SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 21 May, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

The given number series follows a pattern of alternating multiplication by 2 and 3 as shown below:

Thus, the missing term in the series is 216.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3';

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The series is formed by adding consecutive integers, starting from 6, to each preceding term.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is:

The series consists of two patterns: one for the first letters and one for the second letters of each term based on their positional values in the English alphabetical order (A = 1, B = 2, ..., Z = 26).

The missing term in the series is GB.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed in this series involves two separate patterns: one for the first letter of each term and another for the second letter of each term.

 

Combining both patterns, the missing term is OJ.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed in this pattern is a series of alphabetical shifts for the first and second letters in each set of letter clusters.

For the set '(HW, JA, LE)':

For the set '(VG, XK, ZO)':

Applying the same logic to '(EA, GE, II)':

Thus, (EA, GE, II) follows the same logic as the given sets.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed in this pattern is based on alphabetical shifts between the letters of the consecutive clusters within each set.

For the set '(DS, YL, TE)':

For the set '(VT, QM, LF)':

Applying the same logic to '(UH, PA, KT)':

Thus, the group of letter clusters (UH, PA, KT) follows the same logic.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given:

• No two students have the same height.
• K is shorter than L but taller than J.
• No one is shorter than N.
• L is not the tallest.

From the given conditions:

L > K > J

Everyone is taller than N.

Therefore:

L > K > J > N

Since L is not the tallest, there must be someone taller than L.

The only remaining student is M.

Hence,

M > L > K > J > N

Vertical arrangement (Tallest → Shortest):

Therefore, the tallest student is M.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

• No two boys have the same weight.
• The number of boys heavier than P = the number of boys lighter than T.
• R is heavier than only V and T.
• P is lighter than only S.

From the given conditions:

P is lighter than only S.

Therefore:

S > P > Q, R, T, V

R is heavier than only V and T.

Therefore:

S > P > Q > R > V > T

Checking the first condition:

Number of boys heavier than P = 1 (Only S)

Therefore, the number of boys lighter than T must also be 1.

Hence, T cannot be the lightest.

So, interchange T and V:

S > P > Q > R > T > V

Now,

• Heavier than P = S (1 boy)
• Lighter than T = V (1 boy)

All conditions are satisfied.

Vertical arrangement (Heaviest → Lightest):

Boys heavier than T but lighter than P:

• Q
• R

Therefore, the required number of boys is 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given:

JB10 : KC38  → 

DG70 : EH98  → 

Following the same pattern for AF28 : ?

The resulting letter-number cluster is BG56.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given:

ILP90 : JJS490 →

AKT190 : BIW590 →

JMQ120 : KKT520 →

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 52

For the first pair 7432 : 7484

⇒ 7432 + 52 = 7484

For the third pair 7890 : 7942

⇒ 7890 + 52 = 7942

Applying the same logic to the second pair

6163 : ?

⇒ 6163 + 52 = 6215

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 3) − 5

For the first pair 464 : 1387

⇒ (464 × 3) − 5

⇒ 1392 − 5 = 1387.

For the second pair 845 : 2530

⇒ (845 × 3) − 5

⇒ 2535 − 5 = 2530.

Applying the same logic to the third pair

? : 1864

⇒ (First Number × 3) − 5 = 1864

⇒ First Number × 3 = 1864 + 5

⇒ First Number × 3 = 1869

⇒ First Number = 1869 ÷ 3 = 623.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is that each term in the series consists of two letters and a number, each following a specific pattern.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is:

1) For letters: The first letter of each term increases by 1, the second letter decreases by 1, and the third letter increases by 1 in alphabetical order.

2) For numbers: Each subsequent number is obtained by adding 113 to the previous number.

Therefore, the wrong term in the series is BIL164.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Concept:

Hour hand covers 3600 in 12 hours

Angular distance covered in 1 hour = 360/12 = 300

Angular distance covered in 60 minutes = 300

Angular distance covered in 1 minute = 1/20

Calculation:

Minute hand covers 360 in 60 minutes

60 minutes = 3600

1 minute = 360/60 ⇒ 1 minute = 60

Here given time is 5:20 PM

Minute = 20

Angle covered by minute hand = 20 × 6 = 1200

Angle covered by hour hand = 5 × 30 + 20 × ½ = 150 + 10 = 160° 

Angle between hour and minute hands = 160 − 120 = 400

Hence, the angle between the hour and minute hands is 400

Alternate Method

The angle between the hour hand and minute hand = $|60H - 11M|\over2$

Here, H = hours and M = minutes.

Given H = 5 and M = 20.

So, Angle = $|60\times5 - 11\times20|\over2$

Angle = |300 − 220| / 2

Angle = 80 / 2 = 40°

Hence, the correct answer is 40°

Concept:

To find the time shown by a clock that is gaining time, we first calculate the total time duration between the starting point and the target point. Then, determine the total gain based on the given rate and add this gain to the actual time.

Calculation:

The total duration from 11 AM to 11 PM on the same day is:

11 PM − 11 AM = 12 hours

Since 1 hour contains 60 minutes, the total duration in minutes is:

12 × 60 = 720 minutes

The clock gains 4 seconds every 8 minutes.

Gain in 1 minute = 4 ÷ 8 = 0.5 seconds

Now, calculate the total gain for the period of 720 minutes:

Total gain = 720 × 0.5 = 360 seconds

Convert the total gain from seconds into minutes:

360 ÷ 60 = 6 minutes

The actual time is 11 PM, but the clock has gained 6 minutes. Therefore, the time displayed on the clock will be:

11 PM + 6 minutes = 11:06:00 PM

Hence, the correct answer is 11:06:00.

The logic followed here is: Both the elements are rotating in clockwise direction and also flipping in each steps.

Hence, the correct image is "Option 4".

The logic followed in this series is based on the movement of three elements: the Square, the Circle, and the Center Line inside the box.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is: The number of boxes are increasing in each step by count of one.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Natyashastra.

Key Points

• The Natyashastra is a monumental ancient Indian treatise on the performing arts, traditionally credited to the legendary sage Bharata Muni. It serves as the primary technical and theoretical foundation for all Indian classical dance forms, including Odissi, Bharatanatyam, and Kathakali.
• Composed roughly between 200 BCE and 200 CE, it consists of 36 chapters and over 6000 poetic verses. It is often revered as the Panchama Veda (fifth Veda) because it integrates elements from the four Vedas to create a medium of education and entertainment.
• The text codifies the four types of Abhinaya (expression): Angika (body movements), Vachika (speech/song), Aharya (costume/makeup), and Sattvika (emotional states), all of which are vital to the Odissi repertoire.
• The Natyashastra provides the classification of 108 Karanas (basic dance movements) and various Mudras (hand gestures). In Odissi, these textual descriptions are mirrored in the temple sculptures of Odisha, such as those found in the Brahmeswara and Konark Sun Temple.
• It establishes the Rasa Theory, defining the primary Rasas (aesthetic sentiments) that dancers must evoke. Odissi particularly emphasizes Shringara Rasa (love and devotion) based on these ancient guidelines.

 Additional Information

• Ramayana and Mahabharata:
• The Ramayana and Mahabharata are India's two great Sanskrit epics. While they provide the narrative themes and mythological stories depicted in Odissi performances, they are not technical manuals for dance movements or grammar.
• Arthashastra:
• Authored by Chanakya (Kautilya), the Arthashastra is a definitive treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy. It has no structural or conceptual link to the development of classical dance.
• Odissi Specifics:
• Odissi is characterized by the Tribhanga (three-bend) and Chauk (square) postures.
• Apart from the Natyashastra, the 15^th-century text Abhinaya Chandrika by Maheswara Mahapatra is another crucial technical source specifically for Odissi.

The correct answer is Peninsular Plateau.

Key Points

• The Peninsular Plateau is considered the oldest physiographic division of India, originating from the ancient supercontinent known as Gondwanaland.
• Geologically, it is a stable shield block composed of ancient crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks that date back to the Pre-Cambrian era, making it far older than the Himalayas.
• The plateau was formed as a result of the breaking and drifting of the Indian Plate northward, eventually colliding with the Eurasian Plate.
• It covers a massive area of approximately 16 lakh square kilometers, with an average elevation ranging between 600 to 900 meters above sea level.
• The topography is characterized by relict mountains and denuded hills such as the Aravallis, which are among the oldest fold mountains in the world, further proving the geological antiquity of this region.

 Additional Information

• Himalayas:
• These are classified as Young Fold Mountains that formed during the Tertiary period (approximately 40 to 50 million years ago) due to the Alpine Orogeny.
• They exhibit a high-relief topography with steep V-shaped valleys and glaciers, representing geological youth.
• Indo-Gangetic Plains:
• This region is an aggradational plain formed by the deposition of alluvium by the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra rivers.
• It is the youngest physiographic division, belonging to the Quaternary period (Pleistocene and Holocene epochs).
• Coastal Plains:
• Divided into the Western Coastal Plain and Eastern Coastal Plain, these were formed by marine deposits and fluvial activity.
• The Western Coast is an example of a submerged coastline, whereas the Eastern Coast is characterized by emergent features and large deltas.

The correct answer is Jagannath Temple, Puri.

Key Points

• The Jagannath Temple in Puri, Odisha, is a premier example of Kalinga Architecture, which is a regional sub-style of the Nagara (North Indian) temple architecture style.
• Constructed in the 12^th century, the temple was commissioned by King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, the first monarch of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
• The temple complex follows a specific structural layout characteristic of the Kalinga style, comprising four main components: the Vimana (sanctum/Rekha Deula), the Jagamohana (assembly hall/Pidha Deula), the Nata Mandira (dance hall), and the Bhoga Mandapa (offering hall).
• It is famously known as the White Pagoda (to distinguish it from the Konark Sun Temple or Black Pagoda) and serves as one of the Char Dham pilgrimage sites for Hindus.
• The architecture is distinguished by its curvilinear spire (shikhara) and the absence of pillars in the main halls, a remarkable feat of medieval engineering.

 Additional Information

• Brihadeeswarar Temple:
• Located in Thanjavur, it is a masterpiece of Dravidian architecture built by the Chola King Raja Raja I.
• Meenakshi Temple:
• Situated in Madurai, it represents the Pandya and Nayaka styles of Dravidian architecture, famous for its 14 towering Gopurams.
• Shore Temple:
• Located in Mamallapuram, it was built by the Pallava Dynasty under Narasimhavarman II and is one of the oldest structural stone temples in South India.

The correct answer is 14.

Key Points

• Under Rule 4.1b of the official Rules of Golf, a player is strictly prohibited from carrying more than 14 clubs during a competitive round.
• This regulation was formally adopted in 1938 by the United States Golf Association (USGA) and later by The R&A to prevent an arms race of equipment that was making the game less about skill and more about having a specialized club for every possible shot.
• Before this rule, it was not uncommon for professional golfers to carry as many as 20 to 30 clubs, which also placed an immense physical burden on caddies.
• A player may start a round with fewer than 14 clubs and add more during the play until the 14-club limit is reached, provided the additions do not cause an undue delay to the game.
• The selection of the 14 clubs is entirely up to the golfer, typically including a mix of woods, irons, wedges, and a putter.

 Additional Information

• Penalty Framework:
• In Stroke Play, the penalty for exceeding the limit is two strokes for each hole where a breach occurred, with a maximum penalty of four strokes per round.
• In Match Play, the penalty results in a deduction of holes, where the match score is adjusted by one hole for each hole the breach occurred, up to a maximum of two holes.
• Once a player discovers they have more than 14 clubs, they must immediately perform an out-of-play procedure to declare which clubs will not be used for the remainder of the round.
• Equipment Evolution:
• Modern players often swap clubs based on course conditions; for instance, replacing a long iron with a hybrid or adding a 60-degree lob wedge depending on the speed of the greens and the thickness of the rough.

The correct answer is They lack iron content.

Key Points

• Non-ferrous minerals are a specific category of metallic minerals that do not contain iron (scientifically known as ferrum) as a significant component.
• The primary distinguishing factor of these minerals is their chemical composition, which makes them highly resistant to corrosion and rusting, unlike their ferrous counterparts.
• These minerals are characterized by physical properties such as high malleability, low weight, and exceptional thermal and electrical conductivity.
• Common examples found in the Earth's crust include copper, lead, zinc, tin, and precious metals like gold and silver. Bauxite, the ore used for aluminum production, is one of the most widely used non-ferrous minerals globally.
• From a geological perspective, they are often found in igneous and metamorphic rock formations, often extracted through veins and lodes.

 Additional Information

• Ferrous Minerals:
• These are metallic minerals that contain iron as a base element.
• They account for about three-fourths of the total value of the production of metallic minerals.
• Major examples include iron ore, manganese, chromite, and pyrite.
• They are essential for the development of the metallurgical industries and the manufacturing of steel.
• Industrial Applications:
• Because they lack iron content, non-ferrous minerals are vital in aeronautical, electrical, and engineering industries.
• Copper is indispensable in the power industry for cables and electronics, while aluminum is favored in automobile and packaging sectors due to its strength-to-weight ratio.

The correct answer is Ain-i-Akbari.

Key Points

• The Akbar Nama (Book of Akbar) is the official chronicle of the reign of Akbar, the third Mughal Emperor, written in the Persian language.
• It was authored by Abul Fazl, one of the Navaratnas (nine gems) and the court historian in Akbar's court.
• The work is organized into three distinct volumes: the first deals with Akbar's ancestors, the second records the events of Akbar's reign up to 1602, and the third is the Ain-i-Akbari.
• The Ain-i-Akbari serves as a detailed administrative gazetteer, providing exhaustive information about the Mughal Empire's governance, army, revenue system, and geography.
• It is further divided into five books (daftars), covering everything from the imperial household and civil administration to Indian philosophy and customs.

 Additional Information

• Tuzuk-i-Baburi:
• This is the autobiography of the founder of the Mughal Empire, Babur.
• Unlike later official histories written in Persian, it was originally written in Chaghatai Turkic and later translated into Persian as the Baburnama.
• Razmnama:
• This term translates to the 'Book of War' and is the Persian translation of the ancient Indian epic, the Mahabharata.
• It was commissioned by Akbar to encourage religious tolerance and cultural exchange between the various communities of the empire.
• Fatwa-i-Jahandari:
• A significant work on political philosophy and statecraft written by Ziauddin Barani.
• It dates back to the Delhi Sultanate period and outlines the duties and ideals of a Muslim ruler in India.

The correct answer is Manan Kumar Mishra.

Key Points

• Manan Kumar Mishra, a Senior Advocate originally from the state of Bihar, has held the prestigious position of Chairman of the Bar Council of India (BCI) for several consecutive terms, representing a significant period of leadership in the Indian legal regulatory framework.
• The Bar Council of India is a statutory body created by Parliament under Section 4 of the Advocates Act, 1961, to regulate and represent the Indian Bar.
• As Chairman, the individual is responsible for presiding over meetings that determine legal education standards, professional ethics, and the disciplinary jurisdiction over advocates in India.
• The Bar Council of India consists of members elected from each State Bar Council, and the Chairman and Vice-Chairman are elected by these members from among themselves for a specific term.
• Under his tenure, the BCI has focused on mandatory All India Bar Examination (AIBE) reforms and the regulation of foreign law firms entering the Indian market.

 Additional Information

• Bar Council of India (BCI):
• Functions: It sets the standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates and establishes the curriculum for Law Degrees in recognized universities.
• Ex-officio Members: The Attorney General of India and the Solicitor General of India serve as ex-officio members of the Council.
• Legal Education Committee: The BCI includes a committee that visits and inspects Universities to ensure compliance with its educational guidelines.
• Distinction from SCBA:
• It is important to distinguish the Bar Council of India from the Supreme Court Bar Association (SCBA). While the BCI is a statutory regulatory body for all advocates, the SCBA is a voluntary bar association for practitioners specifically in the Supreme Court of India.
• Individuals like Vikas Singh and Dushyant Dave have historically served as the President of the Supreme Court Bar Association, which is an elected post distinct from the statutory BCI chairmanship.

The correct answer is Arvinder Singh Sahney.

Key Points

• In November 2024, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) officially approved the appointment of Arvinder Singh Sahney as the Chairman of the Indian Oil Corporation (IOCL).
• Prior to this top-tier leadership role, Sahney served as the Executive Director (Business Development - Petrochemicals) at the company’s corporate headquarters, where he played a crucial role in expanding the petrochemicals portfolio.
• The Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB) had recommended his name for the post in August 2024, following a rigorous selection process to fill the vacancy left by the previous permanent head.
• With a professional career spanning over three decades, he possesses extensive expertise in refinery operations, supply chain management, and the execution of large-scale projects within the hydrocarbon sector.
• His appointment is significant as he takes charge of India’s largest commercial enterprise at a time when the company is focusing on energy transition and achieving net-zero operational emissions by 2046.

 Additional Information

• Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL):
• It is a Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) established in 1959 and headquartered in New Delhi.
• It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Government of India.
• The corporation is the highest-ranked Indian energy PSU in the Fortune Global 500 list and controls nearly half of India’s petroleum products market share.
• IOCL operates a massive network of refineries (including Digboi, Mathura, and Paradip), pipelines for crude and product transport, and thousands of fuel stations across the country.
• The company is also a leader in liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) marketing through the Indane brand, serving millions of households.

The correct answer is 87661.

Key Points

• The Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 is a flagship program of the Ministry of Women and Child Development designed to tackle malnutrition and enhance early childhood development across India.
• A primary objective of this mission is the phased upgrading of 2 lakh Anganwadi Centres into Saksham Anganwadi Centres, aiming for a transformation of approximately 40,000 centers annually.
• As of the data recorded in July 2025, the government has successfully upgraded a total of 87,661 centres, marking a significant step toward achieving the comprehensive five-year target (2021-22 to 2025-26).
• These upgraded centers serve as modernized hubs that integrate Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) with improved nutritional support for children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers.
• The transition to Saksham status involves significant investments in infrastructure, ensuring that basic amenities like clean drinking water, functional toilets, and internal electrification are prioritized.

 Additional Information

• Core Features of Saksham Anganwadis:
• Digital Infrastructure: These centers are equipped with smart learning aids, LED screens, and high-speed internet/Wi-Fi connectivity to support interactive pedagogical methods.
• Nutritional Monitoring: Utilization of the Poshan Tracker application for real-time monitoring of growth and nutritional status through digitized records.
• Eco-friendly Initiatives: Many centers incorporate Rainwater Harvesting systems and Solar Power units to promote environmental sustainability and reduce operational costs.
• Mission Poshan 2.0 Strategy:
• Focuses on maternal nutrition, infant and young child feeding norms, and the treatment of Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM) and Moderate Acute Malnutrition (MAM).
• Promotes the establishment of Poshan Vatikas (nutrition gardens) to provide fresh, local produce and encourage the consumption of millets and traditional foods.
• Ensures convergence with other national schemes like the Jal Jeevan Mission for providing tap water connections to every Anganwadi.

The correct answer is 3 years or till age 70.

Key Points

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India is a statutory public body established on 12 October 1993 under the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• Significant changes were introduced via the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, which revised the tenure of the Chairperson and members from the previous 5 years to 3 years.
• The Chairperson holds office for a term of three years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever occurs earlier.
• Under the 2019 Amendment, the Chairperson and members are also made eligible for re-appointment for another term, subject to the age limit of 70 years.
• Before this amendment, the tenure was fixed at 5 years, and there was a bar on the re-appointment of the Chairperson and members.

 Additional Information

• Appointment Mechanism:
• The President of India appoints the Chairperson and members based on the recommendations of a six-member selection committee.
• This committee is headed by the Prime Minister and includes the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Union Home Minister, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and the Leaders of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament.
• Composition and Eligibility:
• The Chairperson must be a person who has been the Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• The Commission includes members with expertise in human rights and ex-officio members such as the Chairpersons of the National Commission for SCs, STs, Minorities, Women, BCs, Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities.
• Removal Procedure:
• The President can remove the Chairperson or any member on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity only after an inquiry by the Supreme Court.

The correct answer is Union Home Minister.

Key Points

• Zonal Councils are statutory bodies and not constitutional bodies, established under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
• The Union Home Minister acts as the ex-officio Chairman for all five Zonal Councils in India, ensuring a unified approach to regional issues.
• These councils are deliberative and advisory bodies intended to promote inter-state cooperation and coordination on matters like socio-economic planning, border disputes, and linguistic minorities.
• The structure includes the Chairman, the Chief Ministers of the states in the zone, and two other ministers from each state nominated by the Governor.
• The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 divided the country into five zones: Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern.

 Additional Information

• Internal Organization and Roles:
• The Chief Ministers of the states within the zone act as the Vice-Chairman of the respective council by rotation, holding the office for one year at a time.
• The Chief Secretary of each state and another officer from the state act as advisers to the council.
• The North-Eastern Council was created under a separate legislation called the North-Eastern Council Act, 1971, to address the specific needs of states like Assam, Manipur, and Sikkim.
• Comparison with Other Bodies:
• The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Inter-State Council (established under Article 263 of the Constitution) and the NITI Aayog.
• The Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog is an administrative head of the think tank and does not preside over Zonal Councils.
• The President of India appoints the members of the Inter-State Council but does not chair the Zonal Councils.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The state government of Odisha officially announced the setting up of the world’s first melanistic tiger safari near the Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR) in Mayurbhanj district.
• This ambitious project is being established near Baripada, covering an expansive area of about 200 hectares, designed to provide a habitat for black tigers that are either surplus from zoos or unfit for the wild.
• Similipal Tiger Reserve is unique globally as it is the only natural habitat that hosts a wild population of melanistic tigers, which are characterized by thick, fused black stripes due to a rare genetic mutation.
• The initiative received in-principle approval from the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and the Central Zoo Authority (CZA) to promote wildlife tourism and spread awareness about this rare feline variant.
• The melanism in these tigers is linked to a mutation in the Taqpep gene, a discovery made by researchers to explain why the stripes are exceptionally broad and dark, often hiding the tawny background fur.

 Additional Information

• Similipal Tiger Reserve:
• It was formally designated a Tiger Reserve in 1973 and became part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2009.
• The reserve is a critical part of the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve and houses diverse fauna, including the Asian Elephant and Chausingha.
• Melanistic Tiger Population:
• According to the All India Tiger Estimation 2022, approximately 10 melanistic tigers were identified within the Similipal landscape.
• The prevalence of these tigers in Odisha is attributed to genetic isolation and inbreeding within a small population, leading to the manifestation of recessive traits.

The correct answer is Only II.

Key Points

• New Space India Limited (NSIL) was incorporated on 6 March 2019 as a Wholly Owned Government of India Company. It is a Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the administrative control of the Department of Space (DoS) and the Companies Act, 2013. It is not a private sector enterprise but a commercial arm of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Hence, statement I is incorrect.
• The primary mandate of NSIL involves a demand-driven model where it takes responsibility for the construction, assembly, integration, and in-orbit delivery of various types and classes of satellites. This includes managing satellite missions and providing launch services for both domestic and international customers using ISRO launch vehicles. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• New Space India Limited (NSIL):
• Headquarters: The organization is headquartered in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• Mission: Its goal is to enable Indian industries to scale up high-technology manufacturing and to commercialize products and services emanating from the Indian Space Programme.
• Production Mandate: NSIL is responsible for the production of Polar Satellite Launch Vehicles (PSLV) and Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLV) through industrial consortia.
• Technology Transfer: It acts as the nodal agency for the transfer of technology (ToT) from ISRO to the Indian private industry for various space-related applications.
• Satellite Communication: It is also involved in providing satellite-based services like transponder leasing and mission support for Earth observation and communication satellites.

The correct answer is IIT Bombay.

Key Points

• In December 2024, researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (IIT Bombay) designed and developed an innovative, low-cost tinnitus management device integrated with a smartphone-based mobile application.
• Tinnitus is a neurological and audiological condition characterized by a persistent ringing, buzzing, or hissing sound in the ears without any external acoustic stimulus.
• The newly developed device works on the principle of acoustic neuromodulation, utilizing tailored sound frequencies to retrain the brain's auditory cortex and reduce the perception of tinnitus.
• By pairing the wearable hardware with a customized mobile solution, this technology delivers personalized sound therapy, significantly lowering treatment costs and enhancing patient accessibility.

 Additional Information

• Tinnitus Therapeutics:
• Conventional white-noise generators and customized sound-masking devices are often expensive and imported, making this indigenous development highly critical for affordable healthcare in India.
• Other Premier Institutions:
• IISc Bengaluru: Renowned for its cutting-edge research in nanotechnology, aerospace engineering, and foundational sciences.
• IIT Kanpur: Highly active in bioengineering, famously developing artificial hearts, and advanced cybersecurity systems.
• JIPMER Puducherry: A premier medical institution focused on clinical healthcare, medical education, and public health research.

The correct answer is 28.

Key Points

• The National Federation Senior Athletics Competition, popularly known as the Federation Cup, is a premier annual track and field event organized in India.
• Following the chronological sequence of the competition, the 28^th edition is scheduled to be held in 2025.
• The previous edition, which was the 27^th National Federation Senior Athletics Competition, was successfully hosted in May 2024 at the Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
• This competition serves as a critical selection trial for Indian athletes to qualify for major international tournaments, including the Asian Athletics Championships and the World Athletics Championships.
• The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) is responsible for finalizing the venue and dates for the 28^th edition as part of its Annual Calendar for the 2025 season.
• The event features elite participation across various disciplines such as javelin throw, long jump, shot put, and multiple track events, often featuring Olympic-level athletes.

 Additional Information

• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• It is the apex governing body for athletics in India, established in 1946.
• The federation is headquartered in New Delhi and is responsible for conducting National Championships and training international squads.
• AFI is affiliated with World Athletics, the Asian Athletics Association (AAA), and the Indian Olympic Association.
• Competition Significance:
• The Federation Cup is often used to attain entry standards set by World Athletics for global meets.
• In the 2024 edition, the event was pivotal for athletes seeking ranking points to qualify for the Paris Olympics.
• It plays a vital role in identifying emerging talent for the National Coaching Camps sponsored by the Sports Authority of India (SAI).

The correct answer is Rio de Janeiro.

Key Points

• The 17^th BRICS Summit is scheduled to be hosted by Brazil in 2025, following the group's established tradition of rotating the chairmanship annually among member nations.
• Rio de Janeiro has been designated as the host city for this high-level diplomatic event, which will bring together leaders from the expanded BRICS+ alliance.
• The summit represents a critical milestone for Brazil as it assumes the leadership role to facilitate discussions on global governance reform, sustainable development, and financial cooperation.
• This meeting will be the second summit following the historic expansion of the bloc in 2024, which saw nations like Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates join the founding members.
• The Rio de Janeiro summit is expected to focus heavily on the de-dollarization of trade and the strengthening of the New Development Bank (NDB) to support infrastructure in the Global South.

 Additional Information

• Kaizen:
• A Japanese philosophy and business concept that translates to continuous improvement.
• It involves all employees from the CEO to assembly line workers to improve all functions and processes within an organization.
• Shanghai:
• A major financial hub in China that serves as the permanent headquarters for the New Development Bank (NDB).
• It is a central location for BRICS financial policy coordination and economic research.
• Vladivostok:
• A strategic port city in Russia that hosts the annual Eastern Economic Forum (EEF).
• While a key site for Eurasian diplomacy, it is not the venue for the 17^th BRICS gathering.
• 16^th BRICS Summit:
• Held in Kazan, Russia, in October 2024, focusing on the integration of new member states into the bloc's framework.

The correct answer is Guitar.

Key Points

• The Tingtang is a traditional stringed instrument originating from the Mizo tribe of Mizoram, widely regarded as the indigenous version of the Guitar.
• It is scientifically classified as a plucked chordophone, where melodic sound is produced by vibrating strings stretched over a hollow resonator.
• The instrument is traditionally crafted using a hollowed block of wood or bamboo as the soundbox, which provides the necessary acoustic resonance for performance.
• Historically, the Tingtang featured single or multiple strings made of animal gut or wire, allowing the player to pluck them while varying the pitch, similar to the functionality of a lute or guitar.
• In Mizo folk music, this instrument is primarily used to accompany oral storytelling and folk songs, bridging the gap between ancient rhythmic patterns and modern melodic structures.

 Additional Information

• Other Traditional Instruments of Mizoram:
• Khuang: The most significant Mizo percussion instrument, equivalent to a Drum, made from a hollowed tree trunk and cowhide; it is indispensable during the Cheraw dance.
• Tuium: A type of bamboo flute representing the wind instrument category, used to produce soft and mellow tunes.
• Dar: These are brass gongs or cymbals used in sets to provide rhythmic timing during major festivals like Chapchar Kut.
• Rawchhem: A unique Mizo wind instrument made of bamboo tubes and a dried gourd, operating on a principle similar to a bagpipe or harmonica.

The correct answer is 12^th.

Key Points

• Pratibha Devisingh Patil served as the 12^th President of India, holding the highest constitutional office from July 25, 2007, to July 25, 2012.
• She made history by becoming the first woman to serve as the President of the Republic of India since the office was established in 1950.
• She succeeded Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, who was the 11^th President, and was later succeeded by Pranab Mukherjee, the 13^th President.
• During the 2007 Presidential Election, she was the candidate of the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) and defeated the then Vice-President Bhairon Singh Shekhawat.
• Prior to her tenure as President, she served as the Governor of Rajasthan from 2004 to 2007, also becoming the first woman to hold that position in the state.

 Additional Information

• Ramaswamy Venkataraman
• Served as the 8^th President of India (1987–1992).
• He previously held the office of the Vice-President and worked as the Union Minister of Finance and Minister of Defence.
• K.R. Narayanan
• Served as the 10^th President of India (1997–2002).
• He was the first member of the Dalit community to hold the post of President and Vice-President.
• Ram Nath Kovind
• Served as the 14^th President of India (2017–2022).
• Before his presidency, he served as the Governor of Bihar and was a member of the Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

• The Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 is a specialized tool launched by the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education, to evaluate the performance of the school education system across all States and Union Territories in India.
• The updated framework of PGI 2.0 is built upon a total weightage of 1,000 points, which are distributed across 73 indicators.
• These indicators are fundamentally organized into two primary categories: Outcomes and Governance Management.
• The Outcomes category is designed to measure the actual results of the education process, including student performance and system reach.
• The Governance Management category focuses on the institutional framework, administrative efficiency, and the digital interventions used to manage the education system.

 Additional Information

• Structure of Domains:
• Within the two broad categories, the index is further subdivided into six domains.
• These domains include Learning Outcomes, Access, Infrastructure & Facilities, Equity, Governance Process, and Teacher Education and Training.
• Grading System:
• PGI 2.0 does not rank states but classifies them into ten specific grades.
• The highest grade is Daksh (for scores above 940), followed by Utkarsh, Ati-Uttam, Uttam, Prachesta-1, Prachesta-2, Prachesta-3, Akanshi-1, Akanshi-2, and the lowest being Akanshi-3 (for scores up to 460).
• Evolution of PGI:
• The original PGI (1.0) was first released for the year 2017-18. PGI 2.0 was introduced to align the indicators with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and to ensure more robust data-driven monitoring.

The correct answer is North Korea.

Key Points

• The Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) released its report in March 2025, analyzing international arms transfers during the period 2020-24.
• According to the data, India maintained its position as the world's largest arms importer, accounting for approximately 9% to 10% of total global arms imports during this five-year block.
• Ukraine rose significantly in the rankings to become the second-largest arms importer in the world, a direct consequence of military assistance and procurement following the Russian invasion.
• Pakistan also featured within the top 5 arms importers globally, driven by its ongoing military modernization programs and strategic partnerships, primarily with China.
• The other nations typically rounding out the top 5 in this period include Saudi Arabia and Qatar, making the Middle East and Asia the primary destination regions for major conventional weapons.
• North Korea is not included in the top 5 list as it is under stringent United Nations Security Council sanctions that prohibit the international trade of arms, and it does not engage in transparent, large-scale legal arms imports monitored by SIPRI.

 Additional Information

• Detailed Importer Profiles (2020-24):
• India: Its primary suppliers remained Russia, France, and the USA, though the share of Russian imports has seen a gradual decline in favor of indigenization and Western diversification.
• Ukraine: The massive influx of arms was characterized by high-tech surveillance, air defense systems, and armored vehicles supplied by over 30 states.
• Pakistan: Occupies a high rank due to its role as a major recipient of Chinese combat aircraft and naval vessels.
• Global Trends: The SIPRI 2025 report highlights that while global arms trade volumes fluctuated, the United States and France increased their exports, whereas Russia's exports dropped significantly.
• SIPRI: Founded in 1966 in Stockholm, it is an independent international institute dedicated to research into conflict, armaments, arms control, and disarmament.

Shortcut Trick

Perform the bracket operation first: (27 + 14) = 41.

Group all positive terms together: 92 + 38 + 76 + 19 = 225.

Group all negative terms together: 41 + 35 = 76.

Subtract the negative sum from the positive sum: 225 − 76 = 149.

∴ The correct answer is 149.

Alternate Method

Given: 92 + 38 − (27 + 14) + 76 − 35 + 19

Formula Used: BODMAS (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

⇒ 92 + 38 − 41 + 76 − 35 + 19

⇒ 130 − 41 + 76 − 35 + 19

⇒ 89 + 76 − 35 + 19

⇒ 165 − 35 + 19

⇒ 130 + 19 = 149

∴ The correct answer is 149.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It is an acronym used to remember the order of operations in arithmetic. It stands for Brackets, Orders (powers/roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Commutative Property

The result of addition remains the same regardless of the order of the numbers: a + b = b + a.

Grouping Positive and Negative Terms

In expressions involving only addition and subtraction, calculating positive and negative values separately and then finding their difference is a reliable way to avoid errors.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the expression using the BODMAS rule by grouping terms.

63 + 48 − 12 + 48 − 27 + 11

Group additions: (63 + 48 + 48 + 11) = 170

Group subtractions: (−12 − 27) = −39

Final result: 170 − 39 = 131

∴ The correct answer is 131.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 63 + 24 × 2 − (36 ÷ 3) + 48 − 27 + 11

Rule Used: BODMAS (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

⇒ 63 + 24 × 2 − 12 + 48 − 27 + 11 (Solving Parentheses: 36 ÷ 3)

⇒ 63 + 48 − 12 + 48 − 27 + 11 (Solving Multiplication: 24 × 2)

⇒ 111 − 12 + 48 − 27 + 11 (Solving Addition: 63 + 48)

⇒ 99 + 48 − 27 + 11 (Solving Subtraction: 111 − 12)

⇒ 147 − 27 + 11 (Solving Addition: 99 + 48)

⇒ 120 + 11 (Solving Subtraction: 147 − 27)

⇒ 131

∴ The correct answer is 131.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

This rule dictates the order of operations: Brackets first, then Orders (powers/roots), followed by Division and Multiplication (left to right), and finally Addition and Subtraction (left to right).

Sign Conventions

When adding or subtracting multiple numbers, it is often faster to group all positive numbers together and group all negative numbers together before performing the final subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Speed Ratio (Original : New) = 100% : 125% = 4 : 5

Since Distance is constant, Time Ratio = 5 : 4

Original Time = 240 km ÷ 60 km/h = 4 hours = 240 min

5 units = 240 min → 1 unit (Time saved) = 240 ÷ 5 = 48 min

∴ The correct answer is 48 min.

Alternate Method

Given: Original speed = 60 km/h, Distance = 240 km, Speed increase = 25%.

Formula: Time = Distance ÷ Speed

⇒ Original Time = 240 ÷ 60 = 4 hours

⇒ New Speed = 60 + (25% of 60) = 60 + 15 = 75 km/h

⇒ New Time = 240 ÷ 75 = 3.2 hours

⇒ Time Saved = 4 − 3.2 = 0.8 hours

⇒ Time Saved in minutes = 0.8 × 60 = 48 min

∴ The correct answer is 48 min.

Additional Information

Speed-Time Inverse Relationship

When distance is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time (S₁/S₂ = T₂/T₁).

Average Speed

For a journey with different speeds for equal distances, Average Speed = 2S₁S₂ ÷ (S₁ + S₂).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert hours to minutes, multiply by 60.

Shortcut Trick

To find the sum equal to 11/12, check for denominators that are factors of 12.

Convert 1/3 to an equivalent fraction with 12 as the denominator: 1/3 = 4/12.

Add the numerators: 4/12 + 7/12 = 11/12.

∴ The correct answer is 1/3 + 7/12.

Alternate Method

Given: Target sum = 11/12.

Formula Used: Sum of Fractions = (Common Denominator method)

Calculations:

Check Option (3): 1/3 + 7/12

⇒ LCM of 3 and 12 is 12.

⇒ 1/3 = (1 × 4) / (3 × 4) = 4/12

⇒ 4/12 + 7/12

⇒ (4 + 7) / 12 = 11/12

∴ The correct answer is 1/3 + 7/12.

Additional Information

Adding Unlike Fractions

To add fractions with different denominators, first find the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the denominators and convert them to equivalent fractions.

Equivalent Fractions

Multiplying or dividing both the numerator and the denominator of a fraction by the same non-zero number does not change its value.

Proper vs Improper Fractions

A fraction where the numerator is less than the denominator is a Proper Fraction (e.g., 11/12), whereas one where the numerator is greater or equal is Improper.

Shortcut Trick

Convert decimal numbers to simple fractions: 0.07/0.35 = 7/35 = 1/5 = 0.2.

Second part: 0.021/0.7 = 21/700 = 3/100 = 0.03.

Direct subtraction: 0.20 − 0.03 = 0.17.

∴ The correct answer is 0.17.

Alternate Method

Given: The mathematical expression (0.07 ÷ 0.35) − (0.021 ÷ 0.7).

Method Used: BODMAS rule and decimal simplification.

⇒ First term = 0.07 ÷ 0.35

⇒ Multiplying numerator and denominator by 100: 7 ÷ 35

⇒ 7 ÷ 35 = 1/5 = 0.2

⇒ Second term = 0.021 ÷ 0.7

⇒ Multiplying numerator and denominator by 1000: 21 ÷ 700

⇒ 21 ÷ 700 = 3 ÷ 100 = 0.03

⇒ Final expression = 0.2 − 0.03

⇒ Result = 0.17

∴ The correct answer is 0.17.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

This rule defines the order of operations: Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction. In this problem, division is performed before subtraction.

Decimal Point Shifting

When dividing decimals, you can shift the decimal point to the right in both the dividend and the divisor by the same number of places to work with whole numbers.

Decimal to Percentage

To convert a decimal like 0.17 to a percentage, multiply by 100 to get 17%.

Shortcut Trick

For any square with side a, the length of the diagonal is always a√2.

Given Side = 21 cm.

Diagonal = 21 × √2 = 21√2 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 21√2 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Side of the square (a) = 21 cm

Formula Used:

In a square, a diagonal divides it into two right-angled triangles. Using the Pythagoras Theorem:

Diagonal (d) = √(Side² + Side²) = √(2a²) = a√2

Calculations:

⇒ Diagonal = √(21² + 21²)

⇒ Diagonal = √(441 + 441)

⇒ Diagonal = √(882)

⇒ Diagonal = √(441 × 2)

⇒ Diagonal = 21√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 21√2 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Square

The Area can be calculated as Side² or (Diagonal²) ÷ 2.

Perimeter of Square

The Perimeter (P) is the sum of all four sides: P = 4 × Side.

Ratio Property

For any square, the ratio of the Side to the Diagonal is always 1 : √2.

Shortcut Trick

The diagonal of a square is always side × √2.

Given side = 22 cm.

Diagonal = 22 × √2 = 22√2 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 22√2 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Side of the square (a) = 22 cm.

Formula Used:

Diagonal of a square (d) = √(side² + side²) = a√2.

Calculations:

⇒ In a square, the diagonal forms a right-angled triangle with two sides.

⇒ By Pythagoras Theorem: d² = a² + a²

⇒ d² = 22² + 22²

⇒ d² = 484 + 484

⇒ d² = 968

⇒ d = √(968) = √(2 × 484)

⇒ d = 22√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 22√2 cm.

Additional Information

Area of a Square

Area = side². In terms of diagonal (d), Area = d² ÷ 2.

Perimeter of a Square

Perimeter = 4 × side. All four sides are equal and all angles are 90°.

Diagonal Properties

The two diagonals of a square are equal, bisect each other, and are perpendicular to each other.

Shortcut Trick

Sum of consecutive numbers = Average × Total terms

Average = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2 = (11 + 30) ÷ 2 = 20.5

Total terms (n) = (30 − 11) + 1 = 20

Sum = 20.5 × 20 = 410

∴ The correct answer is 410.

Alternate Method

The given series is an Arithmetic Progression (AP) where the first term a = 11, the last term l = 30, and the common difference d = 1.

Formula Used:

Number of terms (n) = [(Last term − First term) ÷ Common difference] + 1

Sum (S_n) = (n ÷ 2) × (First term + Last term)

Calculations:

⇒ n = [(30 − 11) ÷ 1] + 1

⇒ n = 19 + 1 = 20

⇒ S₂₀ = (20 ÷ 2) × (11 + 30)

⇒ S₂₀ = 10 × 41

⇒ S₂₀ = 410

∴ The correct answer is 410.

Additional Information

Sum of first n natural numbers

The sum of numbers from 1 to n is given by the formula: [n × (n + 1)] ÷ 2.

General term of an AP

The n^th term (a_n) is calculated as: a + (n − 1)d, where a is the first term and d is the common difference.

Sum of squares of first n natural numbers

The formula to find 1² + 2² + ... + n² is: [n(n + 1)(2n + 1)] ÷ 6.

Shortcut Trick

Identify total terms (n): n = [(Last − First) ÷ Diff] + 1 = [(96 − 16) ÷ 2] + 1 = 41.

Calculate Average of the series: Average = (First + Last) ÷ 2 = (16 + 96) ÷ 2 = 56.

Calculate Sum: Sum = Average × n = 56 × 41 = 2296.

∴ The correct answer is 2296.

Alternate Method

Given: Series 16 + 18 + 20 + ...... + 96

This is an Arithmetic Progression (AP) where:

First term (a) = 16

Common difference (d) = 18 − 16 = 2

Last term (l) = 96

Formula Used:

n-th term: l = a + (n − 1)d

Sum of n terms: S_n = (n/2) × (a + l)

Calculations:

⇒ 96 = 16 + (n − 1) × 2

⇒ 96 − 16 = (n − 1) × 2

⇒ 80 = (n − 1) × 2

⇒ n − 1 = 40

⇒ n = 41

⇒ Sum (S₄₁) = (41/2) × (16 + 96)

⇒ S₄₁ = (41/2) × 112

⇒ S₄₁ = 41 × 56

⇒ S₄₁ = 2296

∴ The correct answer is 2296.

Additional Information

Sum of First n Natural Numbers

The sum of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula: S = [n × (n + 1)] ÷ 2.

Sum of First n Even Numbers

The sum of the first n even numbers (2, 4, 6, ...) is given by the formula: S = n × (n + 1).

Arithmetic Progression General Term

The n-th term of an AP is a_n = a + (n − 1)d, where a is the first term and d is the common difference.

Shortcut Trick

According to the property of arithmetic mean, if a constant value k is subtracted from every observation in a set, the new average also decreases by the same constant k.

Original Average = N

Value subtracted from each result = 4

New Average = N − 4

∴ The correct answer is N-4.

Alternate Method

Given: Total number of results = 50, Old average = N, Subtraction constant = 4.

Formula Used: Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Total number of observations

⇒ Total sum of 50 results = 50 × N = 50N

⇒ Total reduction = Number of results × value subtracted from each = 50 × 4 = 200

⇒ New sum of 50 results = 50N − 200

⇒ New average = (50N − 200) ÷ 50

⇒ New average = 50(N − 4) ÷ 50

⇒ New average = N − 4

∴ The correct answer is N-4.

Additional Information

Addition of Constant

If a constant k is added to every observation, the new average becomes Old Average + k.

Multiplication by Constant

If every observation is multiplied by a constant k, the new average becomes Old Average × k.

Algebraic Sum of Deviations

The sum of the deviations of all observations from their arithmetic mean is always zero.

Weighted Average

When combining two groups with counts n₁, n₂ and averages A₁, A₂, the combined average is (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Shortcut Trick

In any set of n numbers, the average p must satisfy the condition: Smallest ≤ p ≤ Largest.

Given the smallest number is 27, we only know that p ≥ 27 and Largest ≥ 27.

Since the other numbers in the set and the total count n are unknown, both p and the largest number can take any value ≥ 27.

Neither p = 30 nor Largest = 54 is a mandatory condition for all possible sets.

∴ The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Alternate Method

Given: Smallest number in the set = 27. Average = p.

Let the numbers be x₁, x₂, x₃, ... , x_n.

⇒ Smallest (x₁) = 27.

⇒ Average (p) = (x₁ + x₂ + ... + x_n) ÷ n.

Checking Statement I: p = 30.

⇒ If set is {27, 28, 29}, p = (27 + 28 + 29) ÷ 3 = 28. (p ≠ 30).

⇒ If set is {27, 33}, p = (27 + 33) ÷ 2 = 30. (p = 30).

⇒ Statement I is not always correct.

Checking Statement II: Largest = 54.

⇒ If set is {27, 28}, Largest = 28. (Largest ≠ 54).

⇒ If set is {27, 54}, Largest = 54. (Largest = 54).

⇒ Statement II is not always correct.

∴ The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Additional Information

Range of Average

The arithmetic mean or average always lies between the minimum and maximum values of a data set: x_min ≤ p ≤ x_max.

Dependency on Number of Terms

To uniquely determine the average (p) or any specific term like the largest number, we must know the values of all other terms or specific properties of the distribution (like an AP).

Effect of Extremes

The average is highly sensitive to outliers. A very large maximum value will significantly pull the average p higher, regardless of the smallest value.

Shortcut Trick

Prime factorize 180: 180 = 2² × 3² × 5¹.

To find the total number of factors, add 1 to each exponent and multiply them.

Total factors = (2 + 1) × (2 + 1) × (1 + 1)

Total factors = 3 × 3 × 2 = 18.

∴ The correct answer is 18 factors.

Alternate Method

Given: Number = 180

Formula Used: If the prime factorization of a number N is a^p × b^q × c^r, then the total number of positive factors = (p + 1)(q + 1)(r + 1).

⇒ Prime factorization: 180 = 2 × 90 = 2 × 2 × 45 = 2² × 3 × 15 = 2² × 3² × 5¹

⇒ Powers are p = 2, q = 2, r = 1

⇒ Total factors = (2 + 1) × (2 + 1) × (1 + 1)

⇒ Total factors = 3 × 3 × 2 = 18

∴ The correct answer is 18 factors.

Additional Information

Sum of Factors

The sum of all positive factors of N = a^pb^qc^r is given by [(a^p+1−1)/(a−1)] × [(b^q+1−1)/(b−1)] × [(c^r+1−1)/(c−1)].

Product of Factors

The product of all factors of a number N is equal to N^{(Total Number of Factors / 2)}.

Perfect Square Factors

To find perfect square factors, only consider even exponents of the prime bases in the combinations.

Shortcut Trick

Since 9 is a multiple of 3, any number divisible by 9 is automatically divisible by 3.

We need to find the largest 2-digit number divisible by 9.

The largest 2-digit number is 99.

Checking divisibility: 99 ÷ 9 = 11 (Exactly divisible).

∴ The correct answer is 99.

Alternate Method

Given: Divisors are 3 and 9; Range is 2-digit numbers (10 to 99).

Formula Used: A number divisible by two numbers must be divisible by their LCM. The largest multiple of L less than or equal to N is N − (N mod L).

⇒ Find the LCM of 3 and 9.

⇒ Multiples of 3: 3, 6, 9, 12, ...

⇒ Multiples of 9: 9, 18, 27, ...

⇒ LCM(3, 9) = 9.

⇒ Divide the largest 2-digit number (99) by 9.

⇒ 99 ÷ 9 = 11 with Remainder = 0.

⇒ Largest number = 99 − 0 = 99.

∴ The correct answer is 99.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 9 (e.g., for 99, 9+9 = 18, which is 9 × 2).

Divisibility Rule of 3

A number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3 (e.g., for 99, 9+9 = 18, which is 3 × 6).

LCM Property

If a number n is divisible by both a and b, then n must be divisible by the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of a and b.

Shortcut Trick

Equate the parts: 50% SP = 4/5 CP ⇒ 1/2 SP = 8/10 CP

Ratio of SP : CP = 8/5

Profit = 8 − 5 = 3 units on a base of 5 units (CP)

Profit % = (3/5) × 100 = 60%

∴ The correct answer is 60%.

Alternate Method

Given:

50% of Selling Price (SP) = 4/5 of Cost Price (CP)

Formula Used:

Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price

Profit Percentage = (Profit ÷ Cost Price) × 100

⇒ (50/100) × SP = (4/5) × CP

⇒ (1/2) × SP = (4/5) × CP

⇒ SP / CP = (4/5) ÷ (1/2)

⇒ SP / CP = (4/5) × (2/1) = 8/5

⇒ Let Cost Price = 5 units and Selling Price = 8 units

⇒ Profit = 8 − 5 = 3 units

⇒ Profit Percentage = (3 ÷ 5) × 100

⇒ Profit Percentage = 3 × 20 = 60%

∴ The correct answer is 60%.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage

Loss % = (Cost Price − Selling Price) ÷ Cost Price × 100. It occurs when CP is greater than SP.

Marked Price and Discount

Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount. The discount percentage is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP).

CP and MP Relationship

The ratio of Cost Price to Marked Price is given by CP / MP = (100 − Discount %) / (100 + Profit %).

Shortcut Trick

When the total Cost Price and total Selling Price are the same (₹182), use the inverse article ratio.

Ratio of CP : SP = Articles for SP : Articles for CP = 12 : 10 = 6 : 5.

Let CP = 6 units and SP = 5 units.

Since CP > SP, it is a Loss of 6 − 5 = 1 unit.

Ratio of Loss : CP = 1 : 6.

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 6.

Alternate Method

Given:

CP of 10 articles = ₹182

SP of 12 articles = ₹182

Formula Used:

Loss = Cost Price (CP) − Selling Price (SP)

Ratio = Value of Loss / Cost Price

Calculations:

⇒ CP of 1 article = 182 / 10 = ₹18.2

⇒ SP of 1 article = 182 / 12 = ₹15.166...

⇒ Loss on 1 article = 182/10 − 182/12

⇒ Loss = 182 × (1/10 − 1/12) = 182 × (6 − 5)/60 = ₹182/60

⇒ Required Ratio = (182/60) ÷ (182/10)

⇒ Required Ratio = (182 / 60) × (10 / 182)

⇒ Required Ratio = 10 / 60 = 1 / 6

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 6.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when SP > CP (Profit = SP − CP). Loss occurs when CP > SP (Loss = CP − SP).

Profit/Loss Percentage

Percentage is always calculated on CP unless stated: Profit% = (Profit/CP) × 100 and Loss% = (Loss/CP) × 100.

Articles and Price Relation

For a constant expenditure, the price of an article is inversely proportional to the number of articles: Price ∝ 1 / Quantity.

Shortcut Trick

Target value to be obtained = 190% of 110 = 1.9 × 110 = 209.

Required value to be subtracted = 540 − 209 = 331.

∴ The correct answer is 331.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial number = 540, Target = 190 percent of 110.

Formula Used: Subtracted Value = Initial Number − Target Value

⇒ Target value = 190% × 110

⇒ Target value = (190 ÷ 100) × 110

⇒ Target value = 1.9 × 110 = 209

⇒ Let the number to be subtracted be x.

⇒ 540 − x = 209

⇒ x = 540 − 209 = 331

∴ The correct answer is 331.

Additional Information

Percentage Calculation

To find x% of a value y, use the formula: (x ÷ 100) × y. Percentages greater than 100 result in a value larger than the original base.

Basic Linear Equations

In an equation of the form a − x = b, the unknown x is found by rearranging the terms: x = a − b.

Fraction to Percentage Conversion

A percentage can be expressed as a decimal by dividing by 100. For example, 190% = 190 ÷ 100 = 1.9.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Total Capacity = LCM(6, 8, 12) = 24 units.

Efficiencies: P1 = 4, P2 = 3, P3 = −2 (empty).

Work done in first 2 hr by (P1 + P2) = (4 + 3) × 2 = 14 units.

Remaining work = 24 − 14 = 10 units.

Time for remaining work with (P1 + P2 + P3) = 10 ÷ (4 + 3 − 2) = 10 ÷ 5 = 2 hr.

Total Time = 2 hr (initial) + 2 hr (after P3 opened) = 4 hr.

∴ The correct answer is 4 hr.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by P1 = 6 hr, P2 = 8 hr, and P3 = 12 hr (emptying).

Formula Used: Total Work = Time × Efficiency

⇒ Work done by P1 and P2 in the first 2 hours = (4 + 3) × 2 = 14 units.

⇒ Remaining work to fill the tank = 24 − 14 = 10 units.

⇒ Net efficiency when all three pipes are open = 4 + 3 − 2 = 5 units/hr.

⇒ Time taken to fill the remaining part = 10 ÷ 5 = 2 hr.

⇒ Total Time to fill the tank completely = 2 hr (start) + 2 hr (remaining) = 4 hr.

∴ The correct answer is 4 hr.

Additional Information

Pipes and Cisterns Basics

An inlet pipe fills the tank (positive work), whereas an outlet pipe (leak) empties the tank (negative work).

Net Efficiency

If multiple pipes operate together, the net efficiency is the algebraic sum of their individual efficiencies (e.g., Net = E₁ + E₂ − E₃).

Work-Time Relationship

The time taken to complete a job is inversely proportional to efficiency when the total work remains constant (Time = Work ÷ Efficiency).

Shortcut Trick

Since the speed is constant for both distances, total speed = (D₁ + D₂) ÷ Total Time.

Total Distance = 35 + 40 = 75 km.

Speed = 75 ÷ 15 = 5 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 5 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

First Distance (D₁) = 35 km

Second Distance (D₂) = 40 km

Total Time (T) = 15 hr

Formula Used:

Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = D₁ + D₂

⇒ Total Distance = 35 + 40 = 75 km

⇒ Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

⇒ Speed = 75 ÷ 15

⇒ Speed = 5 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 5 km/hr.

Additional Information

Speed-Distance-Time Formula

Speed is defined as the rate at which an object covers distance. Speed = Distance ÷ Time.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Average Speed

If a body travels equal distances at speeds x and y, the Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Alcohol to Water = 4 : 9

Difference in ratio parts = 9 − 4 = 5 parts

Given: 5 parts = 25 litres → 1 part = 5 litres

Quantity of Water = 9 parts = 9 × 5 = 45 litres

∴ The correct answer is 45 litres.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of Alcohol to Water = 4 : 9 and the difference between them = 25 litres.

Formula: Part value = Total Value × (Required Ratio Part / Sum or Difference of parts)

⇒ Let the quantity of Alcohol be 4x and Water be 9x.

⇒ Difference = 9x − 4x = 25 litres

⇒ 5x = 25

⇒ x = 5 litres

⇒ Quantity of Water = 9x = 9 × 5 = 45 litres

∴ The correct answer is 45 litres.

Additional Information

Ratio Property

If a quantity is divided into two parts in the ratio a : b, the parts are [a/(a+b)] × Total and [b/(a+b)] × Total.

Comparison of Ratio Units

When the difference between two quantities is given, identify the difference in their ratio units and equate it to the actual value to find the value of 1 unit.

Total Quantity

The total quantity of a mixture is always the sum of all its components: Total = Part 1 + Part 2 + ... + Part n.

Shortcut Trick

Number of ₹5 notes = 575 ÷ 5 = 115.

According to the ratio 7 : 5, 5 units = 115 notes.

Multiplication factor = 115 ÷ 5 = 23.

Total ratio parts = 7 + 5 = 12 units.

Total notes = 12 × 23 = 276.

∴ The correct answer is 276.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of number of ₹2 notes to ₹5 notes = 7 : 5

Monetary value of ₹5 notes = ₹575

Formula Used:

Number of notes = Total Value ÷ Value of one note

Calculations:

⇒ Number of ₹5 notes = 575 ÷ 5 = 115

⇒ Let the number of ₹2 and ₹5 notes be 7x and 5x respectively.

⇒ 5x = 115

⇒ x = 115 ÷ 5 = 23

⇒ Number of ₹2 notes = 7 × 23 = 161

⇒ Total notes = 161 + 115 = 276

∴ The correct answer is 276.

Additional Information

Denomination and Value

The monetary value of a group of identical notes is the product of the face value of one note and the total number of notes.

Ratio Application

When quantities are given in a ratio a : b, they can be expressed as ax and bx, where x is the highest common factor.

Weighted Value of Currency

If number of notes are in ratio n₁ : n₂ with values v₁ and v₂, the total value ratio is (n₁ × v₁) : (n₂ × v₂).

The correct answer is: May you find success in your activity or pursuit.

Key Points

• The idiom 'more power to your elbow' is an expression of encouragement used to wish someone success or good luck in an activity they are undertaking. (किसी के कार्य में सफलता की कामना करना या प्रोत्साहन देना)
• Example: I heard you are starting your own consultancy; more power to your elbow!
• 'May you find success in your activity or pursuit' directly defines the sentiment of wishing someone achievement and prosperity in their specific efforts or goals. (अपनी गतिविधि या प्रयास में सफलता प्राप्त करना)
• Example: As you prepare for your final examinations, may you find success in your pursuit.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct meaning of the idiom is to wish someone well in their endeavors.

Therefore, the correct answer is- May you find success in your activity or pursuit.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To drink alcohol, perhaps excessively (शराब पीना, शायद अत्यधिक): This phrase is often associated with the idiom 'to bend one's elbow'.
• Example: He has been bending his elbow at the tavern every night this week.
• To interact or mingle with a person or group (किसी व्यक्ति या समूह के साथ मेलजोल करना): This meaning is usually expressed by the idiom 'to rub elbows'.
• Example: The conference provided a great opportunity to rub elbows with top industry professionals.
• To force one's way through (a crowd or crowded place) (भीड़ के माध्यम से कोहनी मारते हुए या धकेलते हुए रास्ता बनाना): This describes the literal or figurative act of 'elbowing one's way' through a group.
• Example: We had to elbow our way through the heavy crowd to reach the subway entrance.

The correct answer is: series.

Key Points

• The word 'sequence' refers to a particular order in which related events, movements, or things follow each other. (अनुक्रम)
• Example: The sequence of events leading up to the accident was captured on the security camera.
• 'series' refers to a number of events, objects, or items of a similar kind coming one after another in a specific order. (शृंखला)
• Example: The local library is hosting a series of lectures on modern history this month.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym of 'sequence' is 'series'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: series.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Disorder (अव्यवस्था): A state of confusion or a lack of organization.
• Example: The room was in a state of complete disorder after the kids finished playing.
• Choice (विकल्प): An act of selecting or making a decision when faced with two or more possibilities.
• Example: You have the choice between taking the bus or walking to the station.
• Mixture (मिश्रण): A substance made by mixing other substances together.
• Example: The cake batter is a mixture of flour, sugar, eggs, and butter.

The correct answer is: soliloqey.

Key Points

• The word 'soliloqey' is the misspelt version of the word 'soliloquy', and it does not exist in standard English. (गलत वर्तनी)
• Example: The misspelt word 'soliloqey' is often confused with its correct form because of its phonetic sound.
• 'Soliloquy' refers to an act of speaking one's thoughts aloud when by oneself or regardless of any hearers, especially by a character in a play. (आत्मभाषण/स्वगत कथन)
• Example: Hamlet's famous soliloquy 'To be, or not to be' is a masterpiece of dramatic writing.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word among the given options is 'soliloqey'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- soliloqey.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Sagacious (बुद्धिमान/चतुर): Having or showing keen mental discernment and good judgment.
• Example: The sagacious lawyer was able to win the case despite the lack of evidence.
• Scrupulous (ईमानदार/अति सावधान): Diligent, thorough, and extremely attentive to details.
• Example: The scrupulous accountant noticed a minor error in the tax returns.
• Sedentary (गतिहीन/सुस्त): Tending to spend much time seated or being somewhat inactive.
• Example: People with sedentary jobs should make an effort to exercise regularly.

The correct answer is: Extraordinary.

Key Points

• The word 'ordinary' refers to something that is common, normal, or lacks any special or distinctive features. (साधारण)
• Example: It was an ordinary summer day with a clear blue sky.
• 'Extraordinary' refers to something that is very unusual, remarkable, or exceptional; it describes something that stands out from the common or standard range. (असाधारण)
• Example: The scientist made an extraordinary discovery that changed our understanding of space.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'ordinary' is 'extraordinary'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Extraordinary.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Common (सामान्य): Occurring, found, or done often; prevalent.
• Example: Colds are very common during the winter season.
• Usual (हमेशा वाला / सामान्य): Habitually or typically occurring or done; customary.
• Example: She arrived at her usual time for the morning meeting.
• Normal (सामान्य): Conforming to a standard; usual, typical, or expected.
• Example: The doctor said that his heart rate is perfectly normal.

The correct answer is Option(4) i.e. 'Hostile'.

Key Points

• The word 'Friendly' refers to someone who is kind, helpful, and pleasant to be around, often showing goodwill and warmth. (मित्रवत/अनुकूल)
• Example: The staff at the new cafe were extremely friendly and made us feel at home.
• 'Hostile' refers to being unfriendly, aggressive, or showing strong opposition and dislike toward someone or something. (शत्रुतापूर्ण)
• Example: The crowd became hostile when the referee made a controversial decision.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite or antonym of 'Friendly' is 'Hostile'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Hostile.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Amiable (मिलनसार): Having or displaying a friendly and pleasant manner; easy to get along with.
• Example: She had an amiable personality that made it easy for her to make new friends.
• Affable (सौम्य): Friendly, good-natured, or easy to talk to.
• Example: Despite his high position, he remained affable and approachable to everyone.
• King (राजा): The male ruler of an independent state or kingdom.
• Example: The king was known for his wisdom and the prosperity of his empire.

The correct answer is 'to'.

 

Key Points

• The verb lead is frequently used with the preposition 'to' when indicating a destination, result, or outcome.
• In this context, the sentence expresses that various religions (paths) eventually reach or point toward the same one truth.
• The phrase 'lead to' is a standard prepositional verb used to show that one thing results in another.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: 'According to great seers, all religions lead to one truth.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'by' is generally used to indicate agency or method (e.g., led by a leader).
• Option 2: 'for' is typically used to indicate purpose or support, which is incorrect in this grammatical structure.
• Option 4: 'in' is used to indicate position or inclusion (e.g., lead in the polls) and does not fit the intended meaning.

The correct answer is: zenith.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A time at which someone is most powerful' refers to the peak stage or highest point of someone's career, success, or influence. (वह समय जब कोई सबसे शक्तिशाली होता है)
• Example: The general was at the zenith of his power when he led the successful campaign.
• 'Zenith' means the time at which something is most powerful or successful; the highest point reached by a celestial or other object. (शीर्ष/चरम सीमा)
• Example: Her career reached its zenith when she won the international award.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct one-word substitution for the given phrase is 'zenith'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: zenith.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Nadir (पतन/अधोबिंदु): The lowest point in the fortunes of a person or organization.
• Example: After the scandal, the politician reached the nadir of his career.
• Pablum (निरर्थक/हल्की सामग्री): Bland or insipid intellectual fare, entertainment, or simplistic ideas.
• Example: Most of the programs on television are mere pablum and offer no real substance.
• Hubris (अति-अभिमान/घमंड): Excessive pride or self-confidence that often leads to a person's downfall.
• Example: It was pure hubris that made him believe he could never be defeated.

The correct answer is Will the plans have been finalised by them by the end of this week?.

Key Points

• The given sentence is an Interrogative Sentence in the Future Perfect Tense. The active structure is: Will + Subject + have + V3 (Past Participle) + Object + ?.
• To convert a Future Perfect interrogative sentence into Passive Voice, the following structure is applied: Will + New Subject (Original Object) + have been + V3 (Past Participle) + by + New Object (Original Subject) + ?.
• In this sentence, the subject is they, the verb is finalised, and the object is the plans. Following the rule, the object the plans becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• The auxiliary verb have been must be used immediately after the new subject in the passive form to maintain the Perfect Tense aspect.
• The pronoun they is the subject in the active voice and changes to its objective case them when it becomes the agent in the passive voice.
• The phrase by the end of this week is an adverbial of time and remains at the end of the sentence to maintain the original meaning.

 Additional Information

• Tense Transitions in Passive Voice:
• Future Indefinite: Changes from will + V1 to will be + V3. Options using will be finalised are incorrect because the original sentence is in the perfect tense.
• Future Perfect: Changes from will have + V3 to will have been + V3. This transition is essential to show that the action will have been completed.
• Assertive vs. Interrogative: An interrogative active sentence must remain interrogative in its passive form. Options that change the sentence into a statement (Assertive) are grammatically incorrect for this transformation.
• Role of the Agent: The use of by them indicates the doer of the action. In passive voice, the emphasis shifts from the doer (they) to the receiver of the action (the plans).

The correct answer is Are the flags waved by the guard at every passing train?.

Key Points

• The original sentence is an interrogative sentence in the Active Voice, specifically in the Simple Present Tense, identified by the auxiliary verb Does.
• In Active Voice, the structure for a Simple Present question is: Do/Does + Subject + Base Verb (V1) + Object?. Here, the guard is the subject and the flags is the object.
• To convert an interrogative sentence into Passive Voice, the object of the active sentence (the flags) becomes the subject of the passive sentence.
• The passive structure for Simple Present interrogatives is: Is/Am/Are + New Subject + Past Participle (V3) + by + Agent?.
• Since the new subject the flags is plural, the plural auxiliary verb Are must be used at the beginning of the sentence to maintain Subject-Verb Agreement.
• The primary verb wave is converted into its Past Participle form, which is waved.
• The original subject the guard is introduced as the agent following the preposition by.

 Additional Information

• Subject-Verb Agreement:
• In English grammar, the verb must match the number of the subject. Using Is with a plural noun like the flags is a grammatical error.
• Tense Consistency:
• The use of Did is characteristic of the Simple Past Tense. Converting a present tense active sentence into a past tense passive sentence changes the original meaning and is incorrect.
• Passive Voice Components:
• A standard passive construction always requires a form of the verb to be (is, am, are, was, were) combined with the Past Participle (V3). Options starting with Do or Did while using waved do not follow the standard structural requirements of passive voice.

The correct answer is The courier delivered a secret message yesterday..

Key Points

• The original sentence 'A secret message was delivered by the courier yesterday' is in the Passive Voice. This is identified by the auxiliary verb was followed by the past participle delivered and the preposition by. Hence, the sentence structure follows the Simple Past Passive format: Object + was/were + V3 + by + Subject.
• To convert a sentence from passive to active voice, the Object of the passive sentence (the courier) must become the Subject of the active sentence. Hence, 'The courier' initiates the action.
• The original subject (a secret message) becomes the direct object in the active voice construction. Hence, it receives the action of the verb.
• The tense of the sentence is Simple Past. In the active voice, the verb must be in its V2 (Simple Past) form without any auxiliary verbs like 'was' or 'were'. The V2 form of 'deliver' is delivered. Hence, the verb phrase changes from 'was delivered' to 'delivered'.
• The Adverb of Time 'yesterday' remains unchanged and typically stays at the end of the sentence to maintain the original meaning and chronological context. Hence, the final active construction is 'The courier delivered a secret message yesterday.'

 Additional Information

• Rules for Voice Conversion in different tenses:
• Simple Present Tense:
• Active: Subject + V1(s/es) + Object.
• Passive: Object + is/am/are + V3 + by + Subject.
• Past Continuous Tense:
• Active: Subject + was/were + V1 + ing + Object.
• Passive: Object + was/were + being + V3 + by + Subject.
• Past Perfect Tense:
• Active: Subject + had + V3 + Object.
• Passive: Object + had + been + V3 + by + Subject.
• Analysis of incorrect options:
• Delivers: This represents the Simple Present Tense, which contradicts the past time marker 'yesterday'.
• Was delivering: This represents the Past Continuous Tense, indicating an ongoing action in the past rather than a completed one.
• Had delivered: This represents the Past Perfect Tense, used to describe an action completed before another point in the past, which is not required here.

The correct answer is 'of'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition 'of' is used in the construction 'It + be + adjective + of + person + to-infinitive'.
• This pattern is used to evaluate a person's character or behavior in a specific situation. Adjectives commonly used in this structure include kind, nice, silly, brave, polite, and odd.
• In the given sentence, the word 'odd' is used to describe the nature of the man's behavior (giving advice to his master), necessitating the use of 'of'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: 'It was very odd of the man to give advice to his master.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'about' is generally used to indicate the subject matter or topic and does not fit this idiomatic structure.
• Option 3: 'in' is used for location or containers and is grammatically incorrect here.
• Option 4: 'for' is used in a similar structure (It + be + adjective + for + person + to-infinitive), but primarily when the adjective describes the action itself (e.g., hard, easy, important, necessary) rather than the person's character.

The correct answer is the people must call a spade a spade.

Key Points

• The phrase call a spade a spade is a standard English idiom that means to speak plainly and bluntly about something as it is, without using euphemisms or beating around the bush.
• Grammatically, idioms are fixed expressions. The original sentence used call spade a spade, which is incorrect because it lacks the indefinite article 'a' before the first spade. Proper idiomatic usage requires the structure call a spade a spade.
• The verb insisted in the main clause denotes a strong demand or a firm stance. The modal verb 'must' is more appropriate than 'should' in this context as it emphasizes necessity and obligation, aligning with the activist's forceful tone.
• By replacing the phrase with the people must call a spade a spade, the sentence achieves both idiomatic accuracy and contextual emphasis.

 Additional Information

• Idiomatic Integrity:
• The phrase has its roots in Ancient Greek and was introduced into English via Erasmus in the 16^th century. It is essential to maintain the singular form and include the articles to preserve its meaning.
• Option 1 (call spades) and Option 3 (call spades a spade) are incorrect because they change the plurality of the noun, which violates the fixed nature of the idiom.
• Modal Verbs:
• Must: Expresses subjective obligation or a requirement imposed by the speaker. In this case, the activist imposes this requirement on the people.
• Should: Generally expresses advice or suggestion, which is weaker than what the verb insisted implies.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes an interaction between a character named Lawson and an old man named Brevald at a hotel bar.
• Sentence D follows S1 as it provides the immediate reaction to seeing Brevald at the bar. Since Brevald is Ethel's father, Lawson decides to enter the bar and invite the old man for a drink:
• 'Because he was Ethel's father, he had a desire to speak to him, so he went in, nodded and, ordering his own drink, casually turned and invited the old man to have one with him.'
• Sentence B follows D because it describes the conversation and interaction that took place after the drink was ordered. It mentions they chatted about local affairs while Lawson felt the Norwegian (Brevald) was scrutinizing him:
• 'They chatted for a few min of local affairs, and Lawson was uneasily conscious that the Norwegian was scrutinizing him with sly blue eyes.'
• Sentence A follows B as it moves from the specific action of scrutiny to a general observation about Brevald's manner or behavior during this chat:
• 'His manner was not agreeable.'
• Sentence C follows A because it elaborates on the manner mentioned in the previous sentence, describing it as sycophantic yet hiding a shadow of truculence (aggressiveness):
• 'It was sycophantic, and yet behind the cringing air of an old man who had been worsted in his struggle with fate was a shadow of old truculence.'
• Finally, S2 concludes the paragraph by providing the historical context for that truculence, revealing Brevald's past as a blackbirder (slave trader) and his physical scars from Solomon Islanders.
• The correct sequence is DBAC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'One day at the hotel, passing through the bar, he saw that old Brevald, as ever in his shabby blue overalls, was standing there. Because he was Ethel's father, he had a desire to speak to him, so he went in, nodded and, ordering his own drink, casually turned and invited the old man to have one with him. They chatted for a few min of local affairs, and Lawson was uneasily conscious that the Norwegian was scrutinizing him with sly blue eyes. His manner was not agreeable. It was sycophantic, and yet behind the cringing air of an old man who had been worsted in his struggle with fate was a shadow of old truculence. Lawson remembered that he had once been captain of a schooner engaged in the slave trade, a blackbirder they call it in the Pacific, and he had a large hernia in the chest which was the result of a wound received in a scrap with Solomon Islanders.'

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph focuses on the relationship between a father, Henry Garnet, and his children, specifically highlighting his deep affection for his only son.
• Sentence S1 is fixed and introduces the subject: the boy who is the only son.
• Sentence B follows S1 as it provides the basic identification of the boy mentioned:
• 'His name was Nicholas and of course he was called Nicky.'
• Sentence D is the second sentence in the sequence as it continues the description of the son by mentioning his age:
• 'He was eighteen.'
• Sentence A is the third sentence as it introduces other family members, the two daughters, and establishes the contrast in the father’s feelings:
• 'The Garnets had two daughters besides... but there was no doubt that the greater share of Henry Garnet's affection was given to his son.'
• Sentence C is the fourth sentence as it elaborates on how he treated the daughters versus his son, reinforcing the preference mentioned in A:
• 'He was kind... to his daughters... but he doted on Nicky.'
• Sentence S2 is fixed and perfectly concludes the thought by showing the extent of his devotion: 'Nothing was too good for him.'
• The correct sequence is BDAC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'The boy of whom he spoke was his only son. His name was Nicholas and of course he was called Nicky. He was eighteen. The Garnets had two daughters besides, one of sixteen and the other of twelve, but however unreasonable it seemed, for a father is generally supposed to like his daughters best, and though he did all he could not to show his preference, there was no doubt that the greater share of Henry Garnet's affection was given to his son. He was kind, in a chaffing, casual way, to his daughters, and gave them handsome presents on their birthdays and at Christmas; but he doted on Nicky. Nothing was too good for him.'