SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 08 May, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

For 'ABQ' related to 'CDS':

For 'RMN' related to 'TOP':

Applying the same logic to find the missing term related to 'RJK':

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

For 'GA' related to 'CV':

For 'LI' related to 'HD':

Applying the same logic to find the cluster related to 'RY':

Thus, VD is related to RY.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

For the set '(HB, LF, OU)':

For the set '(AR, EV, VE)':

Applying the same logic to 'Option 3':

Thus, (RI, VM, EN) follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The given information states that the 10th of the current month is a Friday and the month has 29 days.

Days remaining in the current month = 29 − 10 = 19 days.

Days to be counted in the next month = 19 days (until the 19th).

Total days between the 10th of the current month and the 19th of the next month = 19 + 19 = 38 days.

Now, calculate the number of odd days:

38 ÷ 7 ⇒ 5 weeks and 3 odd days.

Add the 3 odd days to the original day (Friday):

Friday + 1 day = Saturday

Friday + 2 days = Sunday

Friday + 3 days = Monday

Hence, the 19th of the next month will be Monday.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Alternate Method

A month with 29 days has 1 odd day (29 ÷ 7 = 4 weeks and 1 odd day).

If the 10th of this month is Friday, the 10th of the next month will be Friday + 1 = Saturday.

The 19th of the next month is 9 days after the 10th (19 − 10 = 9 days).

9 days ÷ 7 = 1 week and 2 odd days.

Saturday + 2 odd days = Monday.

Hence, the correct answer is Monday.

The year 2010 is an Ordinary Year.

Let us calculate the sum of odd days starting from 2010:

2010 = 1 odd day (Ordinary Year)

2011 = 1 odd day (Ordinary Year)

2012 = 2 odd days (Leap Year)

2013 = 1 odd day

2014 = 1 odd day

2015 = 1 odd day

2016 = 2 odd days (Leap Year)

2017 = 1 odd day

2018 = 1 odd day

2019 = 1 odd day

2020 = 2 odd days (Leap Year)

Total sum of odd days = 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 14

14 ÷ 7 = 2 with a remainder of 0.

This means the next year, 2021, will start on the same day as 2010.

Since 2010 is an Ordinary Year and 2021 is also an Ordinary Year, their entire calendars will be the same.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

 

Important Points

We can also use a shortcut to determine when a calendar repeats:

1. If the year is (Leap Year + 1), the calendar repeats after 6 years.
2. If the year is (Leap Year + 2), the calendar repeats after 11 years.
3. If the year is (Leap Year + 3), the calendar repeats after 11 years.
4. If the year is a Leap Year, the calendar repeats after 28 years.

Given year is 2010. The immediate previous leap year was 2008.

2010 = 2008 + 2 (Leap Year + 2 format).

According to the shortcut, it will repeat after 11 years.

Repeat Year = 2010 + 11 = 2021.

Hence, the correct answer is 2021.

Logic followed here is,

−408 − 16 = −424

−424 − 18 = −442

−442 − 20 = −462

−462 − 22 = −484

−484 − 24 = −508

−508 − 26 = −534

−534 − 28 = −562

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

persons C, D, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. Only C and F are to the left of D.
2. Only H is to the right of G.
3. F is at one of the extreme ends of the row.

H is sitting at the right end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

7 boys A, B, C, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. S is fifth to the right of C.
2. S is second to the right of P.
3. Q is not the immediate neighbour of P or S.
4. B is fourth to the right of A. 

Considering towards left of B, three boys are sitting between B and A.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarity,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarity,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

TU130 : TS90

AW95 : VZ55

Similarly,

? : TR80

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

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BZA80 : AXX440

LMK110 : KKH470

Similarly,

For TJP90:

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 3) − 4

For the first pair 167 : 497

⇒ (167 × 3) − 4

⇒ 501 − 4 = 497.

Applying the same logic to the second pair 437 : 1307

⇒ (437 × 3) − 4

⇒ 1311 − 4 = 1307.

Applying the same logic to find the missing number in the third pair

? : 62

⇒ (First Number × 3) − 4 = 62

⇒ 3 × First Number = 62 + 4

⇒ 3 × First Number = 66

⇒ First Number = 66 ÷ 3 = 22.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

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NIPS is coded as ONON →

SILT is coded as TNKO →

Similarly, let's find the code for TOGA:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Initial lag of the watch = 7 minutes

We know that 1 minute = 60 seconds.

Total lag in seconds = 7 × 60 = 420 seconds

The watch gains 7 seconds in every 1 hour.

Total time required to gain 420 seconds = 420 ÷ 7 = 60 hours

The given starting time is 2 PM.

We need to calculate the time 60 hours after 2 PM:

60 hours = 48 hours + 12 hours

Since 48 hours is exactly 2 full days, 48 hours after 2 PM will be 2 PM again.

Now, adding the remaining 12 hours:

2 PM + 12 hours = 2 AM

The watch will show the correct time at 2:00 AM.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The ratio of the present ages of M and S is given as 5 : 7.

Let the present age of M be 5x and the present age of S be 7x.

According to the question, M is 6 years younger than S, which means the difference between their ages is 6 years.

Difference = 7x − 5x = 6

2x = 6

x = 3

 

To find the ages after 9 years, we add 9 to their current ages:

Age of M after 9 years = 15 + 9 = 24 years

Age of S after 9 years = 21 + 9 = 30 years

The ratio of M's age to S's age after 9 years is:

Ratio = 24 : 30

Ratio = 4 : 5

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest classical dance forms of India, tracing its origins back nearly 2,000 years to the state of Tamil Nadu.
• The dance form is deeply rooted in the Natya Shastra, a comprehensive ancient Sanskrit text on the performing arts attributed to the sage Bharata Muni.
• Historically, it was performed as a solo dance by Devadasis (temple dancers) and was originally known as Sadir Attam or Dasi Attam in the royal courts and temples of South India.
• The name Bharatanatyam is a mnemonic, where Bha stands for Bhava (expression), Ra for Raga (melody), Ta for Tala (rhythm), and Natyam for dance.
• It is characterized by its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and knees flexed (Aramandi position), combined with spectacular footwork and a sophisticated vocabulary of sign language based on Mudras (hand gestures).

 Additional Information

• Karnataka:
• This state is famous for the traditional theatre form known as Yakshagana, which combines dance, music, costume, and extemporaneous dialogue.
• Gujarat:
• Renowned for folk dances like Garba and Dandiya Raas, which are performed with great fervor during the Navratri festival.
• Maharashtra:
• Known for Lavani, a combination of traditional song and dance performed to the rhythmic beats of the Dholki.
• Famous Proponents:
• The revival of Bharatanatyam in the 20th century was spearheaded by legendary figures such as Rukmini Devi Arundale, who founded Kalakshetra, and E. Krishna Iyer.

The correct answer is Four days.

Key Points

• Chhath Puja is an ancient Hindu Vedic festival dedicated to the Sun God (Surya) and Chhathi Maiya, lasting for a duration of four days.
• Day 1 (Nahay Khay): Devotees begin the festival by taking a ritual dip in holy rivers like the Ganges. They clean their surroundings and consume a single meal of Lauki Bhaat (bottlegourd and rice) cooked in bronze or soil utensils using mango wood.
• Day 2 (Lohanda and Kharna): Devotees observe a fast for the entire day without water. After sunset, they offer Rasiao-Kheer (jaggery-based rice pudding) and Chapatis to the deity, which is then shared as Prasad.
• Day 3 (Sandhya Arghya): This day involves a rigorous fast without water. Devotees and their families gather at riverbanks or ponds during sunset to offer Arghya (water and milk offerings) to the Setting Sun. Traditional offerings include Thekua, seasonal fruits, and sugarcane kept in Soop (bamboo trays).
• Day 4 (Usha Arghya): On the final morning, devotees return to the water body before dawn to offer prayers to the Rising Sun. This act signifies the successful completion of the penance, after which the Vratins (devotees) break their fast by consuming Ginger and Water followed by other food items.

 Additional Information

• Geographical and Cultural Significance:
• The festival is most prominently celebrated in the Indian states of Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, and the Madhesh region of Nepal.
• It is unique because it honors both the Setting Sun and the Rising Sun, representing the cycle of life and the importance of both beginnings and endings.
• The rituals are considered eco-friendly as they involve natural elements, bamboo baskets, and offerings made of wheat, jaggery, and ghee.
• Historical roots of the festival are often linked to the Mahabharata (associated with Karna or Draupadi) and the Ramayana (associated with Lord Rama and Sita).

The correct answer is Ashim Kumar Ghosh.

Key Points

• In February 2025, the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, officially appointed Ashim Kumar Ghosh as the Governor of Haryana.
• He succeeds Bandaru Dattatreya, who had served as the 18th Governor of the state since his appointment in July 2021.
• The Governor serves as the Constitutional Head of the state, and all executive actions of the Government of Haryana are formally carried out in his name.
• This appointment was made under Article 155 of the Constitution of India, which states that the Governor shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
• As the nominal executive, the Governor performs duties such as summoning the state legislature, appointing the Chief Minister, and giving assent to state bills.

 Additional Information

• Constitutional Framework:
• Article 153: Mandates that there shall be a Governor for each state in India.
• Article 156: Specifies that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, usually for a term of five years.
• Article 161: Grants the Governor the power to pardon or commute sentences of any person convicted of any offense against state law.
• Other Personalities:
• Kavinder Gupta: A veteran politician who previously served as the Deputy Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir.
• Manoj Kumar Singh: A high-ranking IAS officer of the 1988 batch, notably serving as the Chief Secretary of Uttar Pradesh.
• Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju: A senior leader from Andhra Pradesh who served as the Union Minister of Civil Aviation.
• Haryana State Overview:
• Formation: The state was established on November 1, 1966, following the Punjab Reorganisation Act.
• Capital: Chandigarh, which is a Union Territory serving as the shared capital for Haryana and Punjab.
• Raj Bhavan: The official residence of the Governor of Haryana is located in Chandigarh.

The correct answer is Parag Jain.

Key Points

• Parag Jain, a senior officer of the Indian Police Service (IPS) from the 1989 batch, was appointed as the chief of the Research and Analysis Wing (RAW) in January 2025.
• He belongs to the Himachal Pradesh cadre and possesses extensive experience in national security and intelligence, having served significant tenures within the Intelligence Bureau (IB) and RAW itself.
• The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) cleared his name to lead the external intelligence agency for a fixed tenure, following the standard protocol for top security appointments in India.
• He took over the prestigious position from Ravi Sinha, whose tenure concluded in early 2025 after serving since June 2023.
• As the head of RAW, Jain is responsible for overseeing foreign intelligence, counter-terrorism operations, and providing strategic inputs to the Prime Minister and the National Security Council.

 Additional Information

• Research and Analysis Wing (RAW):
• Founded: It was established on September 21, 1968, under the guidance of its first director, R.N. Kao, following intelligence gaps identified during the 1962 and 1965 wars.
• Structure: It functions under the Cabinet Secretariat and reports directly to the Prime Minister of India.
• Headquarters: Located in New Delhi.
• Ravi Sinha:
• A 1988-batch IPS officer of the Chhattisgarh cadre who preceded Parag Jain as the Secretary (Research).
• Praveen Sood:
• A 1986-batch IPS officer who was appointed as the Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) in May 2023 for a two-year term.
• Intelligence Bureau (IB):
• Unlike RAW, which handles external intelligence, the IB is India's internal intelligence agency and falls under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

The correct answer is Humidity.

Key Points

• Humidity is defined as the concentration of water vapor present in the air. Water vapor is the gaseous state of water and is invisible to the human eye.
• The amount of water vapor in the atmosphere is primarily increased through evaporation from water bodies like oceans and lakes, and transpiration from plants.
• It is measured using a scientific instrument known as a Hygrometer. A specific type called a Sling Psychrometer uses two thermometers (dry bulb and wet bulb) to determine humidity levels.
• The capacity of air to hold moisture is directly related to its temperature; warmer air can hold more water vapor than colder air. When air reaches its maximum capacity, it is said to be saturated.
• Relative Humidity is the most common measurement used in meteorology, expressed as a percentage (%) of the amount of moisture the air holds relative to what it can hold at that temperature.

 Additional Information

• Density:
• In an atmospheric context, it refers to the mass of air per unit volume. It decreases with increasing altitude as the air molecules become more spread out.
• Temperature:
• This is the measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in the air. It is measured using a Thermometer in units such as Celsius, Fahrenheit, or Kelvin.
• Pressure:
• Atmospheric pressure is the force exerted by the weight of the air column above a specific point. It is measured using a Barometer, typically in millibars (mb) or Pascals (Pa).

The correct answer is Tehri Dam.

Key Points

• The Tehri Dam is the highest dam in India and ranks among the top ten tallest dams globally, with a height of 260.5 meters (855 feet).
• It is situated on the Bhagirathi River, the principal headstream of the Ganges, in the Tehri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand.
• The dam is a multi-purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam that facilitates irrigation, municipal water supply, and the generation of 1,000 MW of hydroelectricity.
• The project was commissioned in 2006 and includes a reservoir, known as Tehri Lake, which covers an area of approximately 52 square kilometers.
• The structural design was intended to withstand high-intensity seismic activity, as it is located in the high-risk Seismic Zone V of the Himalayan region.

 Additional Information

• Bhakra Nangal Dam:
• Located on the Satluj River in Himachal Pradesh, it is the highest gravity dam in India, standing at 225.55 meters.
• Its massive reservoir is known as the Gobind Sagar Lake, named after the tenth Sikh Guru.
• Hirakud Dam:
• Built across the Mahanadi River in Odisha, it is distinguished as the longest dam in the world, with a total length of ckilometers.
• It was one of the first major multi-purpose river valley projects started after India’s independence.
• Sardar Sarovar Dam:
• A concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada River in Gujarat, it is the largest structure of the Narmada Valley Project.
• It has a height of 138.68 meters and is one of the largest water resources projects in the world, covering four states.

The correct answer is Ziauddin Barani.

Key Points

• Ziauddin Barani (1285−1358 AD) was a prominent Muslim political thinker and chronicler who lived during the Delhi Sultanate period, specifically serving in the court of Muhammad bin Tughlaq for seventeen years.
• His magnum opus, Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi, is regarded as one of the most significant historical works of medieval India, providing a chronological account of the Delhi Sultanate from the accession of Ghiyasuddin Balban in 1266 to the first six years of Firoz Shah Tughlaq's reign in 1357.
• Barani provided a highly detailed record of the administrative, agrarian, and economic reforms introduced by Alauddin Khalji, including his famous Market Control Policy and price stabilization measures.
• He also authored the Fatwa-i-Jahandari, which is a treatise on political philosophy and statecraft, outlining the ideal conduct for a Muslim ruler and the legal framework of the Sultanate.
• His historiography is noted for its focus on the 'truth' of history and its didactic purpose, aimed at providing moral lessons and guidance to future kings and bureaucrats.

 Additional Information

• Abul Fazl:
• He was the court historian and Grand Vizier of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.
• He is famous for writing the Akbarnama and the Ain-i-Akbari, which are monumental sources for 16th-century Mughal history.
• Al-Biruni:
• A Persian polymath who accompanied Mahmud of Ghazni to India in the early 11th century.
• He wrote Kitab-ul-Hind (Tarik-al-Hind), an encyclopedic work on Indian culture, science, and religion, predating the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate.
• Amir Khusrau:
• Known as the Tut-i-Hind (Parrot of India), he was a prolific poet, musician, and scholar associated with the courts of seven different Sultans.
• Though he documented historical events in works like Tughlaq Nama and Khaza'in ul-Futuh, he is primarily celebrated as a pioneer of Sufi music and Khariboli literature.

The correct answer is To support Ayush Pharmacies.

Key Points

• The Ayush Oushadhi Gunvatta evam Uttpadan Samvardhan Yojana (AOGUSY) is a comprehensive Central Sector Scheme designed to enhance the quality and production of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani, and Homoeopathy (ASU&H) drugs.
• A primary objective of the scheme is to provide financial and technical assistance for the strengthening and upgradation of Ayush Pharmacies and Drug Testing Laboratories across India.
• The scheme aims to facilitate Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) compliance among manufacturers to ensure the production of high-quality traditional medicines that meet global standards.
• It serves as an umbrella initiative that integrates various components to improve the regulatory framework and surveillance of Ayush medicines at both Central and State levels.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Ayush:
• The scheme is implemented under the aegis of the Ministry of Ayush to bolster the domestic traditional medicine industry.
• It supports the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative by reducing dependency on imported raw materials and enhancing export potential.
• Target Beneficiaries:
• Includes State Government pharmacies and Drug Testing Labs (DTLs) for infrastructure development.
• Focuses on Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) within the Ayush sector to help them achieve WHO-GMP certification.
• Regulatory Oversight:
• The scheme supports the Pharmacopoeia Commission for Indian Medicine & Homoeopathy (PCIM&H) in developing standardized protocols.
• It funds the Quality Control of ASU&H drugs to prevent the sale of sub-standard or adulterated medicines in the market.

The correct answer is Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar Women Startup Scheme.

Key Points

• The Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar Women Startup Scheme was officially launched in September 2024 by the Government of Maharashtra to provide financial assistance and technical support specifically to women-led startups in their early stages.
• Under this scheme, eligible startups can receive financial aid ranging from 1 lakh to 25 lakh, which is intended to cover initial capital requirements, prototype development, and market entry costs.
• To qualify for the benefits, a startup must be registered in Maharashtra, and women entrepreneurs must hold at least 51% shareholding or ownership in the entity for at least one year.
• The initiative is managed by the Maharashtra State Innovation Society (MSInS) under the Department of Skill Development, Employment, Entrepreneurship and Innovation, aiming to bridge the gender gap in the state's entrepreneurial ecosystem.
• The scheme focuses on promoting self-reliance (Atmanirbharta) among women and boosting the state's contribution to India's startup economy by nurturing high-potential innovative ideas.

 Additional Information

• Punyashlok Ahilyadevi Holkar:
• She was the legendary Maratha Queen of the Malwa kingdom, renowned for her justice, administrative excellence, and significant role in building temples and dharamshalas across India.
• Acharya Chanakya Skill Development Scheme:
• Launched alongside the women startup scheme in September 2024, this initiative aims to establish Skill Development Centers in renowned colleges across Maharashtra to train over 1,50,000 youths annually.
• Maharashtra Innovation Landscape:
• Maharashtra has consistently been recognized as a Top Performer in the States' Startup Ranking conducted by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
• The state is home to one of the largest clusters of Unicorns and Registered Startups in the country, supported by the Maharashtra State Innovative Startup Policy.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary, also known as Sasan Gir, is located in the Junagadh, Gir Somnath, and Amreli districts of Gujarat. Established in 1965, it is the only natural habitat in the world for the Asiatic Lion (Panthera leo leo). The park is a part of the Kathiawar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion and plays a vital role in the conservation of various species, including the Indian Leopard and Chital. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Bandipur National Park is situated in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka. It was established as a Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger in 1974. It forms a significant part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, bordering the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary in Kerala and the Mudumalai National Park in Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement II is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Gujarat hosts several other important protected areas:
• Marine National Park: Located in the Gulf of Kutch, it was India first marine park, established in 1982 to protect coral reefs, sea turtles, and dugongs.
• Blackbuck National Park: Situated in Velavadar, it is dedicated to the conservation of the Indian Antelope (Blackbuck).
• Vansda National Park: Located in the Navsari district, it represents the thick woodlands of the Dangs and the Western Ghats.
• Wild Ass Sanctuary: Located in the Little Rann of Kutch, it is the only home to the Indian Wild Ass (Khur).

The correct answer is an earth like shape.

Key Points

• The term Geoid is derived from the Greek words Geo (meaning Earth) and Eidos (meaning form or shape), which literally translates to Earth-shaped.
• Geometrically, the Earth is not a perfect sphere; it is slightly flattened at the North Pole and South Pole while exhibiting a distinct bulge at the Equator.
• Scientific observations confirm that the Geoid represents the Equipotential Surface of the Earth's Gravity Field, which corresponds to the Mean Sea Level if the oceans were at rest and extended through the continents.
• The Geoid model is essential because it accounts for the uneven distribution of Mass within the Earth, causing local variations in Gravitational Pull that a simple ellipsoid cannot represent.

 Additional Information

• Structural Dimensions:
• The Equatorial Diameter of the Earth is approximately 12,756 km, whereas the Polar Diameter is about 12,714 km.
• This difference of 42 km classifies the Earth as an Oblate Spheroid, a shape directly resulting from the Centrifugal Force generated by the planet's Rotation.
• Practical Applications:
• Geodesy is the primary scientific discipline that utilizes the Geoid model for high-precision Mapping and surveying.
• Modern Global Positioning Systems (GPS) use geoid calculations to determine accurate Orthometric Heights (elevation above sea level) rather than just simple geometric height.
• Satellite missions like GOCE (Gravity Field and Steady-State Ocean Circulation Explorer) are dedicated to measuring the Geoid with extreme accuracy to study Ocean Circulation and Climate Change.

The correct answer is Perigee.

Key Points

• In orbital mechanics, most satellites do not follow a perfectly circular path but instead move in an elliptical orbit around the Earth, as described by Kepler's First Law.
• The Perigee is defined as the specific point in this elliptical orbit where the satellite is at its minimum distance (closest proximity) to the Earth's center and surface.
• At the perigee, the satellite experiences the strongest gravitational pull, which results in it reaching its maximum orbital velocity to maintain its path.
• The term is derived from the Greek words peri, meaning near, and gee, meaning Earth.

 Additional Information

• Apogee:
• This refers to the point in the orbit where the satellite is at its maximum distance from the Earth.
• Due to the increased distance and weaker gravitational influence, the satellite moves at its lowest orbital speed at this point.
• Inclination:
• It represents the angular distance between the orbital plane of the satellite and the equatorial plane of the Earth.
• An inclination of 90 degrees signifies a polar orbit, while 0 degrees signifies an equatorial orbit.
• Lagrange Point:
• These are five specific positions (L1 to L5) in an orbital configuration where the gravitational forces of two large bodies (like the Sun and Earth) and the centrifugal force felt by a smaller object are in balance.
• They are often used for space telescopes, such as the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST), because they allow a spacecraft to stay in a fixed position with minimal fuel consumption.

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is the planned modular space station to be constructed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), representing India's first independent space station project.
• The Union Cabinet of India officially approved the project in September 2024, expanding the scope of the Gaganyaan program to include the development of the station's first module.
• The complete architecture of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station is designed to consist of 5 distinct modules, which will be launched and assembled in orbit sequentially.
• The phased deployment strategy targets the launch of the first module, BAS-1, by 2028, with the full 5-module assembly expected to be completed and operational by 2035.
• This facility is intended to support microgravity research and will allow a crew of 3 to 4 astronauts to stay in space for durations ranging from 15 to 20 days.

 Additional Information

• Technical and Strategic Specifications:
• The total mass of the BAS upon completion will be approximately 52 tonnes, and it will be positioned in a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) at an altitude of approximately 400 kilometers.
• The LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3), India's most powerful launch vehicle, will be utilized to ferry the modules into space.
• The station is a cornerstone of the Amrit Kaal vision for 2047, which includes landing an Indian on the Moon by 2040 and building a lunar base by 2047.
• The 5 modules are anticipated to include a core module, a science/research laboratory, a crew habitation module, a cargo module, and a dedicated docking port for Gaganyaan spacecraft and other visiting vessels.

The correct answer is Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.

Key Points

• The BHARAT (Better Health and Ageing: Research in India) study is a comprehensive initiative led by the Centre for Brain Research (CBR), which is an autonomous research centre located within the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) campus.
• The primary objective of the study is to identify and map specific biological markers, genetic variations, and lifestyle factors that contribute to the process of ageing and the prevalence of dementia in the Indian context.
• This research utilizes a longitudinal cohort methodology, where a large group of individuals is monitored over an extended period to collect data on cognitive health, neuroimaging, and vascular risk factors.
• The study is crucial because Indian populations have unique genetic architectures and environmental exposures that are often underrepresented in global ageing studies primarily conducted in Western nations.
• By focusing on the Indian demographic, the BHARAT study aims to provide evidence-based insights that can help in early diagnosis and the development of precision medicine for neurodegenerative disorders like Alzheimer’s disease.

 Additional Information

• Indian Institute of Science (IISc):
• Established in 1909 through a partnership between Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata, the Maharaja of Mysore, and the Government of India.
• It is located in Bengaluru and holds the status of an Institution of Eminence (IoE).
• Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI):
• Situated in Lucknow, it is a premier laboratory under the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
• Its core focus is on biomedical research and the development of new drugs and delivery systems.
• National Institute of Nutrition (NIN):
• A premier research institute located in Hyderabad under the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
• It specializes in public health nutrition, clinical research, and formulating national dietary guidelines.
• Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR):
• A major research institution headquartered in Mumbai, focusing on natural sciences, mathematics, and theoretical physics.
• It operates under the umbrella of the Department of Atomic Energy.

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

• The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is composed of a total of 15 members, which includes 5 permanent members and 10 non-permanent members.
• The 10 non-permanent members are elected by the United Nations General Assembly for a two-year term.
• Each year, the General Assembly elects five non-permanent members to ensure a staggered transition; retiring members are not eligible for immediate re-election.
• The distribution of these 10 seats is based on equitable geographical representation: 5 seats for African and Asian States, 1 seat for Eastern European States, 2 seats for Latin American and Caribbean States, and 2 seats for Western European and Other States.
• The primary mandate of the UNSC is to maintain international peace and security as defined in the UN Charter.
• To be elected, a candidate country must receive at least a two-thirds majority of the votes from the General Assembly.

 Additional Information

• Permanent Members (P5):
• The 5 permanent members are China, France, the Russian Federation, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
• These nations possess veto power, meaning any one of them can block a substantive resolution regardless of the level of international support.
• Council Composition History:
• The council originally consisted of 11 members (5 permanent and 6 non-permanent).
• An amendment to Article 23 of the UN Charter was adopted in 1963 and came into effect in 1965, increasing the non-permanent membership from 6 to 10.
• Voting Procedures:
• Each member of the Security Council has one vote.
• Decisions on procedural matters require an affirmative vote of at least 9 members.

The correct answer is 1936.

Key Points

• India became an official member of the International Badminton Federation (IBF), which is now known as the Badminton World Federation (BWF), in the year 1936.
• The Badminton Association of India (BAI) was established in 1934 to manage and promote the sport within the country, coinciding with the global formation of the IBF.
• Joining the federation in 1936 allowed Indian athletes to compete in prestigious international tournaments and facilitated the growth of organized badminton competitions across the nation.
• The federation initially started with nine founding members, and India was one of the early nations to affiliate from the Asian continent, helping to internationalize the sport during its foundational years.

 Additional Information

• Badminton World Federation (BWF):
• It was founded on July 5, 1934, and serves as the world governing body for the sport of badminton recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• The headquarters of the BWF is currently located in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
• The organization was renamed from the International Badminton Federation to the Badminton World Federation in September 2006.
• History and Milestones in India:
• The modern game of badminton is widely believed to have originated in Pune, India, during the 1860s, where it was locally referred to as Poona.
• The first national championship in India was held in 1934, the same year the national association was formed.
• Legendary player Prakash Padukone created history by becoming the first Indian to win the All England Open Badminton Championships in 1980.
• The Thomas Cup victory in 2022 remains one of India's greatest achievements in team badminton under the BWF umbrella.

The correct answer is 19.19.

Key Points

• The world record for the men's 200-metre sprint is 19.19 seconds, a mark that has stood for over a decade.
• This extraordinary feat was achieved by Usain Bolt of Jamaica, widely regarded as the fastest human in recorded history.
• The record was set on August 20, 2009, during the 12th IAAF World Championships in Athletics held in Berlin, Germany.
• Bolt surpassed his own previous world record of 19.30 seconds, which he had established exactly one year prior at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
• The performance in Berlin was particularly impressive as it was achieved with a headwind of -0.3 m/s, demonstrating Bolt's raw power and speed endurance.

 Additional Information

• Usain Bolt's Legacy:
• Bolt is the only sprinter to win Olympic 100 m and 200 m titles at three consecutive Olympic Games (2008, 2012, and 2016).
• At the same 2009 Berlin World Championships, he also set the current world record for the 100-metre sprint with a time of 9.58 seconds.
• He retired from professional athletics in 2017 with a total of 11 World Championship gold medals and 8 Olympic gold medals.
• Statistical Context of the 200m:
• The second-fastest time in history is 19.26 seconds, recorded by fellow Jamaican Yohan Blake in 2011.
• American sprinter Noah Lyles holds the third-fastest time and the American record at 19.31 seconds, achieved in 2022.
• Before the Bolt era, the record was held by Michael Johnson, who ran 19.32 seconds at the 1996 Atlanta Olympics, a record that many experts believed would stand for decades.

The correct answer is To prolong the life of the filament.

Key Points

• The filament in an electric bulb is primarily made of Tungsten, a metal known for its extremely high melting point (approximately 3422 degrees Celsius) and high electrical resistance.
• When electricity flows through the filament, it heats up and emits light through the process of incandescence; however, at such high temperatures, tungsten is prone to oxidation if it comes into contact with oxygen from the air.
• To prevent the filament from burning out immediately, the air is removed from the bulb and replaced with chemically inactive gases like Argon or Nitrogen.
• The presence of these inert gases creates a pressurized environment that significantly retards the sublimation or evaporation of tungsten atoms from the hot filament.
• By suppressing the rate of tungsten evaporation and preventing chemical reactions, these gases maintain the thickness of the wire, effectively prolonging the life of the filament.

 Additional Information

• Inert Gases:
• Argon: A noble gas that is the most frequently used filler because it does not react with the filament even at white-heat temperatures.
• Nitrogen: Often mixed with argon to suppress arcing (electrical discharge) between the lead-in wires, which can occur more easily in pure argon.
• Scientific Principles:
• Joule Heating: The production of heat in a conductor due to the passage of an electric current, governed by the formula H = I²Rt.
• Tungsten Properties: Chosen for its high tensile strength and low vapor pressure at high temperatures, ensuring the bulb remains functional for hundreds of hours.

The correct answer is Noot.

Key Points

• The Noot is a traditional percussion instrument extensively used in the Kashmir Valley for folk and classical music.
• It is an earthenware pitcher made of baked clay, featuring a spherical body and a narrow neck, similar to a water pot (Ghara) but with a more refined structure for acoustic resonance.
• Categorized as a Ghan Vadya (idiophone), the sound is produced by striking the mouth, neck, and sides of the pot using the fingers and palms.
• The Noot is an integral part of Kashmiri folk music, specifically providing the rhythmic accompaniment for Sufiana Kalam and wedding songs known as Wanwun.
• To enhance the tonal quality and strength, the baked clay is sometimes reinforced with brass or iron filings during the manufacturing process.

 Additional Information

• Kasale
• It is a traditional percussion instrument from Karnataka.
• Consists of a pair of bronze cymbals that are rhythmically struck together, primarily used in the folk dance form known as Kamsale.
• Esraj
• A stringed instrument (chordophone) common in West Bengal and parts of North India.
• It is played with a bow and is frequently used in Rabindra Sangeet and Hindustani classical music performances.
• Pepa
• A traditional wind instrument (aerophone) originating from Assam.
• It is crafted from buffalo horn and bamboo, and it plays a vital role in the music of the Bihu festival.

The correct answer is In the manufacture of steel.

Key Points

• Coke is a tough, black, and porous solid substance that is an almost pure form of carbon, typically containing 90% to 98% carbon content.
• It is produced through the process of destructive distillation, where high-quality bituminous coal is heated to temperatures exceeding 1000°C in the absence of oxygen to remove volatile matter.
• The primary industrial application of coke is in the manufacture of steel and the extraction of metals from their naturally occurring ores.
• In a blast furnace, coke serves as a vital reducing agent that reacts with the oxygen in iron ore (such as Fe₂O₃) to produce molten iron and carbon dioxide.
• Besides its chemical role, coke acts as a high-efficiency fuel providing the extreme thermal energy required for melting metal ores during smelting.

 Additional Information

• Physical Properties of Coke:
• Coke is preferred over raw coal in metallurgy because it burns with very little smoke and has a higher calorific value.
• Its porous structure allows for the efficient flow of gases within industrial furnaces, facilitating uniform heating and chemical reactions.
• Other Coal By-products:
• Coal Tar: A thick, dark liquid obtained during coke production, used in the manufacture of synthetic dyes, drugs, explosives, perfumes, and naphthalene balls.
• Coal Gas: A flammable gaseous mixture of hydrogen, methane, and carbon monoxide used as an industrial fuel for heating.

Shortcut Trick

Solve using the BODMAS priority: Brackets → Of → Division → Multiplication → Addition → Subtraction.

Expression: 93 − 27 + 38 + 19 − 18 + 44

Sum of positive terms: 93 + 38 + 19 + 44 = 194

Sum of negative terms: 27 + 18 = 45

Final Result: 194 − 45 = 149

∴ The correct answer is 149.

Alternate Method

Given: 93 − 27 + 38 of 1 + 19 ÷ 1 − (18 × 1) + 44

Method Used: Apply the BODMAS rule to solve the arithmetic expression in the correct order.

⇒ 93 − 27 + 38 of 1 + 19 ÷ 1 − (18) + 44 (Solving Brackets)

⇒ 93 − 27 + 38 + 19 ÷ 1 − 18 + 44 (Solving Of: 38 × 1 = 38)

⇒ 93 − 27 + 38 + 19 − 18 + 44 (Solving Division: 19 ÷ 1 = 19)

⇒ (93 + 38 + 19 + 44) − (27 + 18) (Grouping Addition and Subtraction)

⇒ 194 − 45

⇒ 149

∴ The correct answer is 149.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It stands for Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction, defining the order of operations to ensure unique solutions.

Of Operator

The 'of' operator behaves like multiplication but carries a higher priority than division and standard multiplication in the hierarchy.

VBODMAS

An extended version where 'V' stands for Vinculum (bar bracket), which is solved even before standard brackets.

Shortcut Trick

To find the maximum number of boxes, we must calculate the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of the given quantities.

Find the differences between the numbers: 180 − 144 = 36 and 216 − 180 = 36.

Since 36 divides all three numbers (144, 180, and 216) perfectly, the HCF is 36.

∴ The correct answer is 36 boxes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of chocolates = 144

Number of toffees = 180

Number of candies = 216

Formula Used:

Maximum number of groups/boxes = HCF(Quantity 1, Quantity 2, Quantity 3)

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of 144 = 2⁴ × 3²

⇒ Prime factorization of 180 = 2² × 3² × 5¹

⇒ Prime factorization of 216 = 2³ × 3³

⇒ HCF = 2^min(4,2,3) × 3^min(2,2,3)

⇒ HCF = 2² × 3² = 4 × 9 = 36

⇒ Total items in each box: Chocolates = 144 ÷ 36 = 4, Toffees = 180 ÷ 36 = 5, Candies = 216 ÷ 36 = 6.

∴ The correct answer is 36 boxes.

Additional Information

Highest Common Factor (HCF)

HCF is the greatest divisor that divides two or more numbers without leaving a remainder. It is also known as GCD (Greatest Common Divisor).

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

LCM is the smallest positive integer that is divisible by each of the given numbers. Relationship: HCF × LCM = Product of two numbers.

Application of HCF

HCF is used to find the maximum possible size of a container, the maximum length of a measuring tape, or the largest number of groups when items are distributed equally.

Shortcut Trick

Factor out 0.5 from the numerator: 0.5 × (0.5 + 0.05) = 0.5 × 0.55 = 0.275.

Now divide by the denominator: 0.275 ÷ 0.1375.

Observe that 1375 × 2 = 2750, so 0.1375 × 2 = 0.2750.

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: ((0.5 × 0.5) + (0.5 × 0.05)) ÷ (0.1375)

Follow the BODMAS rule to simplify the brackets first:

⇒ (0.25 + 0.025) ÷ 0.1375

⇒ 0.275 ÷ 0.1375

To remove the decimals, multiply both numerator and denominator by 10,000:

⇒ 2750 ÷ 1375

⇒ 2

∴ The correct answer is 2.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It stands for Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction, defining the order of operations.

Decimal Division

When dividing decimals, it is often easier to shift the decimal point to the right in both numbers until the divisor is a whole number.

Common Factor Method

The distributive property a × b + a × c = a(b + c) helps in simplifying complex multiplications quickly.

Shortcut Trick

Solve each square root directly by identifying the base numbers:

√20.25 = 4.5 (since 45² = 2025)

√0.36 = 0.6 (since 6² = 36)

√6.25 = 2.5 (since 25² = 625)

√2.25 = 1.5 (since 15² = 225)

Total = 4.5 + 0.6 + 2.5 − 1.5 = 6.1

∴ The correct answer is 6.1.

Alternate Method

Given: √20.25 + √0.36 + √6.25 − √2.25

Method: Convert decimals to fractions to simplify the square root calculation.

⇒ √(2025/100) + √(36/100) + √(625/100) − √(225/100)

⇒ 45/10 + 6/10 + 25/10 − 15/10

⇒ 4.5 + 0.6 + 2.5 − 1.5

⇒ 5.1 + 2.5 − 1.5

⇒ 7.6 − 1.5

⇒ 6.1

∴ The correct answer is 6.1.

Additional Information

Square Root of Numbers Ending in 25

If a number ends in 25, its square root ends in 5. The remaining part of the number is the product of two consecutive integers n × (n + 1). For example, in √2025, 20 = 4 × 5, so the root is 45.

Decimal Point Rule in Square Roots

When taking the square root of a decimal number, the number of decimal places in the result is exactly half of the number of decimal places in the original number.

BODMAS Rule

Always follow the order: Brackets, Orders (roots/powers), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction to solve simplification problems correctly.

Shortcut Trick

First, calculate the square roots: √100 = 10, √25 = 5, and √49 = 7.

Solve the expression following BODMAS (Division before Addition): 10 ÷ 5 + 7 = 2 + 7 = 9.

The value of x is 9.

Calculate x² = 9² = 81.

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Alternate Method

Given: x = √100 ÷ √25 + √49

Method: Apply the order of operations (BODMAS/PEMDAS).

⇒ x = 10 ÷ 5 + 7 (since √100 = 10, √25 = 5, and √49 = 7)

⇒ x = 2 + 7 (performing division first)

⇒ x = 9 (performing addition)

⇒ x² = 9²

⇒ x² = 9 × 9

⇒ x² = 81

∴ The correct answer is 81.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

This rule dictates the order of operations: Brackets, Orders (powers/roots), Division and Multiplication (left to right), and Addition and Subtraction (left to right).

Perfect Squares

A perfect square is an integer that is the square of an integer. Examples include 25 (5²), 49 (7²), and 100 (10²).

Square Root Property

The square root of a number 'a' is a number 'y' such that y² = a. For calculation, √(a × b) = √a × √b and √(a ÷ b) = √a ÷ √b.

Shortcut Trick

For an odd number of terms, the Average of consecutive numbers is the middle term.

Middle number = 60 ÷ 3 = 20.

The three consecutive even numbers are: 18, 20, 22.

The smallest number in the set is 18.

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of three consecutive even numbers = 60.

Formula Used:

Let the three numbers be x, (x + 2), and (x + 4).

Calculations:

⇒ x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) = 60

⇒ 3x + 6 = 60

⇒ 3x = 60 − 6

⇒ 3x = 54

⇒ x = 54 ÷ 3

⇒ x = 18

The smallest number is x = 18.

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Additional Information

Consecutive Even/Odd Numbers

Consecutive even or odd numbers always have a common difference of 2. If the first number is x, the next is x + 2.

Middle Term Shortcut

For any Arithmetic Progression with an odd number of terms (n), the middle term is equal to (Sum of terms) ÷ n.

Average of Consecutive Integers

The Average of a set of consecutive integers is also equal to (First term + Last term) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the algebraic identity (a + b)(a − b) = a² − b² inside the expression.

Here, a = 21 and b = 11.

⇒ (21 + 11) × (21 − 11) = 21² − 11² = 441 − 121 = 320

The square root and the square exponent cancel each other out, yielding 320.

∴ The correct answer is 320.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression: (√((21 + 11) × (21 − 11)))²

Formula Used:

(√x)² = x

Calculations:

⇒ First, simplify the terms inside the parentheses:

⇒ 21 + 11 = 32

⇒ 21 − 11 = 10

⇒ Substitute these values back into the expression:

⇒ (√(32 × 10))²

⇒ (√(320))²

⇒ Since the square of a square root of a number is the number itself:

⇒ 320

∴ The correct answer is 320.

Additional Information

Difference of Squares Identity

The formula (a + b)(a − b) = a² − b² is used to quickly find the product of two numbers that are equidistant from a central value.

Square and Square Root Relationship

For any non-negative number x, the operation of squaring and taking the square root are inverse operations, meaning (√x)² = x.

BODMAS Rule

In multi-operator simplification questions, terms inside the innermost brackets are solved first, followed by orders/exponents, division, multiplication, addition, and subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Sum of existing digits in 58P8 = 5 + 8 + 8 = 21.

The smallest multiple of 9 greater than 21 is 27.

∴ P = 27 − 21 = 6.

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Alternate Method

Given number is 58P8.

According to the Divisibility Rule of 9, a number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.

⇒ Sum of digits = 5 + 8 + P + 8

⇒ Sum of digits = 21 + P

For the number to be divisible by 9, (21 + P) must be a multiple of 9 {9, 18, 27, 36, ...}.

Since P is a single digit, the possible value for the sum 21 + P is 27.

⇒ 21 + P = 27

⇒ P = 27 − 21

⇒ P = 6

∴ The correct answer is 6.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3 (e.g., 123 → 1+2+3 = 6).

Divisibility Rule of 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd places and even places is 0 or a multiple of 11.

Divisibility Rule of 8

A number is divisible by 8 if the last three digits of the number are divisible by 8.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the common surd factor by breaking each term into a perfect square and a remainder.

√48 = 4√3, √27 = 3√3, and √12 = 2√3.

Perform the addition and subtraction: (4 + 3 − 2) × √3 = 5√3.

∴ The correct answer is 5√3.

Alternate Method

Given: √48 + √27 − √12

Method: Simplify each surd by factoring out the largest perfect square from the radicand.

⇒ √48 = √(16 × 3) = 4√3

⇒ √27 = √(9 × 3) = 3√3

⇒ √12 = √(4 × 3) = 2√3

⇒ Expression = 4√3 + 3√3 − 2√3

⇒ Expression = (4 + 3 − 2) × √3

⇒ Expression = 5√3

∴ The correct answer is 5√3.

Additional Information

Simplification of Surds

A surd is in its simplest form when the radicand has no perfect square factors other than 1. Formula: √(a²b) = a√b.

Like and Unlike Surds

Like surds are those that have the same irrational factor. Only like surds can be added or subtracted directly by combining their coefficients.

Multiplication of Surds

Unlike addition, surds do not need to be like terms for multiplication. The rule follows √a × √b = √(a × b).

Shortcut Trick

Sum of adjacent sides (L + W) = √(Diagonal² + 2 × Area)

L + W = √(20² + 2 × 192) = √(400 + 384) = √784 = 28 cm

Perimeter of Rectangle = 2 × (L + W)

Perimeter = 2 × 28 = 56 cm

∴ The correct answer is 56 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area (L × W) = 192 cm²

Diagonal (d) = 20 cm

Formula Used:

1. d² = L² + W² (by Pythagoras Theorem)

2. (L + W)² = L² + W² + 2LW

3. Perimeter = 2(L + W)

Calculations:

⇒ L² + W² = 20² = 400

⇒ (L + W)² = (L² + W²) + 2(LW)

⇒ (L + W)² = 400 + 2(192)

⇒ (L + W)² = 400 + 384 = 784

⇒ L + W = √784 = 28 cm

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × 28 = 56 cm

∴ The correct answer is 56 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Rectangle

The total space occupied by a rectangle, calculated as Area = length × width.

Diagonal Property

The diagonal of a rectangle divides it into two congruent right-angled triangles, where Diagonal = √(L² + W²).

Algebraic Identity

The identity (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab is commonly used to relate Perimeter, Diagonal, and Area.

Perimeter

The total length of the boundary of a rectangle, given by Perimeter = 2(length + width).

Shortcut Trick

If a constant value M is subtracted from every number in a data set, the average of that set also decreases by exactly M.

Initial Average = 34

New Average = 29

Value of M = Initial Average − New Average

M = 34 − 29 = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total numbers (n) = 24

Initial Average = 34

New Average = 29

Formula Used:

Sum of numbers = Average × Count of numbers

Calculations:

⇒ Initial Total Sum = 34 × 24 = 816

⇒ New Total Sum = 29 × 24 = 696

⇒ Total decrease in sum = 816 − 696 = 120

⇒ Since M is subtracted from each of the 24 numbers, the total decrease is 24 × M.

⇒ 24 × M = 120

⇒ M = 120 ÷ 24

⇒ M = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Additional Information

Effect of Addition/Subtraction on Average

If the same value k is added to (or subtracted from) every observation in a set, the new average is the old average plus (or minus) k.

Effect of Multiplication/Division on Average

If every observation is multiplied (or divided) by a non-zero constant k, the average is also multiplied (or divided) by k.

Basic Average Formula

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Number of observations).

Shortcut Trick

Convert the profit percentage to a fraction: 25% = 1/4.

Profit is 1/4 of the Cost Price (CP).

Profit = 500 ÷ 4 = 125.

∴ The correct answer is Rs.125.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = Rs. 500

Profit percentage = 25%

Formula Used:

Profit = (Profit% ÷ 100) × Cost Price

Calculations:

⇒ Profit = (25 ÷ 100) × 500

⇒ Profit = 0.25 × 500

⇒ Profit = 125

∴ The correct answer is Rs.125.

Additional Information

Selling Price (SP) calculation

The price at which an item is sold is SP = CP + Profit. In this case, SP = 500 + 125 = Rs. 625.

Cost Price from SP and Profit%

To find Cost Price when SP and Profit% are known: CP = [100 ÷ (100 + Profit%)] × SP.

Loss Calculation

If there is a loss, Loss = CP − SP, and Loss% = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Compare the requested percentage with the given one: 180% is exactly 3 × 60%.

Since the values are directly proportional, multiply the value of 60% by 3.

Required value = 75 × 3 = 225.

∴ The correct answer is 225.

Alternate Method

Given: 60% of a number is 75.

Step-by-step Calculation:

⇒ Let the number be x.

⇒ 60% of x = 75

⇒ (60 ÷ 100) × x = 75

⇒ x = (75 × 100) ÷ 60

⇒ x = 125

⇒ Now, find 180% of the number 125:

⇒ Required Value = (180 ÷ 100) × 125

⇒ Required Value = 1.8 × 125

⇒ Required Value = 225

∴ The correct answer is 225.

Additional Information

Unitary Method in Percentage

If a% of a number is V₁, then b% of the same number is (V₁ ÷ a) × b.

Percentage to Fraction

To convert percentage to fraction, divide by 100. For example, 180% = 180 ÷ 100 = 9/5.

Base Value Calculation

The original number (100%) is called the base value and can be found using: Value ÷ Percentage Rate.

Shortcut Trick

Total Maximum Marks = 5 × 200 = 1000

Total Marks Obtained = 60% of 1000 = 600

Marks in Subject 1 = 25% of 600 = 1/4 × 600 = 150

∴ The correct answer is 150.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total subjects = 5

Maximum marks per subject = 200

Total percentage scored = 60%

Subject 1 score = 25% of the total marks obtained

Formula Used:

Total Marks Obtained = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Total Maximum Marks

Subject Score = (Subject % ÷ 100) × Total Marks Obtained

Calculations:

⇒ Total maximum marks for 5 subjects = 5 × 200 = 1000

⇒ Total marks obtained by the student = (60 ÷ 100) × 1000 = 600

⇒ Score in Subject 1 = 25% of 600

⇒ Score in Subject 1 = (25 ÷ 100) × 600

⇒ Score in Subject 1 = 0.25 × 600 = 150

∴ The correct answer is 150.

Additional Information

Percentage of a Quantity

To find x% of a value Y, the formula is (x ÷ 100) × Y. This is essential for calculating marks, discounts, and taxes.

Average Marks Calculation

Average marks per subject = Total Marks Obtained ÷ Number of Subjects. Here, Average = 600 ÷ 5 = 120.

Fraction to Percentage Conversion

To convert a fraction to a percentage, multiply by 100. Common fractions include 1/4 = 25%, 1/2 = 50%, and 3/4 = 75%.

Shortcut Trick

30% of Cost Price = 25% of Selling Price

⇒ CP : SP = 25 : 30 = 5 : 6

⇒ Profit = 6 − 5 = 1 unit

⇒ Profit Percentage = (1 / 5) × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given: 30% of Cost Price (CP) is equal to 25% of Selling Price (SP).

Formula Used: Profit Percentage = [(Selling Price − Cost Price) ÷ Cost Price] × 100

⇒ (30/100) × CP = (25/100) × SP

⇒ 30 × CP = 25 × SP

⇒ CP / SP = 25 / 30 = 5 / 6

⇒ Let Cost Price = 5 units and Selling Price = 6 units

⇒ Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price = 6 − 5 = 1 unit

⇒ Profit Percentage = (1 / 5) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Marked Price and Discount

The Marked Price is the price tag on an item. Discount is always calculated as a percentage of the Marked Price.

Loss Percentage

If Cost Price is greater than Selling Price, it is a Loss. Loss % = [(CP − SP) / CP] × 100.

Successive Discounts

Equivalent discount for two successive discounts a% and b% = [a + b − (ab / 100)]%.

Shortcut Trick

Work done in 10 days = 50%

Work done in 1 day = 50% ÷ 10 = 5%

Work done in 7 days = 5% × 7 = 35%

∴ The correct answer is 35%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A to complete 50% work = 10 days

Time taken by A to complete 100% work = 10 × (100 ÷ 50) = 20 days

⇒ Total Work (LCM of 20) = 20 units

⇒ Efficiency of A = Total Work ÷ Time = 20 ÷ 20 = 1 unit per day

⇒ Work completed by A in 7 days = Efficiency × Time = 1 × 7 = 7 units

⇒ Part of work completed (in %) = (Work Done ÷ Total Work) × 100

⇒ Percentage = (7 ÷ 20) × 100

⇒ Percentage = 35%

∴ The correct answer is 35%.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a work. If time taken is T, then Efficiency E = 1 ÷ T.

The M-D-H Formula

For comparing two work scenarios: (M₁ × D₁ × H₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂ × H₂) ÷ W₂, where M is men, D is days, H is hours, and W is work.

Work Rate

Total Work = Efficiency × Time. For a single person, the portion of work done in 't' days is (t ÷ Total Days) × 100%.

Shortcut Trick

When (P+Q) and R work together, the combined time is calculated by the Product/Sum formula.

Total Time = (Time_(P+Q) × Time_R) ÷ (Time_(P+Q) + Time_R)

Time = (20 × 30) ÷ (20 + 30)

Time = 600 ÷ 50 = 12 days.

∴ The correct answer is 12 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by (P+Q) = 20 days

Time taken by R = 30 days

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time taken

Total Work = LCM of 20 and 30 = 60 units

Calculations:

⇒ Total efficiency of (P + Q + R) = Efficiency of (P + Q) + Efficiency of R

⇒ Total efficiency = 3 + 2 = 5 units/day

⇒ Total time taken = Total Work ÷ Total efficiency

⇒ Total time = 60 ÷ 5

⇒ Total time = 12 days

∴ The correct answer is 12 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a work. If Efficiency ratio is a:b, then Time ratio is b:a.

Combined Work Formula

If two entities A and B take x and y days respectively, then working together they take (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days.

Work and Wages

Wages are generally distributed in the ratio of work done or the ratio of efficiencies when they work for the same duration.

Shortcut Trick

To convert speed from m/s to km/hr, directly multiply the given value by 18/5.

Given Speed = 100 m/s

Speed (km/hr) = 100 × (18 ÷ 5) = 20 × 18 = 360 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 360 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given: Speed of the train = 100 m/s

Formula Used: 1 m/s = (1 ÷ 1000) km / (1 ÷ 3600) hr = 3.6 km/hr

⇒ Speed = 100 m/s

⇒ Speed in km/hr = 100 × (3600 ÷ 1000)

⇒ Speed in km/hr = 100 × 3.6

⇒ Speed = 360 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 360 km/hr.

Additional Information

km/hr to m/s Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. For example, 36 km/hr = 36 × 5/18 = 10 m/s.

Average Speed Formula

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. If a body travels equal distances at speeds x and y, the average speed is 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Relative Speed

For two objects moving in the opposite direction, relative speed = S₁ + S₂. For the same direction, relative speed = S₁ − S₂.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Speed of Train to Man = 4 : 1

Since they move in opposite direction, Relative Ratio = 4 + 1 = 5 units

Relative Speed = Distance ÷ Time = 800 ÷ 8 = 100 m/s

5 units = 100 m/s ⇒ 1 unit = 20 m/s

Speed of Train (4 units) = 4 × 20 = 80 m/s

In km/hr: 80 × (18/5) = 288 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 288 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of Train (L) = 800 m

Time taken (t) = 8 seconds

Let the Speed of Man be v m/s.

⇒ Speed of Train = 4v m/s

Formula:

Relative Speed (Opposite) = Speed of Train + Speed of Man

Relative Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ 4v + v = 800 ÷ 8

⇒ 5v = 100

⇒ v = 20 m/s

⇒ Speed of Train = 4 × 20 = 80 m/s

⇒ To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5:

⇒ Speed in km/hr = 80 × (18/5)

⇒ Speed in km/hr = 16 × 18

⇒ Speed in km/hr = 288 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 288 km/hr.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concept

When two objects move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds (S₁ + S₂). If moving in the same direction, it is the difference |S₁ − S₂|.

Speed Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Train Crossing a Moving Object

When a train crosses a man, pole, or tree, the total distance covered is always equal to the length of the train itself.

Shortcut Trick

Assume the Marked Price (MP) of the article is 100 units.

Cost Price (CP) for the person = 100 − 25% of 100 = 75 units.

Selling Price (SP) for the person = 100 + 30% of 100 = 130 units.

Profit percentage = [(130 − 75) ÷ 75] × 100 = (55 ÷ 75) × 100 = 73.33%.

∴ The correct answer is 73.33 percent.

Alternate Method

Given: Marked Price = X, Discount = 25% of MP, Selling Price = X + 30% of X.

Formula Used: Profit % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = X − 0.25X = 0.75X

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = X + 0.30X = 1.30X

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 1.30X − 0.75X = 0.55X

⇒ Profit % = (0.55X ÷ 0.75X) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (55 ÷ 75) × 100 = 11/15 × 100 = 73.333...

⇒ Profit % ≈ 73.33%

∴ The correct answer is 73.33 percent.

Additional Information

Marked Price (MP) and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price. SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

Profit/Loss Basis

Unless specified, Profit or Loss percentage is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP).

Successive Percentage Change

When a value changes by a% and then b%, the net change is given by the formula: [a + b + (ab ÷ 100)]%.

The correct answer is 'weathered the storm'.

 

Key Points

• The idiom 'weathered the storm' means to successfully survive a difficult period or situation. (किसी कठिन परिस्थिति या संकट से सुरक्षित बाहर निकलना)
• In the given sentence, it refers to poor people managing to survive despite the famine that devastated the land.
• The other options: 'surpassed' (to exceed), 'crossed the boarder' (misspelled literal action), and 'mmigrated' (misspelled) do not match the required meaning of surviving a crisis.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: Many poor people weathered the storm although the famine devastated the land.

Additional Information

• Famine (अकाल): An extreme scarcity of food in a region.
• Devastated (तबाह कर दिया): To cause great destruction or damage to something.
• The phrase is often used in business and personal contexts to describe coming through a financial or emotional crisis.

The correct answer is resilience.

Key Points

• The word resillience as written in the sentence is misspelled. The correct spelling is resilience, which contains only a single 'l'. It refers to the capacity to recover quickly from difficulties or the elasticity of a system.
• Etymologically, resilience is derived from the Latin verb resilire, meaning to rebound or recoil. In an economic context, it signifies the ability of a market or economy to maintain its structural integrity and performance during external shocks or financial crises.
• The spelling follows the -ience or -ence suffix pattern common in English nouns derived from Latin present participles (e.g., convenience, patience). Adding an extra 'l' is a common orthographic error.
• In the provided sentence, economic resilience is the subject that has improved, acting as a positive indicator of the region's macroeconomic health.

 Additional Information

• Economic and Linguistic Concepts:
• Targeted:
• This refers to reforms or policies aimed at a specific sector or goal.
• Spelling Rule: The final 't' is not doubled in targeted because the primary stress is on the first syllable (TAR-get), following the consonant-vowel-consonant (CVC) rule for multi-syllabic words.
• Investments:
• The plural of investment, denoting the allocation of capital into assets like stocks, bonds, or infrastructure to generate income.
• In National Income Accounting, it is a key component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) calculations.
• Market Diversification:
• A risk management strategy that involves entering new markets or expanding product lines to mitigate losses.
• According to Modern Portfolio Theory (MPT), diversification helps in achieving a lower risk for a given level of expected return.

The correct answer is: Endurence.

Key Points

• The word 'Endurence' is the misspelt word among the given options. (अशुद्ध वर्तनी)
• Example: The spelling 'endurence' is incorrect and should be corrected in the final draft.
• 'Endurance' is the correct spelling, which refers to the capacity of something to last or to withstand wear and tear, or the ability to endure an unpleasant or difficult process. (सहनशीलता)
• Example: The test was designed to measure the physical endurance of the athletes.
• Hence, we can identify that the misspelt word is 'endurence'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Endurence.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Providence (ईश्वरीय विधान/विधाता): The protective care of God or of nature as a spiritual power.
• Example: They trusted in divine providence to help them through the crisis.
• Convergence (अभिसरण): The process or state of coming together from different directions so as eventually to meet.
• Example: The convergence of several different technologies has made this new device possible.
• Competence (क्षमता/योग्यता): The ability to do something successfully or efficiently.
• Example: The manager was impressed by the competence shown by the new recruit.

The correct answer is: Forget.

Key Points

• The word 'remember' means to have in or be able to bring to one's mind an awareness of someone or something that one has seen, known, or experienced in the past. (याद रखना)
• Example: I can clearly remember the first day I started my new job.
• 'Forget' refers to the inability to remember something or failing to recall information or an event from one's memory; it is the direct opposite of remembering. (भूलना)
• Example: Please do not forget to bring your passport to the airport tomorrow.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate antonym of 'remember' is 'forget'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Forget.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Remind (याद दिलाना): To cause someone to remember something that they have forgotten or might forget.
• Example: Could you remind me to pay the electricity bill before the weekend?
• Memorize (कंठस्थ करना): To learn something by heart so that you can repeat it from memory.
• Example: The actor had to memorize twenty pages of the script in a single night.
• Recognize (पहचानना): To identify someone or something from having encountered them before.
• Example: I did not recognize her at first because she had changed her hairstyle.

The correct answer is 'rite'.

 

Key Points

• The word 'rite' refers to a formal or ceremonial act or procedure that is customary in a particular culture or religion (अनुष्ठान/रस्म).
• In the context of the sentence, lighting candles to honor something 'ancient' suggests a traditional ceremony or ritual.
• An 'ancient rite' is a common collocation used to describe historical religious or solemn ceremonies.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: The villagers lit candles to honor the ancient rite.

Additional Information

• Right (सही/अधिकार): Means something that is morally or legally correct, or refers to a person's entitlement.
• Wright (निर्माता): A worker, especially a builder or manufacturer (often used as a suffix in words like 'shipwright' or 'playwright').
• Write (लिखना): The act of marking letters, words, or symbols on a surface using a pen, pencil, or electronic device.

The correct answer is: Philology.

Key Points

• The phrase 'The study of language in written historical sources' refers to the academic field that examines how languages evolve and are used in historical texts. (लिखित ऐतिहासिक स्रोतों में भाषा का अध्ययन)
• Example: To accurately interpret the ancient inscriptions, the historian turned to the field of philology.
• Philology is the branch of knowledge that deals with the structure, historical development, and relationships of a language or languages, especially as found in written records. (भाषाशास्त्र)
• Example: Her deep interest in philology allowed her to trace the roots of modern Hindi back to classical Sanskrit.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct one-word substitution for the given phrase is 'Philology'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Philology.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Linguistics (भाषा विज्ञान): The scientific study of language and its structure, including the study of grammar, syntax, and phonetics.
• Example: Linguistics helps us understand the complex rules that govern how people communicate.
• Anthropology (मानव विज्ञान): The study of human societies and cultures and their development.
• Example: A degree in anthropology can lead to a career studying the origins of ancient civilizations.
• Etymology (शब्द-व्युत्पत्ति शास्त्र): The study of the origin of words and the way in which their meanings have changed throughout history.
• Example: Exploring the etymology of English words reveals many interesting influences from Latin and French.

The correct answer is 'in'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition 'in' is frequently used to describe a state, condition, or situation that a person is currently experiencing.
• The fixed phrase 'in difficulty' (or 'in difficulties') means to be in a situation where one is facing problems, trouble, or financial struggle.
• In the given sentence, the speaker is offering assistance based on the condition of the other person experiencing trouble, making 'in' the grammatically appropriate choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: 'If you're in difficulty, I'm happy to help you.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'for' is generally used to indicate purpose, destination, or duration (e.g., help for someone), which does not fit the structure of being in a state.
• Option 3: 'from' is used to indicate the point of origin or separation (e.g., suffering from difficulty), but it cannot follow the verb 'to be' to describe an immediate state in this context.
• Option 4: 'by' is typically used to indicate agency, method, or proximity (e.g., caused by difficulty), which is incorrect here.

The correct answer is Will the machine have been repaired by the engineer before the shift starts?.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Future Perfect Tense and follows an Interrogative Structure. The active voice formula for this tense is: Will/Shall + Subject + have + V3 (Past Participle) + Object + ?
• To convert a sentence from Active Voice to Passive Voice, the Object of the active sentence (the machine) must become the Subject of the passive sentence.
• The Passive Voice structure for the Future Perfect Tense requires the addition of the auxiliary been. The formula is: Will/Shall + New Subject + have been + V3 + by + New Object + ?
• In this conversion, the Subject of the active sentence (the engineer) is moved to the end of the clause and is preceded by the preposition by, acting as the Agent.
• The adverbial clause before the shift starts remains unchanged at the end of the sentence as it provides the Temporal Context for the completion of the action.
• The interrogative form is maintained by placing the modal auxiliary Will at the very beginning of the sentence.

 Additional Information

• Voice and Tense Consistency
• A fundamental rule of Voice Transformation is that the Tense of the sentence must never change. The action must remain in the Future Perfect.
• Option 1 uses Has, which indicates the Present Perfect Tense, thus failing the tense consistency rule.
• Option 2 uses be repaired, which corresponds to the Simple Future Passive, ignoring the 'perfect' aspect (have + been).
• Option 4 uses Was, which is indicative of the Simple Past Tense, incorrectly shifting the timeline of the engineer's work.
• The use of the Past Participle (repaired) is mandatory in all passive constructions regardless of the primary tense.

The correct answer is Has the office clerk already located the missing documents?.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Passive Voice of the Present Perfect Tense in an interrogative format. The structure follows: Have/Has + Object + been + V3 (Past Participle) + by + Agent?
• To convert it to Active Voice, the agent of the action (the office clerk) must become the grammatical subject, and the recipient (the missing documents) must become the object.
• In Present Perfect Active Voice, the structure is: Has/Have + Subject + V3 + Object? The word been is exclusively used in the passive form and must be removed.
• Subject-Verb Agreement is crucial; since the office clerk is a singular noun, the auxiliary verb Has is used. The plural auxiliary Have from the original sentence was used because documents was the subject there.
• The adverb already is placed before the main verb located to maintain the original meaning and emphasis of the sentence.

 Additional Information

• Voice and Tense Consistency: When changing voice, the tense of the sentence must remain constant.
• Present Continuous: Option 2 uses Is + Subject + V-ing, which is incorrect as the original sentence is not in the continuous aspect.
• Simple Past: Option 3 uses the auxiliary Did, which belongs to the Simple Past Tense and changes the timeframe of the action.
• Simple Future: Option 4 uses Will, which incorrectly shifts the action to the Future Tense.
• Active Structure (Present Perfect): The formula Has + singular subject + V3 correctly mirrors the passive Has been + V3.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The primary grammatical error in the sentence is the use of the incorrect preposition 'in' before the noun 'arrival'.
• In English, to indicate the specific time or occasion when someone reaches a destination, the correct preposition to use is 'on' or 'upon'.
• The phrase 'on arrival' is a standard idiomatic expression meaning 'at the time of arriving'.
• The correct phrase should be 'on arrival,' which ensures the sentence is grammatically sound.
• Therefore, the error is located in Option 4 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: 'The guest asked for a glass of water to drink on arrival.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: This segment serves as the subject of the sentence and does not contain the primary grammatical error.
• Option 2: 'Asked for' is the correct phrasal verb used to request something in the past tense.
• Option 3: This part correctly identifies the object of the request and is grammatically correct.

The correct answer is 'by dint of'.

 

Key Points

• The prepositional phrase 'by dint of' means 'by means of' or 'as a result of' something, typically referring to hard work, effort, or persistence.
• In the given sentence, the freedom achieved is the result of the sacrifice and devotion shown by the freedom fighters.
• The phrase accurately establishes the cause-and-effect relationship between the effort (sacrifice) and the outcome (freedom).

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: 'We were able to achieve freedom by dint of the sacrifice and devotion of our freedom fighters and martyrs.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'along with' means together with or in addition to, which does not fit the context of achievement through specific effort.
• Option 3: 'in accordance with' means following or obeying a particular rule, law, or wish.
• Option 4: 'in addition to' is used to mention extra people or things, rather than the method or means used.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes a life-threatening emergency in space or a high-altitude environment where a suit loses pressure and the protagonist takes immediate action.
• Sentence C follows S1 because it provides the immediate physical reaction to the crisis:
• 'He had enough air in his lungs to move his right hand over and twist a knob at his left elbow, tightening the joint and sealing the leak.' This directly addresses the problem of no air mentioned in S1.
• Sentence B follows C as it reflects on the speed of the incident and the protagonist's calm reaction:
• 'It had happened so quickly that he was not surprised.' This sentence transitions from the action to his psychological state.
• Sentence A follows B by expanding on the lack of surprise, providing deeper character context:
• 'Nothing surprised him anymore.' This reinforces the sentiment in Sentence B, creating a logical flow of internal thought.
• Sentence D is the last of the jumbled sentences as it describes the resolution of the immediate crisis:
• 'The air in the suit came back to normal in an instant now that the leak was sealed.' This connects the action in Sentence C to the final state in S2.
• S2 concludes the sequence by describing the secondary action taken with the same knob to stop the flow of blood.
• The correct sequence is CBAD.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'Suddenly there was no air in his suit. He had enough air in his lungs to move his right hand over and twist a knob at his left elbow, tightening the joint and sealing the leak. It had happened so quickly that he was not surprised. Nothing surprised him anymore. The air in the suit came back to normal in an instant now that the leak was sealed. And the blood that had flowed so swiftly was pressured as he fastened the knob yet tighter, until it made a tourniquet.'

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes a sequence of events where a prince attempts to defend a town but is eventually captured due to betrayal and a surprise attack.
• Sentence B follows S1: After the opening question 'What could the prince do?', Sentence B explains the first major obstacle—some of his men turned against him and joined the king's army.
• Sentence A follows B: It describes the prince's reaction to the betrayal. Using the rest (the remaining loyal men), he shut himself in the town and defended it heroically for several days.
• Sentence D follows A: This sentence introduces a turning point in the siege. It explains that during a dreadful storm one night, the king's soldiers managed to climb over the walls.
• Sentence C follows D: It details the immediate result of the soldiers entering the town. Before an alarm could be raised, they became masters of the place.
• S2 is the final fixed sentence, which perfectly concludes the narrative by stating the prince was seized in his bed once the town was captured.
• The logical sequence is BADC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'What could the prince do? Some of his men turned against him and went over to the king's army. With the rest he shut himself up in the town, and there, for several days, he defended himself like a young hero. But one night, when a dreadful storm was raging, a number of the king's soldiers climbed over the walls and got into the town. Before the alarm could be given, they were masters of the place. The prince was seized upon while he was in bed.'

The correct answer is His mellifluous voice captivated the audience.

Key Points

• The original sentence contains a semantic contradiction between the adjective discordant and the verb captivated. The word discordant describes a sound that is harsh, jarring, or unpleasant to the ear.
• The context provided by the phrase drawing them into his every word indicates a positive and immersive experience for the listeners. In linguistics and literary analysis, the descriptive elements of a sentence must maintain logical consistency with the results they produce.
• It is logically inconsistent for a discordant (unpleasant) voice to captivate (charm or enchant) an audience. Research in psychoacoustics suggests that dissonant or harsh sounds typically trigger an avoidance response or irritation in the human brain.
• The adjective mellifluous refers to a voice or sound that is sweet, musical, and smoothly flowing. This word perfectly aligns with the audience being captivated and drawn in.
• Therefore, replacing the underlined part with His mellifluous voice captivated the audience corrects the tonal mismatch and ensures the sentence is semantically sound.

 Additional Information

• Mellifluous:
• Etymology: This term originates from the Latin roots mel (meaning honey) and fluere (meaning to flow), literally translating to 'flowing like honey'.
• Usage: It is frequently used in literature to describe dulcet tones, euphonious music, or eloquent speech that is pleasing to the senses.
• Discordant:
• Definition: Characterized by a lack of harmony or agreement. In a musical context, it refers to intervals that create tension and require resolution.
• Cognitive Impact: Neuroscience indicates that cacophonous or discordant stimuli are processed in the amygdala, often associated with negative emotional valence.
• Prosody and Engagement:
• In communication studies, prosody (the rhythm and pitch of a voice) is a key factor in audience retention. A mellifluous prosody is statistically more likely to sustain prolonged attention and emotional resonance than a discordant one.

The correct answer is: Final.

Key Points

• The word 'irrevocable' refers to something that is not able to be changed, reversed, or recovered; it is final and unalterable. (अटल या ��परिवर्तनीय)
• Example: The court stated that the irrevocable decision would take effect immediately.
• 'Final' describes something that occurs at the end of a process or something that is conclusive and cannot be changed or undone. (अंतिम या निर्णायक)
• Example: The referee made the final call, and the game ended in a draw.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct synonym of 'irrevocable' is 'final'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Final.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Changeable (परिवर्तनशील): Something that is likely to vary or be modified frequently.
• Example: The weather in this region is very changeable, so it is best to carry an umbrella.
• Reversible (प्रतिवर्ती): Capable of being turned around or undone so that the original state is restored.
• Example: Many chemical reactions are reversible under the right conditions.
• Temporary (अस्थायी): Lasting for only a limited period of time; not permanent.
• Example: The workers set up a temporary shelter for the refugees during the storm.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The sentence consists of two clauses joined by the conjunction but.
• The first clause, It began in 2006, uses the verb began, which is the V2 (past) form of the verb begin. This indicates the Simple Past Tense.
• The second clause, has now grown into a global platform, uses the auxiliary verb has followed by the past participle (V3) form grown. This structure (has/have + V3) indicates the Present Perfect Tense.
• Therefore, the sentence follows the combination of Simple Past + Present Perfect.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Additional Information

• Simple Past Tense: Used to describe a completed action that took place at a specific time in the past. Example: He wrote a letter yesterday.
• Present Perfect Tense: Used for an action that happened at an indefinite time in the past or an action that began in the past and continues to the present. Example: She has finished her work.
• Past Perfect: Uses had + V3 (e.g., had begun). It is used to show that one action was completed before another action in the past.
• Present Continuous: Uses is/am/are + V-ing (e.g., is growing). It describes an action currently in progress.