SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 06 May, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic followed here is,

−779 + 3 = −776 

−776 + 4 = −772

−772 + 5 = −767

−767 + 6 = −761

−761 + 7 = −754

−754 + 8 = −746

−746 + 9 = −737

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

−66 − 10 = −76

−76 − 11 = −87

−87 − 12 = −99

−99 − 13 = −112

−112 − 14 = −126

−126 − 15 = −141

−141 − 16 = −157

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

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Pattern followed here us,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

For the set '(LA, OD, SH)':

For the set '(IX, LA, PE)':

Applying the same logic to '(FA, ID, MH)':

Thus, the set (FA, ID, MH) follows the same logic as the given sets.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Logic followed here is,

466 + 99 = 565

565 + 99 = 664

664 + 99 = 763

763 + 99 = 862

862 + 99 = 961 

961 + 99 = 1060

1060 + 99 = 1159

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

5 boys P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. P is second to the left of Q.
2. S is to the right of P and to the left of R.
3. Two boys are there between S and T. 

No boy is sitting between P and S.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

7 girls P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. S is next to both P and V.
2. V is second to the left of U.
3. T is second to the right of U.
4. R is not the immediate neighbour of V. 

P is sitting second to the right of R.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

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AR190 : YO690

 

YT240 : WQ740

Similarly,

? : RS650

 

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

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TUV11 : OPB169

 

LMO15 : GHU289

Similarly,

? : LOR121

 

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number − 51

For the first pair 5945 : 5894

⇒ 5945 − 51 = 5894

Applying the same logic to the second pair 6244 : 6193

⇒ 6244 − 51 = 6193

Applying the same logic to the third pair 3370 : ?

⇒ 3370 − 51 = 3319

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 227

For the second pair 157 : 384

⇒ 157 + 227 = 384

For the third pair 516 : 743

⇒ 516 + 227 = 743

Applying the same logic to the first pair

220 : ?

⇒ 220 + 227 = 447

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

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For NOPE is coded as OQSI →

For DIED is coded as EKHH →

Similarly,

let's find the code for DUES:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

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WINED is coded as XLMBY →

CRAZE is coded as DUZWZ →

Similarly,

let's find the code for RELAX:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Concept:

The hour hand covers 360° in 12 hours.

Angular distance covered by the hour hand in 1 minute = 360 ÷ (12 × 60) = 0.5°

The minute hand covers 360° in 60 minutes.

Angular distance covered by the minute hand in 1 minute = 360 ÷ 60 = 6°

The relative speed between the two hands = 6° − 0.5° = 5.5° per minute.

For the hands of a clock to be opposite to each other, the angle between them must be 180°.

Calculation:

At 3 PM, the minute hand is at 12 (0°) and the hour hand is at 3 (90°).

To be opposite, the minute hand must first cover the 90° gap to meet the hour hand and then move 180° further to be exactly opposite.

Total relative angular distance to be covered = 90° + 180° = 270°

Time taken = Distance ÷ Relative speed

Time = 270 ÷ 5.5 = 270 ÷ (11/2)

Time = 540/11 minutes ≈ 49.09 minutes

The time is approximately 49 minutes past 3, which is 3:49 PM.

Alternate Method

The angle between the hour hand and minute hand is given by the formula:

Angle = |30H − (11/2)M|

Where H is hours and M is minutes.

Here, H = 3 and the hands are opposite, so Angle = 180°.

180 = |30 × 3 − 5.5 × M|

180 = |90 − 5.5M|

Since the minute hand is ahead of the hour hand to form a 180° angle after 3 PM:

180 = 5.5M − 90

180 + 90 = 5.5M

270 = 5.5M

M = 270 ÷ 5.5 = 540/11

M ≈ 49.09 minutes

Hence, the correct answer is 3:49.

The watch is 6 minutes slow at 7 AM.

The gain rate of the watch = 12 seconds per hour.

To show the correct time, the total gain required is 6 minutes.

Converting the required gain into seconds:

6 minutes = 6 × 60 = 360 seconds.

Now, calculate the number of hours required to gain 360 seconds:

Time = Total gain required ÷ Gain per hour

Time = 360 ÷ 12 = 30 hours.

To find the time when the watch will be correct, we add 30 hours to the starting time of 7 AM:

7 AM + 24 hours = 7 AM (the following day)

7 AM + 6 hours = 1 PM (the following day)

The watch will show the correct time at 1:00 PM.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is 360.

Key Points

• Article 360 of the Constitution of India provides the framework for the proclamation of a Financial Emergency by the President if the financial stability or credit of India is threatened.
• The proclamation must be approved by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha within two months from its date of issuance by a simple majority.
• Once the Parliament approves the proclamation, it continues indefinitely until the President revokes it through a subsequent proclamation; unlike other emergencies, it does not require periodic legislative renewal.
• During the operation of a Financial Emergency, the Union Executive can issue directions to states to observe canons of financial propriety and may require all Money Bills to be reserved for the President’s consideration.
• The President is empowered to order the reduction of salaries and allowances for all classes of persons serving the Union or the States, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
• Historically, a Financial Emergency has never been declared in India, despite the country facing a severe Balance of Payments crisis in 1991.

 Additional Information

• Emergency Framework:
• The Emergency Provisions are detailed in Part XVIII of the Constitution, specifically spanning from Article 352 to 360, and are largely inspired by the Government of India Act, 1935.
• Constitutional Safeguards:
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced significant checks, ensuring that the President's satisfaction for declaring an emergency is subject to judicial review.
• Classification of Emergencies:
• Apart from the financial type, the Constitution identifies two other categories: National Emergency (declared under Article 352 for war or rebellion) and President’s Rule (declared under Article 356 for the failure of constitutional machinery in states).
• Impact on Fundamental Rights:
• While Articles 358 and 359 deal with the suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergencies, Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction) and Article 21 (protection of life and liberty) cannot be suspended even during a crisis.

The correct answer is 42nd Amendment.

Key Points

• The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, often referred to as the Mini-Constitution, brought about the most extensive changes to the Indian Constitution during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• One of the significant changes was the transfer of five subjects from the State List (List II) to the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule.
• These five subjects were Education, Forests, Weights and Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice (excluding the Supreme Court and High Courts).
• By moving Education to the Concurrent List, the amendment enabled both the Parliament and the State Legislatures to enact laws on the subject, though central legislation takes precedence in case of a conflict under Article 254.
• This shift was intended to ensure a uniform national standard and policy for education across all states in India.

 Additional Information

• 44th Amendment Act, 1978:
• Passed by the Janata Government to nullify several distortions introduced by the 42nd Amendment.
• It is most notable for removing the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and making it a Legal Right under Article 300A.
• 52nd Amendment Act, 1985:
• Commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law.
• It inserted the Tenth Schedule to prevent political defections by members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
• 86th Amendment Act, 2002:
• Focused on the implementation of the Right to Education.
• It inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 years a Fundamental Right.
• It also added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) for parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities.

The correct answer is 13th Finance Commission.

Key Points

• The 13th Finance Commission, which was chaired by Dr. Vijay Kelkar and covered the award period from 2010 to 2015, was the first to explicitly recommend a compensation package for states to facilitate the rollout of the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
• The commission proposed a GST Compensation Fund with an initial corpus of 50,000 crore rupees to provide a financial cushion for states that might experience revenue shortfalls during the transition to the new indirect tax regime.
• It introduced the concept of a Grand Bargain, emphasizing that the central government should provide fiscal incentives to states to encourage the adoption of a comprehensive and uniform GST model across the country.
• The commission argued that while GST would eventually increase the tax base and improve economic efficiency by creating a common national market, the immediate loss of state-level taxes like VAT and Entry Tax required a formal compensation mechanism.
• These recommendations laid the essential groundwork for the fiscal architecture that was later adopted under the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, which eventually brought GST into effect on 1st July 2017.

 Additional Information

• 12th Finance Commission:
• Chaired by Dr. C. Rangarajan (2005–2010), this commission primarily focused on fiscal consolidation and incentivizing states to implement the Value Added Tax (VAT) system.
• 14th Finance Commission:
• Led by Y.V. Reddy (2015–2020), it is significant for increasing the vertical devolution of central taxes to states from 32 percent to 42 percent, providing greater fiscal autonomy to state governments.
• 15th Finance Commission:
• Chaired by N.K. Singh (2021–2026), it addressed the post-GST fiscal landscape and maintained the devolution share at 41 percent, accounting for the new status of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
• Constitutional Mandate:
• The Finance Commission is a Constitutional Body established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India to recommend the distribution of tax proceeds between the Union and the States.

The correct answer is Tea plantations.

Key Points

• Two Leaves and a Bud is a seminal novel written by Mulk Raj Anand, first published in 1937. It serves as a scathing critique of the British colonial administration and the capitalist exploitation inherent in the plantation economy.
• The narrative is set in the Macpherson Tea Estate located in Assam, India. The title of the novel is a direct reference to the method of plucking the top two leaves and a bud from the tea plant, which yields the highest quality tea.
• The story revolves around the protagonist, Gangu, a displaced Punjabi peasant who is lured to the tea gardens by the false promise of a better life and high wages, only to find himself trapped in a system of indentured labor and debt bondage.
• Anand vividly depicts the dehumanizing conditions faced by the workers, including poor sanitation, physical abuse, and the lack of basic legal rights, highlighting the stark contrast between the laborers' misery and the hedonistic lifestyle of the British managers like Reggie Hunt.
• The novel concludes tragically with the murder of Gangu by Reggie Hunt, followed by a trial that results in the acquittal of the British officer, thereby illustrating the systematic injustice and racial bias of the colonial legal system.

 Additional Information

• Mulk Raj Anand (1905–2004):
• He was a prominent Indian writer in English and a pioneer of the Indo-Anglian novel, alongside R.K. Narayan and Raja Rao.
• Anand was a founding member of the Progressive Writers' Association and was deeply influenced by Marxist ideology and social realism.
• His other notable works include Untouchable (1935), which explores the life of a sweeper named Bakha, and Coolie (1936), which depicts the struggles of a young hill boy named Munoo across various urban labor settings.
• He was honored with the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1971 and the Padma Bhushan in 1967 for his contributions to literature and education.

The correct answer is Human Development Report.

Key Points

• The Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual publication released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to measure and analyze global progress in human welfare.
• It was first introduced in 1990 by the visionary Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen with the goal of shifting the focus of development economics from national income accounting to people-centered policies.
• The report is primarily known for the Human Development Index (HDI), a composite statistic that ranks countries based on three key dimensions: Long and healthy life (measured by life expectancy at birth), Knowledge (measured by mean and expected years of schooling), and A decent standard of living (measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita).
• Unlike traditional economic reports that focus solely on Gross Domestic Product (GDP), the HDR explores critical themes such as poverty, gender inequality, and sustainability to provide a holistic view of human capability.

 Additional Information

• Global Risks Report:
• This is an annual study published by the World Economic Forum (WEF) ahead of its annual meeting in Davos.
• It identifies and assesses the most significant threats the world faces, categorized into environmental, societal, geopolitical, and technological risks.
• World Economic Outlook (WEO):
• Published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), this report provides a detailed analysis of the global economy and forecasts future growth trends.
• It is released twice a year, typically in April and October, and serves as a vital resource for global policy coordination.
• Global Competitiveness Report:
• Another flagship publication of the World Economic Forum (WEF), it measures the Global Competitiveness Index (GCI).
• It evaluates factors like institutional quality, infrastructure, and market efficiency to determine the level of productivity of various nations.

The correct answer is World Economic Forum.

Key Points

• The Global Energy Transition Index (ETI) is a specialized framework designed to track and benchmark the progress of various nations toward a secure, sustainable, and affordable energy future.
• It is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF), typically in collaboration with Accenture, providing a data-driven analysis for policymakers and business leaders.
• The index evaluates countries across two primary dimensions: Energy System Performance (current state of the energy system) and Transition Readiness (the robustness of the enabling environment for future transitions).
• The System Performance pillar focuses on three core imperatives: Environmental Sustainability, Energy Security and Access, and Economic Development and Growth.
• The Transition Readiness dimension measures factors such as Capital and Investment, Regulation and Political Commitment, Institutions and Governance, and Infrastructure.
• In recent editions, such as the Energy Transition Index 2024, advanced economies like Sweden, Denmark, and Finland have consistently ranked at the top of the list.

 Additional Information

• World Economic Forum (WEF)
• Established in January 1971 by Klaus Schwab, it is a non-profit foundation headquartered in Cologny, Switzerland.
• It is globally recognized for its annual meeting in Davos, where political and business elites gather to discuss pressing global issues.
• Other prominent reports released by the WEF include the Global Gender Gap Report, Global Risks Report, and the Global Competitiveness Report.
• International Energy Agency (IEA)
• An intergovernmental organization established in 1974 in the wake of the 1973 oil crisis, based in Paris, France.
• It publishes the flagship World Energy Outlook report, which provides comprehensive projections and analysis of global energy trends.
• World Bank
• Headquartered in Washington, D.C., it was founded in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference.
• It consists of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA), primarily publishing the World Development Report.
• OPEC
• The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries was founded in 1960 in Baghdad and is currently headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
• Its mission is to coordinate the petroleum policies of its member countries to ensure the stabilization of oil markets.

The correct answer is 90 min.

Key Points

• According to Law 7 of the Laws of the Game established by the International Football Association Board (IFAB) and recognized by FIFA, a standard professional football match consists of two equal periods of 45 minutes.
• The total official duration of the match, excluding any additional time added for injuries or substitutions, is 90 minutes.
• The referee is the sole timekeeper on the pitch and has the authority to signal the end of each 45-minute half, though they usually add allowance for time lost (stoppage time) at their discretion.
• Between the two halves, players are entitled to a half-time interval, which must not exceed 15 minutes as per standard regulations.

 Additional Information

• Extra Time
• In knockout competitions where a winner must be decided, if the match is a draw after 90 minutes, two extra periods of 15 minutes each are played, totaling 120 minutes.
• Stoppage Time
• This is the time added at the end of each half to compensate for substitutions, player injuries, disciplinary sanctions, or VAR reviews.
• Shortened Matches
• While 90 minutes is the standard for senior football, certain youth, senior (veteran), or disability football matches may be played over 80 minutes (two 40-minute halves) or shorter durations depending on competition rules.

The correct answer is Calcium and phosphorus compounds.

Key Points

• Bone is a specialized connective tissue characterized by a highly mineralized extracellular matrix, which provides the skeletal system with its necessary rigidity and hardness.
• The inorganic component of bone accounts for approximately 65% to 70% of its total dry weight, consisting almost entirely of Calcium and Phosphorus.
• These minerals are primarily organized into a crystalline lattice structure known as Hydroxyapatite, which has the chemical formula Ca₁₀(PO₄)₆(OH)₂.
• The process of mineralization occurs when these calcium phosphate salts are deposited within the collagen fiber framework of the bone, transforming a soft tissue matrix into a hard, durable structure.
• While the organic collagen fibers provide tensile strength (flexibility), the calcium-based crystals provide compressive strength, allowing bones to support body weight and resist physical impact.

 Additional Information

• Bone Matrix Components:
• Osteoblasts: These are the bone-forming cells responsible for secreting the organic osteoid matrix before it becomes mineralized.
• Calcium Carbonate: Along with Calcium Phosphate, small amounts of calcium carbonate are present, further contributing to the mineral density of the skeletal system.
• Regulatory Factors:
• Vitamin D: Essential for the homeostasis of bone health, as it facilitates the absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract.
• Magnesium: Although Magnesium is found in bones and aids in the biochemical reactions of osteoblasts, it is not the primary source of bone hardness compared to calcium and phosphorus.
• Non-Structural Minerals:
• Sodium and Potassium: These function mainly as electrolytes for nerve impulse transmission and fluid balance rather than providing structural hardness to the bone matrix.
• Iron: Found primarily in hemoglobin within the bone marrow for oxygen transport, not as a hardening agent for the bone tissue itself.

The correct answer is Goa 2023.

Key Points

• The 37th edition of the National Games was hosted by Goa in 2023, representing one of the largest multi-sport events in the country with over 10,000 athletes participating.
• During this edition, the National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) reported that more than 20 athletes (approximately 26-28 individuals) tested positive for banned substances, which is one of the highest numbers recorded at a single event in India.
• The testing program conducted by NADA was extensive, involving the collection of over 1,000 samples across various disciplines to ensure the integrity of the competition.
• Athletes from diverse sports such as weightlifting, athletics, cycling, wrestling, and wushu were found to have Adverse Analytical Findings (AAFs) in their samples.
• The substances detected included various anabolic steroids such as Drostanolone and Stanozolol, as well as Selective Androgen Receptor Modulators (SARMs), which are strictly prohibited under the WADA list.

 Additional Information

• National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA):
• Established as a registered society in 2005, it is the primary body responsible for anti-doping rules and education in Indian sports.
• It operates under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and follows the guidelines set by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
• Gujarat 2022:
• This was the 36th National Games, held after a seven-year hiatus, covering six cities in Gujarat including Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar.
• Uttarakhand 2025:
• The 38th National Games are scheduled to be hosted by Uttarakhand in early 2025, continuing the tradition of the biennial sports festival.
• Kerala 2015:
• The 35th edition was held in Kerala, which was significant for being spread across seven districts to utilize existing regional infrastructure.

The correct answer is Mobilize savings for planned development.

Key Points

• The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) was established on September 1, 1956, after the Parliament passed the Life Insurance Corporation Act earlier that year.
• The primary motive behind nationalization was to mobilize small savings from the public and channel them into long-term investments required for the Second Five-Year Plan and subsequent planned economic development of the country.
• Nationalization aimed to spread life insurance more widely, particularly in rural areas, ensuring that the benefits of financial security reached the socially and economically backward classes.
• The government sought to protect policyholders from the mismanagement, frequent failures, and unethical practices of the private insurance companies that dominated the market prior to 1956.
• By consolidating the industry, the state gained control over substantial investible funds, which were utilized for nation-building activities, infrastructure projects, and the development of the public sector.

 Additional Information

• Historical Background of LIC:
• The Government of India issued an ordinance on January 19, 1956, taking over the management of insurance businesses before full nationalization.
• LIC was formed by the amalgamation and nationalization of 245 Indian and foreign insurers and provident societies.
• The Finance Minister at the time of nationalization was C.D. Deshmukh, who envisioned the corporation as a tool for social welfare and capital formation.
• The official motto of LIC is Yogakshemam Vahamyaham, which is derived from the Bhagavad Gita and translates to 'Your welfare is my responsibility'.
• Currently, LIC is one of the largest institutional investors in India, significantly contributing to the equity and debt markets.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Statement I: The Bhagavad Gita is a cornerstone of Shankardeva’s teachings, particularly the concept of Eka Sarana, which emphasizes total surrender to Lord Krishna as the supreme deity. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Statement II: The Bhagavata Purana serves as the primary theological and philosophical source for his Neo-Vaishnavite movement; he translated its core sections into Assamese to make them accessible to the masses. Hence, statement II is correct.
• The religious system established by Shankardeva is known as Eka Sarana Nama Dharma, which focuses on the worship of one God through the chanting of His name (Nama).

 Additional Information

• Srimanta Shankardeva (1449–1568):
• A great 15th-century polymath and saint-reformer from Assam who propagated Vaishnavism.
• He introduced the Sattriya dance, which is now recognized as one of the eight classical dances of India.
• He founded the Satras (monasteries) and Namghars (community prayer halls) that continue to be centers of cultural and religious life in Assam.
• His literary works include the Kirtan Ghosha, a collection of poetical verses meant for community singing, and the Borgeets, which are classical devotional songs.
• He advocated for an egalitarian society, rejecting caste-based discrimination and complex sacrificial rituals in favor of simple Bhakti (devotion).

The correct answer is SHRESHTA Scheme.

Key Points

• The SHRESHTA (Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas) was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to provide high-quality education to meritorious Scheduled Caste (SC) students.
• The primary objective is to enhance the reach of development interventions and to bridge the educational gap for SC students by providing them entry into high-quality private residential schools.
• Admissions are targeted for Class 9 and Class 11, focusing on students whose parental annual income does not exceed 2.5 lakh rupees.
• Selection is performed through a transparent mechanism called the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS), which is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
• The scheme is implemented in two modes: one involving direct admission to CBSE-affiliated private schools and another involving support to NGO-run residential schools and hostels for primary and secondary education.
• It covers the complete expenditure for the student, including school fees and hostel charges, ensuring that socio-economic background does not hinder the academic growth of bright students.

 Additional Information

• UDAN Scheme:
• Known as Ude Desh ka Aam Naagrik, it is a regional airport development and Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) of the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
• It aims to make air travel affordable and widespread, stimulating inclusive economic growth and infrastructure development in underserved regions of India.
• PM-KUSUM:
• The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
• It focuses on solarizing agriculture by providing subsidies for solar pumps and establishing grid-connected solar power plants on barren lands.
• FAME India Scheme:
• Standing for Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles, it is part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan.
• It promotes the manufacturing of electric and hybrid vehicle technology and provides incentives to consumers to reduce the dependency on fossil fuels and lower vehicular emissions.

The correct answer is sitting down beside.

Key Points

• The word Upanishad is derived from the Sanskrit language, composed of the roots Upa (near), Ni (down), and Sad (to sit).
• Literally, the term means sitting down beside or near a teacher to receive instructions on the most profound spiritual truths and philosophical concepts.
• The name reflects the Guru-Shishya (teacher-disciple) tradition of ancient India, where students sat at the feet of a master to learn esoteric knowledge that was not intended for the general public.
• These texts represent the Jnana Kanda (knowledge section) of the Vedas, focusing on the nature of existence rather than ritualistic ceremonies.

 Additional Information

• Core Philosophy of Upanishads:
• They are frequently referred to as Vedanta, meaning the end of the Vedas, signifying the highest goal of Vedic knowledge.
• The central theme involves the relationship between Atman (the individual soul) and Brahman (the universal reality).
• Major concepts like Samsara (cycle of birth and death), Karma (actions), and Moksha (liberation) find their primary development in these texts.
• Important Upanishads:
• There are 108 Upanishads recognized in the Muktika canon, though 10 to 13 are considered Mukhya (principal) Upanishads.
• The Brihadaranyaka Upanishad is one of the oldest and contains the famous prayer Asato ma sadgamaya.
• The Mundaka Upanishad is the source of the Indian national motto, Satyameva Jayate.
• The Chandogya Upanishad is noted for the phrase Tat Tvam Asi (That Thou Art).

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• The Majuli Festival is an annual cultural celebration held in Majuli, the largest river island in the world, situated in the Brahmaputra River in the state of Assam.
• The festival typically takes place in the month of November, aiming to showcase the rich cultural heritage and traditional diversity of the indigenous communities living on the island.
• It provides a significant platform for the promotion of Sattriya, which is one of the eight major Indian Classical Dances, originated by the 15th-century saint and reformer Srimanta Sankardev.
• During the event, various ethnic groups like the Mishing, Deori, and Sonowal Kacharis exhibit their traditional music, dance forms, and unique culinary delicacies.
• The festival also highlights the Neo-Vaishnavite culture through exhibitions of local handlooms, bamboo crafts, and pottery, reflecting the socio-religious history of the Sattras (monasteries).

 Additional Information

• Goa
• Famous for the Goa Carnival, a vibrant celebration characterized by parades, floats, and music reflecting Indo-Portuguese culture.
• Celebrates Shigmo, a spring festival involving traditional folk dances like Ghode Modni and Fugdi.
• Kerala
• Renowned for Onam, a harvest festival featuring the Vallam Kali (snake boat race) and Pookalam (floral carpets).
• Celebrates Vishu, the astronomical New Year, and Thrissur Pooram, famous for its grand display of caparisoned elephants.
• Karnataka
• Home to the Mysuru Dasara, a state festival celebrating the victory of Goddess Chamundeshwari.
• Known for Kambala, an annual buffalo race held in the coastal regions of the state.

The correct answer is 110.

Key Points

• The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) celebrated its 110th Foundation Day in 2025. Although the organization was officially established on July 1, 1916, the commemorative events and national celebrations often commence on the eve, June 30.
• The organization was born out of the Zoological Section of the Indian Museum in Kolkata, with the primary objective of promoting survey, exploration, and research to advance the knowledge of the exceptionally rich faunal diversity of the Indian subcontinent.
• With its inception in 1916, the ZSI completed its Centenary (100 years) in 2016. By calculating the timeline to 2025, the organization marks 109 years of completion, leading into the celebration of its 110th anniversary.
• The ZSI operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC), Government of India, and serves as the premier taxonomic research institution in the country.

 Additional Information

• Institutional Structure and Leadership:
• The headquarters of the Zoological Survey of India is located at Prani Vigyan Bhawan in Kolkata, West Bengal.
• It currently operates through 16 Regional Centres strategically located across different bio-geographic zones of India to facilitate localized faunal studies.
• Dr. Dhriti Banerjee made history by becoming the first woman Director of the ZSI in its century-long existence, appointed in 2021.
• Core Functions and Publications:
• The ZSI is responsible for preparing the Red Data Book on Indian Animals, which categorizes species based on their conservation status (Endangered, Vulnerable, etc.) similar to the IUCN standards.
• It hosts the Animal Taxonomy Summit, a significant platform for scientists to discuss biodiversity conservation and new species discoveries.
• Major publications include the Records of the Zoological Survey of India, Memoirs of the ZSI, and the Fauna of India series.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Rapid combustion is a process in which a substance burns rapidly and produces a large amount of heat and light in a very short duration. This occurs when an external source like a spark or a flame is provided, such as the burning of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) in a kitchen stove or a matchstick catching fire. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Spontaneous combustion refers to a type of combustion that occurs without the application of any external heat or spark. The substance catches fire on its own when its ignition temperature is reached through internal heating or atmospheric conditions. Notable examples include the spontaneous burning of white phosphorus at room temperature and devastating fires in coal mines caused by coal dust. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• Other classifications of combustion processes include:
• Explosion: This is a sudden combustion reaction that results in the evolution of heat, light, and a large volume of gas accompanied by sound. It is commonly observed during the ignition of firecrackers.
• Complete Combustion: Occurs in the presence of sufficient oxygen, producing carbon dioxide and water. It is characterized by a non-luminous blue flame.
• Incomplete Combustion: Takes place when the oxygen supply is limited, leading to the formation of carbon monoxide, carbon soot, and water. It is typically identified by a yellow luminous flame.
• Ignition Temperature: The minimum temperature at which a substance catches fire is called its ignition temperature; a substance cannot catch fire as long as its temperature is lower than this value.

The correct answer is Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi.

Key Points

• The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was established in September 1928 during a historic meeting held at the Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi.
• The organization was a transformation of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), which had been founded in October 1924 in Kanpur by Sachindra Nath Sanyal and Ram Prasad Bismil.
• The leadership of the HSRA included prominent revolutionaries such as Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar, and Bhagwati Charan Vohra.
• The inclusion of the word 'Socialist' in the name was a result of the influence of Marxist ideologies, aiming for a revolution that would end all forms of exploitation.
• The primary goal of the HSRA was to establish a Federal Republic of the United States of India through an armed revolution against the British Raj.

 Additional Information

• Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay:
• This venue hosted the first session of the Indian National Congress (INC) in December 1885.
• The session was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee and organized by A.O. Hume.
• Alfred Park in Allahabad:
• This location is where Chandrashekhar Azad fought his final battle against the British police on February 27, 1931.
• Azad shot himself with his last remaining bullet to uphold his vow of never being captured alive.
• Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar:
• Site of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre on April 13, 1919, where General Dyer ordered troops to fire on a peaceful crowd.
• This event was a major catalyst for the Non-Cooperation Movement and led Rabindranath Tagore to renounce his knighthood.

The correct answer is 2.0.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare released the findings of the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5), which was conducted in two phases between 2019 and 2021, showing that India's Total Fertility Rate (TFR) has declined to 2.0.
• This figure represents a significant drop from the 2.2 recorded during the previous NFHS-4 survey conducted in 2015-16, indicating a successful transition in population stabilization efforts.
• The current TFR of 2.0 places India slightly below the replacement level fertility, which is globally accepted as 2.1 children per woman.
• The survey highlights a disparity between geographical settings, where the Urban fertility rate stands at 1.6, while the Rural fertility rate is slightly higher at 2.1.
• Key factors contributing to this decline include increased contraceptive prevalence rates (CPR), improved female literacy, and better access to family planning services across various states.

 Additional Information

• Total Fertility Rate (TFR):
• It represents the average number of children a woman would have during her reproductive years, typically defined as the ages between 15 and 49 years.
• A TFR of 2.1 is known as the replacement level, the point at which a population exactly replaces itself from one generation to the next without migration.
• Despite the national average of 2.0, five states still have a TFR above the replacement level: Bihar (2.98), Meghalaya (2.91), Uttar Pradesh (2.35), Jharkhand (2.26), and Manipur (2.17).
• NFHS-5 Scope:
• The survey provides critical data on maternal and child health, nutrition, anemia, and family planning indicators.
• It is used by the Government of India to formulate policies for the National Health Mission (NHM) and other social welfare schemes.
• The decline in fertility is closely linked to the rise in the use of modern contraceptives, which increased from 47.8% in NFHS-4 to 56.5% in NFHS-5.

The correct answer is Subsidies.

Key Points

• Revenue Expenditure consists of all those expenditures of the government which do not result in the creation of physical or financial assets. It relates to those expenses that do not reduce the liabilities of the government and are typically recurring in nature.
• Subsidies are a primary component of revenue expenditure in the Indian Budget. They are transfer payments made by the government to producers or consumers (such as Food Subsidies, Fertilizer Subsidies, and Petroleum Subsidies) to ensure the affordability of essential goods. These payments are consumed within the fiscal year and provide no direct asset return.
• The Union Budget classifies expenditures into revenue and capital. Revenue expenditure is essential for the day-to-day running of government machinery and the delivery of social welfare services. In recent years, subsidies have accounted for roughly 7% to 9% of the total revenue expenditure of the Government of India.
• In contrast, expenditures on Combat Aircraft, Naval Ships, and Expressway construction are classified as Capital Expenditure because they involve the acquisition of long-term assets or infrastructure that enhance the nation's productive or defensive capacity over many years.

 Additional Information

• Capital Expenditure (CapEx):
• Defense Acquisition: The procurement of high-value hardware like fighter jets and warships is recorded under the Capital Outlay on Defense Services.
• Infrastructure Development: The construction of Expressways and National Highways creates tangible public assets, stimulating long-term economic growth.
• Asset Creation: Any expenditure that leads to the creation of machinery, equipment, or buildings is categorized here.
• Other Revenue Expenditure Components:
• Interest Payments: This is usually the largest single item of revenue expenditure, representing the cost of servicing the Public Debt.
• Salaries and Pensions: Payments made to government employees and retired personnel are mandatory revenue outlays.
• Grants-in-aid: Grants provided to State Governments and Union Territories are technically revenue expenditures, even if they are utilized for creating capital assets at the state level.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD) is a strategic diplomatic partnership consisting of four nations: India, the United States, Australia, and Japan.
• During the 2024 QUAD Leaders' Summit held in Wilmington, Delaware, it was officially announced that India would host the next summit in 2025.
• Initially, India was slated to host the summit in 2024; however, following a mutual agreement and a request from the U.S. President, the hosting sequence was swapped, resulting in the USA hosting in 2024 and India taking the lead for 2025.
• The 2025 Summit in India will focus on advancing the Indo-Pacific agenda, including maritime security, critical technologies, climate action, and health security.
• This hosting duty underscores India's growing role in the Indo-Pacific region and its commitment to a rules-based international order.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of QUAD:
• The concept was first proposed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007 but gained significant momentum when it was revived in 2017.
• The first-ever In-Person Leaders' Summit took place in September 2021 at the White House, Washington D.C.
• Previous Summit Locations:
• Japan: Hosted the summit in Tokyo in 2022 and coordinated a meeting on the sidelines of the G7 Summit in Hiroshima in 2023.
• Australia: Originally scheduled to host the 2023 summit in Sydney, though the venue was shifted to Japan due to domestic political scheduling in the USA.
• USA: Hosted the 2024 summit in the hometown of President Joe Biden, emphasizing personal diplomacy.
• Core Initiatives:
• The group promotes the IPMDA (Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness) to track dark shipping and illegal fishing.
• Other pillars include the Quad Vaccine Partnership and the Quad Fellowship for STEM students.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Unit Digit Method to identify the result quickly.

Sum of unit digits: 3 + 2 − 1 + (1 + 1) − 8 + 3

⇒ (3 + 2 + 2 + 3) − (1 + 8) = 10 − 9 = 1

Since the unit digit of the final value is 1, the answer is 121.

∴ The correct answer is 121.

Alternate Method

Given: 73 + 92 − 61 + (41 + 21) − 78 + 33

Follow the BODMAS rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction) to simplify the expression:

⇒ 73 + 92 − 61 + 62 − 78 + 33

⇒ (73 + 92 + 62 + 33) − (61 + 78)

⇒ 260 − 139

⇒ 121

∴ The correct answer is 121.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

The rule defines the order of operations: Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction. Always solve terms inside brackets first.

Grouping Method

For faster calculation, group all positive terms together and all negative terms together before performing the final subtraction.

Unit Digit Technique

This shortcut helps eliminate incorrect options by focusing only on the last digit of each number in the arithmetic operation.

Shortcut Trick

Apply VBODMAS: solve brackets and 'of' operations first.

Calculate (36 ÷ 6) = 6 and 42 of 1 = 42.

Group positive and negative terms: (79 + 29 + 42 + 13) − (6 + 24).

Final sum: 163 − 30 = 133.

∴ The correct answer is 133.

Alternate Method

Given: 79 + 29 − (36 ÷ 6) + 42 of 1 + 13 − 24

Formula Used: Simplify the expression using the BODMAS rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

⇒ 79 + 29 − 6 + 42 of 1 + 13 − 24 (Solving Bracket first)

⇒ 79 + 29 − 6 + 42 + 13 − 24 (Solving 'of': 42 × 1)

⇒ 108 − 6 + 42 + 13 − 24 (Addition from left to right)

⇒ 102 + 42 + 13 − 24

⇒ 144 + 13 − 24

⇒ 157 − 24

⇒ 133

∴ The correct answer is 133.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

This acronym defines the priority of operations: Bracket (), Of (order/powers), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Priority of Of Operator

In mathematical expressions, 'of' is a multiplication operation that must be completed before any division or standard multiplication.

Negative Number Rule

When multiple subtractions are present, they can be combined as: −a − b = −(a + b).

Shortcut Trick

Product of two numbers = LCM × HCF

42 × Second Number = 168 × 14

Second Number = (168 × 14) ÷ 42

Second Number = 168 ÷ 3 = 56

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ Least Common Multiple (LCM) = 168

⇒ Highest Common Factor (HCF) = 14

⇒ First Number (n₁) = 42

Formula Used:

Product of two numbers = LCM × HCF

n₁ × n₂ = LCM(n₁, n₂) × HCF(n₁, n₂)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the other number be x.

⇒ 42 × x = 168 × 14

⇒ x = (168 × 14) ÷ 42

⇒ x = 2352 ÷ 42

⇒ x = 56

∴ The correct answer is 56.

Additional Information

HCF Property

The Highest Common Factor of two numbers always divides their LCM exactly.

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime, their HCF is 1 and their LCM is equal to the product of the two numbers.

Product Rule Constraint

The formula Product of Numbers = LCM × HCF is strictly valid only for two numbers and does not apply directly to three or more numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the expression as the algebraic identity: a³ − 3a²b + 3ab² − b³ = (a − b)³.

Here, a = 4.2 and b = 0.2.

The expression simplifies to (4.2 − 0.2)³.

⇒ 4³ = 64.

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: (4.2)² × 4.2 − 3 × 0.2 × (4.2)² + 3 × 4.2 × (0.2)² − (0.2)³

Formula Used: (a − b)³ = a³ − 3a²b + 3ab² − b³

⇒ Rewrite the terms to match the identity: (4.2)³ − 3(4.2)²(0.2) + 3(4.2)(0.2)² − (0.2)³

⇒ Let a = 4.2 and b = 0.2.

⇒ Expression = (4.2 − 0.2)³

⇒ Expression = (4.0)³

⇒ 4 × 4 × 4 = 64

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Additional Information

Cube of Sum Identity

(a + b)³ = a³ + 3a²b + 3ab² + b³ = a³ + b³ + 3ab(a + b).

Difference of Two Cubes

a³ − b³ = (a − b)(a² + ab + b²).

Sum of Two Cubes

a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² − ab + b²).

Shortcut Trick

Identify perfect square roots: √484 = 22, √121 = 11, and √64 = 8.

Substitute in equation: x = (22 ÷ 11) + 8

Solve for x: x = 2 + 8 = 10

Calculate x²: 10 × 10 = 100

∴ The correct answer is 100.

Alternate Method

Given: x = √484 ÷ √121 + √64

Formula Used: BODMAS (Division before Addition) and Square root values.

⇒ √484 = 22

⇒ √121 = 11

⇒ √64 = 8

⇒ x = 22 ÷ 11 + 8

⇒ x = 2 + 8

⇒ x = 10

⇒ x² = 10²

⇒ x² = 100

∴ The correct answer is 100.

Additional Information

Perfect Squares and Roots

Memorizing squares up to 30 helps in fast calculation (e.g., 20² = 400, 22² = 484, 25² = 625).

BODMAS Rule

Always follow the sequence: Brackets, Orders (Powers/Roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Square Root Estimation

For √484, since the last digit is 4, the root ends in 2 or 8. Since 20² = 400 and 30² = 900, the root is 22.

Shortcut Trick

Recognize the algebraic identity: (a + b)² + (a − b)² = 2(a² + b²).

Here, a = 5 and b = √3.

Sum of squares = 2 × (5² + (√3)²) = 2 × (25 + 3) = 56.

Required value = 56 − 40 = 16.

∴ The correct answer is 16.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: (5 + √3)² + (5 − √3)² − 40

Formula Used: (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab and (a − b)² = a² + b² − 2ab

⇒ Expansion of (5 + √3)² = 5² + (√3)² + 2 × 5 × √3 = 25 + 3 + 10√3 = 28 + 10√3

⇒ Expansion of (5 − √3)² = 5² + (√3)² − 2 × 5 × √3 = 25 + 3 − 10√3 = 28 − 10√3

⇒ Total = (28 + 10√3) + (28 − 10√3) − 40

⇒ Total = 28 + 28 + 10√3 − 10√3 − 40

⇒ Total = 56 − 40

⇒ 16

∴ The correct answer is 16.

Additional Information

Standard Algebraic Identities

The identity (a + b)² + (a − b)² = 2(a² + b²) is a quick way to sum the squares of binomials with identical terms.

Subtraction of Binomial Squares

Similarly, (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab is used when the terms are being subtracted instead of added.

Difference of Two Squares

The product of (a + b) and (a − b) always results in a² − b², which is useful for rationalizing denominators.

Shortcut Trick

Check Divisibility by 8 first (last three digits) then Divisibility by 3 (sum of digits).

For 5448: Last three digits 448 are divisible by 8 (448 ÷ 8 = 56).

Sum of digits 5+4+4+8 = 21, which is divisible by 3 (21 ÷ 3 = 7).

Both conditions are satisfied for the number 5448.

∴ The correct answer is 5448.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers (1) 5448, (2) 5240, (3) 5560, (4) 6170.

Rules: A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3. A number is divisible by 8 if the last three digits are divisible by 8.

⇒ Option 1: 5448

⇒ Sum = 5 + 4 + 4 + 8 = 21 (Divisible by 3 because 21 ÷ 3 = 7)

⇒ Last 3 digits = 448 (Divisible by 8 because 448 ÷ 8 = 56)

⇒ Option 2: 5240

⇒ Sum = 5 + 2 + 4 + 0 = 11 (Not divisible by 3)

⇒ Option 3: 5560

⇒ Sum = 5 + 5 + 6 + 0 = 16 (Not divisible by 3)

⇒ Option 4: 6170

⇒ Sum = 6 + 1 + 7 + 0 = 14 (Not divisible by 3)

∴ The correct answer is 5448.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 4

A number is divisible by 4 if the number formed by its last two digits is divisible by 4 or ends in 00.

Divisibility by 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of all its digits is divisible by 9.

Divisibility by 11

The difference between the sum of digits at odd places and even places must be either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Shortcut Trick

For a path built outside a rectangular garden:

Area of path = 2w × (L + B + 2w)

Where L = 180 m, B = 70 m, and w = 4 m.

Area = 2 × 4 × (180 + 70 + 2 × 4) = 8 × (250 + 8)

Area = 8 × 258 = 2064 m².

∴ The correct answer is 2064 m².

Alternate Method

Given:

Length (L) of the rectangular garden = 180 m

Breadth (B) of the garden = 70 m

Width of the path = 4 m

Formula Used:

Area of path = (Area including path) − (Area of garden)

Calculations:

⇒ Outer Length = 180 + 4 + 4 = 188 m

⇒ Outer Breadth = 70 + 4 + 4 = 78 m

⇒ Inner Area (Garden) = 180 × 70 = 12600 m²

⇒ Outer Area (Total) = 188 × 78 = 14664 m²

⇒ Area of path = 14664 − 12600

⇒ Area of path = 2064 m²

∴ The correct answer is 2064 m².

Additional Information

Path Inside a Rectangle

If the path is built inside the rectangular field, the area is calculated as Area = 2w × (L + B − 2w).

Cross-roads Area

Area of two paths of width 'w' crossing each other at right angles in the middle of a field = w × (L + B − w).

Perimeter including Path

The perimeter of the outer boundary after adding a path of width 'w' is 2 × (L + B + 4w).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of 1^st number to 2^nd number = 1 : 2

Sum of two numbers = Average × 2 = 66 × 2 = 132

Total ratio parts = 1 + 2 = 3 parts

3 parts = 132 ⇒ 1 part = 132 ÷ 3 = 44

∴ The correct answer is 44.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average of two numbers = 66

First number = 1/2 × Second number

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of observations) ÷ (Number of observations)

Calculations:

Let the second number be 2x.

⇒ First number = (1/2) × 2x = x

⇒ Average = (x + 2x) ÷ 2 = 66

⇒ 3x ÷ 2 = 66

⇒ 3x = 66 × 2

⇒ 3x = 132

⇒ x = 132 ÷ 3

⇒ x = 44

∴ The correct answer is 44.

Additional Information

Average of n Numbers

The average is the central value of a set of data, calculated as Sum of all values ÷ Total count of values.

Sum and Average Relation

Total Sum = Average × Number of observations. This is used to find individual values when ratios are given.

Ratio to Value Conversion

If a total S is divided in ratio a:b, then the first part is [a ÷ (a+b)] × S.

Shortcut Trick

Side of the Rhombus = 100 ÷ 4 = 25 cm.

Half of the given diagonal = 30 ÷ 2 = 15 cm.

Using Pythagorean triplet (15, 20, 25), the other half-diagonal is 20 cm.

Total second diagonal = 20 × 2 = 40 cm.

Area = (1/2) × 30 × 40 = 600 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 600 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Perimeter of Rhombus = 100 cm

One diagonal (d₁) = 30 cm

Formula Used:

Side (s) = Perimeter ÷ 4

Relation: s² = (d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)²

Area = (1/2) × d₁ × d₂

Calculations:

⇒ Side = 100 ÷ 4 = 25 cm

⇒ Half of d₁ = 30 ÷ 2 = 15 cm

⇒ In right-angled triangle AOB (where O is intersection),

⇒ Side² = (d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)²

⇒ 25² = 15² + (d₂/2)²

⇒ 625 = 225 + (d₂/2)²

⇒ (d₂/2)² = 625 − 225 = 400

⇒ d₂/2 = √400 = 20 cm

⇒ Second diagonal (d₂) = 2 × 20 = 40 cm

⇒ Area of Rhombus = (1/2) × 30 × 40

⇒ Area = 600 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 600 cm².

Additional Information

Properties of Rhombus Diagonals

The diagonals of a rhombus always bisect each other at right angles (90°).

Relationship Formula

The relationship between the side and diagonals is given by: 4 × Side² = d₁² + d₂².

General Area Formula

Since a rhombus is also a parallelogram, its area can also be calculated as Base × Height.

Shortcut Trick

Assume base average is 23 for all 14 numbers.

The remaining 9 numbers are 37 − 23 = 14 higher than the base.

Total surplus = 9 × 14 = 126.

Distribute this surplus over all 14 numbers: 126 ÷ 14 = 9.

Value of m = Base + Increase = 23 + 9 = 32.

∴ The correct answer is 32.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total count of numbers = 14

Average of 14 numbers = m

Average of first 5 numbers = 23

Average of remaining 9 numbers = 37

Formula Used:

Average = Total Sum ÷ Count of numbers

Total Sum = (n₁ × Avg₁) + (n₂ × Avg₂)

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of the first 5 numbers = 5 × 23 = 115

⇒ Count of remaining numbers = 14 − 5 = 9

⇒ Sum of the remaining 9 numbers = 9 × 37 = 333

⇒ Total sum of 14 numbers = 115 + 333 = 448

⇒ Average of 14 numbers (m) = 448 ÷ 14

⇒ m = 32

∴ The correct answer is 32.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

When two groups are combined, the average is (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Net Deviation Rule

In any set of numbers, the sum of deviations of all values from the arithmetic mean is always zero.

Adding/Removing Elements

New Average = Old Average + (Change in Sum ÷ New Count).

Shortcut Trick

The side of the largest square tile is the HCF of the floor dimensions.

Side = HCF(525, 700) = 175 cm.

Number of tiles along length = 700 ÷ 175 = 4.

Number of tiles along breadth = 525 ÷ 175 = 3.

Total tiles required = 4 × 3 = 12.

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Alternate Method

Given: Dimensions of the rectangular floor are 700 cm and 525 cm.

Formula: Number of tiles = (Area of floor) ÷ (Area of one square tile), where tile side = HCF(Length, Breadth).

⇒ Prime factors of 700 = 2² × 5² × 7

⇒ Prime factors of 525 = 3 × 5² × 7

⇒ HCF (Side of tile) = 5² × 7 = 25 × 7 = 175 cm.

⇒ Area of floor = 700 × 525 = 3,67,500 cm².

⇒ Area of one square tile = 175 × 175 = 30,625 cm².

⇒ Number of tiles = 3,67,500 ÷ 30,625 = 12.

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Additional Information

HCF (Highest Common Factor)

HCF is the largest positive integer that divides each of the integers without a remainder. For tiling problems, the HCF of the dimensions gives the largest possible square tile size.

Area of Rectangle and Square

Area of rectangle = Length × Breadth. Area of square = side². The number of objects required to cover an area is always Total Area ÷ Object Area.

Minimal Tiling Rule

To minimize the number of tiles used to cover a fixed rectangular area, the size of each tile must be maximized, which is why the HCF is calculated.

Shortcut Trick

Convert 60% to a fraction: 60/100 = 3/5.

Total fraction of the number = 2/5 × 3/5 = 6/25.

Given: 6 units = 420.

1 unit = 420 ÷ 6 = 70.

The total number (25 units) = 25 × 70 = 1750.

∴ The correct answer is 1750.

Alternate Method

Given:

Fraction part = 2/5

Percentage part = 60%

Value of the result = 420

Calculation:

Let the number be x.

⇒ (2/5) × 60% × x = 420

⇒ (2/5) × (60/100) × x = 420

⇒ (2/5) × (3/5) × x = 420

⇒ (6/25) × x = 420

⇒ x = (420 × 25) ÷ 6

⇒ x = 70 × 25

⇒ x = 1750

∴ The correct answer is 1750.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To convert a percentage to a fraction, divide by 100. Example: 20% = 20/100 = 1/5; 40% = 2/5; 60% = 3/5; 80% = 4/5.

Concept of "Of" in Mathematics

The word "of" represents the multiplication operation (×) in BODMAS/VBODMAS rules for simplification.

Successive Fractions

When taking a fraction of another fraction, the net multiplier is the product of the individual fractions: (a/b) of (c/d) = (a×c)/(b×d).

Shortcut Trick

Loss Percentage = 30% = 3/10 (where 3 units is Loss and 10 units is Cost Price).

The difference between CP and SP when there is a loss is the Loss itself.

Given: 3 units = ₹720 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹240.

Selling Price (SP) = CP − Loss = 10 units − 3 units = 7 units.

SP = 7 × 240 = ₹1680.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1680.

Alternate Method

Given:

Difference (CP − SP) = ₹720

Loss Percentage = 30%

Formula Used:

Loss = Cost Price (CP) − Selling Price (SP)

Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Loss = ₹720

⇒ 30 = (720 ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ CP = (720 × 100) ÷ 30

⇒ CP = 24 × 100 = ₹2400

⇒ SP = CP − Loss

⇒ SP = 2400 − 720

⇒ SP = ₹1680

∴ The correct answer is ₹1680.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Relation

When Selling Price (SP) is greater than Cost Price (CP), there is a profit: Profit = SP − CP. When CP > SP, there is a loss: Loss = CP − SP.

Percentage Calculation Base

Profit % and Loss % are always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless specifically mentioned otherwise in the question.

Direct SP Formula

SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100 for loss cases, and SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100 for profit cases.

Shortcut Trick

Profit percentage of 50% can be written as the fraction 1/2.

In this fraction, the denominator represents the Cost Price (CP) and the numerator represents the Profit.

Let CP = 2 units and Profit = 1 unit.

Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit = 2 + 1 = 3 units.

The required Ratio of SP to CP is 3 : 2.

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit percentage = 50%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) of the article be 100 units.

⇒ Profit = 50% of 100 = 50 units.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit

⇒ SP = 100 + 50 = 150 units.

⇒ Required Ratio = SP : CP

⇒ Ratio = 150 : 100

⇒ Dividing both sides by 50, we get 3 : 2.

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 2.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Formulas

Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price. Loss = Cost Price − Selling Price. Both are always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise.

Marked Price and Selling Price

Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount. Discount % = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100.

Successive Discount

Two successive discounts of d₁% and d₂% are equivalent to a single discount of (d₁ + d₂ − d₁d₂/100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of (Sum : First number) = 35 : 20.

Second number = Sum − First number = 35 − 20 = 15 units.

Required Percentage = (15 ÷ 20) × 100 = 75%.

∴ The correct answer is 75%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of two numbers = (35 ÷ 20) × First number

Calculations:

⇒ Let the First number be 20x.

⇒ Sum = (35 ÷ 20) × 20x = 35x.

⇒ Let the Second number be y.

⇒ 20x + y = 35x

⇒ y = 35x − 20x = 15x

⇒ Required Percentage = (Second number ÷ First number) × 100

⇒ Percentage = (15x ÷ 20x) × 100

⇒ Percentage = (3 ÷ 4) × 100 = 75%

∴ The correct answer is 75%.

Additional Information

Base Value Identification

In percentage questions, the word 'of' or 'than' identifies the base value (denominator). Here, it is the First number.

Fraction to Percentage Conversion

Common fractions: 1/4 = 25%, 1/2 = 50%, 3/4 = 75%, and 1/5 = 20%.

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage = (Part ÷ Whole) × 100. If the Part is the difference, it represents the percentage increase/decrease.

Shortcut Trick

Total time to empty the tank = 20 hr.

Work done in 1 hour = 1/20 of the tank.

Work done in 5 hours = 5 × (1/20) = 1/4.

∴ The correct answer is 1/4.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by pipe to empty the tank = 20 hr.

Formula: Part of tank emptied = (Time given) ÷ (Total time to empty)

⇒ Total Capacity of the tank = 20 units (LCM of 20).

⇒ Efficiency of the pipe = 1 unit per hour.

⇒ Amount of water emptied in 5 hours = Efficiency × Time = 1 × 5 = 5 units.

⇒ Part of the tank emptied = (Emptied units) ÷ (Total Capacity) = 5 ÷ 20 = 1/4.

∴ The correct answer is 1/4.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns Basics

If a pipe can fill/empty a tank in x hours, then the part filled/emptied in 1 hour is 1/x.

Combined Work Formula

If Pipe A fills in x hours and Pipe B empties in y hours, the net work in 1 hour is (1/x − 1/y).

Work and Time Relationship

Total Work = Efficiency × Time. Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work.

Shortcut Trick

Let Total Work be LCM of 12 and 18 = 36 units.

Efficiency of (P+Q) = 36 ÷ 12 = 3 units/day.

Efficiency of R = 36 ÷ 18 = 2 units/day.

Total Efficiency (P+Q+R) = 3 + 2 = 5 units/day.

Work to be completed = 1/3 × 36 = 12 units.

Time = 12 ÷ 5 = 2.4 days.

∴ The correct answer is 2.4 days.

Alternate Method

Given: P and Q together = 12 days, R alone = 18 days.

Formula: Total Work = Efficiency × Time

⇒ Combined efficiency of P, Q, and R = 3 + 2 = 5 units/day.

⇒ Total work to be completed = 1/3 × 36 units.

⇒ Required work = 12 units.

⇒ Time taken = Required work ÷ Total efficiency.

⇒ Time taken = 12 ÷ 5 = 2.4 days.

∴ The correct answer is 2.4 days.

Additional Information

Work and Efficiency Relation

Work is directly proportional to Efficiency when time is constant. Efficiency = 1 ÷ Time.

Combined Time Formula

If A takes 'x' days and B takes 'y' days, then together they take (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days to finish the work.

Fractional Work

If a person completes 1/n part of a work in 't' days, the total time taken to complete the full work is n × t days.

Shortcut Trick

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply the value by 5/18.

Speed in m/s = 90 × (5/18)

⇒ 5 × 5 = 25 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 25 m/s.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the car = 90 km/hr

Formula Used:

1 kilometer (km) = 1000 meters (m)

1 hour (hr) = 3600 seconds (s)

Calculations:

⇒ Speed = 90 × (1000 m / 3600 s)

⇒ Speed = 90 × (10 / 36) m/s

⇒ Speed = 90 × (5 / 18) m/s

⇒ Speed = 5 × 5 m/s

⇒ Speed = 25 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 25 m/s.

Additional Information

m/s to km/hr Conversion

To convert speed from m/s to km/hr, multiply the value by 18/5.

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. For two equal distances at speeds x and y, Average Speed = 2xy/(x+y).

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is the difference of their speeds (u − v). In opposite directions, it is the sum (u + v).

Shortcut Trick

Relative Speed = Total Distance ÷ Meeting Time

Relative Speed = 390 ÷ 3 = 130 km/hr

Since they move in opposite directions, Relative Speed = Speed of G + Speed of H

130 = 80 + Speed of H

Speed of H = 130 − 80 = 50 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 50 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance (D) = 390 km

Time (t) = 3 hr

Speed of G (S_G) = 80 km/hr

Let the Speed of H be v km/hr.

When two objects move towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds.

⇒ Relative Speed = S_G + S_H

⇒ Relative Speed = (80 + v) km/hr

Using the formula: Distance = Relative Speed × Time

⇒ 390 = (80 + v) × 3

⇒ 80 + v = 390 ÷ 3

⇒ 80 + v = 130

⇒ v = 130 − 80

⇒ v = 50 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 50 km/hr.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Opposite Directions

When two objects move towards each other or away from each other in opposite directions, their relative speed is S₁ + S₂.

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two objects move in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference between their speeds |S₁ − S₂|.

Distance, Speed, and Time

The fundamental relationship is Distance = Speed × Time. For two moving objects, use the relative speed in place of speed.

The correct answer is: immediately or very suddenly, with little to no provocation or forewarning.

Key Points

• The idiom 'At the drop of a hat' is used to describe something that is done instantly, without any hesitation or prior preparation. (बिना किसी देरी के या तुरंत)
• Example: My sister is so spontaneous that she will agree to go on a road trip at the drop of a hat.
• 'Immediately or very suddenly, with little to no provocation or forewarning' refers to an action that occurs straight away, often without any obvious reason or warning. (बिना किसी उकसावे या पूर्व सूचना के तुरंत)
• Example: The manager resigned at the drop of a hat when his proposal was rejected.
• Hence, we can conclude that the meaning of the idiom 'at the drop of a hat' matches the description of doing something immediately.

Therefore, the correct answer is- immediately or very suddenly, with little to no provocation or forewarning.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To suddenly make sense (अचानक समझ में आना): This refers to a moment when something confusing becomes clear.
• Example: After hours of studying the diagram, the complex physics problem suddenly made sense.
• A sudden feeling of excitement or anger that causes one to act in unexpected ways (उत्तेजना या क्रोध की अचानक लहर): This refers to an emotional outburst or a whim.
• Example: In a sudden fit of anger, he broke his phone during the argument.
• To hastily and forcefully remove someone from a place (किसी को जबरन बाहर निकालना): This describes a forced eviction or ejection.
• Example: The security guards had to forcefully remove the protestors from the building.

The correct answer is 'Option (4)' i.e. 'To allow something to progress, without interfering in it'.

Key Points

• The idiom 'let things play out' means to allow a situation to develop or reach its natural conclusion without trying to control, influence, or change it prematurely. (मामलों को अपने आप सुलझने या विकसित होने देना)
• Example: We do not know how the market will react to the new policy, so it is better to let things play out for a few weeks.
• 'To allow something to progress, without interfering in it' refers to the act of letting events unfold naturally without any external intervention or mediation. (बिना हस्तक्षेप के किसी स्थिति को आगे बढ़ने देना)
• Example: The mediator decided to allow the negotiation to progress without interfering to see if the parties could reach a consensus themselves.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct meaning of the idiom 'let things play out' is to permit a situation to advance without interference.

Therefore, the correct answer is- To allow something to progress, without interfering in it.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Contrary to the pace or flow (गति या प्रवाह के विपरीत): This describes something that is out of sync or inconsistent with the current rhythm or speed of an event.
• Example: The player's slow performance was contrary to the fast pace of the championship match.
• To be skillfully manipulated (कुशलतापूर्वक हेरफेर किया जाना): This means being controlled or influenced in a clever or devious way for someone else's benefit.
• Example: He later realized that his emotions had been skillfully manipulated to make him agree to the unfair deal.
• Grandiose or ostentatious manner (भव्य या दिखावटी तरीका): This refers to presenting something in an exaggeratedly impressive or showy way to gain attention.
• Example: The project was launched in a grandiose manner with a lot of publicity, but it failed to deliver results.

The correct answer is: Imbue.

Key Points

• The word 'Imbue' means to inspire or permeate someone or something with a particular feeling, quality, or idea. (सराबोर करना/भर देना)
• Example: The purpose of the teacher is to imbue her students with a love of learning and curiosity.
• In English orthography, 'Imbue' is a correctly spelled word, frequently used to describe the infusion of deep-seated emotions or principles. (शुद्ध वर्तनी)
• Example: The spirit of the new leader helped to imbue the entire organization with fresh energy.
• Hence, we can infer that the correctly spelled word among the given options is 'Imbue'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Imbue.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their correct spellings, Hindi meanings, and example sentences:

• Incipient (प्रारंभिक): Relating to the beginning or initial stage of something; beginning to happen or develop.
• Example: The doctors were able to identify and treat the incipient signs of the illness before it became serious.
• Impetuous (अविवेकपूर्ण): The word in the option is spelled 'Impetous', but the correct spelling is 'impetuous', which means acting or done quickly and without thought or care.
• Example: He later regretted his impetuous decision to quit his job without having another one lined up.
• Ignominy (बदनामी): The word in the option is spelled 'Ignomany', but the correct spelling is 'ignominy', which means public shame, disgrace, or dishonor.
• Example: The athlete faced the ignominy of being stripped of his medals after the truth came to light.

The correct answer is 'Option (3)' i.e. kind hearted.

Key Points

• The word 'generous' refers to someone who is willing to give money, help, or kindness freely, often more than is expected. (उदार)
• Example: The generous benefactor donated millions to the hospital.
• 'Kind hearted' describes a person who is sympathetic, helpful, and has a benevolent nature; it is a direct synonym for generous in the context of being charitable and caring. (दयालु/सहृदय)
• Example: She is a kind hearted woman who always looks out for the less fortunate.
• Hence, we can conclude that the correct synonym for 'generous' is 'kind hearted'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: kind hearted.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Mean (कंजूस/नीच): Unwilling to give or share things; stingy or unkind.
• Example: He was too mean to tip the waiter even a single rupee.
• Greedy (लालची): Having an excessive desire for food, wealth, or power.
• Example: The greedy king wanted to conquer all the neighboring lands.
• Proud (अभिमानी/गर्वित): Feeling deep satisfaction from one's own achievements or possessing a high opinion of oneself.
• Example: She was very proud of her son for graduating with top honors.

The correct answer is Option(2) i.e. Proppel.

Key Points

• The word Proppel is the misspelt version of the English word Propel, which means to drive or push something forward. (गलत वर्तनी)
• Example: The student accidentally added an extra letter in his essay and wrote proppel instead of the correct word.
• Propel refers to the action of causing something to move in a particular direction, typically by physical force or an engine. (धकेलना)
• Example: The wind was strong enough to propel the small boat across the lake in record time.
• Hence, we can identify that Proppel is the misspelt word among the given options.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Proppel.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Carousel (हिंडोला): A large, rotating machine with seats for people to ride on, or a luggage conveyor belt at an airport.
• Example: We waited for over twenty minutes at the airport carousel for our luggage to arrive.
• Apparel (पोशाक): This refers to clothing, garments, or attire, especially of a specific type.
• Example: The brand is famous for manufacturing high-quality outdoor apparel for hikers and climbers.
• Laure (लॉरेल/प्रशंसा): This is likely an incomplete or misspelt form of Laurel, which refers to honor or praise given for an achievement.
• Example: She won several laurels for her exceptional contribution to the field of science.

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. Essential.

Key Points

• The word 'Extra' means something that is more than what is usual, expected, or necessary; it refers to an added or supplementary item. (अतिरिक्त)
• Example: I carried an extra pair of gloves in case it got colder.
• 'Essential' refers to something that is absolutely necessary or extremely important; it is something that cannot be done without. (आवश्यक)
• Example: A good diet and regular exercise are essential for a healthy lifestyle.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Extra' (optional or supplementary) is 'Essential' (necessary or mandatory).

Therefore, the correct answer is- Essential.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Additional (अतिरिक्त): Something added to what is already present or available.
• Example: The hotel provided additional blankets upon request.
• Surplus (अधिशेष): An amount of something left over when requirements have been met; an excess.
• Example: The government had a surplus of funds at the end of the fiscal year.
• Spare (अतिरिक्त/फालतू): Something kept in reserve as an extra for use when needed.
• Example: Luckily, he had a spare key hidden in the garden.

The correct answer is Aerophobia.

Key Points

• Aerophobia is defined as the irrational and intense fear of flying in vehicles such as airplanes, helicopters, or other aircraft.
• The term is etymologically derived from the Greek words 'aer' (air) and 'phobos' (fear). While it can occasionally refer to a fear of drafts or fresh air, its primary usage in modern psychology pertains to aviation.
• It is classified as a specific phobia in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) and is often associated with other conditions such as claustrophobia or acrophobia.
• Physiological symptoms associated with this condition include tachycardia, nausea, excessive sweating, and panic attacks occurring before or during a flight.
• This phobia can be addressed through Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT), exposure therapy, or the use of flight simulators to desensitize the individual to the flying environment.

 Additional Information

• Acrophobia:
• Characteristics: It is an extreme or pathological fear of heights.
• Applications: It can be triggered by being on high floors of buildings, climbing ladders, or standing near cliffs, often resulting in severe dizziness or vertigo.
• Claustrophobia:
• Characteristics: This is the fear of enclosed or confined spaces.
• Applications: Common triggers include riding in elevators, being in windowless rooms, or entering tunnels, leading to a sense of being trapped.
• Ophidiophobia:
• Characteristics: A specific phobia characterized by an abnormal and persistent fear of snakes.
• Applications: It is a sub-type of herpetophobia and is frequently cited as one of the most common zoophobias affecting the human population.

The correct answer is They were advised by the judge to settle the matter amicably.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Active Voice and follows the Simple Past Tense structure. The components are Subject (The judge), Verb (advised), Object (them), and an Infinitive Phrase (to settle the matter amicably).
• To convert a Simple Past sentence into Passive Voice, the object of the active sentence takes the subject position. Here, the pronoun them changes to its subjective form They.
• The verb form in a passive Simple Past sentence changes to was/were + past participle (V3). Since the new subject They is plural, the auxiliary were is used followed by advised.
• The original subject The judge becomes the agent of the action and is introduced using the preposition by.
• The infinitive complement (to settle the matter amicably) remains attached to the main verb to complete the meaning of the instruction or advice given.
• Combining these elements results in the structure: New Subject (They) + were + V3 (advised) + by + Agent (the judge) + Infinitive Phrase.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of incorrect options:
• Option 2: Uses the base form advise instead of the past participle (V3). In passive constructions, the main verb must always be in its third form.
• Option 3: Employs the present participle (advising), which transforms the sentence into a Past Continuous structure, incorrectly implying an ongoing action.
• Option 4: This remains in the Active Voice. It merely changes the infinitive into a gerund (settling) but does not shift the focus from the judge to the people being advised.
• Grammar Rule: When converting sentences with Infinitive Complements, the passive transformation usually focuses on the finite verb (advised) while the non-finite verb (to settle) stays in its infinitive form.

The correct answer is Was the old temple damaged by the earthquake?.

Key Points

• The provided sentence is an interrogative sentence in the Simple Past Tense, identified by the auxiliary verb did and the base form of the verb damage.
• To transform a Simple Past question into Passive Voice, the auxiliary did is replaced by was or were depending on the grammatical number of the new subject (the original object).
• The structural formula for Passive Voice in this context is: Was/Were + Object + Past Participle (V3) + by + Subject?
• In the active sentence, the earthquake is the subject, damage is the main verb, and the old temple is the object.
• Upon conversion, the old temple becomes the new subject. Since it is singular, the sentence must begin with the auxiliary verb was.
• The past participle form of damage is damaged, which is placed immediately after the new subject to complete the passive construction.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of incorrect tense structures:
• Present Perfect Passive: The phrase has... been damaged indicates an action that has just been completed or has relevance to the present. This changes the original Simple Past intent.
• Simple Present Passive: Using the auxiliary is shifts the event to a general or current state, which does not match the past timeline established by did.
• Simple Future Passive: The use of will... be damaged refers to a future occurrence or prediction, which is factually inconsistent with the past-tense query.
• In Passive Voice, the agent (the earthquake) is preceded by the preposition by and moved to the end of the clause.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The error lies in the incorrect use of the preposition in part 3 of the sentence.
• The phrase on cash is grammatically incorrect when referring to a method of payment.
• In standard English, the correct idiomatic expression is in cash.
• Therefore, the word on should be replaced with in to make the sentence grammatically sound.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: 'The painters want to be paid immediately in cash and with no questions asked.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'The painters want' – This is the subject-verb part of the sentence. Since painters is plural, the plural verb want is correctly used.
• Option 2: 'to be paid immediately' – This is a passive infinitive structure (to be + past participle) which correctly follows the verb want.
• Option 4: 'no questions asked.' – This is a common idiomatic phrase meaning without any investigation or inquiry, and it is used correctly here.
• Common usage for payment methods: in cash, by cheque, by credit card.

The correct answer is 'with'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase 'invested with' is a standard idiomatic expression meaning to formally confer, bestow, or entrust someone with a particular power, right, or responsibility.
• In the context of the sentence, the commanding officer was officially given the charge (duty) of bringing the troops back safely.
• The preposition 'with' correctly completes the phrasal verb 'invested with' when referring to the delegating of authority or tasks.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The commanding officer was invested with the charge of bringing all the troops back whole.'

 

Additional Information

• Invest in: This is used when putting money, capital, or effort into something for a future profit or advantage (e.g., 'He decided to invest in real estate').
• Invest for: Usually refers to the goal or duration of an investment (e.g., 'invest for the long term').
• Invest by: Typically refers to the means or method used to perform the act of investing.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence requires the superlative degree of the adjective because it compares one individual to all other leaders within the entire country.
• The comparative degree (more influential) is used when comparing only two people or things. In this context, where the comparison involves a large group (the country), the superlative form is necessary.
• The superlative form for the adjective influential is most influential, and it must be preceded by the definite article the.
• Thus, the underlined part should be replaced with the most influential leader to ensure grammatical correctness.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: 'He aspires to become the most influential leader in the country representing marginalised communities.'

 

Additional Information

• Positive Degree: Used to describe a noun without making a comparison (e.g., influential).
• Comparative Degree: Used to compare two entities (e.g., more influential).
• Superlative Degree: Used to compare three or more entities to show which has the greatest degree of a quality (e.g., the most influential).
• For adjectives with three or more syllables (like in-flu-en-tial), more and most are used to form the comparative and superlative degrees respectively.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph discusses the nature of poverty in Africa and the human dignity and awareness associated with it.
• Sentence S1 is fixed as the starting point:
• 'Poverty has a home in Africa-like a quiet second skin.'
• Sentence D follows S1 because the pronoun it refers directly to the second skin mentioned in S1:
• 'It may be the only place on earth where it is worn with an unconscious dignity.'
• Sentence A is the third sentence as it elaborates on the absence of superficial judgment in this environment:
• 'People do not look down at your shoes which are caked with years of mud and split so that the toes stick out.'
• Sentence C follows A by providing a contrast to what people do look at instead of shoes:
• 'They look straight and deeply into your eyes to see if you are friend or foe.'
• Sentence B is the fifth sentence as it concludes the sequence of thoughts before the final fixed sentence, highlighting the importance of the internal check:
• 'That is all that matters.'
• Sentence S2 is fixed and wraps up the paragraph by referencing the eye-looking mentioned in sentence C:
• 'To some extent I think that this eye-looking, this intense human awareness, is a reflection of the earth all about.'
• The logical sequence is DACB.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'Poverty has a home in Africa-like a quiet second skin. It may be the only place on earth where it is worn with an unconscious dignity. People do not look down at your shoes which are caked with years of mud and split so that the toes stick out. They look straight and deeply into your eyes to see if you are friend or foe. That is all that matters. To some extent I think that this eye-looking, this intense human awareness, is a reflection of the earth all about.'

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes the progression of a family's life, starting with their household status and transitioning into a specific past event that haunts one of the characters.
• Sentence C follows S1 because it provides a chronological follow-up to the mention of the children, specifically Robert:
• 'A few months after Robert, Marian had accepted at mid-term a part-time position as a French and English teacher at Harris Junior College, at the edge of town.'
• Sentence D is the third sentence as it details the professional growth of the part-time position mentioned in the previous sentence:
• 'The position had become full-time and permanent that next fall, and Ralph had stayed on, happily, at the high school.'
• Sentence B follows by shifting the focus from career success to a past conflict that occurred within their marriage:
• 'In the time they had been married, they had had only one serious disturbance, and that was long ago: two years ago that winter to be exact.'
• Sentence A is the fifth sentence because it refers back to the serious disturbance (it) and explains how it persists in Ralph's thoughts despite their silence on the matter:
• 'It was something they had never talked about since it happened, but, try as he might, Ralph couldn't help thinking about it sometimes.'
• This naturally leads to the fixed sentence S2, which describes the ghastly scene flashing back into his mind.
• The correct sequence is CDBA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'In eight years they had two children, Dorothea and Robert, who were now five and four years old. A few months after Robert, Marian had accepted at mid-term a part-time position as a French and English teacher at Harris Junior College, at the edge of town. The position had become full-time and permanent that next fall, and Ralph had stayed on, happily, at the high school. In the time they had been married, they had had only one serious disturbance, and that was long ago: two years ago that winter to be exact. It was something they had never talked about since it happened, but, try as he might, Ralph couldn't help thinking about it sometimes. On occasion, and then when he was least prepared, the whole ghastly scene leaped into his mind.'

The correct answer is the team decided to proceed with the project.

Key Points

• The primary issue in the original sentence is redundancy, specifically a tautology. The verb proceed inherently means to move forward or to continue a course of action.
• Adding the word forward after proceed is unnecessary because the direction of the movement is already contained within the definition of the verb itself.
• The phrase proceed with is the standard idiomatic expression used to indicate the continuation of a task or project without unnecessary modifiers.
• To improve sentence conciseness and grammatical precision, the redundant adverb must be removed while keeping the preposition with to link the action to the object, the project.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Redundancy:
• In English grammar, pleonasm occurs when more words than necessary are used to convey a meaning. Common examples include return back, revert back, or advance forward.
• Analysis of Incorrect Modifiers:
• Proceed forth: The term forth means onward or outward. Like forward, it repeats the meaning of proceed and is considered stylistically weak in formal writing.
• Proceed onward: Onward specifies movement in a forward direction. Since proceed cannot happen backward, this modifier adds no additional information to the sentence.
• Contextual Usage:
• While proceed forward might be used in casual speech, academic and professional writing requires the removal of such fillers to maintain clarity and brevity.