SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 19 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic followed here is,

−84

−84 − 11 = −95

−95 − 11 = −106 (But −107 is given)

−106 − 11 = −117

 −117 − 11 = −128

−128 − 11 = −139

−139 − 11 = −150

−150 − 11 = −161

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Logic followed here is,

243

243 + 7 = 250

250 + 8 = 258

258 + 9 = 267

267 + 10 = 277

277 + 11 = 288

288 + 12 = 300

300 + 13 = 313

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

For the set 'WL, YN, BR':

For the set 'TH, VJ, YN':

Applying the same logic to the options, we check 'NO, PQ, SU':

Thus, the letter clusters NO, PQ, SU follow the same logic as the given sets.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

For the set '(OG, ME, JB)':

For the set '(GM, EK, BH)':

Applying the same logic to '(CP, AN, XK)':

In the final step for A(1), subtracting 3 results in X(24) as (27 − 3 = 24).

Thus, the group of letter clusters (CP, AN, XK) follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Logic followed here is,

−771 + 86 = −685

−685 + 86 = −599

−599 + 86 = −513

−513 + 86 = −427

−427 + 86 = −341

−341 + 86 = −255

−255 + 86 = −169

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Given that the wickets taken by five bowlers A, B, C, D and E are all different.

From the clues, we can deduce the following relationships:

1. Wickets taken by C are less than both E and B, but more than A.

→ E, B > C > A

2. Wickets taken by D are the least.

→ E, B > C > A > D

3. B has taken 12 wickets.

→ Since C has taken fewer wickets than B, C < 12.

4. A has taken fewer wickets than C.

→ Therefore, A < C < 12.

So, A must have taken fewer than 12 wickets.

Checking the options:

1. 16  → Greater than 12 × (Not possible)
   

2. 14  → Greater than 12 × (Not possible)
   

3. 20  → Greater than 12 × (Not possible)
   

4. 8  → Less than 12 ✓ (Possible)

Thus, the possible order is:

→ E > B(12) > C > A(8) > D

Thus, the possible number of wickets taken by A is 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given that there are 6 boys P, Q, R, S, T and V with different weights.

From the clues, we can deduce the following relationships:

1. R is heavier than only V and T.

→ This means the order from heaviest to lightest is:

→ _ > _ > _ > R > T > V

2. P is lighter than only S.

→ So, S is the heaviest and P is the second heaviest.

→ S > P > _ > R > T > V

3. Number of boys heavier than P equals the number of boys lighter than T.

→ Boys heavier than P = 1 (only S).

→ Therefore, boys lighter than T must also be 1 (only V), which matches the arrangement.

Thus, the final order from heaviest to lightest is:

→ S > P > Q > R > T > V

Boys heavier than T are: S, P, Q and R.

Hence, the number of boys heavier than T is 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

​KK780 : OO420 → 

AG510 : EK150 → 

Similarly,

? : TZ130 →

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

TU100 : PO150 → 

JK140 : FE210 →

Similarly,

VW120 : ?

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number − 45

For the first pair 9243 : 9198

⇒ 9243 − 45 = 9198

For the second pair 7921 : 7876

⇒ 7921 − 45 = 7876

Applying the same logic to the third pair

? : 7869

⇒ First Number − 45 = 7869

⇒ First Number = 7869 + 45 = 7914

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number − 320

For the first pair 469 : 149

⇒ 469 − 320 = 149

For the third pair 892 : 572

⇒ 892 − 320 = 572

Applying the same logic to the second pair

551 : ?

⇒ 551 − 320 = 231

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The given time is 1:10 PM.

Angle covered by the hour hand from the 12 o'clock position:

For 1 hour and 10 minutes = (1 × 30°) + (10 × 1/2°)

= 30° + 5° = 35°

Angle covered by the minute hand from the 12 o'clock position:

For 10 minutes = 10 × 6° = 60°

The angle between the hour and minute hands = |60° − 35°| = 25°

Hence, the angle between the hands is 25°.

Alternate Method

The angle between the hour hand and minute hand = $|60H - 11M| \over 2$

Here, H = 1 and M = 10.

Angle = $|(60 \times 1 - 11 \times 10)| \over 2$

Angle = |60 − 110| / 2

Angle = |−50| / 2 = 50/2 = 25°

Therefore, the correct answer is 25.

Important Points Hour hand covers 360° in 12 hours.

Angular distance covered in 1 hour = 360/12 = 30°

Angular distance covered in 60 minutes = 30°

Angular distance covered in 1 minute = 30/60 = 1/2°

Minute hand covers 360° in 60 minutes.

Angular distance covered in 1 minute = 360/60 = 6°

The watch is 6 minutes slow at 3 PM.

Rate of gain = 12 seconds per hour.

First, we convert the initial lag from minutes into seconds:

Initial lag = 6 × 60 = 360 seconds

Now, calculate the number of hours the watch needs to run to gain back these 360 seconds:

Number of hours = 360 ÷ 12 = 30 hours

To find the time when the watch will show the correct time, add 30 hours to the starting time of 3 PM:

30 hours = 24 hours + 6 hours

Adding 24 hours to 3 PM gives 3 PM the next day.

Adding the remaining 6 hours to 3 PM: 3 PM + 6 hours = 9 PM.

Hence, the watch will show the correct time at 9:00 PM.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Key Points

• According to Article 89 of the Indian Constitution, the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• In the absence of the Chairman, the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the sittings of the House as per Article 91.
• The Deputy Chairman is elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha from among themselves; unlike the Chairman, they must be a member of the House.
• While acting as the presiding officer, the Deputy Chairman possesses all the powers and duties of the Chairman, including the power to maintain decorum and the right to exercise a casting vote in case of a tie.
• It is important to note that the Deputy Chairman is not subordinate to the Chairman; they are directly responsible to the Rajya Sabha.

 Additional Information

• Speaker of Lok Sabha:
• The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lower House (Lok Sabha).
• In a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, the Speaker presides, and in their absence, the Deputy Speaker or the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha takes the chair.
• President:
• The President is the Executive Head of the Union but does not preside over either House.
• If the offices of both Chairman and Deputy Chairman are vacant, the President appoints a member of the Rajya Sabha to perform the duties of the Chairman.
• Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister is the Head of the Council of Ministers and the leader of the House (if they are a member of that House).
• They do not hold a constitutional role in presiding over the parliamentary sessions.
• Panel of Vice-Chairpersons:
• The Chairman nominates a panel of Vice-Chairpersons who can preside over the Rajya Sabha when both the Chairman and Deputy Chairman are absent.

The correct answer is Traditional songs sung during the dance.

Key Points

• Boliyan (singular: Boli) are the rhythmic folk couplets or verses that form the lyrical foundation of the Giddha dance, a premier folk art performed by women in the Punjab region.
• These songs are traditionally transmitted through oral tradition and are central to the performance, as the dancers move and clap in synchronization with the rhythm and meaning of the lyrics.
• During a performance, a lead woman typically recites the Boli, and as the narrative reaches its peak or Tappa, the other dancers join in with high-pitched vocals and vigorous movements.
• The themes of Boliyan are diverse, covering various facets of Punjabi life including social issues, agricultural cycles, family dynamics, and emotional expressions of love, joy, or satire.
• Historically, these songs served as a medium for women to voice their perspectives on domestic life, often using humor to critique the Saas-Bahu (mother-in-law and daughter-in-law) relationship or to celebrate weddings and festivals like Teeyan.

 Additional Information

• Giddha Dance Characteristics:
• It is considered the feminine counterpart to Bhangra and is known for its grace, speed, and spontaneous energy.
• The dance is usually performed in a circle, and unlike many other folk dances, it does not strictly require musical instruments, as rhythmic clapping (Thapi) provides the primary beat.
• Costumes for Giddha include vibrant Salwar Kameez or Lehengas paired with Phulkari (traditional embroidery) dupattas and heavy jewelry like Suggi-Phul.
• Musical Elements:
• While the human voice is the main component, sometimes a Dhol (drum) or a Ghara (earthen pot) is used to enhance the rhythm.
• The Boliyan are distinct from the dance steps themselves, which involve mimicking daily activities like churning milk or spinning a Charkha.

The correct answer is Lonar Lake.

Key Points

• Lonar Lake is situated in the Buldhana district of Maharashtra and is uniquely characterized as a crater lake formed within the Deccan Traps, which is a large volcanic igneous province.
• While modern geological studies confirm it was created by a meteorite impact approximately 52,000 years ago during the Pleistocene Epoch, it is categorized as a lake of volcanic origin in many contexts because it is the only known impact crater in the world formed in basaltic rock.
• The lake is endorheic, meaning it has no outflow, leading to high levels of salinity and alkalinity (pH levels reaching up to 10.5).
• It was designated as a Ramsar site in November 2020, identifying it as a wetland of international importance.
• The lake gained global attention in 2020 when its water turned pink due to the presence of Haloarchaea, a salt-loving microbial population.
• It is protected as a National Geo-heritage Monument by the Geological Survey of India (GSI).

 Additional Information

• Sambhar Lake:
• Located in Rajasthan, it is the largest inland salt lake in India.
• It is a Ramsar site and a major source of India's salt production.
• Loktak Lake:
• Located in Manipur, it is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India.
• It is famous for Phumdis (heterogeneous mass of vegetation) and the Keibul Lamjao National Park, the world's only floating national park.
• Chilika Lake:
• Situated in Odisha, it is the largest brackish water lagoon in India.
• It was the first Indian wetland to be designated under the Ramsar Convention in 1981 and hosts Irrawaddy dolphins.

The correct answer is V. V. Giri.

Key Points

• Varahagiri Venkata Giri, popularly known as V. V. Giri, served as the fourth President of India from 24 August 1969 to 24 August 1974.
• He holds the unique distinction of being the only person in the history of the Republic of India to be elected as an Independent candidate for the post of President.
• The 1969 Presidential Election was a turning point in Indian politics; although the official Indian National Congress candidate was Neelam Sanjiva Reddy, the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi supported Giri.
• Giri won the election after a famous call for a conscience vote by Indira Gandhi, which led to a narrow victory over the party's official nominee and eventually caused a split in the Congress Party.
• Prior to his full term, he served as the Vice-President of India and became the Acting President following the sudden demise of Dr. Zakir Husain in May 1969.
• He was a prominent trade union leader and served as the Union Minister of Labour, besides holding various gubernatorial positions in states like Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, and Mysore.

 Additional Information

• Neelam Sanjiva Reddy:
• He served as the sixth President of India (1977–1982) and is the only person to be elected unopposed to the office.
• He also served as the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• Zail Singh:
• He was the seventh President of India (1982–1987) and the first Sikh to hold the highest constitutional office.
• He is noted for using his pocket veto power against the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill in 1986.
• Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed:
• He was the fifth President of India (1974–1977) and the second President to die in office.
• His presidency is notably associated with the signing of the Proclamation of Emergency in June 1975.

The correct answer is Itimad-ud-Daulah's Tomb.

Key Points

• The Tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah is a Mughal mausoleum located in the city of Agra, Uttar Pradesh, and is often described as a jewel box or the Baby Taj.
• Constructed between 1622 and 1628, the monument was commissioned by Empress Nur Jahan for her father, Mirza Ghiyas Beg, who held the title of Itimad-ud-Daulah (Pillar of the State).
• It represents a critical stylistic transition in Mughal architecture, moving away from the massive red sandstone structures of the Akbar era toward the refined white marble elegance perfected during Shah Jahan's reign.
• This tomb was the first Mughal structure built entirely of white marble and the first to make extensive use of pietra dura (stone inlay) work, featuring semi-precious stones like lapis lazuli, onyx, and topaz.
• The structure is situated on the eastern bank of the Yamuna River and follows the traditional Charbagh layout, characterized by a four-fold garden divided by water channels.

 Additional Information

• Bibi ka Maqbara:
• Located in Aurangabad, it was commissioned by Azam Shah in 1678 in memory of his mother, Dilras Banu Begum.
• It is frequently referred to as the Taj of the Deccan due to its architectural resemblance to the Taj Mahal.
• Humayun's Tomb:
• Built in Delhi in 1558, it was commissioned by Empress Bega Begum and designed by Persian architect Mirak Mirza Ghiyas.
• It is recognized as the first garden-tomb on the Indian subcontinent and served as the architectural template for the Taj Mahal.
• Moti Masjid:
• The term refers to several Pearl Mosques, most notably the one in Agra Fort (built by Shah Jahan) and the one in the Red Fort, Delhi (built by Aurangzeb).
• These mosques are celebrated for their pure white marble construction and symmetrical prayer halls.

The correct answer is 12m × 8m.

Key Points

• The standard dimensions for a Kabaddi court intended for Women and Junior Boys are 12 meters in length and 8 meters in width, as mandated by the International Kabaddi Federation (IKF).
• The court is divided into two equal halves by a midline, resulting in two playing areas each measuring 6 meters × 8 meters.
• The Baulk Line in the women’s court is marked at a distance of 3 meters from the midline on both sides.
• The Bonus Line is situated 1 meter beyond the baulk line towards the end line (parallel to the midline).
• The Lobby refers to the 1-meter wide strips on both sides of the court; these areas are active only after a struggle has commenced between the raider and the defenders.

 Additional Information

• Variations in Court Size:
• For Men and Senior Boys, the standard court size is larger, measuring 13 meters × 10 meters.
• For Sub-Junior Boys and Girls, the court size is reduced to 11 meters × 8 meters to accommodate younger athletes.
• Match Duration:
• In the women’s category, a standard match consists of two halves of 15 minutes each, with a 5-minute interval.
• Men’s matches are longer, featuring two halves of 20 minutes each.
• Sitting Block:
• This is the area where players who have been 'put out' wait to be revived; for women, this block usually measures 6 meters × 1 meter and is located outside the end lines.
• Player Composition:
• A team consists of 12 players, but only 7 players take the field at the start of the game, while 5 players remain as substitutes.

The correct answer is Policy thinks tank and cooperative federalism.

Key Points

• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on January 1, 2015, through a cabinet resolution, replacing the 65-year-old Planning Commission.
• It functions as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs to the Central and State governments.
• A core mandate of NITI Aayog is to foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis, recognizing that strong states make a strong nation.
• It focuses on a bottom-up approach to economic policy-making, which is a significant shift from the top-down model followed by the previous Planning Commission.
• The institution designs strategic and long-term policy and program frameworks and monitors their progress and efficacy through mid-course corrections and impact evaluations.

 Additional Information

• Allocation of plan funds to states:
• This was a primary function of the erstwhile Planning Commission.
• Currently, the Ministry of Finance oversees the allocation of funds to states based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission (a constitutional body under Article 280).
• Controlling monetary policy:
• This is the responsibility of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), led by the RBI Governor, decides the benchmark interest rates to maintain price stability and manage inflation.
• Conducting elections:
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes.
• It was established under Article 324 of the Constitution of India.
• Composition of NITI Aayog:
• Chairperson: The Prime Minister of India.
• Governing Council: Comprises the Chief Ministers of all the States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories.

The correct answer is They provided fertile soil and moisture for crops.

Key Points

• The Kaveri River splits into several small channels before emptying into the Bay of Bengal. These channels frequently overflowed, depositing fertile silt along their banks.
• This deposition of alluvial soil was essential for maintaining the productivity of the land, providing a natural fertilizer that supported intensive farming.
• The water from these river channels provided the constant moisture necessary for agriculture, which was particularly critical for the cultivation of rice, the primary staple crop of the region.
• During the Chola period, the Kaveri delta became a hub of agricultural prosperity because the natural flow of these channels was harnessed through systematic irrigation techniques.
• To control the water flow, embankments were built in the delta region to prevent flooding, and canals were constructed to carry water directly to the agricultural fields.

 Additional Information

• Chola Irrigation Management:
• The Cholas were pioneers in water management, building massive stone dams and artificial reservoirs to store water for the dry seasons.
• The Grand Anicut (Kallanai), one of the oldest water-regulation structures in the world, was built to divert Kaveri waters for irrigation across the delta.
• Local village assemblies (known as Sabha or Ur) took an active role in the maintenance of tanks and the fair distribution of water among the peasantry.
• Agricultural expansion was a state priority, leading to the clearing of forests in the Tamil region to bring more land under the plow during the 5th and 6th centuries.
• The prosperity generated by this advanced agro-economic system provided the surplus wealth needed to build magnificent Chola temples, such as the Brihadisvara Temple in Thanjavur.

The correct answer is Ashok Khemka.

Key Points

• Ashok Khemka is a 1991-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the Haryana cadre, widely regarded as one of the most honest and upright civil servants in India.
• He is best known for his uncompromising stance against corruption, which has resulted in him being transferred 56 times over a career spanning approximately 33 years.
• Khemka gained national prominence in 2012 when he cancelled the mutation of a land deal worth 58 crore rupees between DLF and Robert Vadra, citing irregularities and violation of rules.
• He is a highly qualified professional with a degree in Computer Science from IIT Kharagpur, a PhD from the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), and an LLB degree.
• He attained the rank of Additional Chief Secretary (ACS) within the Government of Haryana before reaching the age of superannuation.
• His official retirement date is scheduled for April 30, 2025, marking the end of a tenure defined by his frequent shunts to low-profile departments due to his whistleblowing activities.

 Additional Information

• Sujata Saunik:
• A 1987-batch IAS officer who achieved the distinction of being the first woman to serve as the Chief Secretary of Maharashtra in 2024.
• Rajeev Topno:
• A 1996-batch IAS officer of the Gujarat cadre, he served as the Private Secretary to Prime Minister Narendra Modi and was later appointed as the Senior Advisor to the Executive Director at the World Bank.
• Durga Shakti Nagpal:
• A 2010-batch IAS officer known for her rigorous crackdown on illegal sand mining along the Yamuna and Hindon rivers in Uttar Pradesh, which led to a significant political controversy and her suspension in 2013.

The correct answer is Heeralal Samariya.

Key Points

• Heeralal Samariya was sworn in as the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) of India on November 6, 2023, and continues to hold the office as of May 2025.
• He is a retired 1985-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the Telangana cadre and was previously serving as an Information Commissioner in the Central Information Commission.
• The oath of office was administered by President Droupadi Murmu at Rashtrapati Bhavan, following the vacancy created by the retirement of Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha.
• His appointment is significant as he is the first person from the Dalit community to be appointed to the post of Chief Information Commissioner.
• The selection was made by a high-powered committee chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, including the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister.

 Additional Information

• Central Information Commission (CIC):
• The CIC is a statutory body established in 2005 under the Right to Information (RTI) Act to adjudicate on complaints and appeals regarding information requests.
• It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners.
• Under the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019, the tenure and salaries of the commissioners are determined by the Central Government, currently set at three years or until the age of 65 years.
• Yashvardhan Kumar Sinha:
• A former Indian Foreign Service (IFS) officer who served as the 11th Chief Information Commissioner from 2020 to 2023.
• Sudhir Bhargava:
• A retired IAS officer who held the position of the 9th Chief Information Commissioner from January 2019 to January 2020.

The correct answer is 30.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, introduced several procedural reforms to ensure the swift disposal of criminal cases.
• Section 290 of the BNSS specifically outlines the procedure for filing an application for plea bargaining by an accused person.
• According to Section 290(1), an application for plea bargaining must be filed within a strict period of 30 days from the date of framing of charge.
• This mandatory timeline is a significant addition in the new law, designed to prevent the misuse of plea bargaining as a delay tactic during the advanced stages of a trial.
• The application must contain a brief description of the case and be accompanied by an affidavit sworn by the accused stating that the application is filed voluntarily.

 Additional Information

• Nature of Plea Bargaining under BNSS:
• It is a pre-trial negotiation between the accused and the prosecution where the accused agrees to plead guilty in exchange for certain concessions.
• The provision is applicable only to offenses for which the punishment of imprisonment is for a term not exceeding seven years.
• It excludes offenses that affect the socio-economic condition of the country or those committed against a woman or a child below the age of fourteen years.
• Implementation of BNSS, 2023:
• The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita received the Presidential assent on December 25, 2023.
• The act came into force on July 1, 2024, ushering in a new era of citizen-centric and digitized criminal justice in India.
• The BNSS emphasizes forensic investigation, video-conferencing for trials, and strictly defined timelines for various judicial stages.

The correct answer is I.

Key Points

• Part V of the Constitution of India is titled The Union and represents the largest part of the Constitution, spanning from Article 52 to 151.
• Chapter I of Part V specifically deals with the Union Executive, which includes Articles 52 to 78.
• The Union Executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, the Prime Minister, the Council of Ministers, and the Attorney General for India.
• Article 52 establishes the office of the President of India, while Article 53 mandates that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and exercised either directly or through subordinate officers.
• This chapter covers critical aspects such as the election process, eligibility criteria, oath or affirmation, impeachment procedures, and the powers and duties of the executive branch.

 Additional Information

• Part V of the Constitution is divided into five distinct chapters:
• Chapter II: Focuses on the Parliament, covering Articles 79 to 122, and details the constitution, officers, and conduct of business in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
• Chapter III: Relates to the Legislative Powers of the President, consisting solely of Article 123, which grants the President the power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament.
• Chapter IV: Pertains to The Union Judiciary, encompassing Articles 124 to 147, which outline the establishment, jurisdiction, and functions of the Supreme Court of India.
• Chapter V: Governs the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India (CAG) via Articles 148 to 151, ensuring the accountability of public funds.

The correct answer is Vultures.

Key Points

• Vultures are biologically classified as scavengers, and they are famously known as nature's sanitation workers or nature's clean-up crew because they primarily feed on the carcasses of dead animals.
• They possess an extraordinary digestive system with highly acidic gastric juices (pH levels close to zero) that effectively neutralize lethal pathogens such as Anthrax, Botulinum toxins, and Cholera bacteria which would otherwise spread in the environment.
• By consuming decaying organic matter quickly, they prevent the contamination of groundwater and the soil, thereby maintaining the hygiene of the ecosystem.
• The presence of vultures reduces the availability of rotting meat for other opportunistic scavengers like feral dogs and rats, which helps in controlling the spread of Zoonotic diseases like Rabies.
• They play a critical role in Nutrient Cycling by breaking down dead biological matter and returning essential minerals to the food web.

 Additional Information

• Elephants:
• Often described as Ecosystem Engineers and Keystone Species.
• They create pathways in dense forests, dig for water during droughts, and facilitate seed dispersal through their dung.
• Apex Predators (Lion and Tiger):
• They occupy the top of the food chain and are essential for maintaining the ecological balance.
• Their primary function is to regulate the population of herbivores (ungulates), which prevents overgrazing and protects the structural integrity of the vegetation.
• In India, the Project Tiger (1973) and Project Lion are major conservation initiatives to protect these carnivores.
• Conservation Status:
• Many vulture species in South Asia, including the White-rumped Vulture and the Indian Vulture, are listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List due to poisoning from the veterinary drug Diclofenac.

The correct answer is 1969.

Key Points

• The Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR) was established in 1962 by the Government of India under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
• The committee was formed under the visionary leadership of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, who recognized the importance of space research for a developing nation.
• On August 15, 1969, INCOSPAR was superseded by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), marking a significant structural evolution to expand India's space capabilities.
• The transition from INCOSPAR to ISRO institutionalized space activities, moving beyond atmospheric research to the development of satellite technology and launch vehicles.
• This reorganization allowed India to focus on harnessing space science for telecommunications, meteorology, and resource management.

 Additional Information

• Institutional Milestones:
• 1972: The Government of India established the Space Commission and the Department of Space (DOS). ISRO was brought under the administrative control of DOS on June 1, 1972.
• Dr. Vikram Sarabhai: Known as the Father of the Indian Space Program, he was the first chairman of INCOSPAR and played a pivotal role in establishing the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS).
• First Satellite: Following the formation of ISRO, India launched its first indigenous satellite, Aryabhata, in 1975 with the assistance of the Soviet Union.
• Core Objectives of ISRO:
• The development of advanced launch systems like the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).
• Operation of the Indian National Satellite (INSAT) series for broadcasting and the Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites for environmental and agricultural monitoring.

The correct answer is IISR Surya.

Key Points

• The Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR), based in Kozhikode, has introduced IISR Surya, a specialized variety of turmeric designed to meet the specific requirements of the masala industry.
• This variety is notably distinguished by its light-coloured rhizomes, which differ from the traditional deep-orange varieties usually preferred for high curcumin extraction.
• IISR Surya was developed through rigorous breeding programs aimed at providing a consistent and desirable color profile for spice blends and curry powders where a milder aesthetic is required.
• In addition to its unique color, the variety is characterized by its high yield potential, enabling farmers to produce larger quantities to meet the high volume demands of industrial food processors.
• The variety ensures an optimal balance of essential oils and oleoresins, which are critical for maintaining the aromatic profile and flavour integrity of commercial spice mixtures.
• The release of IISR Surya addresses a niche market segment in the spices sector, focusing on the functional utility of turmeric as a base ingredient in processed foods rather than just a source of pigment.

 Additional Information

• ICAR-Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR):
• Located in Kozhikode, Kerala, it is a premier national institute under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
• It conducts advanced research on various spices including black pepper, cardamom, ginger, and turmeric to improve productivity and quality.
• Turmeric Varieties and Industry Needs:
• The masala industry often requires specific turmeric grades that do not cause excessive staining but provide the necessary earthy flavor.
• While varieties like IISR Pragati are famous for high curcumin content (around 5 percent or more), IISR Surya serves the demand for light-coloured, high-volume industrial use.
• India is the largest producer, consumer, and exporter of turmeric in the world, making the development of specialized varieties economically significant for global trade.

The correct answer is Dhaka.

Key Points

• Sachin Tendulkar created history by scoring his 100th international century on March 16, 2012.
• The milestone was achieved at the Sher-e-Bangla National Stadium, located in Mirpur, Dhaka, Bangladesh.
• He reached this feat during an ODI match against Bangladesh as part of the Asia Cup 2012 tournament.
• Tendulkar scored 114 runs off 147 deliveries, an innings that included 12 fours and 1 six.
• This accomplishment made him the first and only cricketer to record a century of centuries in international cricket, comprising 51 Test centuries and 49 ODI centuries.

 Additional Information

• Mumbai (Wankhede Stadium):
• This is the home ground of Sachin Tendulkar and the venue where he played his 200th and final Test match in November 2013. It also hosted the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup final, where India emerged victorious.
• Chennai (M.A. Chidambaram Stadium):
• Commonly known as Chepauk, this venue witnessed Tendulkar’s 35th Test century in 2005, which broke Sunil Gavaskar’s long-standing record for the most centuries in Test cricket.
• Perth (WACA Ground):
• Known for being one of the fastest and bounciest pitches in the world, it was the site of a legendary century by an 18-year-old Tendulkar in 1992 during India’s tour of Australia.

The correct answer is Washington D.C.

Key Points

• The World Bank Land Conference, formerly known as the Land and Poverty Conference, is one of the largest international events dedicated to land governance, tenure security, and sustainable land administration.
• The 2025 edition of this conference serves as a critical assembly for policymakers, researchers, and practitioners to share knowledge on using geospatial data and digital technologies to improve land registries.
• As the World Bank Group is headquartered in Washington D.C., United States, it traditionally hosts its flagship global conferences at its main offices to facilitate coordination with international financial institutions and diplomatic missions.
• The conference focuses on high-impact themes such as climate-smart land use, urban expansion, and the protection of property rights for marginalized groups, including women and indigenous communities.
• By convening in Washington D.C., the event leverages the city's status as a global hub for international development policy and economic cooperation.

 Additional Information

• World Bank Group (WBG):
• Established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, its primary mission is to provide long-term economic assistance to developing countries.
• It consists of five organizations, including the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA).
• The President of the World Bank is traditionally nominated by the United States, further cementing Washington D.C. as its operational base.
• Global Land Policy Context:
• Secure land tenure is recognized as a prerequisite for achieving multiple Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly Goal 1 (No Poverty) and Goal 5 (Gender Equality).
• The conference often reviews the implementation of the Voluntary Guidelines on the Responsible Governance of Tenure (VGGT), which set global standards for land rights.

The correct answer is Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Points

• Chakri is one of the most popular forms of traditional folk music prevalent in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir, especially within the Kashmir Valley.
• It is historically significant for its role in communal harmony, as it is performed and cherished by both Muslim and Kashmiri Pandit communities.
• The musical structure usually features a lead vocalist who narrates folk tales, epic legends, or romantic sagas like Laila-Majnu, while a chorus provides rhythmic support and repetition.
• Traditional instruments used in a Chakri performance include the Harmonium, Sarangi, Rubab, and a specific percussion instrument called the Noat, which is a spherical earthenware pot.
• It is an essential part of social gatherings, marriages, and cultural festivals, often transitioning into a fast-paced dance form known as Bach Nagma towards the end of the session.

 Additional Information

• Folk Traditions of Jammu and Kashmir:
• Sufiana Kalam: A classical music genre that entered the region from Central Asia and Persia, traditionally utilizing the Santoor.
• Wanvun: A specialized form of ceremonial singing performed by women during Kashmiri weddings and religious festivals.
• Rouf: A rhythmic folk dance performed by women during the spring season and major festivals like Eid.
• Hafiz Nagma: A classical dance form based on Sufi lyrics where the dancer performs to the accompaniment of the Santoor.
• Key Instruments:
• Santoor: A trapezoidal hammered dulcimer that is the most iconic instrument of Kashmiri classical music.
• Tumbaknaer: A goblet-shaped drum made of clay, unique to the Kashmir region and widely used in folk music.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• The Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2024 is a global benchmark that assesses the digital maturity and readiness of nations, evaluating a total of 133 economies across the globe.
• The index is structured around a holistic framework consisting of four primary pillars, which are further divided into 12 sub-pillars to provide a granular view of a country's digital landscape.
• The Technology pillar evaluates the physical and digital foundations, focusing on access (infrastructure), content (local digital services), and future technologies like Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Internet of Things (IoT).
• The People pillar measures how technology is utilized by different stakeholders, specifically individuals, businesses, and governments, to enhance productivity and service delivery.
• The Governance pillar analyzes the institutional and regulatory environment, examining factors such as trust (cybersecurity), regulation (legal frameworks for ICT), and inclusion (bridging the digital divide).
• The Impact pillar assesses the socioeconomic outcomes of digital transformation, including its contribution to economic growth, quality of life, and the achievement of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

 Additional Information

• Portulans Institute:
• The NRI is published annually by the Portulans Institute, an independent non-profit research and educational institute based in Washington D.C.
• The modern framework was redesigned in 2019 to reflect the evolving nature of digital economies, moving beyond mere infrastructure to include social impact and governance.
• Global Rankings and Indicators:
• The index utilizes approximately 54 individual indicators sourced from international organizations like the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) and the World Bank.
• Advanced economies such as the United States, Singapore, and Finland often lead the rankings due to their robust integration of technology across all four pillars.
• The 2024 report emphasizes the importance of trust and security as foundational elements for sustaining long-term digital growth in a post-pandemic era.

The correct answer is Child Rights and You.

Key Points

• The report titled 'Status Report on Child Rights in India: An Overview of the Past Decade' was commissioned by Child Rights and You (CRY) as a comprehensive desk review study to analyze the progress and challenges in the realization of child rights in India.
• The study focuses on evaluating the status of children through the lens of four key rights categories defined by the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC): Right to Survival, Right to Development, Right to Protection, and Right to Participation.
• It utilizes secondary data from significant national sources including the National Family Health Survey (NFHS), National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), Census of India, and data from the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB).
• Key findings in the report highlight critical issues such as malnutrition, infant mortality, the declining Child Sex Ratio, and the persistence of child marriage and child labor despite legislative measures.
• The report serves as an advocacy tool for policymakers and civil society to identify gaps in the implementation of the Right to Education (RTE) Act and the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS).

 Additional Information

• Child Rights and You (CRY):
• Founded in 1979 by Rippan Kapur, CRY is an Indian NGO that works to ensure all children have equal opportunities to a childhood.
• It focuses on long-term systemic change by partnering with local NGOs to address the root causes of child rights violations.
• Pratham:
• An innovative learning organization established in 1995 to improve the quality of education in India.
• It is widely recognized for its Annual Status of Education Report (ASER), which tracks children's enrollment and basic learning levels across rural India.
• Oxfam India:
• A non-profit organization that is part of a global confederation dedicated to fighting inequality and poverty.
• It focuses on areas such as gender justice, health, education, and economic justice.
• SaveLIFE Foundation:
• A non-governmental organization focused on improving road safety and emergency medical care in India.
• It was instrumental in the passage of the Good Samaritan Law in India to protect bystanders who help crash victims.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the bracket first: (31 + 27) = 58.

Perform multiplication: 58 × 2 = 116.

Group positive and negative terms: (69 + 74 + 88) − (116 + 44).

Subtract the sums: 231 − 160 = 71.

∴ The correct answer is 71.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 69 + 74 − (31 + 27) × 2 + 88 − 44

Following the BODMAS rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):

⇒ 69 + 74 − (58) × 2 + 88 − 44

⇒ 69 + 74 − 116 + 88 − 44

⇒ 143 − 116 + 88 − 44

⇒ 27 + 88 − 44

⇒ 115 − 44

⇒ 71

∴ The correct answer is 71.

Additional Information

BODMAS Hierarchy

It specifies the order of operations: Brackets first, then Orders (powers/roots), followed by Division and Multiplication (left to right), and finally Addition and Subtraction (left to right).

The Grouping Strategy

In expressions with multiple additions and subtractions, summing all positive terms and all negative terms separately before the final subtraction minimizes calculation errors.

VBODMAS Rule

The 'V' stands for Vinculum (bar bracket), which represents the highest priority, requiring any operation under a bar to be performed before parentheses.

Shortcut Trick

Follow BODMAS: solve (18 of 1) = 18, then 47 ÷ 1 = 47 and 33 × 1 = 33.

Expression reduces to: 83 − 29 + 33 + 47 − 36 + 18

Group positive terms: 83 + 33 + 47 + 18 = 181

Group negative terms: 29 + 36 = 65

Final calculation: 181 − 65 = 116

∴ The correct answer is 116.

Alternate Method

Given: 83 − 29 + 33 × 1 + 47 ÷ 1 − 36 + (18 of 1)

The BODMAS rule dictates the order: Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.

⇒ 83 − 29 + 33 × 1 + 47 ÷ 1 − 36 + 18 (Solving 'Of': 18 of 1 = 18)

⇒ 83 − 29 + 33 × 1 + 47 − 36 + 18 (Solving Division: 47 ÷ 1 = 47)

⇒ 83 − 29 + 33 + 47 − 36 + 18 (Solving Multiplication: 33 × 1 = 33)

⇒ 54 + 33 + 47 − 36 + 18 (Solving Subtraction: 83 − 29 = 54)

⇒ 87 + 47 − 36 + 18 (Solving Addition: 54 + 33 = 87)

⇒ 134 − 36 + 18 (Solving Addition: 87 + 47 = 134)

⇒ 98 + 18 (Solving Subtraction: 134 − 36 = 98)

⇒ 116 (Solving final Addition: 98 + 18 = 116)

∴ The correct answer is 116.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It is a standard order of operations where Brackets (B) are solved first, followed by Orders/Of (O), Division (D), Multiplication (M), Addition (A), and Subtraction (S).

Priority of 'Of'

The 'Of' operator is mathematically equivalent to multiplication but is always performed before any division or standard multiplication symbols in an expression.

Left-to-Right Rule

When operations of the same priority level (like Addition and Subtraction) remain, the expression should be solved from left to right for accuracy.

Shortcut Trick

Remaining work in terms of 12 men = 12 × (15 − 6) = 108 man-days.

Remaining men = 12 − 4 = 8 men.

Days for remaining men = Remaining man-days ÷ Remaining men.

Required days = 108 ÷ 8 = 13.5 days.

∴ The correct answer is 13.5 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial 12 men can finish work in 15 days. They work for 6 days, then 4 men leave.

Formula Used: Total Work = Number of Men × Number of Days (assuming 1 man works 1 unit/day).

⇒ Total work = 12 × 15 = 180 units.

⇒ Work completed in 6 days = 12 × 6 = 72 units.

⇒ Remaining work = 180 − 72 = 108 units.

⇒ Remaining men = 12 − 4 = 8 men.

⇒ Days taken by 8 men = Remaining work ÷ New efficiency.

⇒ Days = 108 ÷ 8 = 13.5 days.

∴ The correct answer is 13.5 days.

Additional Information

General Chain Rule Formula

The relation between men, days, and work is given by (M₁×D₁×H₁)/W₁ = (M₂×D₂×H₂)/W₂.

Inverse Variation

For a constant amount of work, the number of men is inversely proportional to the number of days taken: M ∝ 1/D.

Remaining Work Calculation

When people leave or join, calculate the remaining units of work by subtracting completed work from the total work capacity.

Shortcut Trick

The ratio of the areas of two squares is the square of the ratio of their sides.

Ratio of sides = √(Ratio of areas)

Ratio of sides = √9 : √16 = 3 : 4

∴ The correct answer is 3:4.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of Areas of two squares = 9 : 16

Formula used:

Area of a square = (side)²

Calculations:

⇒ Let the side of the first square be s₁ and the side of the second square be s₂.

⇒ Area of first square (A₁) = s₁²

⇒ Area of second square (A₂) = s₂²

⇒ A₁ / A₂ = 9 / 16

⇒ s₁² / s₂² = 9 / 16

⇒ (s₁ / s₂)² = 9 / 16

⇒ s₁ / s₂ = √(9 / 16)

⇒ s₁ / s₂ = 3 / 4

⇒ Ratio of sides = 3 : 4

∴ The correct answer is 3:4.

Additional Information

Ratio of Perimeters

The ratio of the perimeters of two squares is always equal to the ratio of their sides (P₁ : P₂ = s₁ : s₂).

Ratio of Diagonals

The ratio of the diagonals of two squares is also equal to the ratio of their sides (d₁ : d₂ = s₁ : s₂).

Relationship Summary

If ratio of sides is a : b, then ratio of perimeters is a : b and ratio of areas is a² : b².

Shortcut Trick

Initial Ratio of Alcohol : Water = 5 : 2

Final Ratio of Alcohol : Water = 5 : 4

Since Alcohol quantity is constant, difference in Water units = 4 − 2 = 2 units.

Given, 2 units = 15 litres → 1 unit = 7.5 litres.

Original quantity = (5 + 2) = 7 units = 7 × 7.5 = 52.5 litres.

∴ The correct answer is 52.5 litres.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial ratio = 5 : 2, Water added = 15 litres, Final ratio = 5 : 4.

Let the initial quantities of Alcohol and Water be 5x and 2x respectively.

⇒ Total original mixture = 5x + 2x = 7x

⇒ According to the question, 15 litres of water is added:

⇒ 5x ÷ (2x + 15) = 5 ÷ 4

⇒ 4 × (5x) = 5 × (2x + 15)

⇒ 20x = 10x + 75

⇒ 10x = 75

⇒ x = 7.5

⇒ Original quantity = 7x = 7 × 7.5

⇒ Original quantity = 52.5 litres

∴ The correct answer is 52.5 litres.

Additional Information

Ratio Constant Method

When only one component of a mixture is added or removed, the quantity of the other component remains constant. Always equate the ratio parts of the constant component.

Alligation Rule

It states that (Quantity of Cheaper) ÷ (Quantity of Dearer) = (CP of Dearer − Mean Price) ÷ (Mean Price − CP of Cheaper).

Mixture Replacement Formula

Final Quantity = Initial Quantity × (1 − Removed Amount ÷ Total Capacity)ⁿ, where n is the number of times the process is repeated.

Shortcut Trick

Separate integers and fractional parts: (9 + 99 + 999 + 9999) + (1/2 + 1/6 + 1/12 + 1/20).

Sum of integers = 11106.

Sum of fractions using telescoping series pattern: 1/(1×2) + 1/(2×3) + 1/(3×4) + 1/(4×5) = 1 − 1/5 = 4/5.

Result = 11106 + 4/5 = 11106 4/5.

∴ The correct answer is 11106 4/5.

Alternate Method

Given: 9 1/2 + 99 1/6 + 999 1/12 + 9999 1/20

Method Used: Grouping of mixed fractions and LCM method for fractions.

⇒ (9 + 99 + 999 + 9999) + (1/2 + 1/6 + 1/12 + 1/20)

⇒ 11106 + (1/2 + 1/6 + 1/12 + 1/20)

⇒ 11106 + (30/60 + 10/60 + 5/60 + 3/60) [LCM of 2, 6, 12, 20 is 60]

⇒ 11106 + 48/60

⇒ 11106 + 4/5

⇒ 11106 4/5

∴ The correct answer is 11106 4/5.

Additional Information

Mixed Fraction Property

A mixed fraction A b/c is equivalent to the sum A + b/c. This allows for separate addition of whole numbers and fractions in complex expressions.

Telescoping Sum Formula

The series 1/[n(n+1)] + 1/[(n+1)(n+2)] + ... + 1/[(m−1)m] simplifies to 1/n − 1/m, where intermediate terms cancel out.

BODMAS Rule

Always follow the BODMAS (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction) priority to ensure accurate simplification of numerical expressions.

Shortcut Trick

Convert the target fraction to a decimal value: 13 ÷ 18 ≈ 0.722.

Compare with the decimal values of the options:

(1) 7/9 ≈ 0.777 | (2) 5/6 ≈ 0.833 | (3) 11/15 ≈ 0.733 | (4) 17/24 ≈ 0.708.

By cross-multiplication: 13 × 24 = 312, while 18 × 17 = 306.

Since 306 < 312, then 17/24 is smaller than 13/18.

∴ The correct answer is 17/24.

Alternate Method

Given: Target fraction = 13/18

Step-by-step Comparison:

⇒ Target value = 13/18 ≈ 0.7222

⇒ Option 1: 7/9 = 14/18 ≈ 0.7777 (Larger than 13/18)

⇒ Option 2: 5/6 = 15/18 ≈ 0.8333 (Larger than 13/18)

⇒ Option 3: 11/15 vs 13/18 → 11 × 18 = 198 and 15 × 13 = 195. Since 198 > 195, 11/15 is larger.

⇒ Option 4: 17/24 vs 13/18 → 17 × 18 = 306 and 24 × 13 = 312.

⇒ Since 306 < 312, 17/24 < 13/18.

∴ The correct answer is 17/24.

Additional Information

Cross-Multiplication Rule

To compare a/b and c/d, multiply a × d and b × c. If a × d < b × c, then a/b < c/d.

Like Denominators

Fractions can be easily compared by converting them to have the same Least Common Multiple (LCM) as their denominator.

Decimal Conversion

Dividing the numerator by the denominator provides a decimal value that allows for direct linear comparison on a number line.

Shortcut Trick

The given expression is in the standard algebraic form of a² + b² + 2ab.

Using the identity: (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab.

Substitute a = 195 and b = 105.

Result = (195 + 105)² = (300)² = 90000.

∴ The correct answer is 90000.

Alternate Method

Given: (195 × 195 + 105 × 105 + 2 × 195 × 105)

Formula used: (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

⇒ Let a = 195 and b = 105.

⇒ The expression becomes: a × a + b × b + 2 × a × b

⇒ a² + b² + 2ab

⇒ (a + b)²

⇒ (195 + 105)²

⇒ (300)²

⇒ 300 × 300

⇒ 90000

∴ The correct answer is 90000.

Additional Information

Square of Difference Identity

(a − b)² = a² + b² − 2ab. This is used when the middle term is subtracted instead of added.

Difference of Two Squares

a² − b² = (a − b)(a + b). Useful for simplifying the product of a sum and a difference.

Sum of Cubes Identity

a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² − ab + b²). Used for higher power polynomial simplifications.

Shortcut Trick

The side of a square is always one-fourth of its perimeter.

Side = Perimeter ÷ 4

Side = 24 ÷ 4 = 6 cm

∴ The correct answer is 6 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Perimeter of the square = 24 cm

Formula Used:

Perimeter (P) of a square = 4 × side (a)

Calculations:

⇒ 4 × a = 24

⇒ a = 24 ÷ 4

⇒ a = 6 cm

∴ The correct answer is 6 cm.

Additional Information

Area of a Square

The total area covered by a square is given by Area = side × side = a².

Diagonal of a Square

The distance between two opposite corners is the diagonal, d = a√2.

Properties of a Square

A square is a regular quadrilateral with four equal sides and four right angles (90°).

Shortcut Trick

Perimeter of a square = 4 × Side

Given Perimeter = 40 cm ⇒ Side = 40 ÷ 4 = 10 cm.

Diagonal of a square = √2 × Side

∴ Diagonal = 10 × √2 = 10√2 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 10√2 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Perimeter of square = 40 cm

Formula: Perimeter = 4a; Diagonal (d) = a√2 (where a = side)

⇒ 4 × Side = 40 cm

⇒ Side (a) = 40 ÷ 4

⇒ Side (a) = 10 cm

⇒ Diagonal (d) = √(a² + a²) = a√2

⇒ Diagonal = 10 × √2

⇒ Diagonal = 10√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 10√2 cm.

Additional Information

Area of a Square

The Area can be calculated using the side (a²) or using the diagonal (d² ÷ 2).

Properties of Diagonals

The diagonals of a square are equal in length, bisect each other at 90°, and bisect the vertex angles.

Circumradius of a Square

The radius of the circumcircle (R) of a square is half of its diagonal: R = d ÷ 2 = a ÷ √2.

Shortcut Trick

A number is divisible by 8 if its last three digits are divisible by 8.

The last three digits of 47P6 are 7P6.

Checking the options, for P = 3, the number becomes 736.

Since 736 ÷ 8 = 92, the value of P is 3.

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Alternate Method

Given: The number is 47P6 and it must be divisible by 8.

Formula: A number is divisible by 8 if the number formed by its last three digits is divisible by 8.

⇒ The last three digits of 47P6 are 7P6.

⇒ Let us test the value of P from the given options:

⇒ If P = 1, last three digits = 716; 716 ÷ 8 = 89.5 (Not divisible)

⇒ If P = 2, last three digits = 726; 726 ÷ 8 = 90.75 (Not divisible)

⇒ If P = 3, last three digits = 736; 736 ÷ 8 = 92 (Perfectly divisible)

⇒ If P = 4, last three digits = 746; 746 ÷ 8 = 93.25 (Not divisible)

⇒ Since 736 is perfectly divisible by 8, the value of P must be 3.

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 4

A number is divisible by 4 if its last two digits are divisible by 4.

Divisibility by 16

A number is divisible by 16 if its last four digits are divisible by 16.

Divisibility by 2

A number is divisible by 2 if its last digit is an even number (0, 2, 4, 6, or 8).

Shortcut Trick

If a constant value is subtracted from every term in a set, the average of that set is also reduced by the same constant value.

Original Average = N

Value subtracted from each result = 5

New Average = N − 5

∴ The correct answer is N − 5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of results = 35

Average of 35 results = N

Constant subtracted from each result = 5

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Total number of observations

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of original 35 results = Average × Number of results = N × 35 = 35N

⇒ If 5 is subtracted from each of the 35 results, Total subtraction = 35 × 5 = 175

⇒ New Sum of 35 results = 35N − 175

⇒ New Average = (35N − 175) ÷ 35

⇒ New Average = 35(N − 5) ÷ 35

⇒ New Average = N − 5

∴ The correct answer is N − 5.

Additional Information

Effect of Multiplication/Division

If every observation is multiplied or divided by a non-zero constant k, the new average will be the original average multiplied or divided by k respectively.

Linear Property of Means

If y_i = a × x_i + b for every i, then the new mean Y = a × X + b, where X is the original mean.

Arithmetic Mean Formula

Mean (μ) = (∑ x_i) ÷ n, where ∑ x_i is the sum of all observations and n is the number of observations.

Shortcut Trick

For any set of consecutive numbers in an Arithmetic Progression (AP), the average is the middle term or the midpoint of the series.

If we add equal number of terms on both the left (previous) and right (next) sides of an existing symmetric series, the central point (average) remains unchanged.

In this case, 1 odd number is added to the left and 1 odd number is added to the right, maintaining the symmetry around the original average of 40.

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Alternate Method

Given: Average of 8 consecutive odd natural numbers is 40.

Formula Used: Average of an Arithmetic Progression (AP) = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2

⇒ For 8 consecutive odd numbers, the average (40) lies exactly between the 4^th and 5^th terms.

⇒ 4^th term = 40 − 1 = 39; 5^th term = 40 + 1 = 41.

⇒ The 8 numbers are: 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 45, 47.

⇒ Just previous odd number = 33 − 2 = 31.

⇒ Just next odd number = 47 + 2 = 49.

⇒ New set of 10 numbers: 31, 33, 35, 37, 39, 41, 43, 45, 47, 49.

⇒ New Average = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2 = (31 + 49) ÷ 2

⇒ New Average = 80 ÷ 2 = 40.

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Additional Information

Average of Arithmetic Progression

For any series with a common difference d, Average = (First Term + Last Term) ÷ 2.

Symmetric Change in Average

If k terms are added to the beginning and k terms are added to the end of a consecutive series, the mean remains constant if the terms added are equidistant from the original center.

Sum of Consecutive Odd Numbers

The sum of first n odd natural numbers is always n², and their average is n.

Shortcut Trick

Sum of numbers = (Sum of ratio parts) × HCF

Ratio = 2 : 5

Sum of ratio parts = 2 + 5 = 7

Given HCF = 11

Total sum = 7 × 11 = 77

∴ The correct answer is 77.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of numbers = 2 : 5 and HCF = 11.

Formula Used: Number = Ratio part × HCF

⇒ Let the two numbers be 2x and 5x.

⇒ Since 2 and 5 are co-prime numbers, their HCF will be x.

⇒ According to the question, HCF = 11.

⇒ x = 11

⇒ First number = 2 × 11 = 22

⇒ Second number = 5 × 11 = 55

⇒ Sum of the numbers = 22 + 55 = 77

∴ The correct answer is 77.

Additional Information

Product of Numbers

The product of two numbers is always equal to the product of their HCF and LCM. Formula: a × b = HCF × LCM.

LCM from Ratio and HCF

If the ratio of two numbers is x : y and their HCF is H, then their Least Common Multiple (LCM) is given by x × y × H.

Difference of Numbers

The difference between two numbers can be calculated by multiplying the difference in their ratio parts by their HCF. Difference = (y − x) × HCF.

Shortcut Trick

Find the LCM of ringing intervals: LCM(3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18) = 180 seconds.

Convert LCM to minutes: 180 ÷ 60 = 3 minutes.

Number of rings in 24 minutes = (Total Time ÷ Interval) + 1.

Number of rings = (24 ÷ 3) + 1 = 8 + 1 = 9 times.

∴ The correct answer is 9 times.

Alternate Method

Given: Intervals of six bells are 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, and 18 seconds. Total duration = 24 minutes.

Formula Used: Total number of times they toll together = (Total Time ÷ LCM of intervals) + 1 (for commencement).

⇒ First, calculate LCM of (3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18):

⇒ 3 = 3¹

⇒ 6 = 2¹ × 3¹

⇒ 9 = 3²

⇒ 12 = 2² × 3¹

⇒ 15 = 3¹ × 5¹

⇒ 18 = 2¹ × 3²

⇒ LCM = 2² × 3² × 5 = 4 × 9 × 5 = 180 seconds.

⇒ 180 seconds = 180 ÷ 60 = 3 minutes.

⇒ Total rings in 24 minutes = (24 ÷ 3) + 1 = 8 + 1 = 9.

∴ The correct answer is 9 times.

Additional Information

LCM of Fractions

To find the LCM of fractions, use the formula: LCM = (LCM of Numerators) ÷ (HCF of Denominators).

Commencement Rule

In problems where items start together, always add 1 to the quotient of (Total Time ÷ LCM) to account for the first simultaneous event at t = 0.

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The smallest positive integer that is divisible by each of the given numbers. It represents the first time periodic events coincide.

Shortcut Trick

From the given condition: 5 × Selling Price (SP) = 4 × Cost Price (CP).

Rearranging the terms, we get the ratio SP : CP = 4 : 5.

Loss = CP − SP = 5 − 4 = 1 unit.

Loss Percentage = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100 = (1 ÷ 5) × 100 = 20%.

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given:

5 × Selling Price (SP) = 4 × Cost Price (CP)

Formula Used:

Loss = Cost Price (CP) − Selling Price (SP)

Loss % = (Loss ÷ Cost Price) × 100

⇒ 5 × SP = 4 × CP

⇒ SP ÷ CP = 4 ÷ 5

⇒ Let Cost Price (CP) = 5 units and Selling Price (SP) = 4 units.

⇒ Loss = 5 − 4 = 1 unit.

⇒ Loss % = (1 ÷ 5) × 100

⇒ Loss % = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when SP > CP, while Loss occurs when CP > SP. Both are always calculated on the Cost Price unless specified otherwise.

Relationship between CP and SP

SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100 for loss, and SP = CP × (100 ± Profit%) ÷ 100 for profit.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is the reduction offered on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount. Discount % = (Discount ÷ MP) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Directly equating the given percentages: 50% of P + 40% of Q = 80% of Q

⇒ 50% of P = 80% of Q − 40% of Q = 40% of Q

⇒ 5/10 × P = 4/10 × Q ⇒ 5P = 4Q

⇒ P/Q = 4/5 = 0.8

⇒ Percentage = 0.8 × 100 = 80%

∴ The correct answer is 80%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage of P = 50%

Percentage of Q added = 40%

Resultant percentage = 80% of Q

Formula Used:

Percentage of X in terms of Y = (X / Y) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ (50/100) × P + (40/100) × Q = (80/100) × Q

⇒ 0.5 × P + 0.4 × Q = 0.8 × Q

⇒ 0.5 × P = 0.8 × Q − 0.4 × Q

⇒ 0.5 × P = 0.4 × Q

⇒ P / Q = 0.4 / 0.5

⇒ P / Q = 4 / 5

⇒ Percentage = (4 / 5) × 100

⇒ Percentage = 80%

∴ The correct answer is 80%.

Additional Information

Percentage Basics

Percentage means per hundred. To convert a fraction a/b to a percentage, multiply it by 100. Example: 1/4 × 100 = 25%.

Equation Balancing

When solving for two variables like P and Q, group similar terms on one side of the equation to find their ratio.

Decimal and Percentage Equivalence

Always remember standard conversions: 50% = 0.5, 40% = 0.4, 80% = 0.8, and 100% = 1.0.

Shortcut Trick

When the total cost and total sales are equal, the price is inversely proportional to the quantity.

Quantity Ratio (CP : SP) = 15 : 20 = 3 : 4.

Price Ratio (CP : SP) = 20 : 15 = 4 : 3.

Loss = CP − SP = 4 − 3 = 1 unit.

Ratio of (Loss : CP) = 1 : 4.

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 4.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) of 15 articles = ₹182.

Selling Price (SP) of 20 articles = ₹182.

Formula Used:

Loss = CP − SP

Ratio = Loss / CP

Calculations:

⇒ Cost Price (CP) of 1 article = 182 / 15

⇒ Selling Price (SP) of 1 article = 182 / 20

⇒ Loss = CP − SP = (182 / 15) − (182 / 20)

⇒ Loss = 182 × [(20 − 15) / (15 × 20)] = 182 × [5 / 300] = 182 / 60

⇒ Required Ratio = (Loss of 1 article) / (CP of 1 article)

⇒ Ratio = (182 / 60) ÷ (182 / 15)

⇒ Ratio = (182 / 60) × (15 / 182) = 15 / 60 = 1 / 4

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 4.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Percentage

Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 and Loss% = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100. Both are always calculated on the Cost Price unless specified otherwise.

Inverse Quantity Rule

If the CP of x articles is equal to the SP of y articles, then the ratio of CP : SP = y : x. This is because the price per item is inversely proportional to the quantity for a fixed total sum.

Selling Price Calculation

SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) / 100 or SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) / 100.

Shortcut Trick

Work rate of 1 Man = 1/(3×12) = 1/36, 1 Woman = 1/32, 1 Boy = 1/108.

Combined efficiency = (6/36) + (8/32) + (12/108)

⇒ Efficiency = 1/6 + 1/4 + 1/9 = (6 + 9 + 4) / 36 = 19/36.

Time taken = 1 ÷ (19/36) = 36/19 days.

∴ The correct answer is 36/19 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by 3 men = 12 days ⇒ 1 Man = 36 days.

Time taken by 4 women = 8 days ⇒ 1 Woman = 32 days.

Time taken by 6 boys = 18 days ⇒ 1 Boy = 108 days.

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total Efficiency of (6 Men + 8 Women + 12 Boys) = (6 × 24) + (8 × 27) + (12 × 8)

⇒ Total Efficiency = 144 + 216 + 96 = 456

⇒ Time taken = Total Work ÷ Total Efficiency = 864 ÷ 456

⇒ Time taken = 36/19 days.

∴ The correct answer is 36/19 days.

Additional Information

Work Rate Principle

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time. If a person completes work in D days, their one-day work (efficiency) is 1/D.

Combined Efficiency

When multiple groups work together, their individual efficiencies are added to find the total rate of work: Total Efficiency = Σ (n_i × e_i).

Man-Day Concept

The total work can be expressed as the product of the number of workers, the time taken, and their efficiency (M × D × E = Constant).

Shortcut Trick

Since the speed is the same for both distances, we can combine them.

Total Distance = 36 + 42 = 78 km

Total Time = 6 hr

Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time = 78 ÷ 6 = 13 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 13 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given: First Distance (d₁) = 36 km, Second Distance (d₂) = 42 km, Total Time (T) = 6 hr.

Formula Used: Speed (s) = Distance ÷ Time

⇒ Let the speed of the car be s km/hr.

⇒ Time taken for first distance = 36 ÷ s

⇒ Time taken for second distance = 42 ÷ s

⇒ According to the question: (36 ÷ s) + (42 ÷ s) = 6

⇒ (36 + 42) ÷ s = 6

⇒ 78 ÷ s = 6

⇒ s = 78 ÷ 6 = 13 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 13 km/hr.

Additional Information

Basic Relation

Speed, distance, and time are related by the formula: Distance = Speed × Time.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply the speed by 5/18. Conversely, to convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Average Speed

For a total journey involving multiple segments, Average Speed = Total Distance Traveled ÷ Total Time Taken.

The correct answer is 'Option (1)' i.e. To speak with great rapidity, volume, and/or intensity.

Key Points

• The idiom 'talk a blue streak' means to speak very rapidly and without stopping for a long time. (बहुत तेज़ी से और लगातार बोलना)
• Example: My aunt can talk a blue streak when she starts discussing her garden and all the plants she is growing.
• The phrase 'to speak with great rapidity, volume, and/or intensity' correctly captures the essence of the idiom, which emphasizes the speed and continuous nature of the speech. (बहुत तेज़ी, ज़ोर और/या तीव्रता के साथ बोलना)
• Example: The witness began to talk a blue streak as soon as the lawyer finished asking the question.
• Hence, we can conclude that the meaning of the given idiom is to speak very quickly and with high energy.

Therefore, the correct answer is- To speak with great rapidity, volume, and/or intensity.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To use profane language (अपशब्दों या अश्लील भाषा का प्रयोग करना): This refers to using words that are offensive or show a lack of respect for sacred things.
• Example: The player was removed from the game for using profane language against the referee.
• Enjoying a series of concurrent fortunate outcomes (लगातार सौभाग्यशाली परिणामों का आनंद लेना): This refers to experiencing a 'winning streak' or a period of continuous good luck.
• Example: After winning three matches in a row, the team is enjoying a series of concurrent fortunate outcomes.
• To have a series of concurrent fortunate occurrences (लगातार सौभाग्यशाली घटनाओं का होना): This is similar to a 'stroke of luck' or having a period where everything goes right.
• Example: It was a series of concurrent fortunate occurrences that led to him finding his lost wallet and winning the lottery on the same day.

The correct answer is: Terrible.

Key Points

• The word 'dreadful' refers to something that is extremely bad, serious, or unpleasant; it often describes something that causes fear or distress. (भयानक/बहुत खराब)
• Example: The dreadful storm caused significant damage to the coastal villages.
• 'Terrible' is a word used to describe something of very poor quality or something that is extremely unpleasant and distressing. It is the most appropriate synonym for dreadful. (भयानक/डरावना)
• Example: I had a terrible experience at the restaurant because the service was so slow.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'dreadful' is 'terrible'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Terrible.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Wonderful (अद्भुत): Inspiring delight, pleasure, or admiration; extremely good.
• Example: The view from the top of the mountain was absolutely wonderful.
• Pleasant (सुखद): Giving a sense of happy satisfaction or enjoyment.
• Example: We spent a pleasant afternoon walking through the botanical gardens.
• Happy (खुश): Feeling or showing pleasure or contentment.
• Example: She was extremely happy to receive the award for her hard work.

The correct answer is: subteranean.

Key Points

• The word 'subteranean' is a misspelt word; it refers to the concept of being existing, occurring, or situated under the earth's surface, but it lacks the double 'r' required for the correct spelling. (भूमिगत)
• Example: The researchers found evidence of a subteranean river system beneath the arid desert.
• The correct word is 'subterranean', which is an adjective describing something located or operating beneath the ground. (भूमिगत)
• Example: The city is famous for its extensive subterranean network of catacombs and tunnels.
• Hence, we can conclude that the spelling in option 4 is incorrect as the standard English spelling includes two 'r's.

Therefore, the correct answer is: subteranean.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• succession (उत्तराधिकार/क्रम): The action or process of inheriting a title, office, or property, or a number of people or things following one after another.
• Example: The queen's eldest son is first in the line of succession to the throne.
• Superfluous (अनावश्यक/फालतू): Being more than is sufficient or required; excessive or unnecessary.
• Example: The modern architect believes that any decoration on a building is superfluous.
• Sycophantic (चापलूसी भरा): Behaving in an obsequious way in order to gain advantage; praising powerful people in an insincere way.
• Example: The director was surrounded by sycophantic assistants who agreed with every word he said.

The correct answer is: Withdraw.

Key Points

• The word 'deposit' refers to the act of putting something down in a specific place or placing money in a bank account or financial institution. (जमा करना)
• Example: She went to the bank to deposit her paycheck after work.
• 'Withdraw' is the opposite of 'deposit'; it means to take money out of an account or to remove something from a specific place. (निकालना)
• Example: I need to withdraw some cash from the ATM to pay for the groceries.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'deposit' is 'withdraw'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Withdraw.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Drop (गिराना): To let or make something fall vertically.
• Example: Be careful not to drop the phone on the hard floor.
• Store (संग्रहित करना): To keep or accumulate something for future use.
• Example: You should store the medicines in a cool, dry place.
• Save (बचाना): To keep safe or rescue; also means to keep money for future use rather than spending it.
• Example: If you save a little money every month, you can afford a vacation next year.

The correct answer is Option (1) i.e. Tranquility.

Key Points

• The word 'Disturbance' refers to the interruption of a settled and peaceful condition; a state of being disrupted or a lack of order. (अशांति / बाधा)
• Example: The loud music from the neighbor's party caused a significant disturbance late at night.
• 'Tranquility' refers to the quality or state of being tranquil; a condition of peace, calm, and quiet. (शांति)
• Example: Many people visit the mountains to enjoy the tranquility and escape the noise of the city.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym (opposite) of 'Disturbance' is 'Tranquility'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Tranquility.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Disorder (अव्यवस्था): A state of confusion or a complete lack of organization.
• Example: The library was in a state of disorder after the books were moved.
• Chaos (अराजकता): A state of extreme confusion and disorder.
• Example: The sudden cancellation of flights led to chaos at the airport.
• Interruption (अवरोध): The action of stopping or breaking the continuity of something.
• Example: I am sorry for the interruption, but there is an urgent phone call for you.

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. Epiphany.

Key Points

• The phrase 'a sudden, intuitive perception or insight into reality' refers to a moment of sudden and great revelation or realization of the truth. (अचानक होने वाला बोध या वास्तविकता की अंतर्दृष्टि)
• Example: The philosopher experienced a sudden, intuitive perception that changed his entire worldview.
• 'Epiphany' is a word that describes a moment when you suddenly feel that you understand, or become conscious of, something that is very important. (साक्षात्कार)
• Example: During his morning walk, the scientist had a sudden epiphany about the solution to the mathematical problem.
• Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitute for 'a sudden, intuitive perception or insight into reality' is 'epiphany'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (4) i.e. Epiphany.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Umbrage (नाराजगी या अपमान): Offense or annoyance taken at a perceived slight or insult.
• Example: The manager took umbrage at the suggestion that he was being unfair to his employees.
• Ignominy (सार्वजनिक अपमान या बदनामी): Public shame or disgrace, often resulting from a shameful action.
• Example: The politician had to endure the ignominy of being arrested in front of the media.
• Antipathy (घृणा या विद्वेष): A deep-seated feeling of dislike or a strong aversion towards someone or something.
• Example: There has always been a strong antipathy between the two rival gangs in the city.

The correct answer is 'In case of'.

Key Points

• The prepositional phrase 'In case of' is used to provide instructions or advice on what should be done if a particular situation, especially an emergency, occurs.
• In this context, calling the fire brigade is the necessary action to take if a fire breaks out.
• It functions similarly to an if-clause (e.g., 'If there is a fire...').

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: 'In case of fire, you must call the fire brigade at once.'

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'By dint of' means 'by means of' or 'as a result of' often referring to effort or force (e.g., He succeeded by dint of hard work).
• Option 2: 'According to' is used to indicate that something is being stated on the authority of someone else or based on a specific source.
• Option 4: 'On the occasion of' is used to refer to a special event, ceremony, or celebration (e.g., On the occasion of her birthday).

The correct answer is A gourmet meal is being prepared by the chef for the gala tonight..

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Present Continuous Tense, indicated by the auxiliary verb is followed by the present participle form of the verb preparing.
• The standard rule for converting Present Continuous Tense from active to Passive Voice follows the structure: New Subject + is/am/are + being + Past Participle (V3) + by + New Object.
• The Object of the active sentence, a gourmet meal, transitions to the Subject position in the passive sentence.
• Because a gourmet meal is a singular noun, the auxiliary verb is is used, followed by the marker being to preserve the continuous nature of the action.
• The Past Participle of the verb prepare is prepared, which is used to satisfy the passive construction requirements.
• The Subject of the active sentence, The chef, becomes the Agent in the passive sentence and is introduced by the preposition by.
• The adverbial phrase for the gala tonight remains intact as it describes the temporal and situational context of the action.

 Additional Information

• The distinction between different tenses in Passive Voice is crucial for selection:
• Simple Present Passive: Uses is/am/are + V3 (e.g., is prepared). It is typically used for facts or habits.
• Past Continuous Passive: Uses was/were + being + V3 (e.g., was being prepared). It describes an interrupted or ongoing action in the past.
• Present Perfect Passive: Uses has/have + been + V3 (e.g., has been prepared). It indicates an action completed at an indefinite time in the past with current relevance.

The correct answer is Is a book signing event being organised by the publishers for the new author?.

Key Points

• The given sentence is an interrogative sentence in the Present Continuous Tense.
• The structure for an active voice sentence in the present continuous interrogative form is: Is/Am/Are + Subject + Present Participle (V-ing) + Object?.
• When converting this to Passive Voice, the structure changes to: Is/Am/Are + New Subject (the original object) + being + Past Participle (V3) + by + New Object (the original subject)?.
• The object of the active sentence is a book signing event. As this is a singular noun, the auxiliary verb Is remains appropriate for the start of the passive sentence.
• The verb organising must be converted into the passive continuous form, which is being organised.
• The original subject the publishers becomes the agent of the action, introduced by the preposition by.
• Following these grammatical rules, the construction becomes: Is (Auxiliary) + a book signing event (New Subject) + being organised (Passive Verb) + by the publishers (Agent) + for the new author (Recipient phrase).

 Additional Information

• Distinctions between incorrect transformations:
• Tense Consistency: Passive voice must always maintain the original tense. Using Was shifts the sentence into the Past Continuous, which is grammatically incorrect for this context.
• Being vs. Been: The word being is used for continuous tenses, while been is used for perfect tenses (e.g., Has a book signing event been organised?).
• Logical Meaning: The passive voice should not alter the logical relationship between the actors; the publishers are the ones performing the action, not the author.

The correct answer is Don't repeat this mistake..

Key Points

• The provided sentence 'Let this mistake not be repeated' is in the Passive Voice and follows the structure of a Negative Imperative Sentence.
• In Passive Voice, the construction for imperative sentences typically begins with Let, followed by the Object, then 'not' (for negative), the auxiliary be, and the Past Participle (V3) form of the verb.
• To convert this into the Active Voice, the sentence must start with the Imperative Verb or the negative marker Do not (Don't) because the subject 'You' is understood and omitted in such commands.
• The conversion follows the formula: Do not / Don't + Verb (Base Form) + Object.
• Identifying the components: The object is 'this mistake' and the principal verb is 'repeat'. Combining these according to the active voice rule results in 'Don't repeat this mistake'.

 Additional Information

• Voice Transformation Rules:
• Imperative Sentences: These express orders, requests, or advice. In the Active Voice, they usually begin with a verb. Example: 'Shut the door' (Active) becomes 'Let the door be shut' (Passive).
• Prohibitions: For sentences intended to stop an action, the Active Voice uses Do not or Don't. The corresponding Passive Voice uses the structure Let + Object + not + be + V3.
• Tense Consistency: Imperative sentences do not typically use modal auxiliaries like will or won't in their standard form, as those indicate the Future Indefinite Tense rather than an immediate command or prohibition.
• Subject-Verb Relationship: In the active form, the implied subject You is the agent performing the action of 'repeating'. In the passive form, the focus shifts to the Object (the mistake) receiving the action.

The correct answer is 'for'.

Key Points

• The adjective 'anxious' takes the preposition 'for' when it means 'strongly desiring' or 'eager for' something.
• In the given sentence, the context implies a strong desire or eager anticipation for a happy and enjoyable weekend.
• When 'anxious' is used to express eagerness toward a noun phrase (a very happy and enjoyable weekend), 'for' is the grammatically correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

Complete Sentence: "They are anxious for a very happy and enjoyable weekend."

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'about' is used with 'anxious' when it means 'worried' or 'nervous' (e.g., anxious about the exam).
• Option 2: 'to' is used with 'anxious' followed by a verb in the infinitive form (e.g., anxious to meet you).
• Option 4: 'at' is not a standard preposition used with 'anxious' in this context.

The correct answer is consistent with the facts presented earlier.

Key Points

• The sentence requires the correct adjectival collocation and prepositional usage for the word consistent.
• In English grammar, the adjective consistent is idiomatic and must be followed by the preposition with to indicate agreement, harmony, or compatibility between two or more elements.
• The phrase consistent with implies that the witness's statement does not contradict or vary from the facts already established in the court.
• The original phrase 'consistent to' is grammatically incorrect as consistent does not take the preposition to when used to show alignment between statements and evidence.
• The past participle presented is correctly used to modify facts, indicating that the presentation of evidence occurred at a prior time relative to the witness's statement.

 Additional Information

• Consistent with:
• Function: It acts as an adjective phrase describing a state of being congruent or in line with a standard or previous occurrence.
• Example: The defendant's alibi was not consistent with the forensic evidence found at the scene.
• Common Prepositional Errors:
• Consistent on: Incorrect; the preposition on is generally used to denote thematic focus (e.g., 'consistent on the issue') rather than structural alignment between two statements.
• Consistent of: Often confused with the phrasal verb consist of (meaning 'to be composed of'). However, consistent is an adjective and does not utilize of to express compatibility.
• Verb Tense and Form:
• The use of the auxiliary verb was and the adverb earlier necessitates a past participle (presented) to function as a reduced relative clause (facts which were presented). Option 3 uses present, which fails to maintain the past tense narrative.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes the character of Mr. Appin and the surprising reveal of his discovery, moving from his mundane exterior to a world-altering claim.
• Sentence B follows S1 as it directly elaborates on the lack of cleverness mentioned in the first sentence:
• 'He was neither a wit nor a croquet champion, a hypnotic force nor a begetter of amateur theatricals.'
• Sentence D follows B because it continues the negative description using a parallel structure ('Neither did...') and shifts the focus to his exterior:
• 'Neither did his exterior suggest the sort of man in whom women are willing to pardon a generous measure of mental deficiency.'
• Sentence A is the third sentence as it identifies the character as Mr. Appin and concludes the description of his ordinary and unimpressive persona:
• 'He had subsided into mere Mr. Appin, and the Cornelius seemed a piece of transparent baptismal bluff.'
• Sentence C is the fourth sentence because it introduces the sudden claim of a major discovery, creating a sharp contrast with the previous description:
• 'And now he was claiming to have launched on the world a discovery beside which the invention of gunpowder, of the printing-press, and of steam locomotion were inconsiderable trifles.'
• This discovery is the referent for 'this thing' in S2, which describes the discovery as more of a miracle than a scientific achievement.
• The correct sequence is BDAC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'Until tea-time that day she had been unable to discover in what direction, if any, his cleverness lay. He was neither a wit nor a croquet champion, a hypnotic force nor a begetter of amateur theatricals. Neither did his exterior suggest the sort of man in whom women are willing to pardon a generous measure of mental deficiency. He had subsided into mere Mr. Appin, and the Cornelius seemed a piece of transparent baptismal bluff. And now he was claiming to have launched on the world a discovery beside which the invention of gunpowder, of the printing-press, and of steam locomotion were inconsiderable trifles. Science had made bewildering strides in many directions during recent decades, but this thing seemed to belong to the domain of miracle rather than to scientific achievement.'

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes the internal conflict and moral dilemma of Bateman Hunter during a journey.
• Sentence S1 is the first sentence and establishes the initial state of the protagonist:
• 'Bateman Hunter slept badly.'
• Sentence B follows S1 as it provides the chronological context for his restlessness, detailing his long journey and the mental preparation of a story he intends to tell:
• 'For a fortnight on the boat that brought him from Tahiti to San Francisco he had been thinking of the story he had to tell, and for three days on the train he had repeated to himself the words in which he meant to tell it.'
• Sentence A is the third sentence because it shifts the focus to the imminent arrival in Chicago and the sudden onset of doubts that replace his prepared words:
• 'But in a few hr now he would be in Chicago, and doubts assailed him.'
• Sentence D is the fourth sentence as it explains the nature of those doubts by identifying the source as his sensitive conscience:
• 'His conscience, always very sensitive, was not at ease.'
• Sentence C is the fifth sentence because it elaborates on the specific moral struggle within his conscience, contrasting his interest with his quixotry (idealism):
• 'He was uncertain that he had done all that was possible... and the thought was disturbing that... he had allowed his interest to prevail over his quixotry.'
• Sentence S2 is the final sentence, concluding the thought by reflecting on how the protagonist's desire for self-sacrifice (quixotry) and his inability to act on it led to disillusion.
• The correct sequence is BADC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'Bateman Hunter slept badly. For a fortnight on the boat that brought him from Tahiti to San Francisco he had been thinking of the story he had to tell, and for three days on the train he had repeated to himself the words in which he meant to tell it. But in a few hr now he would be in Chicago, and doubts assailed him. His conscience, always very sensitive, was not at ease. He was uncertain that he had done all that was possible, it was on his honour to do much more than the possible, and the thought was disturbing that, in a matter which so nearly touched his own interest, he had allowed his interest to prevail over his quixotry. Self-sacrifice appealed so keenly to his imagination that the inability to exercise it gave him a sense of disillusion.'