SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 21 May, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic followed here is:

Logic: The series consists of letter pairs where the first letter follows a specific addition pattern and the second letter follows a specific subtraction pattern.

Combining the results, the missing term is FS.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The first letter of each pair in the series follows an incremental addition pattern (+1, +2, +3, +4, +5, +6, +7), and the second letter follows a constant subtraction pattern (−6).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed in these sets of letter clusters is based on specific alphabetical shifts in the positional values of the letters.

For the set '(DA, FC, IG)':

For the set '(IE, KG, NK)':

Applying the same logic to the clusters in 'Option 3':

Thus, the cluster set (DV, FX, IB) follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Concept:

For two different years to have an identical calendar, they must satisfy the following two conditions:

1. Both years must be of the same type (either both Ordinary Years or both Leap Years).
2. The total sum of odd days between the two years must be 0 or a multiple of 7.

An Ordinary Year consists of 365 days (52 weeks + 1 odd day).

A Leap Year consists of 366 days (52 weeks + 2 odd days).

Calculation:

Let us evaluate the pair 2017 and 2023:

1. Year Type:

2017 is an Ordinary Year (not divisible by 4).

2023 is an Ordinary Year (not divisible by 4).

Since both are of the same type, they can potentially have identical calendars.

2. Sum of Odd Days:

We calculate the odd days from the beginning of 2017 to the beginning of 2023:

• 2017 (Ordinary Year) = 1 odd day
• 2018 (Ordinary Year) = 1 odd day
• 2019 (Ordinary Year) = 1 odd day
• 2020 (Leap Year) = 2 odd days
• 2021 (Ordinary Year) = 1 odd day
• 2022 (Ordinary Year) = 1 odd day

Total odd days = 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 7 odd days.

Since the total number of odd days is 7, which is perfectly divisible by 7 (7 ÷ 7 = 1 with remainder 0), the year 2023 starts on the same day as 2017.

Since both are Ordinary Years, their entire calendars are identical.

Hence, the correct answer is 2017 and 2023.

Alternate Method

A general rule for the repetition of Ordinary Year calendars is based on the position of the year relative to the last Leap Year:

• Leap Year + 1: Calendar repeats after 6 years.
• Leap Year + 2: Calendar repeats after 11 years.
• Leap Year + 3: Calendar repeats after 11 years.
• Leap Year: Calendar repeats after 28 years.

Here, 2016 was a Leap Year.

2017 = 2016 (Leap Year) + 1.

Following the rule, the calendar for 2017 will repeat after 6 years:

Repetition Year = 2017 + 6 = 2023.

Therefore, 2017 and 2023 have identical calendars.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The second figure in each pair is obtained by water image of the first figure.

By applying water image, the resulting configuration matches the figure provided in option 4.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: Elements at corners interchange their position to the opposite elements and middle elements rotates 90° in clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

The pattern followed here is:

KP130 : JO250

PR250 : OQ370

Similarly,

AK100 : ?

The missing cluster is ZJ220.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given:

ADE100 : HFB150

KPS300 : VRL450

For the missing cluster BFG200 : ?

Hence, the cluster is JHC300.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 47

For the first pair 8158 : 8205

⇒ 8158 + 47 = 8205

For the third pair 4911 : 4958

⇒ 4911 + 47 = 4958

Applying the same logic to the second pair

7854 : ?

⇒ 7854 + 47 = 7901

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 2) + 5

For the first pair 137 : 279

⇒ (137 × 2) + 5

⇒ 274 + 5 = 279.

For the third pair 435 : 875

⇒ (435 × 2) + 5

⇒ 870 + 5 = 875.

Applying the same logic to the second pair

888 : ?

⇒ (888 × 2) + 5

⇒ 1776 + 5 = 1781.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is the comparison method of coding-decoding. By identifying common words in the given phrases, we can determine their corresponding codes.

Thus, the code for east sun is tl cm.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is.

The series consists of two letters and a number, each following a specific mathematical pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is: Each term in the series is composed of three letters and a number, and each of these components follows a specific mathematical or alphabetical pattern.

In the given series, the term FCR120 contains 120 instead of 121.

The term FCR120 is wrong because its second letter should be D and its number should be 121, making the correct term FDR121.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Concept:

Hour hand covers 360° in 12 hours.

Angular distance covered in 1 hour = 360/12 = 30°

Angular distance covered in 60 minutes = 30°

Angular distance covered in 1 minute = 30/60 = 1/2°

Minute hand covers 360° in 60 minutes.

Angular distance covered in 1 minute = 360/60 = 6°

Calculation:

The given time is 2:30 PM.

Minute = 30

Angle covered by the minute hand from 12 o'clock = 30 × 6 = 180°

Angle covered by the hour hand from 12 o'clock = (2 × 30) + (30 × 1/2) = 60 + 15 = 75°

Angle between hour and minute hands = 180 − 75 = 105°

Hence, the angle between the hour and minute hands is 105°.

Alternate Method

The angle between the hour hand and minute hand = $|{60H - 11M \over 2}|$

Here, H = hours and M = minutes.

Given H = 2 and M = 30.

So, Angle = $|{60 \times 2 - 11 \times 30 \over 2}|$

Angle = |(120 − 330) / 2|

Angle = |−210 / 2| = 105°

Hence, the correct answer is 105°.

Concept:

Hour hand covers 3600 in 12 hours.

Angular distance covered by the hour hand in 1 minute = 360 ÷ (12 × 60) = 0.50

Minute hand covers 3600 in 60 minutes.

Angular distance covered by the minute hand in 1 minute = 360 ÷ 60 = 60

Relative speed between the hands = 6° − 0.5° = 5.5° per minute.

Calculation:

At 4 PM, the hour hand is at the 4-hour mark, and the minute hand is at the 12-hour mark (0 minutes).

Angle between hands at 4 PM = 4 × 300 = 1200

We need the hands to be 135 degrees apart. Since the minute hand is behind the hour hand at 4 PM, it must first close the 120° gap (to coincide) and then move ahead to create a 135° gap.

Total angular distance to be covered = 120° + 135° = 255°

Time taken = Total angular distance ÷ Relative speed

Time = 255 ÷ 5.5 = 46.36 minutes

The approximate time is 46 minutes.

Hence, the hands will be 135° apart approximately 46 minutes after 4 PM.

Alternate Method

The angle between the hour hand and minute hand is given by the formula:

Angle (θ) = $|60H - 11M|\over2$

Given H = 4 and θ = 135.

135 = $|60 \times 4 - 11 \times M|\over2$

135 × 2 = |240 − 11M|

270 = |240 − 11M|

To find the time after 4 PM, we solve for M:

11M − 240 = 270

11M = 270 + 240

11M = 510

M = 510 ÷ 11 = 46.36...

M ≈ 46 minutes

Therefore, the correct option is 2.

The logic followed in this series is based on the movement and transformation of four distinct elements:

​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed in this series is: Adding new elements on the tip of the line in anti-clockwise direction one by one.

Hence, the correct image is "Option 2".

The logic followed in this series is: Increasing the number of triangles in each step and shifting and changing the place of the letters in a fixed pattern in each step

Hence, the correct image is "Option 3".

Given:

Present age ratio = 3 : 8

Sum of present ages = 33

Calculation:

Let the present ages be 3x and 8x.

3x + 8x = 33

11x = 33

x = 3

Present ages:

• First person = 3 × 3 = 9 years
• Second person = 8 × 3 = 24 years

5 years ago:

First person's age = 9 − 5 = 4 years

Second person's age = 24 − 5 = 19 years

Required ratio:

4 : 19

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct answer is Narmada, Tapi.

Key Points

• The Narmada and Tapi are the two major west-flowing rivers of the Peninsular Plateau that empty into the Arabian Sea.
• The Narmada River originates from the Amarkantak hill range in Madhya Pradesh. It flows through a rift valley formed by faulting between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges, covering a distance of about 1,312 km.
• The Tapi River, also known as the Tapti, originates in the Satpura ranges in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. It flows parallel to the Narmada in a rift valley for approximately 724 km.
• Unlike the east-flowing rivers that form extensive deltas, the Narmada and Tapi form estuaries at their mouths in the Gulf of Khambhat due to the high gradient and the hard rocky terrain they traverse.
• The westward flow of these rivers is an exception to the general eastward tilt of the Deccan Plateau, caused by the geological subsidence of the land during the Himalayan mountain-building process.

 Additional Information

• East-flowing Peninsular Rivers:
• Godavari: Known as the Dakshin Ganga, it is the longest peninsular river and flows into the Bay of Bengal.
• Krishna: Originates near Mahabaleshwar and forms a large delta on the east coast before entering the Bay of Bengal.
• Mahanadi: Drains the state of Chhattisgarh and Odisha, emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
• Kaveri: A sacred river of south India that originates in the Brahmagiri hills and flows eastwards.
• Specific River Characteristics:
• Periyar: This is a major west-flowing river in Kerala, but it is often excluded from the primary list of major peninsular rivers like Narmada and Tapi in standard classifications.
• Subarnarekha: An east-flowing river that passes through the Chhota Nagpur Plateau and reaches the Bay of Bengal.

The correct answer is Pushyabhutis.

Key Points

• The Pushyabhuti Dynasty, also famously known as the Vardhana Dynasty, rose to prominence in Northern India during the late 6th and early 7th centuries CE, following the fragmentation of the Gupta Empire.
• The dynasty was established in Sthanishvara (modern-day Thanesar in Haryana) and eventually filled the political vacuum created by the decline of the Imperial Guptas and the subsequent invasions of the Hunas.
• The most illustrious ruler of this dynasty was Harshavardhana (606−647 CE), who succeeded in uniting several small regional principalities to form a vast empire that spanned across the Indo-Gangetic plains.
• Under Harshavardhana, the capital was shifted from Thanesar to Kannauj, establishing it as the premier political and cultural center of North India for several centuries.
• The Pushyabhutis maintained a highly centralized administration initially but later transitioned toward a more feudal structure, which became a defining characteristic of the Post-Gupta political landscape.

 Additional Information

• Regional Context of Other Options:
• The Cholas and Cheras were powerful dynasties of Southern India (Tamil Nadu and Kerala regions) and had no direct role in the immediate power transition in Northern India post-Gupta decline.
• The Vakatakas were a major power in the Deccan (Central India) and were contemporaries of the Guptas, linked via marriage alliances, but their influence also faded by the early 6th century.
• Primary Historical Sources:
• Detailed accounts of the Pushyabhuti era are found in the Harshacharita, a biography written by the court poet Banabhatta, and the travelogues of the Chinese monk Xuanzang (Hiuen Tsang).
• Administrative Features:
• The Vardhana administration involved a hierarchy of officials such as the Mahasandhivigrahaka (Minister for War and Peace) and Rajasthaniya (Viceroys), which stabilized the region after decades of instability.

The correct answer is All of these.

Key Points

• Better neonatal care has been a cornerstone in reducing infant deaths, particularly through the establishment of Special Newborn Care Units (SNCUs) and Newborn Stabilization Units (NBSUs) that provide emergency care for complications like birth asphyxia and pre-term birth. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Expansion of immunization programs, such as the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) and Mission Indradhanush, has drastically lowered the incidence of vaccine-preventable diseases like measles, tetanus, and whooping cough among infants. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Improved maternal health ensures better birth outcomes; initiatives like Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) and Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK) promote institutional deliveries and provide antenatal care, reducing neonatal mortality. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Infant Mortality Rate (IMR):
• It is defined as the number of deaths of children under one year of age per 1,000 live births.
• According to Sample Registration System (SRS) data, India has seen a steady decline in IMR from 37 in 2015 to approximately 28 in 2020.
• The Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) target for India is to reduce the IMR to 25 or less by the year 2030.
• Supplementary Programs:
• POSHAN Abhiyaan: Aimed at improving the nutritional status of children and pregnant women to prevent low birth weight.
• Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC): Empowers ASHA workers to conduct home visits and identify danger signs in newborns early.
• Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY): Provides direct benefit transfers to pregnant women to compensate for wage loss and ensure adequate nutrition.

The correct answer is Indian Independence Act, 1947.

Key Points

• The Indian Independence Act, 1947 was an act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom that received Royal Assent on July 18, 1947.
• It provided the statutory authority for the partition of British India and the establishment of two independent dominions: India and Pakistan.
• The act mandated the cessation of British Suzerainty over the Princely States and the lapse of all treaties with them, effective from August 15, 1947.
• It provided for the creation of Pakistan comprising the territories of East Bengal, West Punjab, Sindh, and the North-West Frontier Province (NWFP).
• The legislation empowered the Constituent Assemblies of both nations to frame and adopt their own constitutions and to repeal any British law, including the Independence Act itself.
• It designated the Radcliffe Commission to determine the international boundaries between the two newly formed nations.

 Additional Information

• Cabinet Mission Plan (1946):
• Proposed a united India with a three-tier administrative structure to address the Muslim League’s demand for autonomy without partition.
• It failed as the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League could not agree on the interpretation of the grouping clause.
• Mountbatten Plan (June 3, 1947):
• Also known as the Partition Plan, it was the political framework that accepted the Two-Nation Theory.
• It proposed an earlier date for the transfer of power and introduced referendums in Sylhet and NWFP.
• Government of India Act, 1935:
• The longest act of the British Parliament, it introduced Provincial Autonomy and a Federal Court.
• It served as the interim constitution for both India and Pakistan until 1950 and 1956, respectively.

The correct answer is Demography Mission.

Key Points

• During the 79th Independence Day address from the Red Fort on August 15, 2025, the Prime Minister announced the launch of the Demography Mission to address the complex challenges posed by illegal immigration and shifting population patterns.
• The mission is designed as a strategic response to maintain the socio-cultural balance and internal security of the nation, particularly in sensitive regions where demographic changes have been most pronounced.
• The Demography Mission aims to implement rigorous biometric identification systems and digital tracking to identify individuals staying in the country without valid authorization.
• It involves a multi-agency approach, led by the Ministry of Home Affairs, to strengthen border surveillance and prevent the unauthorized crossing of international boundaries.
• The initiative also focuses on protecting the rights and resources of indigenous communities and legal citizens by ensuring that government benefits and citizenship privileges are not misappropriated by illegal residents.

 Additional Information

• Illegal Immigration in India:
• Governed primarily by the Foreigners Act, 1946, which empowers the central government to regulate the entry, presence, and departure of foreigners.
• The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920, also mandates that all persons entering the country must possess valid travel documents.
• The issue is particularly significant in the Northeastern states and West Bengal, where long, porous borders share proximity with neighboring countries.
• Viksit Bharat 2047:
• The Demography Mission aligns with the broader goal of Viksit Bharat (Developed India) by 2047, ensuring that national development is not hindered by security vulnerabilities or unmonitored population growth.
• The 2025 address emphasized national unity and the importance of a transparent National Register for effective governance and security management.

The correct answer is 1993.

Key Points

• The Government of India officially set up the Committee on Reforms in the Insurance Sector in 1993 to evaluate the existing structure and suggest improvements to the industry.
• The committee was led by R.N. Malhotra, who served as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) from 1985 to 1990, ensuring a high level of financial expertise in the reform process.
• The primary objective of the Malhotra Committee was to complement the New Economic Policy of 1991 by introducing liberalization and competition into a sector that was previously a state monopoly.
• The committee submitted its landmark report in January 1994, advocating for the entry of private sector players and permitting foreign promoters to hold a stake in Indian insurance companies.
• Its recommendations focused on increasing the insurance penetration and density in India, which were significantly lower than global averages at that time.

 Additional Information

• Legislative and Regulatory Outcomes
• Following the committee's report, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) Act was passed in 1999.
• This led to the creation of the IRDAI in April 2000, a statutory body tasked with regulating and promoting the insurance and re-insurance industries.
• The opening of the sector ended the monopoly of the Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) and General Insurance Corporation (GIC).
• Historical Context of Nationalization
• The Life Insurance business was nationalized in 1956, merging 245 Indian and foreign providers into the LIC.
• The General Insurance business was nationalized via the General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972, effective from January 1, 1973.
• The Malhotra Committee suggested that the Government of India should reduce its stake in these public sector entities to 50 percent to allow more autonomy.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• Job security typically refers to the protection of formal employment in organized sectors. While the DAJA Abhiyan (Dignity and Justice Action) emphasizes Livelihood Security and the restoration of Land Rights for traditional occupations, formal 'job security' is not designated as a specific pillar of this grassroots movement. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Cultural Inclusion is a foundational pillar of the DAJA Abhiyan. It focuses on removing the social stigma and the 'criminal' label historically attached to certain tribes, ensuring their social dignity, and promoting the preservation of their unique cultural heritage and languages. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
• The DAJA Abhiyan is a rights-based movement primarily working for the empowerment and social justice of the De-notified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs) in India, focusing on pillars like Identity, Education, Health, and Political Participation.

 Additional Information

• The De-notified Tribes were formerly notified as 'born criminals' under the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871 during British rule.
• This discriminatory act was repealed on August 31, 1952, a day now celebrated by these communities as Vimukta Diwas (Liberation Day).
• Despite the repeal, the subsequent Habitual Offenders Act continued to facilitate the social marginalization of these groups.
• The Idate Commission and the Renke Commission are significant bodies established by the Government of India to study the socio-economic status of DNTs and recommend welfare measures.
• Key demands of movements like DAJA include the issuance of Caste Certificates, implementation of Social Security schemes, and protection against police harassment.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• Dashavatara is a highly stylized traditional folk theatre and dance-drama practiced in the Konkan region, primarily in Goa and the Sindhudurg district of Maharashtra.
• The performance is dedicated to the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu, known as the Dashavatara: Matsya, Kurma, Varaha, Narasimha, Vamana, Parashurama, Rama, Krishna, Buddha, and Kalki.
• The art form is traditionally showcased during Jatras (annual temple festivals) and religious ceremonies, acting as a vital link between the community and Hindu mythology.
• The performance structure includes the Purvaranga (the initial invocation of Lord Ganesha) and the Uttararanga (the main mythological narrative or play).
• Performers, historically all male, utilize vibrant wooden masks, elaborate makeup, and traditional costumes, accompanied by live music featuring the Harmonium, Tabla, and Zanj.
• The lead narrator, known as the Sutradhar, orchestrates the performance, blending rhythmic prose with poetic verses to guide the audience through the epic stories.

 Additional Information

• Goa:
• Fugdi and Dhalo are prominent folk dances performed by women during festivals like Ganesh Chaturthi.
• The Kunbi dance is a rhythmic folk form performed by the indigenous Kunbi community of the state.
• Chhattisgarh:
• Pandavani is a famous folk ballad that narrates episodes from the Mahabharata, popularized by artists like Teejan Bai.
• The Panthi dance is a spiritual performance of the Satnami community, while Raut Nacha is performed by cowherds.
• Haryana:
• Phag is a seasonal dance performed by farmers during the month of Phalgun.
• The Dhamal dance is an ancient form dating back to the Mahabharata, performed on moonlit nights.
• Himachal Pradesh:
• Nati is the most famous folk dance, often performed during local fairs and the Kullu Dussehra.
• Chham is a masked ritual dance performed by Buddhist monks (Lamas) in monasteries.

The correct answer is Dana.

Key Points

• Cyclone Dana was a severe cyclonic storm that formed in the Bay of Bengal in October 2024, specifically making landfall during the late hours of October 24 and early hours of October 25.
• The storm made landfall on the Odisha coast between Bhitarkanika National Park and Dhamra Port in the Bhadrak district, with wind speeds ranging from 100 to 110 kmph, gusting up to 120 kmph.
• The name Dana was proposed by Qatar, which translates to a 'generous' or 'perfectly sized, valuable, and beautiful pearl' in Arabic.
• The state governments of Odisha and West Bengal evacuated over 600,000 and 200,000 people respectively to cyclone shelters to minimize casualties before the storm struck.
• The India Meteorological Department (IMD) monitored the system as it moved northwestwards, bringing heavy to extremely heavy rainfall to coastal districts like Kendrapara, Balasore, and East Medinipur.

 Additional Information

• Other Recent Cyclones:
• Cyclone Yaas: A Very Severe Cyclonic Storm that hit the Odisha and West Bengal coasts in May 2021, causing significant storm surges in the Sundarbans.
• Cyclone Gulab: Affected the coasts of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha in September 2021. It was named by Pakistan.
• Cyclone Shaheen: Formed in the Arabian Sea in October 2021 from the remnants of Cyclone Gulab; it eventually impacted Oman.
• Naming Authority: Tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean are named by the IMD and 12 other member countries of the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones to avoid confusion during disaster management operations.

The correct answer is Jalandhar.

Key Points

• The Harballabh Sangeet Mela is held annually at the sacred Devi Talab Mandir located in Jalandhar, Punjab.
• It is globally recognized as the oldest festival of Indian Classical Music in the world, having been celebrated continuously since its inception in 1875.
• The festival was founded by Baba Harballabh, a saint and a great devotee of Indian Classical Music, to honor his guru, Swami Tulja Giri.
• The event typically takes place during the last week of December and serves as a major pilgrimage for students and exponents of Hindustani Classical Music.
• In recognition of its immense cultural and historical value, the Government of India has officially designated the mela as a National Festival.

 Additional Information

• Gwalior:
• Famous for the Tansen Samaroh (Tansen Music Festival), which is held near the tomb of the legendary musician Tansen at Behat.
• It is a major center for the Gwalior Gharana, one of the oldest Khayal gharanas of Indian classical music.
• Varanasi:
• Known for the Sankat Mochan Sangeet Samaroh, an annual festival of classical music and dance held at the Sankat Mochan Hanuman Temple.
• It is also famous for the Dhrupad Mela held at Tulsi Ghat, focusing on the ancient Dhrupad style.
• Shree Baba Harballabh Sangeet Mahasabha:
• This is the dedicated body that organizes the Harballabh Sangeet Mela and works toward the preservation and promotion of classical music traditions.

The correct answer is Increases.

Key Points

• Temperature is fundamentally defined as a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles within a substance.
• According to the Kinetic Molecular Theory, all matter is composed of tiny particles (atoms or molecules) that are in constant, random motion.
• When the temperature of matter is raised, thermal energy is transferred to the particles, which causes them to move faster in gases and liquids or vibrate more intensely in solids.
• The formula for kinetic energy is 1/2 mv², where m represents mass and v represents velocity; therefore, as the velocity of the particles increases with heat, their kinetic energy also rises proportionally.
• At higher temperatures, the frequency of collisions between particles increases because they possess more energy to overcome intermolecular forces.
• This relationship is direct; specifically, for an ideal gas, the average translational kinetic energy is directly proportional to the absolute temperature (measured in Kelvin).

 Additional Information

• Absolute Zero:
• This occurs at 0 Kelvin (−273.15 degrees Celsius), the point where particle motion reaches its theoretical minimum and kinetic energy is effectively zero.
• States of Matter and Energy:
• Gases: Particles have the highest kinetic energy, allowing them to move independently and fill any container.
• Liquids: Particles have sufficient kinetic energy to slide past each other but remain bound by attractive forces.
• Solids: Particles have the lowest kinetic energy, restricted to vibrational motion around fixed positions in a lattice structure.
• Potential Energy vs. Kinetic Energy:
• While kinetic energy relates to motion, potential energy in matter is associated with the bonds and forces between particles. During phase changes (like melting ice), temperature remains constant because the added energy increases potential energy rather than kinetic energy.

The correct answer is surplus budget.

Key Points

• A surplus budget is a financial state where the total estimated receipts (revenue) of the government exceed the total estimated expenditure in a given financial year.
• The primary source of this revenue is tax collection, including both direct taxes (like income tax) and indirect taxes (like GST), along with non-tax revenues such as dividends from public enterprises and interest receipts.
• Mathematically, it is represented as Total Revenue > Total Expenditure. This indicates that the government is earning more than it is spending on public services, infrastructure, and administration.
• In economic terms, a surplus budget acts as a contractionary fiscal policy tool. By keeping more money in the treasury and reducing the money supply in the market, it helps to curb inflation during an overheated economy.
• A surplus allows a nation to reduce its national debt or save for future contingencies, often signifying a high level of fiscal discipline or a period of robust economic growth.

 Additional Information

• Deficit Budget:
• Occurs when the government expenditure exceeds its revenue (Expenditure > Revenue).
• Commonly used during economic recessions to boost aggregate demand and stimulate growth through increased public spending.
• Balanced Budget:
• A situation where the government's total expenditure is exactly equal to its total receipts.
• It signifies a neutral fiscal stance, ensuring financial stability without increasing debt or accumulating reserves.
• Zero Budgeting:
• Technically referred to as Zero-Based Budgeting (ZBB), it is a method where every expense must be justified for each new period.
• Unlike traditional budgeting, it starts from a zero base, ignoring previous year allocations to eliminate wasteful spending.

The correct answer is Coal Bed Methane.

Key Points

• Coal Bed Methane (CBM) is a form of natural gas extracted from coal beds or coal seams, where it is held by a process known as adsorption.
• It is classified as an unconventional energy resource because the gas is stored within the rock (coal) itself rather than in the pore spaces of traditional reservoir rocks like sandstone.
• India has significant potential for CBM production due to its massive Gondwana coal reserves, which are primarily located in the eastern and central parts of the country.
• The Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH) under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas regulates and monitors the exploration and commercial production of CBM in India.

 Additional Information

• Geographical Distribution in India:
• Significant CBM blocks are identified in states like Jharkhand, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
• The Raniganj coalfield in West Bengal and the Jharia coalfield in Jharkhand are among the most prominent areas for CBM activity.
• Composition and Extraction:
• CBM is composed primarily of Methane (CH₄), typically exceeding 90 percent purity, making it a clean-burning fuel.
• Extraction involves drilling a well into the coal seam and pumping out formation water to reduce the hydrostatic pressure, which triggers the release of the gas.
• Economic and Safety Benefits:
• Utilizing CBM reduces the risk of explosions in underground coal mines by pre-draining the gas before mining begins.
• It serves as an important feedstock for fertilizer plants, power generation, and as Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) for the transport sector.

The correct answer is 1904.

Key Points

• The inaugural World Wrestling Championships were officially staged in the year 1904. This landmark event signified the birth of professionalized international wrestling competition organized independently of the Olympic Games.
• The competition was held in Vienna, which was then the capital of the Austro-Hungarian Empire. It exclusively featured the Greco-Roman style of wrestling, which was the dominant form of competitive wrestling in Europe during that period.
• The 1904 tournament featured approximately 26 participants. While the field was small by modern standards, it established the framework for weight-class-based international competition, primarily featuring athletes from Austria and Germany.
• The establishment of these championships provided a formal platform to standardize the rules of Greco-Roman wrestling, particularly the regulation that forbids holds below the waist and the use of legs for tripping or tackling.

 Additional Information

• Historical Development of Wrestling Disciplines:
• United World Wrestling (UWW): The global championships are currently governed by United World Wrestling, the international federation for the sport. It was formerly known as FILA (Federation Internationale des Luttes Associees) and is headquartered in Switzerland.
• Introduction of Men's Freestyle: While the first world event occurred in 1904 for Greco-Roman, the first Men's Freestyle World Championships were not held until 1951 in Helsinki, Finland.
• Women's Freestyle Inclusion: The Women's Freestyle World Championships were introduced much later, in 1987, with the inaugural event taking place in Lorenskog, Norway.
• Modern Unified Format: Since 2005, the UWW has organized a unified World Championship event where Greco-Roman, Men's Freestyle, and Women's Freestyle competitions are held at the same venue and time.
• Olympic Distinction: Although wrestling has been part of the Ancient Olympics since 708 BC and the Modern Olympics since 1896, these separate world championships remain the most prestigious annual event for wrestlers globally.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The 31st National Games of India were held in the year 1994 in the state of Maharashtra. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The games were jointly hosted by two major cities, Bombay (now Mumbai) and Pune, to accommodate the vast number of sporting disciplines and athletes. Hence, statement II is correct.
• The 1994 National Games are noted for modernizing sports infrastructure in Maharashtra, leading to the development of world-class facilities in both Bombay and Pune.
• A significant outcome of this event was the construction of the Shree Shiv Chhatrapati Sports Complex located at Balewadi, Pune, which continues to be a premier venue for international tournaments.

 Additional Information

• National Games of India:
• The National Games comprise various disciplines in which sportsmen from the different states of India participate against each other.
• The first edition of the Indian Olympic Games (the precursor to the National Games) was held in 1924 in Lahore, undivided India.
• The event was officially renamed the National Games starting from the 9th edition held in Lucknow in 1940.
• The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) is the governing body responsible for the organization and selection of host cities for the games.
• The mascot for the 1994 National Games was Ganya, a playful Elephant, symbolizing strength and intelligence.

The correct answer is 0.5%.

Key Points

• In the year 1993, India's share in world services exports was recorded at 0.5%, reflecting its marginal presence in the global trade arena at that time.
• This period immediately followed the 1991 Economic Reforms, which introduced Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) to the Indian economy, gradually opening up the services sector to international competition.
• During the early 1990s, India's service basket was dominated by traditional services such as shipping, transportation, and travel, while modern services like Information Technology (IT) were still in a nascent developmental phase.
• The global services market in 1993 was primarily controlled by developed economies, specifically the European Union and the United States, with developing nations having limited market penetration.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of India's Services Exports:
• Post-1993, the sector witnessed exponential growth due to the Y2K boom and the subsequent rise of Software Technology Parks of India (STPI).
• By 2000-2001, India's share in global services doubled as the IT-BPM (Information Technology - Business Process Management) sector began to mature.
• According to the World Trade Organization (WTO) and the Economic Survey of India, India's share in world commercial services exports rose to approximately 4.4% by 2022, making it one of the largest exporters of services globally.
• The Service Sector is now a critical driver of the Indian Economy, contributing over 50% to the national Gross Value Added (GVA) and attracting significant Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
• Current exports are driven by high-value segments like Global Capability Centers (GCCs), professional management consultancy, and digitally delivered services.

The correct answer is deuce.

Key Points

• In the sport of Tennis, the standard scoring system for a single game progresses from Love (0) to 15 (1 point), 30 (2 points), and 40 (3 points).
• When both players or doubles teams reach a score of 40-40, meaning each has won three points, the situation is known as a deuce.
• Once a game reaches deuce, a player must win two consecutive points to claim the game. The first point won after a deuce is called Advantage.
• If the player with the Advantage wins the subsequent point, they win the game; however, if they lose that point, the score returns to deuce.
• This rule ensures that a game cannot be won by a margin of only one point once the score is tied at the highest level of standard play.

 Additional Information

• Love:
• This term is used in tennis to denote a score of zero for a player or team in a game or set.
• Etymologically, it is widely believed to come from the French word l'oeuf, which means the egg, representing the circular shape of a zero.
• Slice:
• A slice is a type of shot where the player strikes the ball with an open racket face to produce backspin.
• This technique causes the ball to travel with a lower trajectory and skid or stay low upon hitting the court surface, making it difficult for the opponent to return.
• Smash:
• A smash (or overhead) is a high-velocity shot hit above the player's head with a motion similar to a serve.
• It is typically an aggressive response to a lob and is often used as a finishing move to win a point.

The correct answer is Bhutan.

Key Points

• Bhutan has emerged as a pioneer in the Himalayan region by integrating sovereign cryptocurrency mining into its national economic strategy to diversify its revenue streams.
• The Royal Government of Bhutan conducts these operations through Druk Holding and Investments (DHI), the state-owned commercial arm that manages the kingdom's wealth and strategic assets.
• A significant partnership was established with Bitdeer Technologies Group, a Nasdaq-listed firm, to develop a carbon-free digital asset mining data center powered by hydroelectric energy.
• The nation utilizes its vast renewable energy resources, specifically hydropower generated from its glacial rivers, to fuel energy-intensive ASIC miners, ensuring the process remains environmentally sustainable.
• This initiative leverages surplus electricity that is often underutilized during the monsoon season, converting natural kinetic energy into high-value digital assets like Bitcoin.
• By adopting green mining, Bhutan aims to mitigate the economic impacts of the COVID-19 pandemic on its tourism sector and reduce its heavy reliance on hydropower exports to neighboring countries.

 Additional Information

• Green Cryptocurrency Mining:
• Traditional mining often relies on coal-based electricity, but green mining uses clean energy like hydro, solar, or wind to secure decentralized networks.
• This approach aligns with Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) goals, making it more acceptable to global investors.
• Carbon Negative Status:
• Bhutan is the only country in the world that absorbs more carbon dioxide than it emits, maintaining a forest cover of over 70 percent.
• The crypto mining venture is designed to protect this status by using only surplus green energy without increasing carbon emissions.
• Regional Context:
• While India, Nepal, and Pakistan have explored blockchain technology or Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDC), they have not yet adopted sovereign-level mining using renewable energy at the scale of Bhutan.
• Nepal and India focus more on regulatory frameworks and taxation of private virtual digital assets.

The correct answer is Housing Price.

Key Points

• RESIDEX is India's first official Housing Price Index (HPI), formulated to track the movement of prices in the residential real estate segment across the country. Hence, the link to housing price is correct.
• It was launched in July 2007 by the National Housing Bank (NHB), which serves as the apex regulatory body for housing finance companies in India. Hence, the regulatory origin is established.
• The index was initially developed with 2007 as the base year to provide transparency and a standardized benchmark for stakeholders such as lenders, property developers, and homebuyers. Hence, its functional role is to monitor property value fluctuations.
• Since April 2017, the NHB revamped the RESIDEX by shifting the base year to 2017-18 and expanding its scope to cover 50 cities, categorizing indices into HPI @ Assessment Prices and HPI @ Market Prices. Hence, its methodology remains centered on urban housing costs.

 Additional Information

• Stock Market Performance:
• This is measured by indices such as the S&P BSE SENSEX and the NIFTY 50, which track the market capitalization of listed companies on the Bombay Stock Exchange and National Stock Exchange.
• Industrial Production:
• This is tracked via the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), compiled monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO) to measure the growth of various sectors like mining, manufacturing, and electricity.
• Agricultural Commodity:
• Prices and performance in this sector are monitored through the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and platforms like e-NAM (National Agriculture Market).

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

• The Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP) is an independent, non-partisan, and non-profit international think tank headquartered in Sydney, Australia.
• Founded in 2007 by IT entrepreneur and philanthropist Steve Killelea, the institute aims to shift the world’s focus to peace as a positive, achievable, and tangible measure of human well-being and progress.
• The Global Terrorism Index (GTI) is an annual report published by the IEP that provides a comprehensive summary of the key global trends and patterns in terrorism over the last decade.
• The index analyzes the impact of terrorism in 163 countries, which covers 99.7% of the world’s population, using data from the Global Terrorism Database (GTD) and other reputable sources.
• Countries are scored on a scale from 0 to 10, where 0 represents no impact from terrorism and 10 represents the highest measurable impact, based on four indicators: total incidents, fatalities, injuries, and property damage.

 Additional Information

• Global Peace Index (GPI):
• Also produced by the IEP, this index is the world’s leading measure of global peacefulness, ranking countries according to their levels of societal safety, domestic conflict, and militarization.
• Positive Peace Index:
• This framework measures the attitudes, institutions, and structures that create and sustain peaceful societies, such as low levels of corruption and high levels of human capital.
• Global Reach:
• While its headquarters are in Australia, the IEP maintains several satellite offices in New York, Mexico City, Brussels, and The Hague to coordinate with international bodies like the United Nations and the OECD.

Shortcut Trick

Solve using the unit digit method to quickly identify the answer.

Expression unit digits: 9 + 7 − (2 + 9) + 6 − 4 + 3

⇒ 9 + 7 − (1) + 6 − 4 + 3

⇒ 16 − 1 + 6 − 4 + 3 = 15 + 6 − 4 + 3 = 20

The unit digit of the result must be 0. Among the options, only 130 ends with 0.

∴ The correct answer is 130.

Alternate Method

Given: 89 + 47 − (32 + 19) + 76 − 54 + 23

Apply the BODMAS rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

⇒ 89 + 47 − (51) + 76 − 54 + 23

Group the positive and negative terms together:

⇒ (89 + 47 + 76 + 23) − 51 − 54

⇒ 235 − (51 + 54)

⇒ 235 − 105

⇒ 130

∴ The correct answer is 130.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It specifies the order of operations to solve expressions: Brackets (), Orders (powers/roots), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Grouping Method

In multi-step addition and subtraction, summing all positive numbers and all negative numbers separately before the final subtraction reduces calculation errors.

Unit Digit Check

This is a verification shortcut where only the last digits are calculated to match with the options, saving time during competitive exams.

Shortcut Trick

Apply BODMAS: 84 + 47 − 33 + (19 × 2) + 28 ÷ 4 − 16.

Solve Brackets and Division: 19 × 2 = 38 and 28 ÷ 4 = 7.

Group all Positive terms: 84 + 47 + 38 + 7 = 176.

Group all Negative terms: 33 + 16 = 49.

Final calculation: 176 − 49 = 127.

∴ The correct answer is 127.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 84 + 47 − 33 + (19 × 2) + 28 ÷ 4 − 16

Follow the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):

⇒ 84 + 47 − 33 + 38 + 28 ÷ 4 − 16 (Solving Brackets: 19 × 2 = 38)

⇒ 84 + 47 − 33 + 38 + 7 − 16 (Solving Division: 28 ÷ 4 = 7)

⇒ 131 − 33 + 38 + 7 − 16 (Addition: 84 + 47 = 131)

⇒ 98 + 38 + 7 − 16 (Subtraction: 131 − 33 = 98)

⇒ 136 + 7 − 16 (Addition: 98 + 38 = 136)

⇒ 143 − 16 (Addition: 136 + 7 = 143)

⇒ 127 (Subtraction: 143 − 16 = 127)

∴ The correct answer is 127.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It stands for Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction, defining the sequence for solving multi-operator expressions.

Left-to-Right Rule

When operators of the same precedence (like addition and subtraction) appear together, solve the expression from left to right.

Bracket Hierarchy

Always solve inner brackets first in the order: Round Brackets (), then Curly Brackets {}, and finally Square Brackets [].

Shortcut Trick

Check the difference between the denominator and numerator for each fraction.

17 − 15 = 2 | 15 − 13 = 2 | 19 − 17 = 2 | 21 − 19 = 2

For proper fractions with a constant difference, the fraction with the largest numerator is the largest.

Comparing the numerators 13, 15, 17, and 19, the value 19 is the largest.

∴ The correct answer is 19/21.

Alternate Method

Given Fractions: 15/17, 13/15, 17/19, 19/21

Method: Convert each proper fraction into its decimal equivalent for a direct comparison of their values.

Calculating the decimal values:

⇒ 13/15 = 0.8666...

⇒ 15/17 ≈ 0.8823...

⇒ 17/19 ≈ 0.8947...

⇒ 19/21 ≈ 0.9047...

Comparing these decimals, we observe: 0.9047 > 0.8947 > 0.8823 > 0.8666

∴ The correct answer is 19/21.

Additional Information

Constant Difference Rule for Proper Fractions

For proper fractions (Numerator < Denominator), if the difference (D − N) is the same for all, the fraction with the largest terms is the largest.

Constant Difference Rule for Improper Fractions

For improper fractions (Numerator > Denominator), if the difference (N − D) is constant, the fraction with the smallest terms is the largest.

Cross-Multiplication Method

To compare two fractions a/b and c/d, calculate a × d and b × c. If a × d > b × c, then a c/d.

Same Numerator Rule

When fractions have the same numerator, the fraction with the smallest denominator is the largest.

Shortcut Trick

Distribute the division across the terms in the numerator: √(a+b) ÷ √c = √(a÷c) + √(b÷c).

⇒ √(20 ÷ 5) + √(45 ÷ 5)

⇒ √4 + √9 = 2 + 3 = 5.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Alternate Method

Given: (√20 + √45) ÷ √5

Method: Factorize the radicands to identify perfect squares.

⇒ √20 = √(4 × 5) = 2√5

⇒ √45 = √(9 × 5) = 3√5

⇒ (√20 + √45) ÷ √5 = (2√5 + 3√5) ÷ √5

⇒ 5√5 ÷ √5

⇒ 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Additional Information

Quotient Law of Surds

For any positive real numbers a and b, the square root of their quotient is the quotient of their square roots: √(a ÷ b) = √a ÷ √b.

Addition of Like Surds

Surds can be added or subtracted only if they are like surds (having the same number under the radical sign): m√x + n√x = (m + n)√x.

Simplifying Radicals

To simplify a radical, find the largest perfect square factor of the radicand and move its square root outside the radical: √(k² × a) = k√a.

Shortcut Trick

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Sum of dimensions = 11 + 6 = 17 cm

Total Perimeter = 2 × 17 = 34 cm

∴ The correct answer is 34 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the rectangle (l) = 11 cm

Breadth of the rectangle (b) = 6 cm

Formula Used:

Perimeter of a rectangle = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Calculations:

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × (11 + 6)

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × 17

⇒ Perimeter = 34 cm

∴ The correct answer is 34 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Rectangle

The total surface area enclosed by the rectangle is calculated as Length × Breadth.

Diagonal of Rectangle

The length of the diagonal (d) can be found using Pythagoras theorem: d = √(l² + b²).

Square Properties

A square is a special rectangle where length equals breadth (l = b = s). Its Perimeter is 4 × s and Area is s².

Shortcut Trick

Semi-perimeter (Length + Breadth) = Perimeter ÷ 2.

Semi-perimeter = 36 ÷ 2 = 18 cm.

Breadth = Semi-perimeter − Length.

Breadth = 18 − 10 = 8 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Perimeter of the rectangle = 36 cm, Length = 10 cm.

Formula: Perimeter = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

⇒ 36 = 2 × (10 + Breadth)

⇒ 36 ÷ 2 = 10 + Breadth

⇒ 18 = 10 + Breadth

⇒ Breadth = 18 − 10

⇒ Breadth = 8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Rectangle

The space occupied by a rectangle is calculated as Length × Breadth.

Diagonal of Rectangle

The diagonal of a rectangle forms a right-angled triangle with the length and breadth; d = √(Length² + Breadth²).

Properties of Rectangle

Opposite sides are equal and parallel, and every internal angle is exactly 90°.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the algebraic identity in the expression: ((a + b)² − (a − b)²) / (ab).

The standard formula for the numerator is (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab.

Substituting this into the expression: 4ab / ab = 4.

The result is independent of the values of 173 and 258.

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Alternate Method

Given: The expression is ((173 + 258)² − (173 − 258)²) / (173 × 258).

Formula Used: (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab and (a − b)² = a² + b² − 2ab.

⇒ Let a = 173 and b = 258.

⇒ The numerator is (a + b)² − (a − b)².

⇒ Expanding the terms: (a² + b² + 2ab) − (a² + b² − 2ab).

⇒ Simplifying: a² + b² + 2ab − a² − b² + 2ab.

⇒ All squared terms cancel out, leaving: 2ab + 2ab = 4ab.

⇒ Final expression = 4ab / ab.

⇒ Result = 4.

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Additional Information

Sum of Squares Identity

The identity (a + b)² + (a − b)² = 2(a² + b²) is often used in similar simplification problems.

Difference of Two Squares

a² − b² = (a − b)(a + b) is used when two squared numbers are subtracted.

Standard Algebraic Identity

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² is the most fundamental expansion in competitive algebra.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the bracketed Squares first: 40² = 1600 and 30² = 900.

Simplify the bracket sum and difference: 1600 + 900 − 1300 = 1200.

Perform the Multiplication: 55 × 1200 = 66000.

∴ The correct answer is 66000.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 55 × (40² + 30² − 1300)

The problem is solved using the BODMAS Rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

⇒ 55 × (1600 + 900 − 1300)

⇒ 55 × (2500 − 1300)

⇒ 55 × 1200

⇒ 66000

∴ The correct answer is 66000.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule Priority

Always prioritize operations inside Brackets before handling exponents (Orders) and basic arithmetic operations like Addition or Multiplication.

Shortcut for Squaring Numbers ending in Zero

To square a number ending in zero, square the base digits and append twice the number of zeros (e.g., 40² = 4² followed by 00 = 1600).

Multiplication by 55

Multiplying by 55 can be simplified as (50 + 5) × Number or 5 × 11 × Number to speed up mental Calculation.

Shortcut Trick

The sum of cubes of first n natural numbers is the square of their sum: [n(n + 1) / 2]².

Here, n = 40.

Sum = [40 × (40 + 1) / 2]² = [20 × 41]²

Sum = 820² = 672400.

∴ The correct answer is 672400.

Alternate Method

Given: The series is 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ...... + 40³

This is a series of the sum of cubes of the first 40 natural numbers.

Formula Used:

Sum of cubes of first n natural numbers (S_n) = [n(n + 1) / 2]²

Calculations:

⇒ n = 40

⇒ S₄₀ = [40 × (40 + 1) / 2]²

⇒ S₄₀ = [40 × 41 / 2]²

⇒ S₄₀ = [20 × 41]²

⇒ S₄₀ = (820)²

⇒ S₄₀ = 672400

∴ The correct answer is 672400.

Additional Information

Sum of First n Natural Numbers

The sum is given by the formula: S_n = n(n + 1) / 2.

Sum of Squares of First n Natural Numbers

The sum is given by the formula: S_n = n(n + 1)(2n + 1) / 6.

Sum of First n Even Numbers

The sum of the first n even natural numbers is calculated as: S_n = n(n + 1).

Shortcut Trick

Assume the overall average of 50 as the baseline for all 14 numbers.

Deviation for 9 numbers = 9 × (45 − 50) = 9 × (−5) = −45.

To maintain the average, the remaining 5 numbers must have a total deviation of +45.

Deviation per number for 'x' = +45 ÷ 5 = +9.

Value of x = Baseline Average + Deviation = 50 + 9 = 59.

∴ The correct answer is 59.

Alternate Method

Given: Total numbers = 14, Average of 14 numbers = 50, Number of first group = 5, Average of first group = x, Number of second group = 9, Average of second group = 45.

Formula: Total Sum = (n₁ × Avg₁) + (n₂ × Avg₂)

⇒ Total Sum of 14 numbers = 14 × 50 = 700

⇒ Sum of the remaining 9 numbers = 9 × 45 = 405

⇒ Sum of the 5 numbers = Total Sum − Sum of 9 numbers

⇒ Sum of the 5 numbers = 700 − 405 = 295

⇒ Average of 5 numbers (x) = Sum ÷ Count = 295 ÷ 5

⇒ x = 59

∴ The correct answer is 59.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Mean

The average or mean is the sum of all observations divided by the total number of observations: Average = Σx ÷ n.

Weighted Average

When two groups with averages A₁ and A₂ and sizes n₁ and n₂ are combined, the resulting average is (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Net Deviation Rule

The sum of the deviations of all individual values from the arithmetic mean is always zero. This is a powerful tool for finding missing averages.

Shortcut Trick

The Highest Common Factor (HCF) is either the smallest difference between any two numbers or a factor of that difference.

Differences: 30 − 20 = 10 and 50 − 30 = 20.

Smallest difference = 10.

Check if 10 divides all given numbers: 20 ÷ 10 = 2, 30 ÷ 10 = 3, and 50 ÷ 10 = 5.

Since 10 divides all numbers exactly, it is the HCF.

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Alternate Method

Given: The numbers are 20, 30, and 50.

Method: Prime Factorization involves breaking down each number into its prime components to find the greatest common divisor.

⇒ Prime factors of 20 = 2 × 2 × 5

⇒ Prime factors of 30 = 2 × 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factors of 50 = 2 × 5 × 5

⇒ Identifying the common prime factors: 2 and 5 appear in all sets.

⇒ HCF = 2 × 5 = 10.

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Additional Information

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The smallest number that is a multiple of all the given numbers. For 20, 30, and 50, the LCM is 300.

Relationship between HCF and LCM

For any two numbers 'a' and 'b', the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF × LCM.

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are said to be co-prime if their Highest Common Factor is 1 (e.g., 8 and 9).

Shortcut Trick

To find the maximum number of students for equal distribution, calculate the HCF (Highest Common Factor) of the given quantities.

Quantity 1 = 280 (Chips)

Quantity 2 = 420 (Toffees)

Difference Method: 420 − 280 = 140

Since 140 divides both 280 and 420 exactly, the HCF is 140.

∴ The correct answer is 140.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of chips = 280

Total number of toffees = 420

Formula Used:

Maximum number of students = HCF of (280, 420)

Calculations:

Using prime factorization method:

⇒ 280 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 × 7 = 2³ × 5 × 7

⇒ 420 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 2² × 3 × 5 × 7

⇒ HCF = Product of the lowest powers of common factors

⇒ HCF = 2² × 5 × 7

⇒ HCF = 4 × 5 × 7

⇒ HCF = 140

Each student will get 280 ÷ 140 = 2 chips and 420 ÷ 140 = 3 toffees.

∴ The correct answer is 140.

Additional Information

HCF (Highest Common Factor)

The largest positive integer that divides each of the integers without leaving a remainder. It is also known as GCD (Greatest Common Divisor).

Relationship between HCF and LCM

For any two numbers 'a' and 'b', the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

HCF of Fractions

HCF of (a/b, c/d) = HCF of Numerators (a, c) ÷ LCM of Denominators (b, d).

Shortcut Trick

Strike out the three zeros in 340, 70, and 60 against the percent denominators.

Perform the remaining multiplication: 34 × 7 × 6 ÷ 10.

34 × 42 = 1428.

Divide by the remaining 10: 1428 ÷ 10 = 142.8.

∴ The correct answer is 142.8.

Alternate Method

Given: 340 percent of 70 percent of 60.

Formula Used: x% of y = (x ÷ 100) × y

⇒ Result = (340 ÷ 100) × (70 ÷ 100) × 60

⇒ Result = 3.4 × 0.7 × 60

⇒ Result = 3.4 × 42

⇒ Result = 142.8

∴ The correct answer is 142.8.

Additional Information

Commutative Property of Percentage

The operation is commutative: x% of y is equal to y% of x, which can simplify mental math.

Decimal Conversion

To convert any percentage to a decimal, move the decimal point two places to the left (e.g., 340% = 3.4).

Successive Percentages

For calculations involving a% of b% of c, the combined multiplier is (a × b ÷ 10,000).

Shortcut Trick

Profit percentage (12%) means if Cost Price is 100 units, Selling Price is 112 units.

Given 112 units → Rs. 672

1 unit → 672 ÷ 112 = 6

Value of Profit (12 units) → 12 × 6 = 72

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 72.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 672

Profit Percentage (P%) = 12%

Formula Used:

Profit = [P% ÷ (100 + P%)] × SP

Calculations:

⇒ Profit = [12 ÷ (100 + 12)] × 672

⇒ Profit = (12 ÷ 112) × 672

⇒ Profit = 12 × (672 ÷ 112)

⇒ Profit = 12 × 6

⇒ Profit = 72

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 72.

Additional Information

Basic Profit and Loss Formulas

Profit = Selling Price (SP) − Cost Price (CP). Profit only occurs when SP > CP.

Cost Price Formula

Cost Price = [100 ÷ (100 + Profit%)] × SP. In this case, CP = [100 ÷ 112] × 672 = Rs. 600.

Profit Percentage

Profit % is always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise: Profit% = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

If the Cost Price (CP) and Selling Price (SP) are both decreased or increased by the same percentage, the profit or loss percentage remains unchanged.

Since both CP and SP are decreased by an identical 20%, the initial loss of 10% will persist.

Ratio of SP to CP remains constant: 90 / 100 = 0.9.

New ratio = (90 × 0.8) / (100 × 0.8) = 72 / 80 = 0.9.

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Loss Percentage = 10%, Reduction in both CP and SP = 20%.

Formula Used: Loss % = [(CP − SP) / CP] × 100

⇒ Let the initial CP be 100 units.

⇒ Initial SP = 100 − 10% of 100 = 90 units.

⇒ New CP = 100 − 20% of 100 = 80 units.

⇒ New SP = 90 − 20% of 90 = 90 − 18 = 72 units.

⇒ New Loss Amount = New CP − New SP = 80 − 72 = 8 units.

⇒ New Loss % = (8 / 80) × 100 = 10%.

∴ The correct answer is 10%.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP and SP

When both CP and SP are multiplied or divided by the same factor (k), the Profit or Loss percentage remains constant because the ratio SP/CP remains unchanged.

Profit and Loss Formulas

Profit % = (Profit / CP) × 100 and Loss % = (Loss / CP) × 100. Both are always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise.

Selling Price Calculation

SP = CP × (100 − Loss%)/100 for loss and SP = CP × (100 + Profit%)/100 for profit.

Shortcut Trick

Total maximum marks = 3 × 50 = 150

Subject 1 score = 150 × 80% × 40%

Subject 1 score = 150 × 0.32 = 48 marks

∴ The correct answer is 48 marks.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of subjects = 3

Maximum marks per subject = 50

Aggregate percentage = 80%

Percentage of total marks in Subject 1 = 40%

Calculations:

⇒ Total maximum marks = 3 × 50 = 150

⇒ Total marks obtained = 80% of 150

⇒ Total marks obtained = (80 ÷ 100) × 150 = 120

⇒ Score in Subject 1 = 40% of 120

⇒ Score in Subject 1 = (40 ÷ 100) × 120 = 48 marks

∴ The correct answer is 48 marks.

Additional Information

Basic Percentage Formula

Percentage = (Value ÷ Total Value) × 100. To find a value from a percentage: Value = (Percentage × Total) ÷ 100.

Fractional Conversions

Converting percentages to fractions speeds up calculations: 80% = 4/5 and 40% = 2/5.

Average Marks

Average marks = (Sum of marks in all subjects) ÷ (Number of subjects). In this case, Average = 120 ÷ 3 = 40 marks per subject.

Shortcut Trick

Efficiency ratio of C : D = 5 : 1.

Time ratio is inverse of efficiency, so C : D = 1 : 5.

Given 1 unit = 15 days, then 5 units = 15 × 5 = 75 days for D.

Time for 1/4 part of work = 75 ÷ 4 = 18.75 days.

∴ The correct answer is 18.75 days.

Alternate Method

Given that C is 5 times as efficient as D and C can complete the work in 15 days.

Let efficiency of D = 1 unit/day.

Efficiency of C = 5 × 1 = 5 units/day.

⇒ Total Work = Efficiency of C × Time taken = 5 × 15 = 75 units.

⇒ Days taken by D for full work = 75 ÷ 1 = 75 days.

⇒ Days taken by D for 1/4 part of work = 75 × (1/4) = 18.75 days.

∴ The correct answer is 18.75 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work (E ∝ 1/T).

Total Work Formula

Total Work = Efficiency × Time. This remains constant for the same piece of work.

Partial Work Calculation

Time for partial work = (Part of work to be done) × Total time taken for full work.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Total Work = LCM(18, 27) = 54 units.

Efficiency of A = 54 ÷ 18 = 3 units/day; Efficiency of B = 54 ÷ 27 = 2 units/day.

Work done by B alone in 9 days = 9 × 2 = 18 units.

Remaining work = 54 − 18 = 36 units.

Days taken by A alone to finish = 36 ÷ 3 = 12 days.

∴ The correct answer is 12 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by A = 18 days; Time taken by B = 27 days; B worked for 9 days.

Formula Used: Total Work = Efficiency × Time; Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

⇒ Work completed by B in 9 days = Efficiency of B × 9 days

⇒ Work done by B = 2 × 9 = 18 units

⇒ Remaining Work = Total Work − Work done by B

⇒ Remaining Work = 54 − 18 = 36 units

⇒ Time taken by A to finish remaining work = Remaining Work ÷ Efficiency of A

⇒ Time = 36 ÷ 3 = 12 days

∴ The correct answer is 12 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time. If efficiency ratio is x : y, then time ratio is y : x for the same work.

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed based on the total work done by each person. If they work for the same time, wages are proportional to efficiency.

Combined Work Formula

If two people finish work in A and B days, they finish together in (A × B) ÷ (A + B) days.

Shortcut Trick

To find speed in km/hr directly: Speed = (Length / Time) × (18/5)

Speed = (240 / 18) × (18 / 5)

Speed = 240 ÷ 5 = 48 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 48 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the train (Distance) = 240 m

Time taken to pass the man = 18 sec

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ Speed (in m/s) = 240 ÷ 18

⇒ Speed = 40/3 m/s

⇒ Speed (in km/hr) = (40/3) × (18/5)

⇒ Speed = (40 ÷ 5) × (18 ÷ 3)

⇒ Speed = 8 × 6

⇒ Speed = 48 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 48 km/hr.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5. To convert from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18.

Train Crossing a Platform

When a train crosses a stationary object with length (like a bridge or platform), total distance = Length of Train + Length of Object.

Relative Speed

For two objects moving in the same direction, relative speed = S₁ − S₂. In the opposite direction, relative speed = S₁ + S₂.

Shortcut Trick

Extra time taken to cross the platform = 20 − 10 = 10 sec.

Speed of the train = Platform length ÷ Extra time = 400 ÷ 10 = 40 m/s.

Length of the train = Speed × Pole crossing time = 40 × 10 = 400 m.

∴ The correct answer is 400 m, 40 m/s.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time to cross standing pole = 10 sec

Time to cross 400 m platform = 20 sec

Formula Used:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ Let the length of the train be L metres.

⇒ Speed of the train when crossing the pole = L ÷ 10

⇒ Speed of the train when crossing the platform = (L + 400) ÷ 20

⇒ L ÷ 10 = (L + 400) ÷ 20

⇒ 2L = L + 400

⇒ L = 400 m

⇒ Speed = 400 ÷ 10 = 40 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 400 m, 40 m/s.

Additional Information

Relative Speed

When two trains or objects move in the same direction, relative speed is the difference (u − v). If they move in opposite directions, it is the sum (u + v).

Speed Conversion

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Crossing Objects

When a train crosses a point object (pole, man), distance = length of train. When it crosses a length object (bridge, platform), distance = length of train + length of object.

The correct answer is: To start crying profusely, either genuinely or in order to get attention!.

Key Points

• The idiom 'turn on the waterworks' refers to a situation where someone suddenly starts crying, often in a dramatic way or to gain sympathy and attention from others. (रोने लगना, विशेष रूप से सहानुभूति या ध्यान आकर्षित करने के लिए)
• Example: As soon as her mother said no to the expensive dress, the teenager turned on the waterworks to get her way.
• 'To start crying profusely, either genuinely or in order to get attention!' means to begin weeping heavily or shedding many tears, which may be a sincere reaction or a tactical move to influence someone's emotions. (गंभीर रूप से रोना शुरू करना, या तो वास्तविक रूप से या ध्यान आकर्षित करने के लिए)
• Example: The actor could start crying profusely on command, making every emotional scene in the movie feel incredibly real.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of the idiom 'turn on the waterworks' is to start crying profusely.

Therefore, the correct answer is: To start crying profusely, either genuinely or in order to get attention!.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To provide comfort to another during a difficult time (कठिन समय में किसी को सांत्वना देना): Offering emotional support or relief to someone who is suffering.
• Example: It is important to provide comfort to those who have lost their loved ones in the disaster.
• To listen sympathetically to another person's problems (सहानुभूतिपूर्वक दूसरे की समस्याओं को सुनना): To hear someone's concerns with an understanding and caring attitude.
• Example: A good leader should always be willing to listen sympathetically to the challenges faced by their team.
• To change in one's opinion or feelings on a matter (किसी मामले में अपनी राय या भावनाओं को बदलना): Altering one's perspective or emotional stance regarding a specific topic.
• Example: After seeing the successful results of the trial, several board members began to change their opinion about the new policy.

pThe correct answer is 'Option (4)' i.e. 'A highly unexpected or coincidental event, especially one that has an important or far-reaching influence on the future'.

Key Points

• The idiom 'twist of fate' refers to an unplanned or unexpected turn of events that happens by chance, often leading to a significant change in circumstances. (भाग्य का खेल या अनपेक्षित मोड़)
• Example: By a twist of fate, they met again years later in a foreign country after having lost touch.
• 'A highly unexpected or coincidental event, especially one that has an important or far-reaching influence on the future' describes a situation where chance or coincidence plays a major role in shaping one's destiny or future outcomes. (एक अत्यधिक अप्रत्याशित या संयोगवश होने वाली घटना जिसका भविष्य पर गहरा प्रभाव पड़ता है)
• Example: Winning the scholarship was a twist of fate that allowed him to pursue his studies abroad and eventually lead a global organization.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of the idiom 'twist of fate' is accurately captured by this description.

Therefore, the correct answer is- A highly unexpected or coincidental event, especially one that has an important or far-reaching influence on the future.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Decide what will become of one (किसी के भविष्य का फैसला करना): This refers to determining or influencing the final outcome or destiny of a person.
• Example: The jury's final verdict will decide what will become of him in the eyes of the law.
• Risk or something dangerous (जोखिम या कुछ खतरनाक): This refers to a situation involving exposure to danger, harm, or the possibility of loss.
• Example: Walking alone in that dark, isolated alley involves a high risk of being mugged.
• A highly undesirable occurrence, a misfortune (एक अत्यधिक अवांछनीय घटना, एक दुर्भाग्य): This refers to an unlucky or unpleasant event that causes distress or trouble.
• Example: Losing all his hard-earned savings in a single day was a great misfortune for the old man.

The correct answer is: Maudlin.

Key Points

• The word 'Maudlin' refers to someone who is tearfully sentimental or self-pitying, often in a way that seems foolish or exaggerated, especially when under the influence of alcohol. (अति-भावुक)
• Example: After a few drinks, he became maudlin and started talking about his childhood pets.
• 'Maudlin' is the only word in the given list that is correctly spelled according to standard English dictionaries. It describes an emotional state of being overly sentimental. (अति-भावुक)
• Example: The play was criticized for its maudlin and unrealistic portrayal of grief.
• Hence, we can identify that 'Maudlin' is the correctly spelled option.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Maudlin.

Additional Information

Here are the other options with their correct spellings and meanings explained:

• Macabre (भयंकर): The spelling 'Macaber' is incorrect; the standard spelling is 'Macabre'. It refers to something disturbing and horrifying because it is concerned with death.
• Example: The horror movie featured many macabre scenes that left the audience terrified.
• Maelstrom (भारी खलबली): The spelling 'Mealstorm' is incorrect; the correct spelling is 'Maelstrom'. It refers to a powerful whirlpool or a situation of violent turmoil and confusion.
• Example: The politician was caught in a maelstrom of scandals and accusations.
• Malaise (अस्वस्थता): The spelling 'Maliase' is incorrect; the correct spelling is 'Malaise'. It refers to a general feeling of discomfort, illness, or unease whose exact cause is difficult to identify.
• Example: The country was suffering from a deep economic malaise that lasted for years.

The correct answer is: Attractive.

Key Points

• The word 'appealing' refers to something that is attractive, interesting, or inviting to the senses or mind. (आकर्षक)
• Example: The idea of working from home is very appealing to many professionals today.
• 'Attractive' describes something that is pleasing to the eye or mind, or something that draws interest or admiration; it is the closest synonym for appealing. (आकर्षक)
• Example: The company offered an attractive salary package to the new candidates.
• Hence, we can infer that the word closest in meaning to 'appealing' is 'attractive'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Attractive.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Boring (उबाऊ): Something that is not interesting or lacks excitement.
• Example: I found the long documentary quite boring and struggled to stay awake.
• Confusing (भ्रमित करने वाला): Something that is difficult to understand or makes one feel uncertain.
• Example: The instructions for assembling the cabinet were very confusing.
• Annoying (परेशान करने वाला): Something that causes irritation or slight anger.
• Example: The annoying sound of the dripping faucet kept me up all night.

The correct answer is: Option(1) i.e. supercede.

Key Points

• The misspelt word 'supercede' is a common spelling error of the word 'supersede', which means to take the place of a person or thing previously in authority or use. (स्थान लेना)
• Example: The word supercede is often incorrectly used in writing when the author intends to mean replacing something old.
• 'Supersede' is the correctly spelt word that refers to replacing something that is old-fashioned, less useful, or no longer valid. (अधिक्रमण करना)
• Example: The latest version of the application will supersede the older one starting next month.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word among the given options is 'supercede'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: supercede.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Consensus (आम सहमति): A general agreement reached by a group of people.
• Example: There is a growing consensus among scientists that climate change is accelerating.
• Guarantee (गारंटी / आश्वासन): A formal assurance that certain conditions will be fulfilled, especially regarding product quality.
• Example: The manufacturer provides a one-year guarantee for all parts and labor.
• Threshold (दहलीज / ��ीमा): The point of entering or beginning; or the level at which a specific effect or reaction occurs.
• Example: The company is on the threshold of a major breakthrough in renewable energy.

The correct answer is: Conceal.

Key Points

• The word 'Exhibit' means to publicly display or show something, such as an object or a collection, in an art gallery or museum, or to manifest a quality or feeling. (प्रदर्शित करना/दिखाना)
• Example: The museum will exhibit the ancient artifacts for the public starting next week.
• 'Conceal' refers to the act of hiding something or keeping it from being seen or known; it is the direct opposite of showing or displaying something. (छिपाना)
• Example: He tried to conceal his true feelings, but his eyes gave him away.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Exhibit' is 'Conceal'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Conceal.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Display (प्रदर्शन): To put something in a prominent place so that it may readily be seen.
• Example: The shop had a magnificent display of silk scarves in the window.
• Present (प्रस्तुत करना): To formally give or show something to someone.
• Example: The researchers will present their findings at the international conference.
• Show (दिखाना): To allow something to be visible or to demonstrate a process.
• Example: Please show me the way to the nearest railway station.

The correct answer is 'to'.

Key Points

• The verb 'attend' is frequently followed by the preposition 'to' when it means to pay attention, listen carefully, or deal with something or someone.
• In the context of the sentence, the children are focusing their attention on the teacher's words, making 'attending to' the grammatically correct phrasal verb.
• The other options (through, out, by) do not form standard idiomatic expressions with 'attend' that fit the meaning of listening or paying attention.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Complete Sentence: 'The children were attending to what the teacher was saying.'

Additional Information

• Option 1 (through): This preposition suggests movement from one side to another or the duration of an event, which is incorrect here.
• Option 2 (out): While 'attend' can sometimes be used in other contexts, 'attend out' is not a recognized phrase for listening.
• Option 3 (by): This indicates agency or proximity and does not convey the intended meaning of paying attention.

The correct answer is Option(3) i.e. Mercenary.

Key Points

• The phrase 'One who is only concerned with making money' refers to an individual whose actions and motivations are entirely driven by the desire for financial gain, often at the expense of ethics or personal relationships. (केवल धन कमाने से संबंधित/स्वार्थी व्यक्ति)
• Example: It was hard to tell if his interest in the business was genuine or purely mercenary.
• 'Mercenary' is a term used to describe a person who is primarily motivated by money; it can also refer to a professional soldier hired to serve in a foreign army. (लोभी/किराये का)
• Example: The mercenary soldiers were willing to fight for whichever side paid them the most.
• Hence, we can infer that the most suitable one-word substitution for the given phrase is 'mercenary'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Mercenary.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Highbrow (बौद्धिक): A person who has, or affects to have, superior intellectual or cultural tastes.
• Example: He preferred highbrow films that explored complex philosophical themes rather than simple action movies.
• Iconoclast (मूर्तिभंजक/रिवाजों को तोड़ने वाला): A person who attacks settled beliefs, cherished institutions, or traditional ideas.
• Example: The scientist was an iconoclast who challenged the long-held theories of his predecessors.
• Fastidious (नकचढ़ा/अति-सावधान): A person who is very attentive to and concerned about accuracy, detail, or cleanliness.
• Example: She is so fastidious about her work that she spends hours checking every single comma in her reports.

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. clique.

Key Points

• The phrase 'a small group of people with a common interest who exclude others' refers to a close-knit circle of individuals who share similar tastes or goals and are often perceived as being socially exclusive. (लोगों का एक छोटा समूह जिनका साझा हित होता है और जो दूसरों को बाहर रखते हैं)
• Example: It can be difficult for new employees to feel welcome if there is a tight clique already established in the department.
• 'Clique' is the most suitable one-word substitution for a small, exclusive group of people who do not readily allow others to join them. (गुट)
• Example: The clique of popular students always sat together in the cafeteria and never spoke to anyone else.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct word for the given description is 'clique'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- clique

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Caucus (दल की बैठक): A meeting of supporters or members of a specific political party or movement to decide on policies or candidates.
• Example: The party members held a caucus to discuss their strategy for the upcoming local elections.
• Claque (प्रशंसा करने वालों का समूह): A group of people hired to applaud or heckle a performer or speaker, often to create a false impression of their popularity.
• Example: The singer was so worried about the audience's reaction that he hired a claque to cheer loudly after every song.
• Cortege (शवयात्रा): A formal or solemn procession, most commonly associated with a funeral.
• Example: A long cortege followed the hearse as it made its way to the cemetery.

The correct answer is Is a new science fiction film being produced by them this year?.

Key Points

• The given sentence is an Interrogative Sentence in the Present Continuous Tense, following the active voice structure: Is/Am/Are + Subject + Verb(ing) + Object + ?.
• To convert a Present Continuous Interrogative sentence into Passive Voice, the following rule is applied: Is/Am/Are + New Subject (Original Object) + being + Past Participle (V3) + by + New Object (Original Subject) + ?.
• In this sentence, the Object is 'a new science fiction film', which is singular. Therefore, the auxiliary verb 'Is' must be used to begin the passive construction.
• The word 'being' is a critical component in the passive voice of any Continuous Tense to retain the ongoing nature of the action.
• The Main Verb 'producing' must be converted into its Past Participle form, which is 'produced'.
• The Subject 'they' in the active voice changes to the Objective Case 'them' in the passive voice, typically preceded by the preposition 'by'.
• The Adverbial Phrase 'this year' remains at the end of the sentence to maintain the original Time Context.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Auxiliary Verbs and Participles in Passive Voice:
• 'Has' is an auxiliary used for the Present Perfect Tense (e.g., Has a film been produced?); its use here would change the tense of the original question.
• 'Been' is the Past Participle of the verb 'to be' and is used in the passive voice of Perfect Tenses, not continuous tenses.
• The Present Participle (Verb+ing) like 'producing' cannot be used as the main verb in a standard passive voice construction because passive voice requires the V3 form.
• In the Passive Voice, the focus shifts from the Doer (they) to the Receiver (a new science fiction film) of the action.

The correct answer is Did the reviewers give constructive feedback on the revised version of the research paper?.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Passive Voice using the Simple Past Tense interrogative structure: Was/Were + Object + Past Participle (V3) + by + Subject?
• To convert a Simple Past passive question into Active Voice, the auxiliary verb Did must be placed at the beginning of the sentence.
• The Passive Object (the reviewers) shifts to the Subject position, and the Passive Subject (constructive feedback) shifts to the Object position.
• In active voice interrogative sentences starting with Did, the main verb must always be in its Base Form (V1), which is give, regardless of the plurality of the subject.
• The preposition by is removed during the conversion as the agent now occupies the primary subject position in the sentence.
• The remaining components, such as the prepositional phrase on the revised version of the research paper, remain in their relative positions to maintain the original meaning.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of Incorrect Tenses:
• Present Perfect: Formed using Have/Has + Subject + V3. This is incorrect here because the original sentence is in the past tense, not a completed action with present relevance.
• Present Continuous: Formed using Is/Am/Are + Subject + V-ing. This represents an ongoing action, which contradicts the completed past action indicated by Was.
• Simple Present: Formed using Do/Does + Subject + V1. This is used for habits or general facts and does not match the specific past event described.
• Core Principles of Voice Conversion:
• The Tense of the sentence must remain constant; a Simple Past passive sentence must always be converted into a Simple Past active sentence.
• The Auxiliary Verb used in the active voice (Did) identifies the past timeframe while the main verb reverts from its V3 form (given) to its V1 form (give).

The correct answer is Post the letter without fail.

Key Points

• The given sentence is an Imperative Sentence in the Passive Voice. An imperative sentence expresses a command, request, or advice.
• The standard structure for a Passive Voice imperative sentence is: Let + Object + be + Past Participle (V3). In this case, 'the letter' is the object and 'posted' is the V3 form of the verb.
• To convert such a sentence into the Active Voice, the structure follows: Base Form of the Verb (V1) + Object.
• During conversion, the word Let and the auxiliary verb be are removed. The Past Participle 'posted' is changed back to its Base Form (V1), which is Post.
• The Direct Object 'the letter' is placed immediately after the verb. The adverbial phrase without fail remains at the end of the sentence to maintain the original meaning.
• Therefore, the active transformation of 'Let the letter be posted without fail' becomes Post the letter without fail.

 Additional Information

• Voice Transformation Rules:
• Subject-Verb Relationship: In active voice, the subject (often an implied You in imperatives) performs the action. In passive voice, the focus shifts to the recipient of the action.
• Negative Imperatives: If the active sentence is negative (e.g., 'Do not post'), the passive form becomes Let + object + not + be + V3.
• Modals in Imperatives: Some transformations involve modals like should or must to indicate obligation, but they change the formal structure of a simple imperative command.
• Verb Aspects: Using continuous forms like be posting changes the Aspect of the verb from simple to progressive, which is not required for standard voice conversion of commands.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The error lies in the second part of the sentence: published on the newspaper, but unfortunately,.
• The primary mistake is the incorrect use of the preposition. When referring to content, articles, or stories printed within a publication, the correct preposition to use is in, not on.
• We say something is in the newspaper or in a book because the information is contained within the pages.
• The phrase should be corrected to published in the newspaper to ensure grammatical accuracy.
• Thus, Option 2 contains the error.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

Correct Sentence: 'I read a great story that was published in the newspaper, but unfortunately, I do not remember the complete plot of the story.'

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'I read a great story which was' – This part is grammatically correct. Both 'that' and 'which' can be used as relative pronouns for objects/stories.
• Option 3: 'I do not remember' – This is the correct use of the simple present tense to indicate a current state of mind.
• Option 4: 'the complete plot of the story' – This is a correctly structured noun phrase serving as the object of the verb 'remember'.
• Preposition usage: Use on for surfaces (on the table) or electronic media (on the internet, on TV), and in for print media (in a magazine, in a journal).

The correct answer is 'of'.

Key Points

• The preposition 'of' is used to indicate a person's origin, background, or lineage.
• The phrase 'of humble origin' is a standard idiomatic expression in English used to describe someone who comes from a family with low social status or limited financial means.
• In this sentence, the preposition connects the subject 'Baji Rout' to his family background, making 'of' the grammatically correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

Complete Sentence: 'Baji Rout was a boy of humble origin.'

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'from' is generally used to indicate a geographical location or a starting point (e.g., 'He comes from Odisha'), but in the specific phrase 'humble origin', the preposition 'of' is the established convention.
• Option 3: 'Off' is a preposition or adverb that indicates separation or disconnection from a place or position and does not fit the context of the sentence.
• Baji Rout (1926–1938) was a young freedom fighter from Odisha, known as the youngest martyr of the Indian independence movement.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• The sentence provided is a perfect example of a Third Conditional sentence, which is used to describe a hypothetical situation in the past that did not happen.
• The standard grammatical structure for a Third Conditional is: If + Past Perfect (had + past participle), ... would have + Past Participle.
• In the conditional clause (the 'if' clause), the phrase 'had taken' is the Past Perfect form of the verb 'take', which correctly sets up the past hypothetical condition.
• The result clause correctly uses 'would have been' (would have + past participle of 'be'), indicating the hypothetical outcome in the past.
• Because the underlined portion 'had taken stronger action earlier' follows the required grammatical rules for this structure, no changes are necessary.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

Correct Sentence: 'If the government had taken stronger action earlier, the economy would have been in a much better position to recover from the crisis.'

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'took stronger action earlier' – This uses the Simple Past tense. This would only be used in a Second Conditional (hypothetical present/future), which would require the main clause to be 'the economy would be...' instead of 'would have been'.
• Option 2: 'would have taken stronger action earlier' – In English grammar, 'would have' is almost never used in the 'if' clause; it is reserved for the result clause.
• Option 3: 'was taking stronger action earlier' – This is the Past Continuous tense, which describes an ongoing action in the past rather than the completed hypothetical condition required for the Third Conditional.