SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 19 May, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is,

28431 ÷ 3 = 9477

9477 ÷ 3 = 3159

3159 ÷ 3 = 1053

1053 ÷ 3 = 351

351 ÷ 3 = 117

117 ÷ 3 = 39

39 ÷ 3 = 13

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4';

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is**,**

−128 + 125 = −3

−3 + 125 = 122

122 + 125 = 247

247 + 125 = 372

372 + 125 = 497

497 + 125 = 622

622 + 125 = 747 ≠ 745

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

995 − 19 = 976

976 − 21 = 955

955 − 23 = 932 ≠ 929

932 − 25 = 907

907 − 27 = 880

880 − 29 = 851

851 − 31 = 820

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

5 persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. A is sitting fourth to the right of C.
2. B is sitting second to the right of C.
3. D is sitting to the immediate left of B.

There is no person sitting between E and A.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

7 women A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. F is second to the right of C.
2. A is third to the left of C.
3. G is third to the left of F.
4. D is not next to F.
5. B is not next to A.

E is sitting to the immediate right of F.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

7 boys A, B, C, D, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. B is not the immediate neighbour of X.
2. C is fifth to the left of D.
3. C is the immediate neighbour of B and Y.
4. A is the immediate neighbour of Z and D. 

X and Y are immediate neighbours of each other

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The portion of the tank filled in 1 hour = 1 / 6

To find the portion filled in 2 hours, we multiply the 1-hour rate by 2:

Portion filled = (1 / 6) × 2

Portion filled = 2 / 6

On simplifying the fraction by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor (2):

2 ÷ 2 = 1

6 ÷ 2 = 3

Simplified portion = 1 / 3

Thus, 1/3 of the tank is filled in 2 hours.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 55

For the first pair 7650 : 7705

⇒ 7650 + 55 = 7705.

Applying the same logic to the third pair

1123 : 1178

⇒ 1123 + 55 = 1178.

Similarly, for the second pair

8436 : ?

⇒ 8436 + 55 = 8491.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 34

For the first pair 8209 : 8243

⇒ 8209 + 34 = 8243

For the third pair 301 : 335

⇒ 301 + 34 = 335

Applying the same logic to the second pair

8433 : ?

⇒ 8433 + 34 = 8467

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

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'LAMP' is coded as 'NDJK'

'PIKE' is coded as 'RLHZ'

Similarly,

'ENVY' be coded as,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The required time is between 1 AM and 2 AM.

At 1:00 AM, the minute hand is at 0 minutes (0°) and the hour hand is at 5 minutes (30°).

Initial angle between the hands = 300

To have an angle of 60°, the minute hand must cover the initial 300 gap to overlap with the hour hand and then gain an additional 600 to reach the required position.

Total relative angular distance to be covered = 30 + 60 = 900

Time taken = Relative distance ÷ Relative speed

Time = 90 ÷ 5.5 = 180/11 minutes

Time ≈ 16.36 minutes

Hence, the time is approximately 1:16 AM.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

 

Alternate Method

The angle between the hour hand and minute hand = $|60H - 11M|\over 2$

Where, H = hour and M = minutes.

Given H = 1 and Angle = 60°.

So, 60 = $|60 \times 1 - 11 \times M|\over 2$

120 = |60 − 11M|

To find the time after the hands cross each other:

120 = 11M − 60

11M = 180 ⇒ M = 180/11

M ≈ 16.36

Therefore, the correct answer is 1:16

Important Points 

​Hour hand covers 3600 in 12 hours

Angular distance covered by the hour hand in 1 hour = 360/12 = 300

Angular distance covered by the hour hand in 1 minute = 30/60 = 0.50

Angular distance covered by the minute hand in 60 minutes = 3600

Angular distance covered by the minute hand in 1 minute = 360/60 = 60

The relative speed between the hands = 6 − 0.5 = 5.50 per minute

Total time from 4 AM to 4 PM = 12 hours

To find the total minutes:

12 hours = 12 × 60 = 720 minutes

Given that the clock gains 2 seconds every 4 minutes:

Gain in 1 minute = 2 ÷ 4 = 0.5 seconds

Total gain in 720 minutes = 720 × 0.5 = 360 seconds

Now, convert the total gain from seconds into minutes:

360 seconds = 360 ÷ 60 = 6 minutes

The time shown by the clock = Actual time + Total gain

Time shown at 4 PM = 4:00 PM + 6 minutes = 4:06:00 PM

Hence, the clock will show 4:06:00.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is Bengal.

Key Points

• The Baul tradition is a unique and vibrant folk music and mystical philosophy that originated in the Bengal region, spanning across the present-day Indian state of West Bengal and the country of Bangladesh.
• Bauls are a group of mystic minstrels who wander from village to village, seeking spiritual enlightenment through the concept of 'Maner Manush' (the Person of the Heart), which emphasizes that the divine resides within the human soul.
• The music is characterized by its simple yet profound lyrics, often accompanied by traditional instruments such as the Ektara (a one-stringed instrument), Duggi (a small drum), and Ghungroo (musical anklets).
• In recognition of its cultural significance, UNESCO proclaimed the Baul songs as a Masterpiece of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity in 2005.
• The tradition is deeply syncretic, drawing influences from Vaishnavism, Sufism, and Sahajiya Buddhism, rejecting formal religious orthodoxies and caste hierarchies.

 Additional Information

• Historical Significance:
• Lalon Fakir (Lalon Shah), a legendary 19th-century philosopher and saint, is considered the greatest icon of the Baul tradition, having composed thousands of songs that preach secularism and humanism.
• The Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore was significantly influenced by the Baul philosophy, which is evident in many of his Rabindra Sangeet compositions and his literary themes.
• Other Regional Traditions:
• Gujarat is primarily known for the Garba and Dandiya Raas folk dances performed during Navratri.
• Tamil Nadu is a hub for Carnatic Music and the classical dance form Bharatanatyam.
• Punjab is famous for its energetic Bhangra and Giddha folk music, as well as the Sufiana Qalam tradition.

The correct answer is Kalyan.

Key Points

• Raga Yaman is a fundamental raga in Hindustani Classical Music and is often the first raga taught to students due to its structural clarity.
• It is the Ashraya Raga (principal raga) of the Kalyan Thaat, which is one of the ten parental scales classified by Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande.
• The Kalyan Thaat is distinguished by the use of Tivra Madhyam (sharp M), while all other six notes—Shadja, Rishabh, Gandhar, Pancham, Dhaivat, and Nishad—are in their Shuddha (natural) forms.
• Raga Yaman is a Sampurna-Sampurna raga, signifying that it employs all seven notes in both its Aroha (ascent) and Avroha (descent).
• The Vadi Swara (most prominent note) for this raga is Gandhar (Ga), and the Samvadi Swara (second most prominent note) is Nishad (Ni).
• It is traditionally performed during the Pratham Prahar of the night (evening time) and evokes a Shanti (peaceful) and Gambhir (serious/profound) mood.

 Additional Information

• Kafi Thaat:
• Characterized by the use of Komal Gandhar (flat G) and Komal Nishad (flat N).
• Famous ragas under this scale include Kafi, Bhimpalasi, and Bageshree.
• Bilawal Thaat:
• All notes in this thaat are Shuddha (natural).
• It serves as the Standard Scale for Hindustani music, equivalent to the Major Scale in Western music.
• Bhairav Thaat:
• Uses Komal Rishabh (flat R) and Komal Dhaivat (flat D).
• Typically associated with early morning performances (Sandhiprakash Ragas).

The correct answer is Vessels and tracheids.

Key Points

• The conduction of water and minerals from the roots to the aerial parts of a plant is carried out by the Xylem, which is a complex permanent vascular tissue.
• Tracheids are primitive conducting elements found in all vascular plants (Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms, and Angiosperms). They are elongated, tube-like dead cells with tapering ends and thick, lignified cell walls.
• Vessels are more advanced and efficient conducting elements primarily found in Angiosperms. They are long, cylindrical structures made of many cells called vessel members, which are joined end-to-end.
• The presence of perforation plates in the end walls of vessels allows for the continuous, high-velocity flow of water, forming a pipeline system throughout the plant body.
• Both vessels and tracheids lack protoplasm at maturity, rendering them hollow and perfectly adapted for the bulk transport of the ascent of sap.

 Additional Information

• Sieve tubes and companion cells:
• These are the main conducting elements of the Phloem.
• They are responsible for translocation, which is the transport of organic nutrients (food) from the leaves to other plant organs.
• While sieve tubes conduct the food, companion cells help maintain the pressure gradient required for transport.
• Guard cells and stomata:
• These are components of the epidermal tissue system located mainly on the surface of leaves.
• Stomata are pores that facilitate gas exchange (CO₂ and O₂) and transpiration.
• Guard cells are specialized kidney-shaped or dumbbell-shaped cells that regulate the opening and closing of the stomatal pore.
• Phloem fibres:
• Also known as bast fibres, these are made of sclerenchymatous cells.
• They are generally absent in primary phloem but present in secondary phloem, providing mechanical strength and support to the plant.

The correct answer is Decomposers.

Key Points

• Decomposers are saprotrophic organisms, primarily consisting of bacteria and fungi, that perform the vital role of breaking down complex organic matter.
• They secrete extracellular enzymes to decompose detritus (dead plant parts and animal remains) into simpler inorganic substances like carbon dioxide, water, and nutrients.
• The process of decomposition involves several steps, including fragmentation, leaching, catabolism, humification, and mineralization.
• By recycling essential elements like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium back into the soil, decomposers maintain ecosystem fertility and support the growth of primary producers.
• Without these organisms, the nutrient cycle would stop, leading to a massive accumulation of organic waste and the eventual collapse of the food web.

 Additional Information

• Producers
• Often referred to as autotrophs, these organisms (like green plants and algae) capture solar energy to produce food through photosynthesis.
• They form the first trophic level of any energy pyramid.
• Herbivores
• These are primary consumers that feed directly on producers to obtain energy.
• Examples include animals such as cattle, deer, and grasshoppers.
• Carnivores
• These organisms, known as secondary or tertiary consumers, derive their energy by preying on other animals.
• Top carnivores like lions or hawks occupy the highest levels of the food chain.

The correct answer is Dead animals.

Key Points

• Biodegradable waste consists of materials that can be broken down into simpler, non-toxic substances by the natural action of biological agents such as bacteria, fungi, and other decomposers.
• Dead animals are classified as biodegradable because their bodies are composed of organic matter, including proteins, fats, and carbohydrates, which serve as a food source for microorganisms.
• The process of decomposition involves microbial enzymes that chemically break down complex organic tissues into basic elements like carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus, which are then recycled back into the soil as nutrients.
• Natural biodegradation of animal remains helps maintain the nutrient cycle in an ecosystem, ensuring that essential minerals are available for plant growth.
• In a balanced environment, biological waste like carcasses, fallen leaves, and food scraps disappear over time without leaving harmful chemical residues.

 Additional Information

• Glass jars:
• Primarily made from silica sand, glass is highly inert and does not react with biological organisms. It is considered non-biodegradable and can remain in the environment for over one million years.
• Aluminium cans:
• These are non-ferrous metals that do not rot or decay. While they undergo oxidation over a period of 200 to 500 years, they are not broken down by biological processes.
• Styrofoam:
• Scientifically known as polystyrene, it is a synthetic petroleum-based plastic. It is virtually immortal in landfills because its polymer chains are too strong for bacteria to digest, often taking centuries to fragment into microplastics.

The correct answer is Stained glass windows.

Key Points

• The Sacré-Cœur Church, commonly known as the Church of the Sacred Heart, is a historic Roman Catholic church located on Richmond Road in Bangalore (Bengaluru), Karnataka.
• Architecturally, the church is renowned for its Gothic Revival style, which was popular during the British Raj in India for ecclesiastical buildings.
• The most striking feature of its interior design is the presence of exquisite Stained glass windows. These windows are not merely decorative but serve as a visual narrative of biblical stories, depicting scenes from the life of Jesus Christ and various Christian saints.
• These windows are strategically placed to allow natural light to filter through the colored glass, creating a vibrant and meditative atmosphere within the sanctuary and nave.
• The use of stained glass is a hallmark of Gothic architecture, intended to transform the physical space into a representation of the divine light.

 Additional Information

• Historical Context:
• The church was established around 1874 to cater to the growing Catholic population in the Bangalore Cantonment area.
• It stands as a testament to the colonial architectural heritage of the city, maintaining much of its original granite masonry and aesthetic charm.
• Architectural Terminologies:
• Corinthian columns: These belong to the Classical Orders of ancient Greek and Roman architecture, characterized by ornate capitals decorated with acanthus leaves. While found in many public buildings in Bangalore, they are not the primary feature of this Gothic-inspired church.
• Domed roof: A rounded vault forming the roof of a building. While the famous Sacré-Cœur Basilica in Paris is known for its massive white domes in the Romano-Byzantine style, the Bangalore namesake follows a more traditional linear Gothic plan without a central dome.
• Pointed Arches: Another prominent feature of the Bangalore church, which works in tandem with the stained glass windows to emphasize verticality and grace.

The correct answer is Chlorophyll.

Key Points

• Chlorophyll is a specialized green pigment found within the chloroplasts of plant cells, particularly concentrated in the mesophyll tissues of leaves.
• The primary function of this pigment is to capture solar energy from sunlight, which is a critical requirement for the process of photosynthesis.
• The distinctive green color arises because chlorophyll molecules absorb light most efficiently in the blue and red regions of the electromagnetic spectrum but reflect green light.
• Chemically, chlorophyll consists of a porphyrin ring with a central Magnesium (Mg) ion, which is vital for its light-absorbing properties.
• Without chlorophyll, plants would be unable to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen, the foundational energy source for most life on Earth.

 Additional Information

• Guard Cells:
• These are pairs of specialized epidermal cells that border each stoma (pore).
• They regulate transpiration and gas exchange by expanding or contracting to open or close the stomatal aperture based on turgor pressure.
• Xylem:
• A complex vascular tissue responsible for the conduction of water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant.
• It provides structural support and operates through passive transport mechanisms like capillary action and transpiration pull.
• Phloem:
• The living vascular tissue involved in translocation, the process of transporting soluble organic compounds (like sucrose) made during photosynthesis.
• Unlike xylem, phloem transport is bidirectional, moving nutrients from 'source' (leaves) to 'sink' (roots and storage organs).

The correct answer is Leaf.

Key Points

• The Leaf is designated as the food factory of a plant because it is the primary organ where photosynthesis occurs.
• This physiological process takes place inside chloroplasts, which contain the green pigment chlorophyll necessary for trapping solar energy.
• During synthesis, the leaf utilizes carbon dioxide absorbed from the atmosphere and water transported from the roots to produce glucose.
• The stomata, which are tiny pores located on the epidermal layer of the leaf, regulate the gaseous exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
• Leaves are typically flat and broad (the lamina) to maximize the surface area exposed to sunlight, ensuring efficient energy conversion.
• The produced glucose is later distributed to other parts of the plant via the phloem for growth and energy storage.

 Additional Information

• Flower:
• Functions as the reproductive system of the plant.
• Contains the androecium (male part) and gynoecium (female part) to facilitate seed formation.
• Stem:
• Provides structural support and keeps the plant upright.
• Acts as a transportation highway using xylem to move water and phloem to move nutrients.
• Root:
• Responsible for anchoring the plant securely in the soil.
• Key function involves the absorption of water and essential dissolved minerals.

The correct answer is Nervous tissue.

Key Points

• The brain and spinal cord are the primary organs of the Central Nervous System (CNS), which is almost entirely composed of nervous tissue to facilitate rapid communication.
• Nervous tissue is specialized to react to stimuli and conduct electrical impulses through the body via specialized cells called neurons.
• A typical adult human brain contains approximately 86 billion neurons, which are the structural units responsible for processing and transmitting information.
• In addition to neurons, this tissue contains Neuroglia (glial cells) such as astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and microglia, which provide support, insulation, and protection.
• The tissue is organized into Gray matter, which consists mainly of neuronal cell bodies, and White matter, which consists of myelinated axons that allow for high-speed signal transmission.
• The spinal cord serves as the major pathway for connecting the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) to the brain, consisting of nervous tissue encased within the vertebral column.

 Additional Information

• Muscle tissue:
• Specialized for contraction and movement. It is divided into skeletal, smooth, and cardiac types, none of which form the primary structure of the brain.
• Connective tissue:
• Functions to support and bind other tissues. While the meninges (Dura mater, Arachnoid, and Pia mater) that protect the brain are made of connective tissue, the brain itself is not.
• Epithelial tissue:
• Found as linings and coverings of surfaces. In the CNS, specialized ependymal cells line the ventricles and the central canal to assist in Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) circulation.

The correct answer is Narendra Modi.

Key Points

• Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi was conferred with the Grand Collar of the National Order of the Southern Cross, which is the highest civilian award of Brazil.
• This supreme honor recognizes his outstanding leadership and his crucial contributions to strengthening the bilateral ties and strategic partnership between India and Brazil.
• Under his stewardship, cooperation between both nations has grown significantly in areas like sustainable agriculture, renewable energy, defense technology, and space exploration.
• The award ceremony underscores India's rising influence on the global stage and its robust engagement within international forums like BRICS, the G20, and the United Nations.

 Additional Information

• National Order of the Southern Cross:
• It was first established in 1822 by Emperor Pedro I and was re-established in 1932 as a national order.
• The Grand Collar is the highest grade of the order, awarded exclusively to foreign Heads of State, Heads of Government, and royals as a mark of high diplomatic esteem.
• Droupadi Murmu:
• She is the President of India. She was honored with Suriname's highest civilian honor, the Grand Order of the Chain of the Yellow Star, in June 2023.
• S. Jaishankar:
• He is India's Minister of External Affairs and has been instrumental in executing India's multi-aligned foreign policy and strategic outreach to Latin America.

The correct answer is Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar.

Key Points

• In December 2024, the President of India appointed Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar as the Governor of Kerala, succeeding Arif Mohammad Khan.
• Prior to this appointment, Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar served as the Governor of Bihar starting from February 2023. He also served as the Governor of Himachal Pradesh from 2021 to 2023.
• He is a prominent politician from Goa and has previously served as the Speaker of the Goa Legislative Assembly from 2012 to 2015, as well as the Minister for Environment and Forest in the Goa state government.
• Under Article 155 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor of a State is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.

 Additional Information

• Vijay Kumar Singh:
• He is a retired four-star General in the Indian Army and served as the 24th Chief of the Army Staff. He also served as a Union Minister of State in the Government of India.
• Anusuiya Uikey:
• She has served as the Governor of Manipur and previously as the Governor of Chhattisgarh from 2019 to 2023.
• Hari Babu Kambhampati:
• He is an Indian politician who served as the Governor of Mizoram. He was also a Member of Parliament representing the Visakhapatnam constituency.

The correct answer is Testis.

Key Points

• The testis (plural: testes) is the primary male sex organ and an endocrine gland located within the scrotum, outside the abdominal cavity.
• During the onset of puberty, the anterior pituitary gland secretes Luteinizing Hormone (LH), which stimulates the Leydig cells (interstitial cells) of the testes.
• In response to LH, the testes produce and secrete androgens, primarily testosterone, which is the principal hormone responsible for male pubertal development.
• Testosterone promotes the development of secondary sexual characteristics, such as the growth of facial and body hair, deepening of the voice due to larynx enlargement, and increased muscle mass and bone density.
• It also regulates spermatogenesis (the production of sperm) and the maturation of male accessory reproductive organs like the epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles.

 Additional Information

• Pineal Gland
• Located in the forebrain, it secretes the hormone melatonin.
• Its primary function is to regulate diurnal rhythms, such as the sleep-wake cycle and body temperature.
• Pancreas
• Functions as a heterocrine gland (both exocrine and endocrine); the endocrine part consists of Islets of Langerhans.
• It secretes insulin and glucagon, which are critical for maintaining blood glucose homeostasis.
• Thymus Gland
• A lobular structure located near the heart and aorta that secretes thymosin.
• It plays a major role in the differentiation of T-lymphocytes for cell-mediated immunity but typically degenerates as an individual ages after puberty.

The correct answer is Acharya Prashant.

Key Points

• Acharya Prashant, a renowned spiritual teacher and an alumnus of IIT Delhi and IIM Ahmedabad, was recognized as the Most Influential Environmentalist during the World Environment Day 2025 celebrations.
• He is the founder of the PrashantAdvait Foundation, where he champions the cause of environmental protection by linking it to human psychology and self-awareness through the lens of Advaita Vedanta.
• His environmental advocacy focuses on addressing the root cause of ecological collapse—human consumption and greed—promoting veganism, minimalism, and sustainable living as spiritual necessities.
• The award acknowledges his massive global impact, facilitated by a digital presence with millions of followers, where he educates the youth on climate change, animal rights, and the ecological footprint of modern lifestyles.
• His philosophy, often termed Advaitic Environmentalism, suggests that without internal peace and understanding of the self, external nature cannot be preserved.

 Additional Information

• World Environment Day
• Established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972, it is observed every year on June 5th to raise global awareness for environmental action.
• The 2025 edition continues to emphasize international cooperation on land restoration, biodiversity, and the reduction of carbon emissions.
• Context of Other Options
• Gajendra Singh Shekhawat: He has served as the Union Minister of Jal Shakti in India, leading major water conservation projects such as the Jal Jeevan Mission and the Namami Gange project.
• Narendra Modi: The Prime Minister of India is known for global environmental initiatives, including the International Solar Alliance (ISA) and the Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) introduced at COP26.
• Sonu Sood: A prominent Indian actor recognized for his massive philanthropic efforts and humanitarian aid, though his primary recognition is linked to social welfare rather than environmental activism awards.

The correct answer is Thiruvananthapuram.

Key Points

• The Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology (IIST) is located at Valiyamala in Thiruvananthapuram, the capital city of Kerala.
• Established in 2007, it functions as an autonomous institution under the Department of Space, Government of India, and was inaugurated by the then Chairman of ISRO, Dr. G. Madhavan Nair.
• It holds the distinction of being the first university in Asia dedicated exclusively to the study and research of outer space and related technologies.
• The institute was granted the status of a Deemed to be University under Section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956, to provide specialized manpower for the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
• The primary mandate of IIST is to offer high-quality education in Space Science, Space Technology, and Space Applications at undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral levels.

 Additional Information

• Significance of Thiruvananthapuram:
• The city is a major hub for India's space program, also hosting the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) and the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC).
• The Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS), where India's space journey began in 1963, is also located nearby.
• Leadership and Vision:
• Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the former President of India and a renowned space scientist, served as the first Chancellor of IIST.
• The institute offers niche B.Tech programs in Aerospace Engineering and Avionics, which are tailored to meet the technical requirements of complex satellite and launch vehicle missions.
• Research and Development:
• IIST collaborates closely with various ISRO centers for internships and research projects, ensuring students are integrated into the national space program immediately after graduation.
• Key research areas include Remote Sensing, Atmospheric Sciences, Control Systems, and Satellite Communication.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Oxandrolone is a synthetic Anabolic-Androgenic Steroid (AAS) derived from dihydrotestosterone (DHT). It is medically used to help patients regain weight lost after surgery or illness, but in sports, it is misused for its ability to increase muscle mass and physical strength with relatively low androgenic activity. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Oxabolone is an anabolic steroid that is a derivative of nandrolone (specifically 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone). It possesses significant myotropic (muscle-building) properties and is strictly prohibited by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) under the S1 Anabolic Agents category. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• Anabolic Agents (S1 Category):
• Mechanism: These substances mimic the natural male hormone testosterone. They bind to androgen receptors to promote protein synthesis and cellular growth in tissues such as muscles and bones.
• Classification: WADA divides these into two sub-groups: Exogenous AAS (substances not naturally produced by the body, like Stanozolol or Oxandrolone) and Endogenous AAS (substances naturally produced but administered externally, like Testosterone).
• Detection: These agents are typically detected through urine analysis using Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS) or Liquid Chromatography.
• Side Effects: Misuse leads to severe health issues, including cardiac hypertrophy, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), hypercholesterolemia, and endocrine system suppression.

The correct answer is Manipur.

Key Points

• The 38th edition of the National Games is scheduled to be held in Uttarakhand in 2025. Among the participating regions, Manipur has established itself as the leading Northeastern state in terms of sporting excellence and medal accumulation.
• Manipur consistently tops the medal tally among the seven sister states, a trend reinforced by its performance in the preceding 37th National Games (2023) held in Goa, where the state secured a total of 82 medals, including 30 Gold, 22 Silver, and 30 Bronze.
• The state is globally recognized as the 'Powerhouse of Indian Sports', contributing a disproportionate number of athletes to India's international contingents in disciplines such as Weightlifting, Boxing, and Archery.
• In the National Games 2025 cycle, Manipur's dominance is attributed to its specialized training centers and a culturally ingrained sports ethic that prioritizes multi-disciplinary success at the national level.
• The Northeastern region has seen a surge in sports infrastructure, but Manipur remains the only state from the area to consistently rank within the top 10 overall in the national medal standings.

 Additional Information

• Assam:
• It was the host of the 33rd National Games in 2007 and remains a significant competitor in Athletics, Boxing, and Lawn Bowls.
• The state has produced iconic athletes like Hima Das and Lovlina Borgohain, bolstering its national sporting profile.
• Arunachal Pradesh:
• This state has shown rapid growth in combat sports and Weightlifting, frequently securing medals in the Wushu categories during recent national events.
• Mizoram:
• Primarily known for its dominance in Football and Weightlifting, Mizoram contributes significantly to the national talent pool in these specific sectors.
• National Games Organization:
• The event is organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and serves as the premier domestic multi-sport competition to identify talent for the Olympics and Asian Games.

The correct answer is Gen. K. M. Cariappa.

Key Points

• General Kodandera Madappa Cariappa made history on January 15, 1949, when he became the first Indian Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army, succeeding the last British chief, General Sir Roy Bucher.
• He played a pivotal role in the Indo-Pakistani War of 1947, where he successfully led the Indian forces on the Western Front as the General Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Western Command.
• To honor his appointment as the first Indian head of the military, January 15 is celebrated annually across the nation as Army Day.
• In recognition of his distinguished military service and contribution to the nation, he was conferred the prestigious five-star rank of Field Marshal on April 28, 1986.
• He was the first Indian officer to attend the Staff College at Quetta and the first Indian to command a battalion, showcasing his exceptional career within the British Indian Army before independence.

 Additional Information

• Other Noted Military Leaders:
• Gen. P. N. Thapar: He served as the 5th Chief of the Army Staff between 1961 and 1962, notably during the Sino-Indian War.
• Gen. S. M. Shrinagesh: He was the 3rd Chief of the Army Staff from 1955 to 1957 and later served as the Governor of states like Andhra Pradesh and Mysore.
• Gen. K. S. Thimayya: He served as the 6th Chief of the Army Staff (1957−1961) and is celebrated for leading the Neutral Nations Repatriation Commission after the Korean War.
• Rank of Field Marshal:
• It is the highest honorary rank in the Indian Army, held for life. Only two officers have received it: Sam Manekshaw (1973) and K. M. Cariappa (1986).

The correct answer is 81.

Key Points

• The University of Delhi (DU) has achieved a significant milestone by securing the 81st rank in the QS Asia University Rankings 2025, showing a notable improvement from its 94th position in the 2024 cycle.
• The university's performance is driven by its exceptional Employer Reputation, where it achieved a regional rank of 44th, reflecting the high regard in which its graduates are held by employers across the globe.
• DU also demonstrated strong results in Academic Reputation and the International Research Network indicator, highlighting its increased engagement in cross-border scholarly collaborations and research output.
• This ranking places the University of Delhi among the top 10 percent of the nearly 1,000 institutions evaluated across Asia in this edition.

 Additional Information

• Indian Higher Education Landscape:
• India has emerged as the most represented country in the 2025 QS Asia Rankings, with a total of 163 featured institutions, followed by Mainland China with 135.
• IIT Bombay remains the top-ranked Indian institution at the 40th position, followed by IIT Delhi at 44th.
• Other top Indian performers include IISc Bangalore (62nd) and IIT Kharagpur (79th).
• Overall Regional Top Performers:
• Peking University (China) maintained the 1st rank for the third year in a row.
• The University of Hong Kong (HKU) and the National University of Singapore (NUS) followed in the top three.
• Ranking Methodology:
• The QS Asia University Rankings utilize 11 indicators, including Faculty/Student Ratio, Citations per Paper, Papers per Faculty, and Inbound/Outbound Exchange Students.

The correct answer is 18.

Key Points

• India has been ranked 18th in the Global Business Complexity Index (GBCI) 2025, indicating its position among the top 20 most complex jurisdictions for business operations worldwide.
• The GBCI is an annual study conducted by TMF Group, which provides a detailed analysis of the regulatory, administrative, and compliance environments of approximately 79 jurisdictions.
• The ranking is based on a comprehensive assessment of over 290 indicators, focusing on three core pillars: Accounting and Tax, HR and Payroll, and Global Governance and Compliance.
• India's rank of 18 reflects a market characterized by high complexity due to a multifaceted federal structure, diverse regional regulations, and specific local compliance requirements.
• The report highlights that while India is making significant strides in digitalizing government services and simplifying tax structures through GST, the transition period and scale of the economy maintain a high level of operational complexity.

 Additional Information

• Understanding GBCI Rankings and Trends:
• A lower ranking (e.g., Rank 1 to 20) signifies higher complexity, meaning it is more difficult for multinational companies to remain compliant and operate smoothly in those regions.
• The 2025 report emphasizes the role of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and automation in shaping business environments, noting that jurisdictions adopting these technologies faster tend to reduce their complexity over time.
• The OECD’s Global Minimum Tax (Pillar Two) is a major theme in the 2025 index, as jurisdictions modify their domestic tax laws to align with international standards, temporary increasing administrative burdens.
• Typically, jurisdictions like Greece and France feature at the more complex end of the spectrum, while Denmark and the Cayman Islands are noted for their administrative simplicity.
• The GBCI serves as a vital tool for Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) planning, helping global firms understand incorporation timelines, entity management, and statutory reporting challenges.

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

• Sachin Tendulkar made his highly anticipated international Test debut against Pakistan on November 15, 1989.
• The match was the first Test of the series and was played at the National Stadium in Karachi.
• At the age of 16 years and 205 days, he became the youngest Indian to debut in Test cricket, a record that still stands today.
• In his debut innings, he walked out to bat at number six when India was struggling at 41 for 4, and he went on to score 15 runs.
• He was dismissed by another debutant, the legendary fast bowler Waqar Younis, who also played his first Test match in this same fixture.

 Additional Information

• Career Achievements:
• Known as the Master Blaster, Tendulkar finished his career as the highest run-scorer in the history of international cricket.
• He played a total of 200 Test matches and 463 One Day Internationals (ODIs), scoring 15,921 and 18,426 runs respectively.
• He remains the only player to achieve 100 international centuries (51 in Tests and 49 in ODIs).
• Series Context:
• The 1989 India-Pakistan series was a four-match Test series where all four matches ended in a draw.
• This series was also a milestone for Kapil Dev, who played his 100th Test match during the Karachi opener.
• Tendulkar’s ODI debut followed shortly after in December 1989 at Gujranwala, also against Pakistan.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the bracket and multiplication in the first step: 84 − 56 + 78 − 47.

Combine positive and negative terms separately: (84 + 78) − (56 + 47).

162 − 103 = 59.

∴ The correct answer is 59.

Alternate Method

Given: 84 − 56 + 39 × 2 − (31 + 16)

Method: Apply the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

⇒ 84 − 56 + 39 × 2 − 47 (Solving Bracket: 31 + 16 = 47)

⇒ 84 − 56 + 78 − 47 (Solving Multiplication: 39 × 2 = 78)

⇒ 28 + 78 − 47 (Solving Subtraction: 84 − 56 = 28)

⇒ 106 − 47 (Solving Addition: 28 + 78 = 106)

⇒ 59

∴ The correct answer is 59.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It defines the order of operations: Brackets (), Of (orders/powers), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Bracket Types

Solve in the order: Bar/Vinculum, then Small brackets (), then Curly brackets {}, and finally Square brackets [].

Grouping Technique

To avoid errors in addition and subtraction, group all positive numbers and negative numbers separately before the final subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the division inside the bracket first: 42 ÷ 2 = 21.

Sum all positive integers: 93 + 19 + 21 + 33 + 26 = 192.

Sum all negative integers: 28 + 17 = 45.

Subtract the negative sum from the positive sum: 192 − 45 = 147.

∴ The correct answer is 147.

Alternate Method

Given:

93 − 28 + 19 + (42 ÷ 2) + 33 − 17 + 26

Formula Used:

BODMAS Rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

Calculations:

⇒ 93 − 28 + 19 + 21 + 33 − 17 + 26

⇒ 65 + 19 + 21 + 33 − 17 + 26

⇒ 84 + 21 + 33 − 17 + 26

⇒ 105 + 33 − 17 + 26

⇒ 138 − 17 + 26

⇒ 121 + 26

⇒ 147

∴ The correct answer is 147.

Additional Information

BODMAS Hierarchy

Always prioritize operations in the order of Brackets, Orders (powers/roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction to avoid calculation errors.

Commutative Property of Addition

Addition and subtraction can be rearranged as long as the sign (+ or −) stays with its respective number. For example, 10 − 2 + 5 is the same as 10 + 5 − 2.

Shortcut Trick

Time (T) ∝ Radius (r)³ ⇒ Ratio of times = (Ratio of radii)³.

Radius ratio = 10 : 20 = 1 : 2.

Time ratio = 1³ : 2³ = 1 : 8.

Given 1 unit = 5 min, then 8 units = 8 × 5 = 40 min.

Additional time required = 40 − 5 = 35 min.

∴ The correct answer is 35 min.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial radius (r₁) = 10 cm, Initial time (T₁) = 5 min, Final radius (r₂) = 20 cm.

Formula Used: T = k × r³ (where k is the constant of proportionality).

⇒ T₁ / r₁³ = T₂ / r₂³

⇒ 5 / 10³ = T₂ / 20³

⇒ 5 / 1000 = T₂ / 8000

⇒ T₂ = (5 × 8000) ÷ 1000

⇒ T₂ = 40 min

⇒ Additional time = T₂ − T₁ = 40 − 5 = 35 min.

∴ The correct answer is 35 min.

Additional Information

Volume of a Sphere

The volume (V) of a sphere is given by V = (4/3)πr³. Since the filling time is proportional to the volume of air, T ∝ r³ holds true.

Direct Proportionality

If y ∝ xⁿ, then the ratio of two states is y₁/y₂ = (x₁/x₂)ⁿ.

Surface Area Relation

The surface area (A) of a sphere is A = 4πr². If time were proportional to surface area, then T ∝ r².

Shortcut Trick

Concentration of tin in Alloy 1 = 5/8 and in Alloy 2 = 3/4.

Target tin concentration = 4/6 = 2/3.

Using alligation ratio: (3/4 − 2/3) : (2/3 − 5/8) = (1/12) : (1/24) = 2 : 1.

Ratio of Alloy 1 : Alloy 2 = 2 : 1.

Given Alloy 2 = 20 kg, so Alloy 1 = 2 × 20 = 40 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 40 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of tin and copper in Alloy 1 = 5 : 3

Ratio of tin and copper in Alloy 2 = 3 : 1

Quantity of Alloy 2 = 20 kg

Required ratio in mixture = 4 : 2 = 2 : 1

Formula Used:

Quantity of A1 / Quantity of A2 = (Conc. 2 − Mean) / (Mean − Conc. 1)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the quantity of Alloy 1 required be x kg.

⇒ Part of tin in Alloy 1 = 5 / (5 + 3) = 5/8

⇒ Part of tin in Alloy 2 = 3 / (3 + 1) = 3/4

⇒ Part of tin in the final mixture = 4 / (4 + 2) = 4/6 = 2/3

⇒ By rule of alligation:

⇒ (3/4 − 2/3) / (2/3 − 5/8) = (1/12) / (1/24)

⇒ Ratio = (1/12) × 24 = 2 / 1

⇒ x / 20 = 2 / 1

⇒ x = 20 × 2 = 40 kg

∴ The correct answer is 40 kg.

Additional Information

Alligation Rule

It is a method used to find the ratio in which two ingredients at different prices or concentrations must be mixed to produce a mixture at a desired price or concentration.

Weighted Average Formula

The concentration of a mixture is given by C_mix = (n₁c₁ + n₂c₂) / (n₁ + n₂), where n is quantity and c is concentration.

Ratio to Fraction Conversion

If the ratio of two components is a:b, the fraction of the first component is a/(a+b) and the second is b/(a+b).

Shortcut Trick

When distance is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time.

Ratio of Time = 4 : 5

Ratio of Speed = 5 : 4

Difference in ratio = 5 − 4 = 1 unit → 20 km/h

Original Speed = 5 units = 5 × 20 = 100 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 100 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial Time (T₁) = 4 hr

New Time (T₂) = 5 hr

Speed reduction = 20 km/h

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

Let the original speed be S km/h.

⇒ Distance₁ = S × 4

⇒ Distance₂ = (S − 20) × 5

Since the distance is the same:

⇒ 4S = 5(S − 20)

⇒ 4S = 5S − 100

⇒ 5S − 4S = 100

⇒ S = 100 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 100 km/h.

Additional Information

Speed-Time Relationship

When distance is constant, Speed₁ × Time₁ = Speed₂ × Time₂, which implies speed is inversely proportional to time.

Average Speed Formula

For a round trip or two equal distances with speeds x and y, the average speed is (2 × x × y) ÷ (x + y).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Check the difference between the denominator and numerator for each fraction:

16 − 13 = 3; 14 − 11 = 3; 18 − 15 = 3; 11 − 8 = 3.

For proper fractions where the difference is constant, the fraction with the smallest numerator is the smallest.

Since 8 is the smallest numerator among 13, 11, 15, and 8, 8/11 is the smallest fraction.

∴ The correct answer is 8/11.

Alternate Method

Given: The fractions are 13/16, 11/14, 15/18, and 8/11.

Method: Convert each fraction into its decimal equivalent to compare their values directly.

⇒ 13/16 = 0.8125

⇒ 11/14 ≈ 0.7857

⇒ 15/18 = 5/6 ≈ 0.8333

⇒ 8/11 ≈ 0.7272

Comparing the values: 0.7272 < 0.7857 < 0.8125 < 0.8333.

∴ The correct answer is 8/11.

Additional Information

Constant Difference Rule

For proper fractions, if (Denominator − Numerator) is constant, the fraction with the smallest numerator is the smallest. For improper fractions, the fraction with the smallest numerator is the largest.

Cross-Multiplication Method

To compare a/b and c/d, calculate a × d and b × c. If a × d < b × c, then a/b < c/d.

Proper vs Improper Fractions

A proper fraction always has a value less than 1 (Numerator < Denominator), while an improper fraction has a value greater than or equal to 1 (Numerator ≥ Denominator).

Shortcut Trick

For any two consecutive odd numbers, the difference between them is always 2.

Using the identity: a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b)

Given Difference of Squares = 80 and (a − b) = 2

Sum of numbers (a + b) = 80 ÷ 2 = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Alternate Method

Let the two consecutive odd numbers be (x − 1) and (x + 1).

Given that the difference of their squares is 80.

⇒ (x + 1)² − (x − 1)² = 80

⇒ (x² + 2x + 1) − (x² − 2x + 1) = 80

⇒ x² + 2x + 1 − x² + 2x − 1 = 80

⇒ 4x = 80

⇒ x = 20

⇒ Smaller number = 20 − 1 = 19

⇒ Larger number = 20 + 1 = 21

⇒ Sum of the two numbers = 19 + 21 = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Additional Information

Consecutive Odd/Even Numbers

Any two consecutive odd or even numbers always have a common difference of 2.

Difference of Squares Property

For any two numbers x and y, x² − y² = (x − y)(x + y). If the difference (x − y) is known, the sum can be found directly.

Divisibility Rule

The difference of squares of any two consecutive odd numbers is always divisible by 8.

Shortcut Trick

List odd numbers between 70 and 80: 71, 73, 75, 77, 79.

75 is divisible by 5 and 77 is divisible by 7 (7 × 11).

The remaining prime numbers are 71, 73, and 79.

Total count = 3.

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Alternate Method

Given: Range of numbers between 70 and 80.

Formula: A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.

⇒ Numbers between 70 and 80 are: 71, 72, 73, 74, 75, 76, 77, 78, 79.

⇒ 71: No divisors other than 1 and 71. (Prime)

⇒ 72: Divisible by 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36. (Composite)

⇒ 73: No divisors other than 1 and 73. (Prime)

⇒ 74: Divisible by 2 and 37. (Composite)

⇒ 75: Divisible by 3 and 5. (Composite)

⇒ 76: Divisible by 2, 4, and 19. (Composite)

⇒ 77: Divisible by 7 and 11. (Composite)

⇒ 78: Divisible by 2, 3, 6, 13, 26, 39. (Composite)

⇒ 79: No divisors other than 1 and 79. (Prime)

⇒ Total prime numbers found: 71, 73, 79.

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Additional Information

Prime Numbers (1-100)

There are exactly 25 prime numbers between 1 and 100. These are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, and 97.

Smallest Prime Number

The smallest prime number is 2, which is also the only even prime number. All other prime numbers are odd.

Twin Primes

Twin primes are pairs of primes that differ by 2. In the range 70-80, 71 and 73 form a twin prime pair.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the series as an Arithmetic Progression (AP) where first term a = 1, last term l = 100, and common difference d = 3.

Number of terms (n) = [(Last − First) ÷ Difference] + 1

n = [(100 − 1) ÷ 3] + 1 = 33 + 1 = 34 terms.

Sum = (n ÷ 2) × (First + Last) = (34 ÷ 2) × (1 + 100).

Sum = 17 × 101 = 1717.

∴ The correct answer is 1717.

Alternate Method

Given: Series 1 + 4 + 7 + 10 + ... + 100

Formula: n^th term a_n = a + (n − 1)d | Sum S_n = (n/2)(a + l)

⇒ First term (a) = 1

⇒ Common difference (d) = 4 − 1 = 3

⇒ Last term (l) = 100

⇒ 100 = 1 + (n − 1) × 3

⇒ 99 = (n − 1) × 3

⇒ n − 1 = 33 ⇒ n = 34

⇒ Sum S₃₄ = (34 / 2) × (1 + 100)

⇒ S₃₄ = 17 × 101 = 1717

∴ The correct answer is 1717.

Additional Information

n^th Term of an AP

The general term of an Arithmetic Progression is given by a_n = a + (n − 1)d, where a is the first term and d is the common difference.

Sum of n terms of an AP

The sum can be calculated as S_n = (n/2)[2a + (n − 1)d] or more simply as S_n = n × (average of first and last terms).

Common Difference (d)

It is the constant value added to each term to get the next term, calculated as d = a_n − a_n−1.

Shortcut Trick

The diagonal of a rectangle forms a right-angled triangle with the length and breadth.

Using the standard Pythagorean Triplet (3, 4, 5).

Since the sides are 3 cm and 4 cm, the diagonal must be 5 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 5 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length (L) = 3 cm

Breadth (B) = 4 cm

Formula Used:

Diagonal (d) = √(Length² + Breadth²)

Calculations:

⇒ Diagonal = √(3² + 4²)

⇒ Diagonal = √(9 + 16)

⇒ Diagonal = √25

⇒ Diagonal = 5 cm

∴ The correct answer is 5 cm.

Additional Information

Properties of Rectangles

The diagonals of a rectangle are always equal in length and bisect each other at the point of intersection.

Area and Perimeter

Area = Length × Breadth; Perimeter = 2 × (Length + Breadth).

Pythagoras Theorem

In any right-angled triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides.

Shortcut Trick

The sides of the rectangle are 15 cm and 20 cm.

Find the ratio of the sides: 15 : 20 = 3 : 4.

This follows the standard Pythagorean triplet (3, 4, 5).

Since the sides are multiplied by 5, the diagonal = 5 × 5 = 25 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 25 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length (L) = 15 cm

Breadth (B) = 20 cm

Formula Used:

In a rectangle, the diagonal (d) forms the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle.

Diagonal (d) = √(Length² + Breadth²)

Calculations:

⇒ d = √(15² + 20²)

⇒ d = √(225 + 400)

⇒ d = √625

⇒ d = 25 cm

∴ The correct answer is 25 cm.

Additional Information

Pythagorean Triplets

Sets of three integers that satisfy a² + b² = c². Common triplets include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), and (8, 15, 17).

Area of Rectangle

The total space occupied by the rectangle, calculated as Area = Length × Breadth.

Perimeter of Rectangle

The total distance around the boundary, calculated as Perimeter = 2 × (Length + Breadth).

Shortcut Trick

Breadth of a Rectangle = (Perimeter ÷ 2) − Length

Breadth = (24 ÷ 2) − 5

Breadth = 12 − 5 = 7 cm

∴ The correct answer is 7 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Perimeter of the rectangle = 24 cm

Length of the rectangle = 5 cm

Formula Used:

Perimeter (P) = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Calculations:

⇒ 24 = 2 × (5 + Breadth)

⇒ 24 ÷ 2 = 5 + Breadth

⇒ 12 = 5 + Breadth

⇒ Breadth = 12 − 5

⇒ Breadth = 7 cm

∴ The correct answer is 7 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Rectangle

The Area of a rectangle is calculated as Length × Breadth. For this problem, Area = 5 × 7 = 35 cm².

Diagonal of Rectangle

The Diagonal is given by the formula √(Length² + Breadth²). It represents the longest straight line inside the rectangle.

Semi-Perimeter

The Semi-Perimeter is half of the total perimeter, which is equal to (Length + Breadth).

Shortcut Trick

The series consists of consecutive even numbers starting from 2 up to 496.

Number of terms n = Last term ÷ 2 = 496 ÷ 2 = 248.

Apply the shortcut formula for Sum of first n even numbers: n × (n + 1).

Sum = 248 × (248 + 1) = 248 × 249 = 61752.

∴ The correct answer is 61752.

Alternate Method

Given:

First term (a) = 2

Common difference (d) = 4 − 2 = 2

Last term (l) = 496

Formula Used:

1. n-th term of an Arithmetic Progression (AP): l = a + (n − 1)d
2. Sum of n terms of an AP: S_n = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l)

Calculations:

⇒ 496 = 2 + (n − 1) × 2

⇒ 494 = (n − 1) × 2

⇒ n − 1 = 494 ÷ 2

⇒ n − 1 = 247

⇒ n = 248

⇒ S₂₄₈ = (248 ÷ 2) × (2 + 496)

⇒ S₂₄₈ = 124 × 498

⇒ S₂₄₈ = 61752

∴ The correct answer is 61752.

Additional Information

Sum of first n natural numbers

The sum of the first n consecutive natural numbers (1, 2, 3, ...) is given by the formula: S_n = [n × (n + 1)] ÷ 2.

Sum of first n odd numbers

The sum of the first n consecutive odd numbers (1, 3, 5, ...) is always equal to the square of the number of terms: S_n = n².

General term of an AP

In an Arithmetic Progression, the n-th term is found using a_n = a + (n − 1)d, where 'a' is the first term and 'd' is the common difference.

Shortcut Trick

Net deviation from Average (60) = (+65) + (−10) + (−42) + (−24) + (−20) + (−18) = −49.

To balance, 7th player score = 60 + 49 = 109.

Scores less than 109: 50, 18, 36, 40, and 42.

Total count = 5 players.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Alternate Method

Given: Average of 7 players = 60. Runs of 6 players = 125, 50, 18, 36, 40, 42.

Formula: Total Sum = Average × Number of items

⇒ Total runs of 7 players = 60 × 7 = 420

⇒ Sum of runs of 6 players = 125 + 50 + 18 + 36 + 40 + 42 = 311

⇒ Runs scored by 7th player = 420 − 311 = 109

⇒ Compare 109 with other scores: 125 (> 109), 50 (< 109), 18 (< 109), 36 (< 109), 40 (< 109), 42 (< 109)

⇒ Number of players who scored less than 109 = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Additional Information

Net Deviation Property

The sum of deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero. Sum of (x_i − Mean) = 0.

Weighted Average

When two groups with averages A₁ and A₂ and sizes n₁ and n₂ are combined, the new average is (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Average Concept

If each observation is increased or decreased by a constant value 'k', the new average also increases or decreases by 'k'.

Shortcut Trick

Using the Rule of Alligation to find the ratio of blue to red hats.

Ratio (Blue : Red) = (60 − 50) : (70 − 60) = 10 : 10 = 1 : 1.

Total units = 1 + 1 = 2 units.

Given total hats = 30, so 2 units = 30 hats ⇒ 1 unit = 15 hats.

Number of red colour hats = 1 unit = 15.

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of hats = 30

Average cost of blue hats = ₹70

Average cost of red hats = ₹50

Combined average cost = ₹60

Formula Used:

Total Cost = Number of items × Average Cost

Calculations:

Let the number of red hats be x. Then the number of blue hats is (30 − x).

⇒ Total cost = (Number of blue × Avg blue) + (Number of red × Avg red)

⇒ 30 × 60 = (30 − x) × 70 + x × 50

⇒ 1800 = 2100 − 70x + 50x

⇒ 1800 = 2100 − 20x

⇒ 20x = 2100 − 1800

⇒ 20x = 300

⇒ x = 300 ÷ 20

⇒ x = 15

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

The average of a combined group is given by A_avg = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n is the quantity and A is the individual average.

Alligation Rule

It is a shorter version of the weighted average. The ratio of quantities is (Mean − Cheaper) : (Dearer − Mean).

Base of Comparison

When using alligation on averages (Price per item), the resulting ratio always represents the number of items (the denominator of the unit).

Shortcut Trick

Directly multiply the digits by removing percentage zeros: 4 × 35 and 2 × 60.

40% of 350 → 4 × 35 = 140

20% of 600 → 2 × 60 = 120

Sum = 140 + 120 = 260

∴ The correct answer is 260.

Alternate Method

Given: 40 percent of 350 + 20 percent of 600

Formula: x% of y = (x ÷ 100) × y

⇒ (40 ÷ 100) × 350 + (20 ÷ 100) × 600

⇒ (4 ÷ 10) × 350 + (2 ÷ 10) × 600

⇒ 4 × 35 + 2 × 60

⇒ 140 + 120

⇒ 260

∴ The correct answer is 260.

Additional Information

Percentage to Decimal Conversion

To convert a percentage into a decimal, divide by 100. For example, 40% = 40 ÷ 100 = 0.4.

Commutative Property of Percentage

The expression x% of y is always equal to y% of x. This can often simplify mental calculations.

BODMAS Rule in Simplification

In expressions involving percentages, the of operator is treated as multiplication and should be solved before addition.

Shortcut Trick

Cost Price (CP) = Selling Price (SP) − Profit

CP = 4400 − 400 = 4000

Profit % = (Profit / CP) × 100

Profit % = (400 / 4000) × 100 = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹4400

Profit = ₹400

Formula Used:

Profit % = (Profit / Cost Price) × 100

Cost Price (CP) = Selling Price (SP) − Profit

Calculations:

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = 4400 − 400

⇒ CP = ₹4000

⇒ Profit % = (400 / 4000) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (1 / 10) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 10%

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage Formula

Loss % = (Loss / CP) × 100. Note that Loss = CP − SP.

SP in terms of CP and Profit %

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 + Profit %) / 100.

CP in terms of SP and Loss %

Cost Price (CP) = (SP × 100) / (100 − Loss %).

Marked Price and Discount

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) − Discount. Also, Discount % = (Discount / MP) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Chain Rule formula: M₁ × D₁ × W₂ = M₂ × D₂ × W₁

Here, M₁ = 15, D₁ = 40, W₁ = 1 (full work) and D₂ = 20, W₂ = 1/2 (half work).

15 × 40 × (1/2) = M₂ × 20 × 1

300 = 20 × M₂

M₂ = 300 ÷ 20 = 15

∴ The correct answer is 15 men.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial men (M₁) = 15 men

Initial days (D₁) = 40 days

Initial work (W₁) = 1 unit

New days (D₂) = 20 days

New work (W₂) = 1/2 unit

Formula Used: (M₁ × D₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂) ÷ W₂

Calculations:

⇒ Total Man-days for full work = 15 × 40 = 600 units

⇒ Total Man-days for 1/2 work = 600 × (1/2) = 300 units

⇒ Required men × New days = New Man-days

⇒ M₂ × 20 = 300

⇒ M₂ = 300 ÷ 20

⇒ M₂ = 15 men

∴ The correct answer is 15 men.

Additional Information

The General Chain Rule Formula

For different hours, days, and work: (M₁×D₁×H₁)/W₁ = (M₂×D₂×H₂)/W₂, where H is hours per day.

Inverse Proportion (Men vs Time)

If work is constant, the number of men is inversely proportional to the time taken (M ∝ 1/D).

Direct Proportion (Men vs Work)

If time is constant, the number of men is directly proportional to the amount of work done (M ∝ W).

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(8, 6, 12) = 24 units.

Combined efficiency of M, R, and P = (3 + 4 + 2) ÷ 2 = 4.5 units/day.

Work completed in 3 days = 4.5 × 3 = 13.5 units.

Part of work done = 13.5 ÷ 24 = 9/16.

∴ The correct answer is 9/16.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by (M + R) = 8 days, (R + P) = 6 days, and (P + M) = 12 days.

Formula: Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

⇒ Efficiency of (M + R) + (R + P) + (P + M) = 3 + 4 + 2

⇒ 2(M + R + P) = 9

⇒ Efficiency of (M + R + P) together = 9 ÷ 2 = 4.5 units/day

⇒ Total work done by them in 3 days = 4.5 × 3 = 13.5 units

⇒ Required part of work = Work done ÷ Total work = 13.5 ÷ 24

⇒ Part of work = 135 ÷ 240 = 9/16

∴ The correct answer is 9/16.

Additional Information

Total Work and Efficiency Relationship

Work is always the product of time and efficiency. If time is constant, work is directly proportional to efficiency.

Combined Work in Pairs

When people work in pairs (A+B, B+C, C+A), adding their individual pair-efficiencies gives twice the combined efficiency of all three (A+B+C).

Fraction of Work

The fraction of work done is calculated as (Work Completed) ÷ (Total Work), which is also equal to (Time worked) ÷ (Total time required).

Shortcut Trick

Total ratio parts = 3 (Boys) + 5 (Girls) = 8 units.

8 units = 360 students → 1 unit = 360 ÷ 8 = 45 students.

Initial number of boys = 3 units × 45 = 135.

Total number of boys after admitting 30 more boys = 135 + 30 = 165.

∴ The correct answer is 165.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total students in school = 360

Ratio of Boys to Girls = 3 : 5

New boys admitted = 30

Formula Used:

Value of a part = (Ratio of that part ÷ Sum of ratios) × Total value

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 3 + 5 = 8

⇒ Number of boys = (3 ÷ 8) × 360

⇒ Number of boys = 3 × 45 = 135

⇒ Number of girls = (5 ÷ 8) × 360 = 225

⇒ New total number of boys = Initial boys + New admissions

⇒ New total number of boys = 135 + 30 = 165

∴ The correct answer is 165.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion

A ratio compares two quantities by division. To divide a total T in the ratio a : b, the parts are T × a/(a+b) and T × b/(a+b).

New Ratio Calculation

When a value x is added to one part of a ratio A:B, the new ratio becomes (A+x) : B. In this case, the new ratio of boys to girls would be 165 : 225, which simplifies to 11 : 15.

Unitary Method

This method involves finding the value of a single unit (total value ÷ total units) and then multiplying it by the required number of units to find the specific value.

The correct answer is: Someone or something that disappoints or does not meet expectations..

Key Points

• The idiom 'a damp squib' refers to an event or situation that is expected to be exciting, impressive, or successful but ends up being a complete failure or disappointment. (निराशाजनक परिणाम)
• Example: The fireworks display turned out to be a damp squib because most of the crackers were wet from the rain.
• 'Someone or something that disappoints or does not meet expectations' describes a person or an event that fails to fulfill the promise or anticipation surrounding it. (वह जो उम्मीदों पर खरा न उतरे)
• Example: The highly anticipated sequel to the movie was a damp squib and failed to impress the critics.
• Hence, we can conclude that the idiom 'a damp squib' is used to describe a disappointing outcome.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Someone or something that disappoints or does not meet expectations.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Someone or something that is pleasing and more than expected (सुखद और अपेक्षा से अधिक): This refers to a positive surprise where the outcome is better than what was hoped for.
• Example: The bonus I received at the end of the year was pleasing and more than expected.
• Someone who has been dead after overexposure to water (पानी के अत्यधिक संपर्क के कारण मृत्यु): This refers to a tragic situation involving drowning or prolonged exposure to water leading to death.
• Example: The search team found the body of someone who had been dead after the boat capsized in the storm.
• Someone who has been sick after overexposure to water (पानी के अत्यधिक संपर्क के कारण बीमार): This refers to falling ill due to being in water or rain for a very long time.
• Example: He became severely sick after overexposure to water during the rescue operations in the flooded area.

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. Force.

Key Points

• The word 'compel' means to force or oblige someone to do something; to drive or urge forcefully or irresistibly. (विवश करना / मजबूर करना)
• Example: High prices may compel many people to change their shopping habits.
• 'Force' refers to making someone do something against their will, often by using physical strength, power, or influence. (मजबूर करना)
• Example: The kidnappers tried to force him into the car.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym of 'compel' is 'force'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Force.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Invite (आमंत्रित करना): To request the presence or participation of someone in a polite or formal manner.
• Example: They decided to invite all their neighbors to the housewarming party.
• Refuse (मना करना / अस्वीकार करना): To show or state that one is unwilling to do, accept, or grant something.
• Example: He had to refuse the job offer because the salary was too low.
• Encourage (प्रोत्साहित करना): To give support, confidence, or hope to someone so they can achieve something.
• Example: My teachers always encourage me to ask questions and think critically.

The correct answer is zoonotick.

Key Points

• The word zoonotick is the misspelt term in the provided sentence. The suffix -ic is a common linguistic ending used to form adjectives from nouns, and the addition of the letter k is orthographically incorrect in modern English.
• The correct spelling is zoonotic, which is derived from the noun zoonosis. A zoonosis is any disease or infection that is naturally transmissible from vertebrate animals to humans.
• Etymologically, the term comes from the Greek words zoon (animal) and nosos (disease). Zoonotic diseases represent a major public health threat globally, accounting for a large percentage of all newly identified infectious diseases.
• Pathogens involved in zoonotic transmission can include viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites. Common examples of such diseases include Rabies, Ebola, and Avian Influenza.

 Additional Information

• Experts:
• This term refers to individuals with extensive skill or knowledge in a particular field. In the context of the sentence, global health experts are professionals like epidemiologists and virologists who study disease patterns.
• Pandemic:
• A pandemic is an outbreak of a disease that occurs over a wide geographic area (such as multiple countries or continents) and typically affects a significant proportion of the population. The World Health Organization (WHO) is responsible for declaring such events.
• Transmitted:
• This is the past participle of transmit, meaning to pass on from one person or place to another. In biology, it describes how pathogens move between hosts. The spelling follows the rule of doubling the final consonant when the last syllable is stressed and contains a single vowel.

The correct answer is 'Option 1' i.e. 'Rambuntious'.

Key Points

• The word 'Rambuntious' is misspelt in the given options; it lacks the letter 'c' after the letter 'n'. It is meant to describe someone who is noisy, energetic, and difficult to control. (गलत वर्तनी)
• Example: The editor pointed out that the word 'rambuntious' was misspelt in the first draft of the novel.
• 'Rambunctious' is the correct spelling, which means behaving in a wild and noisy way or being full of energy. (ऊधमी / कोलाहलपूर्ण)
• Example: The rambunctious children were seen running and shouting all over the playground.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word among the choices is 'Rambuntious'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Rambuntious.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Reconciliation (सुलह / मेल-मिलाप): The restoration of friendly relations or the action of making one view or belief compatible with another.
• Example: The reconciliation between the two former rivals brought peace to the region.
• Remuneration (पारिश्रमिक / मुआवजा): Money paid for work or a service rendered.
• Example: The workers were satisfied with the high remuneration offered for the overtime shifts.
• Repercussion (प्रतिक्रिया / दुष्परिणाम): An unintended consequence occurring some time after an event or action, especially an unwelcome one.
• Example: The sudden change in policy had a significant repercussion on the local economy.

The correct answer is: Dissuade.

Key Points

• The word 'Persuade' means to induce someone to do something through reasoning or argument. (राजी करना)
• Example: I managed to persuade my friend to join the photography club with me.
• 'Dissuade' means to persuade someone not to take a particular course of action or to advise against it. (रोकना/मना करना)
• Example: They tried to dissuade him from climbing the mountain during the storm.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite or antonym of 'Persuade' is 'Dissuade'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Dissuade.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Convince (आश्वस्त करना): To cause someone to believe firmly in the truth of something.
• Example: It was difficult to convince the jury of his innocence.
• Urge (आग्रह करना): To try earnestly or persistently to persuade someone to do something.
• Example: The doctor continued to urge him to quit smoking for his health.
• Influence (प्रभावित करना): The capacity to have an effect on the character, development, or behavior of someone or something.
• Example: Social media can heavily influence the opinions of young teenagers.

The correct answer is 'shear'.

 

Key Points

• The word 'shear' means to cut the wool off a sheep or other animal. (ऊन कतरना)
• In the context of the sentence, the farmer is using a sharp tool specifically for this purpose.
• The process of removing the fleece is a standard agricultural practice known as sheep shearing.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: The farmer used a sharp tool to shear the sheep.

Additional Information

• Sheer (निर्मल/सरासर): means nothing other than; complete; or (of a cliff or wall) very steep.
• Seer (द्रष्टा/पैगंबर): means a person who is supposed to be able, through supernatural insight, to see what the future holds.
• Seal (मुहर/सील): means a device or substance used to join two things together or to prevent anything from coming out or entering; also refers to a fish-eating sea mammal.

The correct answer is: Travesty.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A false, absurd or distorted representation of something' refers to a poor or mocking imitation that misrepresents the original subject. (किसी वस्तु का गलत, हास्यास्पद या विकृत चित्रण)
• Example: The remake of the classic film was such a travesty that most fans walked out of the theater.
• 'Travesty' refers to a situation, or an account of something, that is so bad or unfair that it seems ridiculous; it is a distorted representation of the reality. (प्रहसन या विकृत रूप)
• Example: The trial was a travesty of justice as the evidence was completely ignored.
• Hence, we can infer that the most suitable one-word substitution for the given phrase is 'travesty'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Travesty.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Solipsism (आत्मवाद): The philosophical theory that only the self exists, or can be proved to exist.
• Example: In his state of extreme solipsism, he felt as though the entire world was merely a dream of his own making.
• Prevarication (छल-कपट): The act of speaking or acting in an evasive or misleading way to avoid telling the truth.
• Example: After several minutes of prevarication, the witness finally admitted he was not at the scene.
• Quiescence (मौन या निष्क्रियता): A state of quietness, stillness, or inactivity.
• Example: The volcano entered a period of quiescence after centuries of frequent eruptions.

The correct answer is The auditorium is being decorated by the students for the function..

Key Points

• The sentence 'The students are decorating the auditorium for the function' is in the Present Continuous Tense, which describes an action currently in progress.
• In the active voice, the structure follows: Subject (The students) + is/am/are + Verb+ing (decorating) + Object (the auditorium).
• To convert a Present Continuous sentence into Passive Voice, the standard grammatical formula is: New Subject + is/am/are + being + V3 (Past Participle) + by + New Object.
• The Object of the active sentence, the auditorium, becomes the Subject of the passive sentence. Because 'the auditorium' is a singular noun, it must be paired with the singular auxiliary verb is.
• The word being must be inserted to maintain the continuous aspect of the original statement; without it, the tense would change.
• The Present Participle 'decorating' is converted into its Past Participle (V3) form, which is decorated.
• The original Subject 'the students' becomes the Agent in the passive voice, preceded by the preposition by.
• The phrase 'for the function' remains an adverbial adjunct and retains its position in the sentence.

 Additional Information

• Comparison with other forms:
• Simple Present Passive: Uses is/am/are + V3 (e.g., 'The auditorium is decorated'). This implies a general fact or habit rather than an ongoing action.
• Present Perfect Passive: Uses has/have + been + V3 (e.g., 'The auditorium has been decorated'). This indicates an action that was completed recently.
• Common Errors:
• Using been instead of being is a common mistake; been is reserved for Perfect Tenses, while being is strictly for Continuous Tenses in passive voice.
• Omitting being entirely results in a Simple Present Passive, which changes the chronological meaning of the sentence.
• Syntactic Rule: In all passive constructions, the Main Verb must always be in the Past Participle (V3) form to correctly indicate the passive state.

The correct answer is Almost every museum in the city has been visited by her.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Present Perfect Tense, which follows the active voice structure: Subject + has/have + V3 (Past Participle) + Object.
• To convert a Present Perfect sentence into Passive Voice, the structure must change to: New Subject + has/have + been + V3 + by + New Agent.
• The Object of the active sentence, almost every museum in the city, becomes the Subject in the passive sentence. Because the word every identifies a singular unit, the singular auxiliary verb has been is required.
• The Subject of the active sentence, She, is converted into its objective case pronoun, her, and placed after the preposition by to act as the agent.
• Following these grammatical rules, the verb has visited correctly transforms into has been visited to reflect the passive state.

 Additional Information

• Understanding other tense transformations in Passive Voice:
• Simple Present Passive: Uses is/am/are + V3. This would change the meaning to a habitual action rather than a completed one.
• Past Perfect Passive: Uses had + been + V3. This is only used when the active sentence is in the Past Perfect tense (had visited).
• Simple Future Passive: Uses will + be + V3. This indicates an action that has not happened yet, whereas the original sentence describes a completed action.
• Pronoun Changes: When moving from subject to object position in passive voice, I becomes me, He becomes him, She becomes her, They become them, and We become us.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The phrase 'with a view to' is a fixed idiomatic expression meaning 'with the intention or hope of'.
• A crucial grammatical rule for this idiom is that it must be followed by a gerund (a verb ending in -ing that functions as a noun) rather than an infinitive.
• In the given sentence, the gerund 'promoting' correctly follows the phrase 'with a view to'.
• Furthermore, the preposition 'between' is used correctly when referring to a relationship or action involving two distinct entities (the two countries).
• The original usage 'with a view of' is less common and often considered incorrect in formal English when expressing purpose.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: 'The memorandum of understanding was signed with a view to promoting bilateral trade relations between the two countries.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: The preposition 'for' is not used with the phrase 'with a view' to indicate purpose.
• Option 3: The word 'among' is used for more than two entities, whereas the sentence specifies 'two countries'. Additionally, it uses the singular 'relation' which is less appropriate than the plural 'relations' in a trade context.
• Option 4: Improvement is required because the standard idiom 'with a view to' is preferred over 'with a view of' when followed by a gerund.

The correct answer is 'by'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition 'by' is used to indicate the agent or the cause of an action or emotion, particularly in passive constructions.
• In the given sentence, the roaring of a tiger is the external cause or agent that made Hariharan feel terrified.
• When describing being frightened or scared by a specific sound or action, 'by' is the most appropriate preposition to connect the emotion to its source.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: 'Hariharan was terrified by the roaring of a tiger just in front of his room.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'at' can be used with emotions (e.g., surprised at, terrified at the thought), but 'by' is preferred when emphasizing the roaring as the direct agent of the terror.
• Option 3: 'in' is typically used for locations or internal states (e.g., in fear), but it does not fit as a link to the cause here.
• Option 4: 'on' is used for surfaces or specific days and is grammatically incorrect in this context.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The paragraph follows a narrative sequence describing the arrival of winter elements in a garden, starting with Snow and Frost.
• Sentence D is the first sentence after S1: It introduces the next character, the North Wind, who is invited by 'they' (referring to the Snow and Frost mentioned in S1).
• 'Then they invited the North Wind to stay with them, and he came.'
• Sentence C follows D: Once the North Wind arrives, this sentence provides a description of his appearance and his initial actions in the garden.
• 'He was wrapped in furs, and he roared all day about the garden, and blew the chimney pots down.'
• Sentence B follows C: It features the North Wind speaking, expressing his enjoyment of the location and suggesting the invitation of yet another element, the Hail.
• 'This is a delightful spot, he said, we must ask the Hail on a visit.'
• Sentence A follows B: It confirms the arrival of the Hail as a direct result of the North Wind's suggestion.
• 'So, the Hail came.'
• Sentence S2 then concludes the sequence by describing the daily behavior of the Hail, specifically how he rattled on the roof of the castle.
• The correct logical sequence is DCBA.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'The Snow covered up the grass with her great white cloak, and the Frost painted all the trees silver. Then they invited the North Wind to stay with them, and he came. He was wrapped in furs, and he roared all day about the garden, and blew the chimney pots down. This is a delightful spot, he said, we must ask the Hail on a visit. So, the Hail came. Every day for three hr he rattled on the roof of the castle till he broke most of the slates, and then he ran round and round the garden as fast as he could go.'

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes a historical military setting involving Semyon and his duties during a conflict.
• Sentence B follows S1 as it elaborates on the situation at the firing line mentioned in the first sentence:
• ''''For a whole week there had been skirmishing with the Turks, with only a deep ravine separating the two hostile armies, and from morn till eve there had been a steady crossfire.''''
• Sentence A follows B because it introduces Semyon's role within the physical context of the ravine established in the previous sentence:
• ''''Thrice daily Semyon carried a steaming samovar and his officer's meals from the camp kitchen to the ravine.''''
• Sentence C is the third sentence as it describes the immediate danger Semyon faced while performing the duty mentioned in A:
• ''''The bullets hummed about him and rattled viciously against the rocks.''''
• Sentence D is the fourth sentence as it details Semyon's emotional reaction to the danger in C and his persistence:
• ''''Semyon was terrified and cried sometimes, but still he kept right on.''''
• The sequence concludes with S2, which explains that the officers were pleased because of the hot tea (from the samovar mentioned in A) that Semyon brought despite the danger.
• The correct sequence is BACD.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

''''Semyon's regiment had once been on the firing line. For a whole week there had been skirmishing with the Turks, with only a deep ravine separating the two hostile armies, and from morn till eve there had been a steady crossfire. Thrice daily Semyon carried a steaming samovar and his officer's meals from the camp kitchen to the ravine. The bullets hummed about him and rattled viciously against the rocks. Semyon was terrified and cried sometimes, but still he kept right on. The officers were pleased with him because he always had hot tea ready for them.''''

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence uses the correlative conjunction neither...nor to join two subjects: the manager and his assistants.
• According to the Rule of Proximity, when subjects are joined by neither...nor or either...or, the verb must agree with the subject closest to it.
• In this sentence, the closer subject is his assistants, which is plural. Therefore, the verb must also be plural.
• The singular verb was must be replaced with the plural verb were to ensure subject-verb agreement.
• Additionally, the past tense must be maintained to match the context provided by the phrase which was disappointing.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: 'Neither the manager nor his assistants were able to attend the conference, which was disappointing for the entire team.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'is able to attend' is incorrect because it uses a singular verb and changes the tense to present, which contradicts the past tense used in the rest of the sentence.
• Option 2: 'was able to attended' is incorrect because was is singular, and the phrase to attended violates the rule of infinitives (to + base form of the verb).
• Option 4: 'No improvement required' is incorrect because the original sentence contains a subject-verb agreement error where a singular verb is paired with a plural subject.

The correct answer is Regardless of the heavy rain and the muddy trails.

Key Points

• The term Regardless is a standard English adverb and prepositional part meaning 'without being hindered by' or 'in spite of'. In this sentence, it correctly introduces the environmental obstacles (rain and mud) that the hikers faced.
• The phrase Regardless of functions as a concessive preposition, establishing a logical contrast between the difficult weather conditions and the determination of the subjects to reach the summit.
• The nouns heavy rain and muddy trails are contextually and collogically accurate descriptions of poor hiking conditions. Heavy is the standard adjective for high-intensity precipitation, and muddy is the logical result of such rain on a dirt path or trail.
• The sentence structure uses an introductory prepositional phrase followed by a comma and a main clause (they pressed on), which is a grammatically sound construction for providing context before the primary action.
• Since the original sentence is already grammatically correct and uses the most appropriate vocabulary for the scenario, the selected phrase serves as the most accurate version for the sentence.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of incorrect terminologies:
• Irregardless: This is widely considered a non-standard or incorrect word in formal writing. It is a double negative (using both the prefix 'ir-' and the suffix '-less'), making it redundant compared to the correct term, regardless.
• Reins and Trains: These are malapropisms in this context. Reins refers to straps for horse control, and trains refers to railway vehicles. Neither fits the description of weather or hiking paths.
• Heavenly and Mighty: While these are valid English words, heavenly rains (implying something divine or pleasant) and mighty trails (implying power) do not align with the adversarial context of a difficult hike that requires grit and determination.
• Language Collocation: In English idiomatics, heavy rain is a standard collocation, whereas heavenly rain is poetic and rarely used to describe a physical hindrance during an outdoor activity.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• Sociological criticism is an approach that analyzes a literary work as a direct product of the social factors and ideologies existing at the time of its creation.
• According to the passage, it rejects the idea of literature as an isolated entity and instead inspects it within the context of social and historical conditions.
• The primary focus is understanding how external influences like the era, culture, and economic environment shape the author's work.
• Therefore, the correct focus of this criticism is viewing literary work as a product of social factors.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Conclusion: "Sociological criticism regards a literary work as a product of the social factors and ideologies prevailing at a given time."

 

Additional Information

• Hippolyte Adolphe Taine: A French thinker who argued that literature is shaped by the moment, the race, and the milieu (environment).
• Karl Marx: Believed literature holds value in promoting social and economic revolution and is influenced by the struggle between capitalists and the working class.
• Author-Society Relationship: The passage identifies three basic factors: the author's social status, the social content of the work, and the role of the audience.
• Other options like isolated artistic creation or purely linguistic structure refer to different schools of criticism, such as Formalism or New Criticism, which ignore external social contexts.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The passage explicitly states that Hippolyte Adolphe Taine, a renowned French thinker, proposed the theory that literature is shaped by three primary factors.
• These three factors are defined as the moment (the specific historical time), the race (the national or hereditary characteristics), and the milieu (the social and physical environment).
• This approach is a fundamental aspect of sociological criticism, which treats literary works as products of the social factors and ideologies prevailing at the time they are written.
• By analyzing these three elements, Taine aimed to provide a scientific and historical context for understanding the evolution of literature.

Therefore, the correct answer is Hippolyte Adolphe Taine.

 

Direct Quote: 'Hippolyte Adolphe Taine, a French thinker, pronounced that literature is extremely influenced by the moment, the race, and the milieu.'

 

Additional Information

• Karl Marx: According to the text, Marx focused on the role of literature in promoting social and economic revolution and believed thinking is determined by economic factors.
• Friedrich Engels: Although not explicitly mentioned in this passage, Engels co-founded Marxist theory and contributed to the understanding of how class struggle and economics influence the superstructure of society, including art.
• Matthew Arnold: Arnold was a Victorian critic who viewed literature as a 'criticism of life' and emphasized its moral and aesthetic value, rather than the deterministic factors of race and milieu.