ('they') and the teacher ('I').
• Sentence C is the first sentence to follow S1 as it introduces the initial question that starts the dialogue:
• 'They asked me, where did they go? The trees, the salamander, the tropical fish, Edgar, the poppas and mommas, Matthew and Tony, where did they go?'
• Sentence D follows C because it provides the narrator’s direct response to the question regarding where everyone went:
• 'And I said, I don't know, I don't know.'
• Sentence B follows D as it continues the exchange about the state of not knowing, moving from 'I don't know' to 'nobody knows':
• 'And they said, who knows? and I said, nobody knows.'
• Sentence A is the fourth sentence as it shifts the conversation from the physical destination of the dead to the philosophical meaning of death:
• 'And they said, is death that which gives meaning to life?'
• This leads perfectly into the fixed sentence S2, which answers the question posed in Sentence A.
• The logical sequence is CDBA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'One day, we had a discussion in class. They asked me, where did they go? The trees, the salamander, the tropical fish, Edgar, the poppas and mommas, Matthew and Tony, where did they go? And I said, I don't know, I don't know. And they said, who knows? and I said, nobody knows. And they said, is death that which gives meaning to life? And I said no, life is that which gives meaning to life.'