SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 09 May, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

For 'EIS' related to 'JNX':

For 'KZL' related to 'PEQ':

Applying the same logic to find the cluster related to 'VSR':

Thus, QNM is related to VSR.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

For 'NS' related to 'JM':

For 'RY' related to 'NS':

Applying the same logic to find the cluster related to 'HO':

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Thus, LU is related to HO in the same way as the other clusters.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed in this pattern is a series of alphabetical shifts between consecutive clusters in each set.

For the set '(SY, UA, YE)':

For the set '(RV, TX, XB)':

Applying the same logic to '(PM, RO, VS)':

Thus, the set (PM, RO, VS) follows the same logic as the given clusters.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The given year is 2008.

To check if it is a leap year: 2008 ÷ 4 = 502 (No remainder).

Since it is divisible by 4, 2008 is a leap year, and February 2008 has 29 days.

Now, we find the day of the week on February 1, 2008:

Using January 1, 2008 as a reference (which was a Tuesday):

Days in January = 31 days.

Odd days in January = 31 ÷ 7 = 4 weeks and 3 odd days.

Day on February 1 = Tuesday + 3 days = Friday.

Since February 1st is a Friday and the month has 29 days, the day Friday will occur 5 times (on the 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, and 29th).

All other days occur exactly 4 times in the month.

Number of Wednesdays = 4

Number of Thursdays = 4

Number of Fridays = 5

Sum of the number of Wednesdays, Thursdays, and Fridays = 4 + 4 + 5 = 13

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

First, we find the day of the week for January 1, 1914.

Using the calendar formula: Day = (Day + Month Code + Century Code + Year Code + Leap Year Code) mod 7

Day = 1

Month Code (January, non-leap year) = 0

Century Code (1900) = 0

Year Code (Last two digits) = 14

Leap Year Code (14 ÷ 4) = 3 (quotient)

Total = 1 + 0 + 0 + 14 + 3 = 18

Remainder of 18 ÷ 7 is 4.

The code 4 corresponds to Thursday (0 = Sun, 1 = Mon, 2 = Tue, 3 = Wed, 4 = Thu).

I. For January 1914:

January has 31 days.

January 1st = Thursday (Occurs 5 times)

January 2nd = Friday (Occurs 5 times)

January 3rd = Saturday (Occurs 5 times)

Since Monday is not one of these days, there are only 4 Mondays in January 1914. (Mondays were on the 5th, 12th, 19th, and 26th).

II. For April 1914:

Odd days from January 1 to April 1:

January (31 days) = 3 odd days

February (28 days in 1914) = 0 odd days

March (31 days) = 3 odd days

Total odd days = 3 + 0 + 3 = 6

April 1st = Thursday + 6 days = Wednesday.

April has 30 days.

April 1st = Wednesday (Occurs 5 times)

April 2nd = Thursday (Occurs 5 times)

Since Monday is not one of these days, there are only 4 Mondays in April 1914. (Mondays were on the 6th, 13th, 20th, and 27th).

Therefore, neither January nor April had 5 Mondays in 1914.

Hence, the correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Logic followed here is,

−496 + 125 = −371

−371 + 125 = −246

−246 + 125 = −121

−121 + 125 = 4

4 + 125 = 129

129 + 125 = 254

254 + 125 = 379

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

5 girls J, K, L, P and Q are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. Three girls are to the right of P.
2. Four girls are to the left of J.
3. K is to the immediate left of L.

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2 girls are sitting between Q and L.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

7 children P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are standing in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

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1. P is to the immediate right of R.
2. There are two children between T and Q.
3. V is to the immediate right of S.
4. V is to the immediate left of Q.
5. There is one children between P and S.
6. There are two children between S and U.

R is sitting at left end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

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AF14 : EB196 → 

LT17 : SM289 → 

Similarly,

KO15 : ? → 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

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KAR220 : LBS340

 

RSV200 : STW320

Similarly,

CRT280 : ?

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 461

For the first pair 416 : 877

⇒ 416 + 461 = 877.

Applying the same logic to the third pair 774 : 1235

⇒ 774 + 461 = 1235.

Similarly, applying the logic to the second pair

639 : ?

⇒ 639 + 461 = 1100.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

CAME is coded as EEJZ →

ACRE is coded as CGOZ →

Similarly,

let's find the code for GULL:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The time interval from 12 PM to 6 PM is:

6 PM − 12 PM = 6 hours

Converting the total duration into minutes:

6 hours = 6 × 60 = 360 minutes

The clock gains 5 seconds every 10 minutes. We first find how many 10-minute intervals are there in 360 minutes:

Number of intervals = 360 ÷ 10 = 36 intervals

Now, calculate the total gain in seconds:

Total gain = 36 × 5 = 180 seconds

Convert the total gain from seconds into minutes:

Gain in minutes = 180 ÷ 60 = 3 minutes

The clock was correct at 12 PM, so at 6 PM (actual time), the clock will show the actual time plus the gain:

Time shown = 6:00:00 + 0:03:00 = 6:03:00

Hence, the clock will show 6:03:00 at 6 PM.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Let the present age of L be L and the present age of M be M.

5 years ago from the present

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The ratio of their ages was 1 : 3.

(L − 5) / (M − 5) = 1 / 3

3 × (L − 5) = 1 × (M − 5)

3L − 15 = M − 5

M = 3L − 10 --- (Equation 1)

After 3 years from the present

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The ratio of their ages will be 2 : 5.

(L + 3) / (M + 3) = 2 / 5

5 × (L + 3) = 2 × (M + 3)

5L + 15 = 2M + 6

5L − 2M = −9 --- (Equation 2)

Solving the Equations:

Substitute the value of M from Equation 1 into Equation 2:

5L − 2 × (3L − 10) = −9

5L − 6L + 20 = −9

−L + 20 = −9

−L = −29

L = 29

Now, find the value of M using Equation 1:

M = 3 × 29 − 10

M = 87 − 10

M = 77

The present age of L is 29 and the present age of M is 77.

The respective ratio of their present ages (L : M) = 29 : 77.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

• Tippani is a traditional folk dance originating from the Saurashtra region of Gujarat, specifically from coastal areas like Chorwad and Veraval.
• The dance is exclusively performed by women, particularly those belonging to the Koli and Hali communities, who traditionally worked as laborers.
• The name of the dance is derived from the tool used, the Tippani, which is a long wooden stick (about 175 cm) with a wooden or iron block called a Garbo at the base.
• Historically, the dance evolved from the task of beating lime to level the floors and roofs during the construction of houses, where women used the sticks to create a rhythmic beat to alleviate their physical exhaustion.
• The performance features dancers striking the Tippani against the ground in synchronized movements, creating a powerful percussive rhythm that dictates the pace of the dance.
• Musical accompaniment includes folk instruments such as the Zanj, Manjira, Tabla, Dhol, and sometimes the Shehnai, with dancers singing traditional folk songs.

 Additional Information

• Maharashtra:
• Famous for Lavani, a traditional song and dance genre performed to the beats of the Dholki.
• Other notable forms include Koli (the dance of the fishing community) and Povada (ballads describing historical events).
• Rajasthan:
• Renowned for the Ghoomar dance, traditionally performed by the Bhil tribe for the goddess Saraswati.
• Other dances include Kalbelia (recognized by UNESCO) and the balancing-act dance Bhavai.
• Odisha:
• Home to the classical dance Odissi, which is one of the oldest surviving dance forms in India.
• Prominent folk dances include Chhau (a martial arts dance), Ghumura, and Sambalpuri.
• Gujarat:
• Apart from Tippani, the state is famous for Garba and Dandiya Raas, which are globally popular during the Navratri festival.
• Other folk forms include the Padhar dance and the Bhavai folk drama.

The correct answer is 0.93%.

Key Points

• Argon (Ar) is a chemical element with atomic number 18 and is categorized as a noble gas within Group 18 of the periodic table.
• In the Earth's atmosphere, Argon is the third-most abundant gas, comprising approximately 0.934% (commonly rounded to 0.93%) of dry air by volume.
• This gas is monatomic and chemically inert, which means it does not form stable chemical compounds at standard temperatures and pressures due to its complete octet of valence electrons.
• The majority of atmospheric Argon is Argon-40, which originates from the radioactive decay of Potassium-40 found in the Earth's crust.
• It is significantly more abundant than other noble gases like Neon (0.0018%), Helium (0.0005%), and Krypton (0.0001%), making it the primary inert component after Nitrogen.

 Additional Information

• Major Atmospheric Constituents:
• Nitrogen (78%): This is the most prevalent gas in the atmosphere, playing a crucial role in biological molecules like proteins and DNA via the Nitrogen Cycle.
• Oxygen (21%): The second most abundant gas (approximately 20.95%), essential for aerobic respiration and the process of combustion.
• Carbon Dioxide (0.03%): Historically cited at 0.03%, though modern levels exceed 0.04%, it is a critical greenhouse gas and is indispensable for photosynthesis in plants.
• Industrial Uses of Argon:
• Used extensively in incandescent lighting and fluorescent tubes to prevent the oxidation of filaments.
• Commonly utilized as a shielding gas in Gas Tungsten Arc Welding (GTAW) to protect the weld area from atmospheric contaminants.
• Applied in cryosurgery and as a thermal insulator in energy-efficient windows.

The correct answer is Gunjan Soni.

Key Points

• Gunjan Soni was officially appointed as the Country Managing Director of YouTube India in April 2025, marking a significant leadership change for the video-sharing giant in one of its largest global markets.
• In her capacity as Managing Director, she is responsible for leading YouTube's overall strategy, business growth, and the development of the content creator ecosystem across the Indian subcontinent.
• She succeeds Ishan Chatterjee, who transitioned from his role at YouTube India to take on a senior global position at Gracenote, a Nielsen company.
• Soni's leadership is expected to focus on scaling YouTube Shorts, enhancing Connected TV (CTV) adoption, and driving monetization through innovative digital advertising solutions tailored for the Indian audience.
• The appointment comes at a time when India serves as a primary engine for YouTube's user growth, with a heavy emphasis on regional language content and hyper-local engagement.

 Additional Information

• Gunjan Soni's Professional Background:
• Prior to joining YouTube, she served as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Zalora, a prominent fashion e-commerce platform operating in Southeast Asia.
• She held high-ranking executive positions at Myntra, where she functioned as the Chief Marketing Officer (CMO) and Head of International Brands.
• Her experience includes a notable tenure at McKinsey & Company as a Partner, where she specialized in consumer tech and retail sectors.
• She is an alumna of the Indian School of Business (ISB) and holds a degree from Nanyang Technological University, Singapore.
• Ishan Chatterjee:
• Served as the Managing Director of YouTube India before the leadership transition in early 2025.
• He played a crucial role in establishing YouTube as a dominant force in the Indian digital media landscape before moving to Gracenote.

The correct answer is Leander Paes.

Key Points

• The P.C. Chandra Puraskaar is a prestigious annual award established by the P.C. Chandra Group in 1993 to honor eminent personalities who have achieved excellence in their respective fields, including sports, culture, and science.
• In 2025, the award was conferred upon the legendary Indian tennis player Leander Paes for his unparalleled lifetime sporting excellence and his role in placing India on the global tennis map.
• Leander Paes is celebrated for winning a Bronze Medal in the men’s singles category at the 1996 Atlanta Olympics, which was India’s first individual Olympic medal in 44 years.
• Throughout his illustrious career, he has secured 18 Grand Slam titles, comprising 8 men’s doubles and 10 mixed doubles championships, making him one of the most successful doubles players in history.
• He is a recipient of India’s highest honors, including the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna (1996-97), the Padma Shri (2001), and the Padma Bhushan (2014).

 Additional Information

• Colonel RS Jamwal:
• A highly distinguished Indian Army officer and a veteran mountaineer.
• He is the first Indian to summit Mount Everest three times and has successfully scaled the Seven Summits (the highest peaks of the seven continents).
• Ravi Kishan:
• A prominent Indian actor and politician serving as a Member of Parliament.
• He is well-known for his extensive work in Bhojpuri and Hindi cinema, contributing significantly to the regional film industry.
• Major Kalita:
• Refers to a notable officer in the Indian Armed Forces, often recognized for gallantry or leadership, though not primarily associated with international sports awards like the P.C. Chandra Puraskaar.

The correct answer is Siachen.

Key Points

• The Siachen Glacier is located in the Karakoram Range in the Himalayas, near the Line of Control (LoC) between India and Pakistan.
• It is approximately 76 kilometers (47 miles) long, making it the longest glacier in India and the second-longest in the world non-polar regions.
• The glacier is strategically significant and is often referred to as the highest battlefield in the world, with military posts situated at altitudes exceeding 6,000 meters.
• It serves as the primary source for the Nubra River, which flows into the Shyok River, a major tributary of the Indus River system.
• Geographically, it lies just south of the great drainage divide that separates the Eurasian Plate from the Indian subcontinent in the extensively glaciated portion of the Karakoram.

 Additional Information

• Gangotri Glacier:
• Located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, it is one of the largest glaciers in the Himalayas with a length of about 30 kilometers.
• It is the source of the Bhagirathi River, which is one of the main headstreams of the Ganga.
• Zemu Glacier:
• This is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalayas, situated at the base of Mount Kangchenjunga in Sikkim.
• It has a length of approximately 26 kilometers and provides water to the Teesta River.
• Pindari Glacier:
• Located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand, it is found in the Bageshwar district.
• It is much smaller than Siachen, with a length of roughly 3 kilometers, and acts as the source for the Pindar River.

The correct answer is Raja Todar Mal.

Key Points

• Raja Todar Mal was the Finance Minister (Mushrif-i-Diwan) of the Mughal Empire during the reign of Akbar and was one of the Navaratnas (Nine Gems) in his court.
• He is primarily credited with the introduction of the Zabt or Dahshala System in 1580, which revolutionized the land revenue administration in medieval India.
• This system involved a detailed survey of crop yields and market prices over a ten-year period (1570−1580) to calculate a fixed average revenue for each province.
• Under his reforms, agricultural land was scientifically measured using a bamboo jarib with iron rings, ensuring higher accuracy than the previously used hemp ropes.
• The land was classified into four categories based on productivity: Polaj (cultivated every year), Parauti (left fallow for 1−2 years), Chachar (fallow for 3−4 years), and Banjar (uncultivated for 5 or more years).
• The state share was fixed at one-third of the average produce, and taxes were collected primarily in cash, which provided fiscal stability to the Mughal Treasury.

 Additional Information

• Abul Fazl:
• The Grand Vizier and official court historian who authored the Akbarnama and its detailed third volume, the Ain-i-Akbari.
• Birbal:
• Born as Mahesh Das, he was a celebrated advisor and military commander known for his sharp wit; he was the first and only Hindu to accept the Din-i-Ilahi faith.
• Tansen:
• Originally named Ramtanu Pandey, he was a legendary classical musician and composer in Akbar’s court, credited with innovating the Gwalior Gharana style.

The correct answer is July.

Key Points

• The Union Cabinet of India, chaired by the Prime Minister, officially approved the National Sports Policy 2025 in the month of July 2025 to revolutionize the country's sports ecosystem.
• This landmark policy was introduced to replace the outdated National Sports Policy 2001, providing a modern framework that aligns with the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision of transforming India into a global sporting powerhouse.
• A primary focus of the policy approved in July is the decentralization of sports administration, empowering State Governments and District Sports Authorities to identify and nurture talent at the grassroots level.
• The policy introduces the National Sports Education Board (NSEB), which aims to integrate sports into the formal curriculum under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, ensuring that 'sports' is no longer considered just an extra-curricular activity.
• The July 2025 approval facilitates a structured High-Performance Leadership model, targeting specific medal outcomes for the 2028 Los Angeles and 2032 Brisbane Olympic Games.

 Additional Information

• Core Pillars of the National Sports Policy 2025:
• Digital Transformation: The policy mandates the creation of a National Sports Repository, utilizing Artificial Intelligence (AI) for performance mapping and athlete health tracking.
• Athlete Welfare: Enhancement of the Pension for Meritorious Sports Persons scheme and comprehensive insurance coverage for athletes and coaching staff.
• Indigenous Games: Dedicated funding and national-level competitions for traditional Indian sports like Kabaddi, Mallakhamb, and Kalaripayattu to promote cultural heritage.
• Historical Evolution:
• The first National Sports Policy was formulated in 1984 following India's hosting of the 1982 Asian Games.
• The 2001 Policy focused on 'Mass Participation' and 'Excellence in Sports', but the 2025 Policy shifts toward a Science-Led and Governance-Driven approach to match international standards.

The correct answer is Tribal Aptitude, Life Skills and Self-Esteem Hub.

Key Points

• The TALASH Initiative is a specialized program launched in July 2025, designed to address the socio-economic and educational gaps faced by the tribal youth of India.
• The acronym stands for Tribal Aptitude, Life Skills and Self-Esteem Hub, reflecting a comprehensive strategy that moves beyond traditional academic instruction to foster holistic personality development.
• The primary objective of the initiative is to identify the natural aptitude of tribal students at an early stage, helping them align their career paths with their inherent talents and interests.
• By incorporating Life Skills, the program ensures that individuals from Scheduled Tribes (ST) are equipped with the necessary tools to navigate urban professional environments and modern societal challenges.
• The inclusion of the Self-Esteem Hub is a critical component aimed at psychological empowerment, helping students overcome inferiority complexes and take pride in their cultural heritage.

 Additional Information

• Core Components of the TALASH Framework:
• Aptitude Assessment: Utilizing psychometric tools tailored for diverse linguistic backgrounds to evaluate logical reasoning and vocational interests.
• Life Skills Curriculum: Training modules covering digital literacy, financial management, critical thinking, and effective communication.
• Self-Esteem Workshops: Mentorship programs led by tribal icons and achievers to build confidence and leadership qualities.
• Implementation Strategy:
• The initiative is predominantly integrated into Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) and Ashram Schools across various states.
• It leverages partnerships with the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) to bridge the gap between rural education and industrial employability.

The correct answer is West Bengal.

Key Points

• The Mahesh Ratha Yatra is held in Mahesh, a historic neighborhood in Serampore, located in the Hooghly district of West Bengal.
• It holds the distinction of being the second oldest chariot festival in the world and the oldest in the Bengal region, having been celebrated without interruption since 1396 CE.
• The festival was established by Drubananda Brahmachari, a Bengali sadhu, who, according to legend, received a divine vision of Lord Jagannath after being unable to offer bhog at the Puri Jagannath Temple.
• The Mahesh Jagannath Temple houses wooden idols of Jagannath, Balarama, and Subhadra, which are crafted from neem wood, following the Nabakalebara tradition.
• The current grand iron chariot was constructed in 1885, donated by Krishnachandra Basu; it stands 50 feet tall, weighs approximately 125 tonnes, and moves on 12 wheels.

 Additional Information

• Odisha:
• Famous for the Puri Ratha Yatra, the oldest and largest chariot festival globally, held at the 12th-century Jagannath Temple.
• The festival marks the annual journey of the deities to the Gundicha Temple.
• Gujarat:
• Hosts the Ahmedabad Ratha Yatra at the Jagannath Temple in Jamalpur, which is the third largest in India.
• This tradition was initiated by Mahant Hanumandasji in 1878.
• Historical Significance of Mahesh:
• Notable 19th-century figures like Sri Ramakrishna Paramahansa and Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar participated in this festival.
• The festival is a major cultural event in Bengal, accompanied by the Rathayatra Mela, which is one of the largest village fairs in the state.

Concept:

The question refers to India’s enhanced climate action commitments presented at the COP-26 (Conference of Parties) summit held in Glasgow in 2021. Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced a five-point plan called Panchamrit (Five Nectar Elements) to intensify India’s fight against climate change, focusing on renewable energy and carbon emission reduction.

Given

• Event: COP-26 Climate Summit.
• Target: 500 GW of non-fossil fuel electricity capacity.

Calculation

According to the Panchamrit strategy, India set several ambitious milestones to be reached by the end of the current decade. The five pillars of this commitment are:

• Reach 500 GW of non-fossil fuel energy capacity by 2030.
• Meet 50% of its energy requirements from renewable energy sources by 2030.
• Reduce total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes between now and 2030.
• Reduce the carbon intensity of the economy by 45% by 2030.
• Achieve the target of Net Zero emissions by the year 2070.

As per these declarations, the target year for reaching the 500 GW non-fossil fuel capacity mark is specifically set for 2030. This initiative is part of India’s updated Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) to help limit global temperature rise.

Final Answer: ✅ 2030

The correct answer is distance.

Key Points

• A light year is a unit of distance rather than time, representing the total path covered by light in a vacuum over the duration of one Julian year (365.25 days).
• Light travels at an incredible velocity of approximately 299,792,458 meters per second (roughly 3 × 10⁸ m/s); when calculated over a full year, this distance equals approximately 9.46 trillion kilometers (9.46 × 10¹² km).
• In the field of astronomy, standard terrestrial units like kilometers or miles are insufficient for measuring the immense voids of interstellar space, making the light year a fundamental metric for describing gaps between stars and galaxies.
• For instance, the nearest star to Earth (besides the Sun), Proxima Centauri, is about 4.24 light years away, meaning its light takes over four years to reach our planet.

 Additional Information

• Time: Measured in seconds, minutes, and hours, it defines the duration of events. While 'year' is a unit of time, 'light year' is strictly a spatial measurement.
• Speed: Refers to the rate of change of position, such as the speed of light (c), which is a universal physical constant.
• Mass: A fundamental property of matter indicating its resistance to acceleration, typically measured in kilograms (kg) or solar masses in cosmic contexts.
• Other Astronomical Units:
• Astronomical Unit (AU): The average distance from the Earth to the Sun, approximately 150 million kilometers.
• Parsec (pc): A unit used for even larger distances, equivalent to approximately 3.26 light years or 3.08 × 10¹³ km.

The correct answer is 1975.

Key Points

• India entered the space age on April 19, 1975, with the successful launch of its first satellite, Aryabhata, marking a significant milestone in the nation's scientific history.
• The satellite was named after the legendary 5th-century Indian mathematician and astronomer, Aryabhata, to honor India's ancient heritage in celestial studies.
• The project was the result of a landmark agreement between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Soviet Union, which provided the launch vehicle and facilities.
• The spacecraft was launched from Kapustin Yar, a Soviet rocket launch site in Russia, using the Kosmos-3M launch vehicle.
• Designed as a quasi-spherical polyhedral shape with 26 faces, the satellite weighed about 360 kilograms and was powered by solar cells.
• The primary mission of Aryabhata was to conduct experiments in X-ray astronomy, solar physics, and aeronomy, helping scientists study the upper atmosphere and cosmic energy sources.

 Additional Information

• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO):
• ISRO was established on August 15, 1969, with the vision of harnessing space technology for national development and planetary exploration.
• The Department of Space (DoS) and the Space Commission were later established in 1972, bringing ISRO under their administrative control.
• Visionary Leadership:
• Dr. Vikram Sarabhai is known as the Father of the Indian Space Program for initiating space research and building the foundational infrastructure in India.
• Prof. U.R. Rao served as the Project Director for Aryabhata and played a critical role in its design and fabrication within a short span of 30 months.
• Indigenous Launch Capability:
• While Aryabhata relied on a Soviet rocket, India achieved its own indigenous launch capability in 1980 with the Satellite Launch Vehicle-3 (SLV-3).
• The SLV-3 successfully deployed the Rohini satellite into Earth's orbit from the Sriharikota launch site, making India the sixth nation to reach this level of technology.

The correct answer is Agnikul.

Key Points

• Agnikul Cosmos, a space-tech startup based in Chennai, successfully launched the Agnibaan SOrTeD (SubOrbital Technological Demonstrator) mission on May 30, 2024.
• The mission featured the world’s first single-piece 3D-printed engine, named Agnilet, which was designed and manufactured entirely in India.
• The Agnilet engine is a semi-cryogenic engine that uses a combination of liquid and gaseous propellants, specifically Liquid Oxygen (LOX) and Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF).
• This launch was conducted from India's first private launchpad, named Dhanush, established by Agnikul at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR in Sriharikota.
• The 3D-printing technology used, known as Additive Manufacturing, allows the entire engine to be printed as a single component, eliminating the need for thousands of parts and joints found in traditional rocket engines.

 Additional Information

• Agnikul Cosmos:
• Founded in 2017 by Srinath Ravichandran and Moin SPM, the startup is incubated at IIT Madras.
• The Agnibaan rocket is a highly customizable, two-stage launch vehicle capable of carrying payloads of up to 300 kg to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
• Skyroot Aerospace:
• Another prominent Indian private space company that launched Vikram-S, India's first privately developed rocket, in November 2022.
• Technological Significance:
• The successful flight of a semi-cryogenic engine is a major milestone for the Indian space sector, as it is more efficient and environment-friendly than solid-fuel engines.
• The integration of 3D printing in aerospace significantly reduces the lead time for engine production from several months to just a few days.

The correct answer is ICMR-SHINE.

Key Points

• The ICMR-SHINE initiative, which stands for School Health and Health Research Infrastructure for National Education, was launched to bridge the gap between classroom science and real-world medical research.
• It specifically targets students in Classes 9 to 12, aiming to ignite interest in biomedical sciences and public health early in their academic journey.
• The program provides a structured platform for students to visit ICMR laboratories, interact with leading scientists, and observe sophisticated biotechnology equipment in action.
• By fostering a scientific temper, the initiative encourages students to understand the methodology behind evidence-based medicine and the importance of clinical research in solving national health crises.
• ICMR-SHINE also emphasizes the role of preventive healthcare, teaching students about epidemiology, nutrition, and the mechanics of disease transmission.
• The initiative is part of a broader strategy to develop a robust pipeline of future researchers, doctors, and healthcare professionals for the Indian health sector.

 Additional Information

• Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR):
• It is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research.
• Established in 1911 as the IRFA and renamed in 1949, it is funded by the Government of India through the Department of Health Research.
• ICMR manages a network of 27 national institutes focusing on diseases like Tuberculosis, Malaria, and Cholera, as well as nutrition and toxicology.
• National Education Policy (NEP) 2020:
• The ICMR-SHINE initiative aligns with NEP 2020, which advocates for experiential learning and vocational exposure in schools.
• It encourages interdisciplinary education, allowing students to see the practical application of Biology, Chemistry, and Data Science in medicine.
• Programs like these help in achieving the STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) education goals of the Ministry of Education.

The correct answer is Singapore.

Key Points

• Singapore is one of the five founding members of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), an intergovernmental organization established to promote intergovernmental cooperation.
• The organization was officially formed on August 8, 1967, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration, commonly known as the Bangkok Declaration.
• The five original member nations that signed the declaration include Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand.
• The primary objectives of ASEAN include accelerating economic growth, social progress, and cultural development in the region through joint endeavors and the promotion of regional peace and stability.
• Singapore serves as a major financial and logistical hub within the bloc, contributing significantly to the ASEAN Economic Community (AEC) and regional trade initiatives.

 Additional Information

• ASEAN Expansion and Structure:
• Beyond the five founders, the membership expanded to include Brunei Darussalam (1984), Viet Nam (1995), Lao PDR (1997), Myanmar (1997), and Cambodia (1999).
• The ASEAN Secretariat is located in Jakarta, Indonesia, facilitating the coordination of various ASEAN organs and implementation of projects.
• The motto of the association is One Vision, One Identity, One Community.
• Non-Member Countries Analysis:
• Iran and Iraq: Both are sovereign nations located in Western Asia (Middle East). They are members of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) and do not belong to the Southeast Asian geopolitical region.
• France: A major European power and a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council. While it maintains a Development Partnership with ASEAN, it is not a member state.

The correct answer is 100.

Key Points

• Dutee Chand is a celebrated Indian professional sprinter who specializes in the women's 100 metres and 200 metres events.
• As of July 2025, she remains the holder of the national record in the women's 100 metres category with a timing of 11.17 seconds.
• She achieved this landmark timing at the Indian Grand Prix IV held in Patiala, Punjab, on June 21, 2021.
• By clocking 11.17 seconds, she broke her own previous national record of 11.22 seconds, which she had established at the National Open Athletics Championships in Ranchi in 2019.
• She is the first Indian to win a gold medal in a 100m race at a global stage, achieving this at the 2019 Summer Universiade in Naples, Italy.

 Additional Information

• Career Milestones and Awards:
• She secured two silver medals at the 2018 Jakarta Asian Games, one in the 100 metres and another in the 200 metres sprint.
• In recognition of her outstanding contribution to sports, she was conferred with the Arjuna Award in 2020.
• She represented India in the Summer Olympics twice, participating in the 2016 Rio Olympics and the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• Context of Athletics in India:
• The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) is the official body responsible for certifying and maintaining National Records for various track and field events.
• The 100 metres sprint is the shortest outdoor track event and is considered a flagship event in international athletics competitions like the World Athletics Championships.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• In accordance with the official regulations established by the International Judo Federation (IJF), the standard duration for a competitive Judo match in the Senior category (for both men and women) is 4 minutes.
• The 4-minute rule represents net combat time, which means the clock is strictly paused whenever the referee calls Mate (to temporarily stop the contest) or Sono-mama (to freeze positions), and resumes only when the command Hajime is given.
• This unified timing of 4 minutes was implemented to ensure gender equality across the sport, moving away from previous years where men’s matches lasted 5 minutes while women’s matches were 4 minutes.
• In International Competition, the same 4-minute duration applies to the Junior age group (under 21), ensuring that athletes transitioning to the senior level are accustomed to the standard match length.
• If the 4-minute regulation time expires and the athletes have equal scores or no scores at all, the match proceeds into an unlimited Golden Score period to determine a winner.

 Additional Information

• Golden Score Overtime:
• There is no fixed time limit for the Golden Score phase; the first athlete to achieve any score (Waza-ari or Ippon) or the first to be disqualified by Hansoku-make (penalties) wins.
• All scores and Shido (minor penalties) recorded during the initial 4 minutes are carried over into this sudden-death period.
• Primary Scoring Actions:
• Ippon: The highest score in Judo, awarded for a throw that lands the opponent largely on their back with strength, speed, and control, or for a submission (choke or armbar) and pinning for 20 seconds.
• Waza-ari: Awarded for a throw that lacks one of the elements of an Ippon or for a pin lasting between 10 and 19 seconds. Two Waza-ari scores equal an Ippon.
• Age Category Variations:
• While senior and junior international matches are 4 minutes, certain Cadet (Under 18) and youth level competitions may occasionally utilize a 3-minute or 2-minute format depending on the specific tournament guidelines.

The correct answer is Pulls the iron strip towards itself.

Key Points

• The functioning of an electric bell is based on the magnetic effect of electric current, where a coil of wire acts as a magnet when electricity passes through it.
• The main component is an electromagnet, which consists of insulated copper wire wound around a soft iron core.
• When the circuit is completed by pressing the switch, the current flows through the coil, creating a magnetic field that transforms the iron core into a temporary magnet.
• This electromagnet immediately exerts a force of attraction on the iron strip (also known as the armature) located nearby.
• As the iron strip is pulled toward the electromagnet, the hammer attached to it moves and strikes the gong, producing the ringing sound.
• This movement also causes the strip to move away from the contact screw, which results in the breaking of the electrical circuit.

 Additional Information

• Core Components of an Electric Bell:
• Electromagnet: A temporary magnet that only functions when current is present; the principle was first observed by Hans Christian Oersted in 1820.
• Soft Iron Armature: Chosen because soft iron has high magnetic permeability and low retentivity, allowing it to be magnetized and demagnetized rapidly.
• Contact Screw: Serves as an adjustable component that maintains the make-and-break cycle of the circuit.
• Hammer and Gong: The mechanical parts responsible for converting the kinetic energy of the moving armature into acoustic energy.
• Spring Strip: Provides the restoring force to bring the iron strip back to the contact screw once the magnetism is lost, enabling a continuous ringing cycle.

The correct answer is Tanpura.

Key Points

• The Tanpura (also known as Tambura) is a long-necked plucked string instrument that serves as a fundamental accompaniment in Indian Classical Music.
• Its primary role is to provide a continuous harmonic drone or sruti (pitch reference), allowing the lead vocalist or instrumentalist to maintain svara (tonal accuracy) throughout the performance.
• In the Hindustani (North Indian) tradition, the instrument is typically crafted from Tun wood or teak and features a large dried gourd (tumba) as a resonator.
• The instrument usually consists of four, five, or six strings made of steel and bronze, which are plucked in a rhythmic sequence to produce a rich spectrum of overtones.
• The unique sound of the Tanpura is generated by the Jivari (the bridge), which is curved in a way that allows the strings to vibrate against the surface, creating a distinctive buzzing timbre.

 Additional Information

• Khartal:
• An ancient percussion instrument (idiophone) made of wood or metal clappers.
• It is primarily used in folk music of Rajasthan and Gujarat and is widely played during Bhajans and Sufi devotional singing.
• Pavo:
• A traditional double-barrel flute or wind instrument found in Gujarat.
• It is commonly used by pastoral communities like the Ahirs and requires the technique of circular breathing to produce a continuous melody.
• Pakhawaj:
• A barrel-shaped, two-headed drum that is the standard percussion accompaniment for the Dhrupad style of North Indian music.
• It is regarded as the North Indian version of the Mridangam and is known for its deep, low-frequency resonance.

The correct answer is Hydrogen and its isotopes.

Key Points

• Nuclear fusion is the process where two light atomic nuclei combine to form a single heavier nucleus, a transformation that releases a vast amount of energy due to the conversion of mass into energy according to Einstein mass-energy equivalence.
• The primary nuclei used in this process are Hydrogen and its isotopes, specifically Deuterium (²H) and Tritium (³H), because their low atomic number (Z=1) results in the lowest possible Coulombic repulsion between nuclei.
• The Deuterium-Tritium (D-T) reaction is the most widely pursued for energy production because it has a high reaction cross-section at relatively lower temperatures, roughly 150 million degrees Celsius.
• A single D-T fusion event produces a Helium-4 nucleus and a high-energy neutron, yielding approximately 17.6 MeV of energy per reaction.
• While Deuterium is abundantly found in Earth oceans, Tritium is rare and is typically bred from Lithium within the fusion reactor blanket during operation.

 Additional Information

• Uranium and Thorium:
• These are heavy elements used in nuclear fission, where large, unstable nuclei split into smaller fragments, a process currently used in commercial nuclear power plants.
• Uranium-235 and Plutonium-239 are common fissile fuels, while Thorium-232 is a fertile material central to India three-stage nuclear power program.
• Carbon and Nitrogen:
• These elements are key components of the CNO (Carbon-Nitrogen-Oxygen) cycle, a catalytic fusion process occurring in stars that are more massive than our Sun.
• Helium and Oxygen:
• Helium-3 is considered a potential future fuel for aneutronic fusion, which would produce fewer neutrons, making energy capture safer and more efficient.
• Oxygen fusion occurs naturally during the advanced stages of stellar evolution in very high-mass stars after Helium and Neon burning phases.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the BODMAS rule sequentially: Of → Division → Addition/Subtraction.

Calculate priority operations: 28 of 2 = 56 and 46 ÷ 2 = 23.

Combine all positive terms: 77 + 56 + 23 + 29 = 185.

Combine all negative terms: −33 − 17 = −50.

Net result: 185 − 50 = 135.

∴ The correct answer is 135.

Alternate Method

Given: 77 − 33 + 28 of 2 + 46 ÷ 2 − 17 + 29

Formula Used: BODMAS rule (Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

⇒ 77 − 33 + (28 × 2) + 46 ÷ 2 − 17 + 29

⇒ 77 − 33 + 56 + (46 ÷ 2) − 17 + 29

⇒ 77 − 33 + 56 + 23 − 17 + 29

⇒ 44 + 56 + 23 − 17 + 29

⇒ 100 + 23 − 17 + 29

⇒ 123 − 17 + 29

⇒ 106 + 29 = 135

∴ The correct answer is 135.

Additional Information

BODMAS / VBODMAS Rule

This rule defines the order of priority: V (Vinculum/Bar), B (Brackets), O (Of), D (Division), M (Multiplication), A (Addition), and S (Subtraction).

The 'Of' Operator

The word 'of' serves as a multiplication operator but must be calculated before any division or standard multiplication in the expression.

Group Calculation Trick

To avoid sign errors in long expressions, sum all positive numbers and negative numbers separately before performing the final subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Perform the decimal divisions directly by balancing the number of decimal places.

First term: 0.08 ÷ 0.4 = 0.8 ÷ 4 = 0.2

Second term: 0.024 ÷ 0.6 = 0.24 ÷ 6 = 0.04

Difference = 0.2 − 0.04 = 0.16

∴ The correct answer is 0.16.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: (0.08 / 0.4) − (0.024 / 0.6)

According to the BODMAS rule, division operations must be completed before subtraction.

⇒ Term 1 = 0.08 ÷ 0.4 = (8 / 100) ÷ (4 / 10)

⇒ Term 1 = (8 / 100) × (10 / 4) = 80 / 400 = 1 / 5 = 0.2

⇒ Term 2 = 0.024 ÷ 0.6 = (24 / 1000) ÷ (6 / 10)

⇒ Term 2 = (24 / 1000) × (10 / 6) = 240 / 6000 = 4 / 100 = 0.04

⇒ Final Value = 0.2 − 0.04 = 0.16

∴ The correct answer is 0.16.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

In mathematical calculations, always follow the sequence: Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Decimal Conversion

To simplify division with decimals, multiply both numerator and denominator by 10ⁿ to convert them into whole numbers.

Subtraction of Decimals

While subtracting decimals like 0.2 and 0.04, ensure the decimal points are aligned vertically by adding a placeholder zero (e.g., 0.20 − 0.04).

Shortcut Trick

Apply the algebraic identity: (a + b)² − 4ab = (a − b)².

Identify the values: a = 7.75 and b = 2.75.

Calculate the difference: (a − b) = 7.75 − 2.75 = 5.

The final result is (5)² = 25.

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression: (7.75 + 2.75)² − 4 × 7.75 × 2.75

Formula Used:

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²

Calculations:

⇒ (7.75 + 2.75)² − 4 × 7.75 × 2.75

⇒ (10.5)² − (4 × 21.3125)

⇒ 110.25 − 85.25

⇒ 25

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identity - Square of Sum

The expression (a + b)² expands to a² + 2ab + b².

Algebraic Identity - Square of Difference

The expression (a − b)² expands to a² − 2ab + b².

Relationship between Sum and Difference Squares

The identities are related as (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab and (a + b)² + (a − b)² = 2(a² + b²).

Shortcut Trick

In square root calculations, if the decimal point shifts by 2n places inside the root, it shifts by n places in the result.

Movement inside √ : 210.25 → 0.00021025 (6 places to the left).

Movement in result : 14.5 → (6 ÷ 2 = 3 places to the left).

Final Value : 14.5 → 0.0145.

∴ The correct answer is 0.0145.

Alternate Method

Given: √210.25 = 14.5

We need to find the value of √0.00021025.

⇒ 0.00021025 = 210.25 ÷ 1,000,000

⇒ 0.00021025 = 210.25 ÷ 10⁶

Taking square root on both sides:

⇒ √0.00021025 = √(210.25 ÷ 10⁶)

⇒ √0.00021025 = √210.25 ÷ √10⁶

⇒ √0.00021025 = 14.5 ÷ 10³

⇒ √0.00021025 = 14.5 ÷ 1000

⇒ √0.00021025 = 0.0145

∴ The correct answer is 0.0145.

Additional Information

Square Root of Powers of 10

The square root of 10²ⁿ is always 10ⁿ. For example, √100 = 10 and √10,000 = 100.

Decimal Rule in Square Roots

For every two decimal places inside a square root, there is one decimal place in the square root's value (e.g., √0.01 = 0.1).

Squares of Numbers Ending in 5

To square a number like 14.5, multiply 14 by 15 (210) and append 0.25 to get 210.25.

Shortcut Trick

List all Prime Numbers between 20 and 40: 23, 29, 31, 37.

Group them for faster calculation: (23 + 37) + (29 + 31).

Sum = 60 + 60 = 120.

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Alternate Method

Given: Range for prime numbers is 20 to 40.

A Prime Number is a natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.

Step-by-step Calculation:

⇒ Odd numbers between 20 and 40: 21, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37, 39.

⇒ Eliminate non-primes: 21 (3×7), 25 (5×5), 27 (3×9), 33 (3×11), 35 (5×7), 39 (3×13).

⇒ Remaining primes: 23, 29, 31, 37.

⇒ Total Sum = 23 + 29 + 31 + 37

⇒ Total Sum = 52 + 68

⇒ Total Sum = 120

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Additional Information

Prime Numbers Definition

A Prime Number has only two factors: 1 and the number itself. The smallest prime number is 2, and it is the only even prime.

Composite Numbers

Numbers with more than two factors are called Composite Numbers. 1 is neither prime nor composite.

Primes up to 100

There are exactly 25 prime numbers between 1 and 100. The sum of prime numbers from 1 to 50 is 328.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the algebraic identity: a³ + b³ + 3ab(a + b) = (a + b)³.

In the given expression, let a = 15 and b = 5, which means a + b = 20.

The expression becomes: (15 + 5)³ ⇒ 20³.

Result = 20 × 20 × 20 = 8000.

∴ The correct answer is 8000.

Alternate Method

Given: (15)³ + (5)³ + 3 × 15 × 5 × 20

Formula Used: (a + b)³ = a³ + b³ + 3a²b + 3ab² = a³ + b³ + 3ab(a + b)

⇒ Let a = 15 and b = 5.

⇒ The sum of a and b is 15 + 5 = 20.

⇒ Substituting these into the formula: 15³ + 5³ + 3 × 15 × 5 × (15 + 5).

⇒ This is exactly the same as (15 + 5)³.

⇒ (20)³ = 20 × 20 × 20 = 8000.

∴ The correct answer is 8000.

Additional Information

Cube of Difference Identity

The identity for the cube of a difference is (a − b)³ = a³ − b³ − 3ab(a − b).

Sum of Cubes Factorization

The expression a³ + b³ can be factored as (a + b)(a² − ab + b²).

Difference of Cubes Factorization

The expression a³ − b³ can be factored as (a − b)(a² + ab + b²).

Shortcut Trick

In a rectangle, the perimeter is twice the sum of its length and breadth.

Sum of (Length + Breadth) = Perimeter ÷ 2

Given Perimeter = 24 cm

∴ Sum = 24 ÷ 2 = 12 cm

∴ The correct answer is 12 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Perimeter of rectangle = 24 cm

Length (L) = 5 cm

Formula Used:

Perimeter = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Calculations:

⇒ 24 = 2 × (5 + Breadth)

⇒ 24 ÷ 2 = 5 + Breadth

⇒ 12 = 5 + Breadth

⇒ Breadth = 12 − 5 = 7 cm

⇒ Sum of length and breadth = 5 + 7 = 12 cm

∴ The correct answer is 12 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Rectangle

The total space occupied by the rectangle is calculated as Length × Breadth.

Diagonal of Rectangle

The distance between opposite corners is given by √(Length² + Breadth²).

Perimeter of Square

For a square where all sides (a) are equal, the perimeter is 4 × a.

Relationship of Perimeter and Sides

The semi-perimeter of a rectangle is exactly equal to the sum of its adjacent sides (L + B).

∴ The correct answer is 12 cm.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the nested radical expression mentally from the innermost root outwards.

√49 = 7

√(93 + 7) = √100 = 10

√(1671 + 10) = √1681 = 41

∴ The correct answer is 41.

Alternate Method

Given:

x = √(1671 + √(93 + √49))

Formula Used:

For any non-negative number a, √a² = a

Calculations:

⇒ x = √(1671 + √(93 + 7))

⇒ x = √(1671 + √100)

⇒ x = √(1671 + 10)

⇒ x = √1681

⇒ x = √(41²)

⇒ x = 41

∴ The correct answer is 41.

Additional Information

Perfect Square Identification

To find √1681, observe that 40² = 1600. Since 1681 ends in 1, the square root must end in either 1 or 9. Thus, 41 is the most likely candidate.

BODMAS in Radicals

In nested radicals, the order of operations dictates that the innermost grouping (the smallest radical) must be simplified before moving to the outer layers.

Unit Digit Rule

Numbers ending in 1, 4, 5, 6, or 9 can be perfect squares. A number ending in 1 will have a square root ending in 1 or 9.

Shortcut Trick

A number is divisible by 6 if it is divisible by both 2 and 3.

84P6 ends in 6 (even), so it is divisible by 2.

Sum of digits = 8 + 4 + P + 6 = 18 + P must be a multiple of 3.

Checking options: 18 + 0 = 18, 18 + 3 = 21, 18 + 9 = 27 are all divisible by 3.

However, 18 + 7 = 25 is not divisible by 3.

∴ The correct answer is 7.

Alternate Method

Given: The number 84P6 is divisible by 6.

Formula: For a number to be divisible by 6, it must satisfy the divisibility rules of both 2 and 3.

⇒ Divisibility by 2: The last digit of 84P6 is 6, which is an even number. Thus, the number is divisible by 2 for any digit value of P.

⇒ Divisibility by 3: The sum of the digits must be divisible by 3.

⇒ Sum = 8 + 4 + P + 6 = 18 + P.

⇒ For (18 + P) to be divisible by 3, P must be 0, 3, 6, or 9 (since 18 is already divisible by 3).

⇒ Testing Option 1: If P = 0, Sum = 18 + 0 = 18 (Divisible by 3).

⇒ Testing Option 2: If P = 3, Sum = 18 + 3 = 21 (Divisible by 3).

⇒ Testing Option 3: If P = 9, Sum = 18 + 9 = 27 (Divisible by 3).

⇒ Testing Option 4: If P = 7, Sum = 18 + 7 = 25 (NOT divisible by 3).

∴ The correct answer is 7.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of all its digits is divisible by 3.

Divisibility Rule of 4

A number is divisible by 4 if the last two digits of the number are divisible by 4 or are both zero.

Divisibility Rule of 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 9.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the net change in the total sum: New value − Old value = 10 − 30 = −20.

Calculate the change in average: Net change ÷ Total numbers = −20 ÷ 10 = −2.

New average = Old average + Change in average = X + (−2) = X − 2.

∴ The correct answer is X − 2.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total numbers = 10

Initial average = X

Old number = 30

New number = 10

Formula used:

Sum = Average × Count

New Average = (Total Sum − Old Number + New Number) ÷ Count

Calculations:

⇒ Total initial sum = 10 × X = 10X

⇒ New sum = 10X − 30 + 10

⇒ New sum = 10X − 20

⇒ New average = (10X − 20) ÷ 10

⇒ New average = 10X/10 − 20/10

⇒ New average = X − 2

∴ The correct answer is X − 2.

Additional Information

General Average Formula

The average (Arithmetic Mean) is defined as Sum of observations ÷ Total number of observations.

Effect of Replacement

When one value is replaced, the new average = Old average + (Difference ÷ n), where Difference = New value − Old value and n = total items.

Uniform Change Property

If every number in a set is increased or decreased by a constant value k, the average also increases or decreases by exactly k.

Shortcut Trick

To find the largest number that leaves the same remainder, calculate the differences between the given numbers.

Difference 1: 121 − 103 = 18

Difference 2: 139 − 121 = 18

Difference 3: 157 − 139 = 18

The required number is the HCF of these differences: HCF(18, 18, 18) = 18.

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Alternate Method

Given: The numbers are 103, 121, 139, and 157.

Formula Used: If numbers x, y, z, and w leave the same remainder when divided by a number N, then N is the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of |x − y|, |y − z|, and |z − w|.

Calculations:

⇒ First difference = 121 − 103 = 18

⇒ Second difference = 139 − 121 = 18

⇒ Third difference = 157 − 139 = 18

⇒ Required number = HCF(18, 18, 18)

⇒ Since all differences are 18, their HCF is 18.

⇒ Verification: 103÷18 (Rem=13), 121÷18 (Rem=13), 139÷18 (Rem=13), 157÷18 (Rem=13).

∴ The correct answer is 18.

Additional Information

HCF with Same Remainder

When the remainder is the same but not given, the largest divisor is the HCF of the differences between the numbers: HCF(|a−b|, |b−c|, |c−a|).

HCF with Given Remainder

If the largest number divides x, y, and z leaving remainders a, b, and c respectively, the number is HCF((x−a), (y−b), (z−c)).

Common Remainder Property

The common remainder 'r' can be calculated using any number 'n' from the set: r = n mod (HCF of differences).

Shortcut Trick

If the Cost Price (CP) and Selling Price (SP) are both increased or decreased by the same percentage, the ratio CP : SP remains constant.

Since the Profit or Loss percentage depends only on the ratio of CP and SP, it remains unchanged.

Initial Loss percentage = 10%.

Increase in CP and SP = 20% each → No change in the loss percentage.

∴ The correct answer is 10 percent.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial loss percentage = 10%, increase in both CP and SP = 20%.

Formula Used: Loss % = [(CP − SP) ÷ CP] × 100

⇒ Let the initial Cost Price (CP) = 100

⇒ Initial Selling Price (SP) = 100 − 10% of 100 = 90

⇒ New CP after 20% increase = 100 + (20% of 100) = 120

⇒ New SP after 20% increase = 90 + (20% of 90) = 90 + 18 = 108

⇒ New Loss = New CP − New SP = 120 − 108 = 12

⇒ New Loss percentage = (12 ÷ 120) × 100 = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10 percent.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Formulas

Profit % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100 and Loss % = [(CP − SP) ÷ CP] × 100. These percentages are always calculated relative to the Cost Price.

Constant Percentage Change Property

If both CP and SP are multiplied by the same factor k (which happens during a fixed percentage increase or decrease), the ratio CP : SP remains the same, hence the Profit/Loss % is invariant.

Selling Price Calculation

When CP and Loss % are known, SP = CP × (100 − Loss %) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

Convert percentage to fraction: 20% = 1/5.

If A is 1/5 less than B, then the numerator remains 1 and the denominator becomes (5 − 1) = 4.

B is 1/4 more than A.

1/4 × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Alternate Method

Given: A is 20% less than B.

Formula: Percentage more = [(Difference) ÷ (Lesser Value)] × 100

⇒ Let the value of B = 100.

⇒ Value of A = 100 − 20% of 100 = 80.

⇒ Difference between B and A = 100 − 80 = 20.

⇒ Percentage by which B is more than A = (Difference ÷ A) × 100.

⇒ Percentage more = (20 ÷ 80) × 100.

⇒ Percentage more = (1 ÷ 4) × 100 = 25%.

∴ The correct answer is 25%.

Additional Information

Percentage Base Change Formula

If A is x% less than B, then B is [x ÷ (100 − x)] × 100% more than A.

Fractional Equivalence

Common percentages to remember: 20% = 1/5, 25% = 1/4, 33.33% = 1/3, 50% = 1/2.

Successive Percentage Change

Net change for two successive changes of a% and b% is given by [a + b + (ab ÷ 100)]%.

Shortcut Trick

Loss % = [Loss ÷ (Selling Price + Loss)] × 100

⇒ Loss % = [500 ÷ (3500 + 500)] × 100

⇒ Loss % = (500 ÷ 4000) × 100 = 12.5%

∴ The correct answer is 12.5%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹3500

Loss = ₹500

Formula Used:

1. Cost Price (CP) = Selling Price + Loss
2. Loss Percentage = (Loss ÷ Cost Price) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = 3500 + 500 = ₹4000

⇒ Loss Percentage = (500 ÷ 4000) × 100

⇒ Loss Percentage = (1 ÷ 8) × 100

⇒ Loss Percentage = 12.5%

∴ The correct answer is 12.5%.

Additional Information

Profit Percentage

When Selling Price is greater than Cost Price, Profit % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Relation with Marked Price

Selling Price is also calculated as Marked Price (MP) − Discount.

Cost Price Base

Both Profit % and Loss % are always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless otherwise specified in the question.

Shortcut Trick

Use the Successive Percentage formula: Net Change = x + y + (xy ÷ 100)

Here, x = +25% (increase) and y = −40% (reduction).

Net Change = 25 − 40 + [25 × (−40) ÷ 100]

Net Change = −15 − (1000 ÷ 100) = −15 − 10 = −25%.

Negative sign indicates a decrease.

∴ The correct answer is 25 percent decrease.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial increase = 25%

Subsequent reduction = 40%

Assume the initial salary of the worker is 100 units.

⇒ First Change (25% increase): 100 + (25% of 100)

⇒ New Salary = 100 + 25 = 125 units

⇒ Second Change (40% reduction): 125 − (40% of 125)

⇒ Final Salary = 125 − (0.4 × 125) = 125 − 50 = 75 units

⇒ Net change in salary = Initial − Final

⇒ Net change = 100 − 75 = 25 units

⇒ Net percentage change = (25 ÷ 100) × 100 = 25%

Since the final value is less than the initial value, it is a decrease.

∴ The correct answer is 25 percent decrease.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Formula

For two successive changes of a% and b%, the effective change is given by [a + b + (ab/100)]%.

Fraction Method

25% increase = 5/4 factor; 40% decrease = 3/5 factor. Net factor = (5/4) × (3/5) = 3/4. A 3/4 factor represents a 1/4 or 25% decrease.

Equal Increase and Decrease

If a value is increased by x% and then decreased by x%, the net result is always a decrease of (x²/100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Work rate of R and S together = 1/24 + 1/36 = (3 + 2)/72 = 5/72 units/day.

Work completed in 8 days = 8 × (5/72) = 5/9 part.

Remaining part of work = 1 − 5/9 = 4/9.

∴ The correct answer is 4/9.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by R = 24 days

Time taken by S = 36 days

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

Remaining Work = Total Work − Work Done

Calculations:

⇒ Total Efficiency of (R + S) = 3 + 2 = 5 units/day

⇒ Work done in 8 days = 5 × 8 = 40 units

⇒ Remaining Work = 72 − 40 = 32 units

⇒ Part of total work left = Remaining Work ÷ Total Work

⇒ Part left = 32/72 = 4/9

∴ The correct answer is 4/9.

Additional Information

Time and Work Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time taken. If a person completes work in n days, their 1-day work is 1/n.

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed in the ratio of the work done or in the ratio of efficiencies when the time period is the same.

Combined Efficiency

If A takes 'a' days and B takes 'b' days, together they take (a × b) / (a + b) days to complete the work.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Chain Rule formula: M₁D₁H₁ = M₂D₂H₂

30 × 40 × 9 = M₂ × 60 × 6

10800 = M₂ × 360

M₂ = 10800 ÷ 360 = 30

∴ The correct answer is 30 men.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Men (M₁) = 30

Initial Days (D₁) = 40

Initial Hours (H₁) = 9

Final Days (D₂) = 60

Final Hours (H₂) = 6

Formula:

Total Work done is the same in both cases, so:

M₁ × D₁ × H₁ = M₂ × D₂ × H₂

Calculations:

⇒ 30 × 40 × 9 = M₂ × 60 × 6

⇒ 1200 × 9 = M₂ × 360

⇒ 10800 = 360 × M₂

⇒ M₂ = 10800 ÷ 360

⇒ M₂ = 30

∴ The correct answer is 30 men.

Additional Information

General Chain Rule Formula

For varying work and efficiency, use (M₁ × D₁ × H₁ × E₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂ × H₂ × E₂) ÷ W₂.

Inverse Proportion in Time & Work

If Work is constant, the number of Men is inversely proportional to the Time taken (Days × Hours).

Man-Hours Concept

Total effort or work is often measured in Man-Hours, which is the product of number of men and total hours worked.

Shortcut Trick

Speed ratio of A to B = 10 : 20 = 1 : 2.

For a constant distance, the time taken is inversely proportional to the speed (Time ∝ 1/Speed).

Therefore, Time ratio = Inverse of Speed ratio = 2 : 1.

∴ The correct answer is 2 : 1.

Alternate Method

Given: Speed of A = 10 km/hr, Speed of B = 20 km/hr.

Formula Used: Time = Distance ÷ Speed

⇒ Let the constant distance covered by both be D km.

⇒ Time taken by A = T_A = D ÷ 10 hours.

⇒ Time taken by B = T_B = D ÷ 20 hours.

⇒ Ratio of time taken = T_A : T_B = (D ÷ 10) : (D ÷ 20).

⇒ Ratio = (1 ÷ 10) : (1 ÷ 20) = 20 : 10 = 2 : 1.

∴ The correct answer is 2 : 1.

Additional Information

Relationship between Speed, Time, and Distance

When distance is constant, Speed₁ × Time₁ = Speed₂ × Time₂. This means speed is inversely proportional to time.

Average Speed Formula

If a person covers the same distance at two different speeds x and y, the average speed for the whole journey is (2 × x × y) ÷ (x + y).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply the value by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Speed Ratio (Usual : New) = 100 : 60 = 5 : 3

Time Ratio (Usual : New) = 3 : 5 (Inverse of speed ratio as distance is constant)

Difference in time = 5 − 3 = 2 units

Given 2 units = 18 min ⇒ 1 unit = 9 min

Usual time = 3 units = 3 × 9 = 27 min

∴ The correct answer is 27 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Reduced speed = 60% of Usual speed

Delay = 18 minutes

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Let Usual speed = s and Usual time = t

⇒ Distance (d) = s × t

⇒ Reduced speed = 0.6s

⇒ New time = t + 18

⇒ Distance = 0.6s × (t + 18)

Since distance is the same:

⇒ st = 0.6s × (t + 18)

⇒ t = 0.6 × (t + 18)

⇒ t = 0.6t + 10.8

⇒ t − 0.6t = 10.8

⇒ 0.4t = 10.8

⇒ t = 10.8 ÷ 0.4

⇒ t = 27 min

∴ The correct answer is 27 min.

Additional Information

Inversely Proportional Relation

When distance is constant, Speed is inversely proportional to Time (S₁/S₂ = T₂/T₁).

Average Speed Formula

If a person travels from A to B at speed x and returns at speed y, then Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Relative Speed

For two objects moving in the same direction, Relative Speed = S₁ − S₂. In opposite directions, it is S₁ + S₂.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Marked Price (X) = 100.

Cost Price (CP) for the person = 100 − 40% = 60.

Selling Price (SP) = 100 + 10% = 110.

Profit = 110 − 60 = 50.

Profit % = (50 ÷ 60) × 100 = 83.33%.

∴ The correct answer is 83.33 percent.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = Rs. X

Discount = 40%

Final Selling Price (SP) = X + 10% of X

Calculations:

⇒ Purchase Price (CP) = X − 40% of X = 0.6X

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = X + 10% of X = 1.1X

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 1.1X − 0.6X = 0.5X

⇒ Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (0.5X ÷ 0.6X) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (5 ÷ 6) × 100 = 83.33%

∴ The correct answer is 83.33 percent.

Additional Information

Profit Percentage

Profit % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100. It is always calculated on the Cost Price unless specified otherwise.

Marked Price and Discount

Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount. Discount is usually calculated as a percentage of the Marked Price.

Markup Percentage

Markup % = [(MP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100. It represents how much the Marked Price is above the Cost Price.

The correct answer is 'waiting for a raindrop in the drought'.

 

Key Points

• The idiom 'waiting for a raindrop in the drought' means to wait and hope for something that has very little chance of happening. (बहुत कम संभावना वाली चीज़ की उम्मीद करना)
• In the context of the sentence, the competitive world makes obtaining a government job extremely difficult, implying that the hope for success is as rare as finding rain during a severe drought.
• This idiom perfectly fits the requirement of the question as it conveys the sense of unlikely hope in a situation of scarcity.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: In this competitive world, getting a government job has become like waiting for a raindrop in the drought.

Additional Information

• Raining cats and dogs (मूसलाधार बारिश): This means to rain very heavily.
• Make hay while the sun shines (बहती गंगा में हाथ धोना/अवसर का लाभ उठाना): This means to take advantage of a favorable situation or opportunity while it lasts.
• A drop in the ocean (ऊंट के मुंह में जीरा): This refers to an amount that is very small or insignificant compared to what is needed or expected.

The correct answer is: Delicate.

Key Points

• The word 'fragile' means something that is easily broken, damaged, or destroyed; it often refers to objects that require careful handling. (नाजुक)
• Example: Please be careful with that fragile vase; it has been in the family for generations.
• 'Delicate' refers to something that is very fine in texture or structure, or something that is easily broken or damaged, making it a synonym for fragile. (कोमल / नाजुक)
• Example: The delicate lace on the wedding dress was handmade and very expensive.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym of 'fragile' is 'delicate'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Delicate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Strong (मजबूत): Powerfully built or having great physical power; the opposite of fragile.
• Example: The bridge was built with strong steel beams to withstand the storm.
• Heavy (भारी): Of great weight; difficult to lift or move.
• Example: He struggled to carry the heavy suitcase up the stairs.
• Solid (ठोस): Firm and stable in shape; not liquid or hollow.
• Example: The frozen lake provided a solid surface for ice skating.

The correct answer is promting.

Key Points

• The term promting is a misspelling of the word prompting. The root word is the verb prompt, which requires the letter p before the t. Hence, promting is the misspelt word.
• Etymologically, prompt originates from the Latin promptus, meaning 'brought forth' or 'ready'. In the English language, it functions as a verb meaning to incite, encourage, or cause an action to occur. Hence, promting is the misspelt word.
• In the context of the sentence, prompting is used as a present participle to describe the effect of prolonged droughts on the behavior of farmers. The absence of the p creates an orthographic error that violates standard English spelling rules for the mpt consonant cluster. Hence, promting is the misspelt word.

 Additional Information

• Prolonged:
• This is an adjective used to describe something that continues for a long time or is extended in duration.
• In agriculture, prolonged droughts refer to significant periods of moisture deficiency that severely impact crop yields and soil health.
• Cereals:
• These are grasses cultivated for their edible grains, such as wheat, maize, and barley.
• They form the staple diet for the majority of the global population and are highly sensitive to climatic variations.
• Diversified:
• This term refers to the process of enlarging or varying a range of products, investments, or activities.
• In the given context, diversified income streams represent a risk management strategy where farmers adopt renewables like solar or wind energy to supplement traditional farming revenue.

The correct answer is: Indelable.

Key Points

• The word 'Indelable' is the misspelt word in the given options. The correct spelling is 'Indelible'. It refers to something that cannot be removed, washed away, or erased. (अशुद्ध वर्तनी)
• Example: The mistake of writing 'indelable' instead of 'indelible' is quite common among students.
• 'Indelible' means making marks that cannot be removed, or describing an experience or memory that is impossible to forget. (अमिट/अविस्मरणीय)
• Example: The war left an indelible mark on the history of the nation.
• Hence, we can conclude that 'Indelable' is the incorrect spelling.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Indelable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Noticeable (ध्यान देने योग्य): Something that is easily seen or noticed; clear or apparent.
• Example: There has been a noticeable improvement in her health since she started exercising.
• Portable (सुवाह्य): Something that is able to be easily carried or moved, especially because of being a lighter and smaller version than usual.
• Example: I prefer using a portable laptop so that I can work from anywhere.
• Memorable (यादगार): Something that is worth remembering or easily remembered, especially because of being special or unusual.
• Example: Our family vacation to the mountains was a truly memorable experience.

The correct answer is: Destroy.

Key Points

• The word 'produce' means to create, make, or yield something through a process, growth, or effort. (उत्पन्न करना / उत्पादन करना)
• Example: The factory aims to produce over five hundred units of the new model every day.
• 'Destroy' refers to the act of damaging something so severely that it no longer exists, cannot be repaired, or no longer functions; it represents the opposite of creation or production. (नष्ट करना / विनाश करना)
• Example: The heavy storm was powerful enough to destroy the old wooden shed in the backyard.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'produce' is 'destroy'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Destroy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Manufacture (निर्माण करना): The process of making goods on a large scale using machinery and labor.
• Example: This facility is used to manufacture high-quality medical equipment.
• Generate (पैदा करना): To cause something, such as energy, profit, or ideas, to arise or come into existence.
• Example: Wind turbines are used to generate clean and renewable electricity for the town.
• Construct (बनाना): To build or erect something, typically a large structure like a building or bridge.
• Example: The engineers plan to construct a new bridge across the river by next year.

The correct answer is They drew water from the old village well..

Key Points

• In the sentence 'They drew water from the old village well', the word well is used as a concrete noun referring to a deep hole or shaft sunk into the earth to tap an underground aquifer for groundwater.
• The verb drew provides the necessary semantic context, as it refers to the act of pulling or lifting a substance, typically using a bucket and pulley system, which is the traditional method for water extraction from such structures.
• From a hydrological perspective, wells are essential infrastructure components in rural and urban settings, with archaeological records tracing lined wells back to the Neolithic period (circa 6000–7000 BCE).
• The presence of the prepositional phrase 'from the old village well' confirms the word identifies a location or a physical source of a liquid, distinguishing it from its adverbial or adjectival counterparts.

 Additional Information

• Homonyms:
• These are words that share the same spelling (homographs) and pronunciation (homophones) but possess distinct etymologies and meanings.
• Adverbial Usage:
• In the context of 'He did well in his exams', well functions as an adverb of manner, indicating that an action was performed with success, skill, or to a high standard.
• Adjectival Usage:
• In the phrase 'She is not feeling well today', the term acts as an adjective describing a person’s state of health or physical condition, typically used after stative verbs.
• Interjection/Discourse Marker:
• In 'Well, that is an interesting idea', well serves as a filler word or interjection used to introduce a statement, express hesitation, or signal a transition in conversation.

The correct answer is: Genre.

Key Points

• The phrase 'The category to which a film or series belongs' defines the classification of creative works based on shared stylistic or thematic criteria. (वह श्रेणी जिससे कोई फिल्म या श्रृंखला संबंधित होती है)
• Example: The horror genre is known for its ability to evoke fear and suspense in the audience.
• 'Genre' refers to a specific type or category of literature, art, music, or film characterized by a particular style, form, or content. (शैली / प्रकार)
• Example: Science fiction is my favorite genre of movies because I love stories about space exploration.
• Hence, it is clear that 'genre' is the most suitable one-word substitution for the given phrase.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Genre.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Family (परिवार / वर्ग): In biological classification, it is a taxonomic rank between order and genus; it also refers to a group of related people.
• Example: Lions and tigers belong to the same biological family called Felidae.
• Phylum (संघ): A principal taxonomic category that ranks above class and below kingdom in biological classification.
• Example: Humans belong to the Phylum Chordata because we have a spinal cord.
• Genus (वंश): A principal taxonomic category that ranks above species and below family, used in the biological naming of organisms.
• Example: The genus Panthera includes big cats like leopards, jaguars, and lions.

The correct answer is 'in'.

 

Key Points

• The verb 'believe' is a standard intransitive verb that requires the preposition 'in' when it refers to having faith in the existence of something.
• The phrase 'believe in' is used to express a conviction that something (like ghosts, magic, or God) is real.
• In this sentence, the speaker is inquiring about the listener's conviction regarding the existence of ghosts.
• Therefore, the correct preposition to fill the blank is 'in'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: 'Have you ever believed in ghosts in your life?'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'on' is incorrect because the construction 'believe on' is archaic and rarely used in modern English to denote existence.
• Option 3: 'to' is grammatically incorrect as it does not follow the verb 'believe' in this context.
• Option 4: 'for' is incorrect because it does not convey the meaning of trusting in the existence of something.

The correct answer is The hedges were being pruned by the gardener when the fog rolled in..

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Past Continuous Tense, characterized by the structure: Subject + was/were + verb(-ing) + object. In this case, The gardener is the subject, was pruning is the verb, and the hedges is the object.
• To transform a sentence from Active Voice to Passive Voice in the Past Continuous Tense, the following formula is applied: New Subject + was/were + being + Past Participle (V3) + by + New Object.
• Since the object the hedges is plural, it becomes the new subject and takes the plural auxiliary verb were.
• The word being must be added to maintain the continuous aspect of the original sentence, followed by the third form (past participle) of the verb prune, which is pruned.
• The phrase when the fog rolled in is a subordinate adverbial clause of time and remains unchanged at the end of the sentence to provide the necessary context.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Voice and Tense:
• Passive Voice: This construction is used when the focus is shifted from the person performing the action (the gardener) to the recipient of the action (the hedges).
• Common Errors: Using were pruned without being changes the tense to Simple Past Passive, which incorrectly implies a completed action rather than an ongoing one.
• Invalid Auxiliary Combinations: Phrases like were been are grammatically incorrect in English because been is reserved for Perfect Tenses (e.g., have been, had been), not continuous passive structures.
• Agreement: Subject-verb agreement is crucial; a plural subject like hedges always requires were rather than was.

The correct answer is Do students often visit the public library while preparing for examinations?.

Key Points

• The original sentence is an interrogative sentence in the Passive Voice of the Simple Present Tense.
• The structure for an interrogative sentence in the Simple Present Passive Voice is: Is/Am/Are + Subject + Past Participle (V3) + by + Agent?
• To convert this into the Active Voice, the Agent (students) becomes the Subject, and the Subject (public library) becomes the Object.
• The structure for an interrogative sentence in the Simple Present Active Voice is: Do/Does + Subject + Base Verb (V1) + Object?
• Since the new subject students is plural, the auxiliary verb Do must be used at the beginning of the sentence.
• The past participle visited is transformed into its base form visit to maintain the Simple Present aspect.

 Additional Information

• Comparison with incorrect options based on Tense and Aspect:
• Present Continuous Tense: The structure Are students often visiting refers to an action currently in progress. The original passive sentence is in the simple present, which usually denotes habit or general fact, not a continuous action.
• Simple Past Tense: The use of the auxiliary Did in Did students often visit changes the timeline of the sentence to the past. Tense must remain consistent during voice conversion.
• Simple Future Tense: The auxiliary Will in Will students often visit changes the mood to a future prediction or intent, which is grammatically inconsistent with the original present tense query.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The error lies in the first part of the sentence where the preposition Between is used incorrectly.
• The preposition Between is typically used when referring to two specific people, things, or distinct entities.
• The preposition Among is used when referring to a group of more than two or a collective mass.
• Since the sentence refers to the multiple advantages of citizenship (a plural group), Among is the grammatically correct choice to start the sentence.
• Therefore, the error is in part A.

Therefore, the correct answer is (1).

 

Correct Sentence: 'Among the advantages of being an Indian citizen, freedom to worship one's own god is of utmost importance for the orthodox.'

 

Additional Information

• (1) Between the advantages of – This part contains the error; Between should be replaced by Among.
• (2) being an Indian citizen, – This part is grammatically sound and correctly uses the gerund being.
• (3) freedom to worship one's own god is – This part is correct; one's is the correct possessive form for the pronoun one.
• (4) of utmost importance for the orthodox. – This part is correctly phrased, with the adjective utmost modifying importance.

The correct answer is 'with'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective 'acquainted' is consistently followed by the preposition 'with' when it means being familiar with someone or something.
• In the given sentence, it indicates that Rishabh had very little previous knowledge or experience regarding such a pace bowler.
• The expression 'acquainted with' is a standard collocation in English grammar.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 do not satisfy the idiomatic requirement of the word 'acquainted' in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: 'Rishabh was hardly acquainted with such a pace bowler in his life.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'to' is incorrect because we do not say 'acquainted to'; however, we do use 'familiar to' (e.g., The rules are familiar to me).
• Option 3: 'for' is incorrect as it typically denotes purpose or duration and does not fit the meaning of familiarity.
• Option 4: 'by' is incorrect because it usually identifies the agent in a passive voice construction, which is not applicable here.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The paragraph explores the evolution of religious thought, moving from fear to love and finally to a state beyond denunciation.
• Sentence D follows S1 because it provides a direct biblical or philosophical justification for the opening statement:
• S1 says religion begins with fear, and D reinforces this with the maxim, 'The fear of the Lord is the beginning of wisdom'.
• Sentence B follows D as it introduces a progression or a 'higher idea' that contrasts with the initial state:
• It moves the narrative from fear to the concept that 'Perfect love casteth out fear'.
• Sentence C is the third sentence as it explains the lingering nature of the initial state (fear) and how it is overcome:
• It suggests that traces of fear remain until one attains knowledge of the true nature of God.
• Sentence A is the fourth sentence because it defines that higher knowledge by contrasting human/earthly actions with the divine:
• It mentions that while Christ (as man) had to denounce impurity, God is infinitely higher and does not see iniquity or experience anger.
• This leads perfectly into S2, which concludes that 'Denunciation is never the highest', referring back to the act mentioned in sentence A.
• The logical sequence is DBCA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

Generally speaking, human religion begins with fear. 'The fear of the Lord is the beginning of wisdom'. But later comes the higher idea 'Perfect love casteth out fear.' Traces of fear will remain with us until we get knowledge and know what God is. Christ, being man had to see impurity and denounce it; but God infinitely higher, does not see iniquity and cannot be angry. Denunciation is never the highest.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes a somber scene of a man about to be executed on a railroad bridge in northern Alabama.
• Sentence C follows S1 as it begins the physical description of the man mentioned in the opening sentence, noting that his hands were behind his back and his wrists bound.
• Sentence B follows C by adding another critical detail to the man’s physical state, mentioning that a rope closely encircled his neck.
• Sentence A follows B because it provides specific details about the rope mentioned in the previous sentence, explaining that it was attached to a stout cross-timber above him.
• Sentence D is the final sentence of the sequence as it shifts the focus from the man to his immediate surroundings, describing the loose boards that provided a footing for him and his executioners.
• This leads perfectly into S2, which mentions an officer standing on the same temporary platform (the loose boards described in D).
• The correct sequence is CBAD.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

A man stood upon a railroad bridge in northern Alabama, looking down into the swift water twenty feet below. The man's hands were behind his back, the wrists bound with a cord. A rope closely encircled his neck. It was attached to a stout cross-timber above his head and the slack fell to the level of his knees. Some loose boards laid upon the ties supporting the rails of the railway supplied a footing for him and his executioners—two private soldiers of the Federal army, directed by a sergeant who in civil life may have been a deputy sheriff. At a short remove upon the same temporary platform was an officer in the uniform of his rank, armed.

The correct answer is Having completed the rigorous training program, the employees.

Key Points

• The original sentence contains a grammatical error in the formation of the perfect participle. The structure having completing is incorrect because the auxiliary verb having must be followed by the past participle (V3) form of the verb, which is completed.
• The perfect participle (having + past participle) is specifically used to denote an action that was finished before another action began. Here, the completion of the rigorous training program occurred prior to the employees feeling well prepared.
• The correct choice places the participle phrase at the beginning of the sentence. This creates a clear introductory modifier that logically refers to the subject the employees, who appear immediately after the comma.
• By restructuring the sentence this way, the syntactic flow is improved, removing the awkward parenthetical interruption found in the original sentence and ensuring the chronological sequence of events is clearly communicated.
• This correction adheres to the rules of subject-modifier agreement, where the person or thing performing the action in the participle phrase must be the grammatical subject of the main clause.

 Additional Information

• Participle Phrases:
• Perfect Participle: Formed by having + past participle. It indicates a completed action (e.g., Having finished the work, he left).
• Present Participle: Formed by V-ing. It usually indicates an action happening simultaneously with the main verb (e.g., Walking down the street, I saw him).
• Misplaced and Dangling Modifiers:
• A misplaced modifier occurs when the descriptive phrase is too far from the noun it modifies. In Option 1, the rigorous training program is the subject, which would imply the program itself felt well prepared, resulting in a logical error.
• A dangling modifier happens when the intended subject of the modifier is missing from the sentence entirely.
• Passive Voice Construction:
• Option 1 uses a passive perfect participle (having been completed), which unnecessarily complicates the sentence and shifts the focus away from the employees as the active participants.