SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 08 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic followed here is,

548

548 − 8 = 540

540 − 8 = 532

532 − 8 = 524

524 − 8 = 516 ≠ 519

516 − 8 = 508

508 − 8 = 500

500 − 8 = 492

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

For (UN, RG, OZ)

For (SA, PT, MM)

Similarly, let us check for the set (LM, IF, FY):

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

-384 - 2 =  -386

-386 - 4 = -390

-390 - 6 = -396

-396 - 8 = -404

-404 - 10 = -414

-414 - 12 = -426

-426 - 14 = -440

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is,

26 + 99 = 125

125 + 99 = 224

224 + 99 = 323

323 + 99 = 422

422 + 99 = 521

521 + 99 = 620

620 + 99 = 719

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1';

5 persons J, K, L, P and Q are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. L is second to the left of J.
2. L is second to the right of P.
3. K is second to the left of Q. 

K is sitting at second position from the left end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given that there are 6 boys P, Q, R, S, T and V with different weights.

From the clues, we can deduce the following relationships:

1. R is heavier than only V and T.

→ The order from heavier to lighter is: _ > _ > _ > R > T > V

2. P is lighter than only S.

→ So, P is the 2^nd heaviest and S is the heaviest.

→ S > P > _ > R > T > V

3. Number of boys heavier than P = Number of boys lighter than T.

→ Boys heavier than P = 1 (only S).

→ Therefore, boys lighter than T must also be 1.

Since only V is lighter than T, this condition is satisfied.

4. The only remaining vacant position is occupied by Q.

→ Final order from heaviest to lightest:

→ S > P > Q > R > T > V

Thus, Q is heavier than R, T and V, i.e., 3 boys.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

ZP54 : BR108

CR60 : ET120

Similarly,

For ? : ZL126

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

RKB110 : ENU330 → 

 

CLM220 : POF440 → 

 

DSJ140 : ? → 

 

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First Number = Second Number − 48

For the first pair 9058 : 9106

⇒ 9106 − 48 = 9058

For the second pair 7804 : 7852

⇒ 7852 − 48 = 7804

Applying the same logic to the missing pair

? : 7472

⇒ 7472 − 48 = 7424

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 4) + 9

For the third pair 561 : 2253

⇒ (561 × 4) + 9

⇒ 2244 + 9 = 2253.

For the fourth pair 859 : 3445

⇒ (859 × 4) + 9

⇒ 3436 + 9 = 3445.

Applying the same logic to the first pair

530 : ?

⇒ (530 × 4) + 9

⇒ 2120 + 9 = 2129.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

KNOT is coded as POPU →

ROPE is coded as IPQF →

Similarly,

let us find the code for DOJO:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

HEART is coded as 81 →

Sum of reverse positional values = 19 + 22 + 26 + 9 + 7 = 83

Code = 83 − 2 = 81

CHAIR is coded as 94 →

Sum of reverse positional values = 24 + 19 + 26 + 18 + 9 = 96

Code = 96 − 2 = 94

Similarly, let's find the code for ROAD:

Sum of reverse positional values = 9 + 12 + 26 + 23 = 70

Code = 70 − 2 = 68

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The given time interval is between 8 AM and 9 AM.

At 8:00 AM, the hour hand is at 8 × 300 = 2400 and the minute hand is at 00.

To find the time when the angle is 75 degrees, we consider the relative speed = 6 − 0.5 = 5.50 per minute.

Case 1: The minute hand is behind the hour hand.

Relative angular distance to be covered = 240 − 75 = 1650

Time = 165 / 5.5 = 30 minutes. (This corresponds to 8:30 AM)

Case 2: The minute hand has crossed the hour hand.

Relative angular distance to be covered = 240 + 75 = 3150

Time = 315 / 5.5 = 630 / 11 ≈ 57.27 minutes.

This corresponds approximately to 8:57 AM.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Alternate Method

The angle between the hour hand and minute hand = $|60H - 11M|\over2$

Where H = hours and M = minutes.

Given Angle = 75 and H = 8.

75 = $|60 \times 8 - 11M|\over2$

150 = |480 − 11M|

480 − 11M = −150 (since we are looking for the time closer to 9 AM based on options)

11M = 480 + 150

11M = 630

M = 630/11 ≈ 57.27

Therefore, the time is approximately 8:57 AM.

Hence, the correct answer is 8:57.

The time interval from 10 AM to 10 PM on the same day is exactly 12 hours.

Total time in minutes = 12 × 60 = 720 minutes.

Given that the clock gains 3 seconds every 4 minutes.

Gain in 1 minute = 3/4 seconds.

Total gain in 720 minutes = 720 × (3/4) seconds

Total gain = 180 × 3 = 540 seconds.

Now, convert the total gain from seconds into minutes:

Gain in minutes = 540 ÷ 60 = 9 minutes.

The correct time is 10 PM. Since the clock is gaining time, it will show the correct time plus the gained time.

Time shown by the clock = 10 PM + 9 minutes = 10:09 PM.

Therefore, the time the clock will show is 10:09:00.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is Panchayati Raj.

Key Points

• The 73^rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 was enacted to institutionalize Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), providing them with constitutional status and protection.
• This amendment inserted a new Part IX into the Constitution of India, titled The Panchayats, which encompasses provisions from Article 243 to 243-O.
• It also introduced the 11^th Schedule, which details 29 functional items or subjects, such as agriculture, land improvement, and minor irrigation, that fall under the jurisdiction of Panchayats.
• The act gave practical shape to Article 40 of the Directive Principles of State Policy, which directs the State to organize village panchayats as units of self-government.
• It mandates a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj in every state: Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (intermediate level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
• The act provides for mandatory reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in proportion to their population, and at least one-third reservation for women.
• To ensure financial and electoral autonomy, the act established the State Finance Commission to review financial positions and the State Election Commission to conduct fair elections every five years.

 Additional Information

• Anti-defection:
• Introduced by the 52^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 to prevent political defections.
• It added the 10^th Schedule, which lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection.
• Tribunals:
• Constitutional status was provided by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
• It added Part XIV-A, containing Article 323A for administrative tribunals and Article 323B for other matters.
• Cooperative Societies:
• Given constitutional status through the 97^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011.
• It added Part IX-B and included the right to form cooperatives as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(c).

The correct answer is Sarojini Naidu.

Key Points

• Sarojini Naidu was appointed as the Governor of the United Provinces (currently known as Uttar Pradesh) on August 15, 1947, following India's independence.
• She held this prestigious constitutional office until her death on March 2, 1949, making her the first woman to serve as a Governor in the history of independent India.
• Commonly known as the Nightingale of India (Bharat Kokila), she was a prolific poet and a major political figure in the Indian National Movement.
• In 1925, she became the first Indian woman to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress during its Kanpur Session.
• She was a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi and played a significant role during the Civil Disobedience Movement, including the Dandi March and the Dharasana Satyagraha.

 Additional Information

• Indira Gandhi:
• She was the first woman Prime Minister of India, serving from 1966 to 1977 and again from 1980 until 1984.
• She was the first woman to be honored with the Bharat Ratna in 1971 for her leadership during the Indo-Pakistani War.
• Sucheta Kripalani:
• She became the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state, leading the government of Uttar Pradesh from 1963 to 1967.
• She was a member of the Constituent Assembly and founded the All India Mahila Congress in 1940.
• Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit:
• She was the first woman President of the United Nations General Assembly, elected in 1953.
• She served as a prominent diplomat and was the sister of India's first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru.

The correct answer is 8.

Key Points

• The National Air Quality Index (AQI) was launched in September 2014 in New Delhi under the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan to provide a simplified health-related air quality status to the public.
• Developed by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in consultation with IIT Kanpur and medical professionals, it follows the mantra of One Number-One Colour-One Description.
• The index measures eight major pollutants for which short-term national standards have been prescribed. These are Particulate Matter (PM10), Particulate Matter (PM2.5), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO₂), Sulphur Dioxide (SO₂), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O₃), Ammonia (NH₃), and Lead (Pb).
• The AQI calculation is based on the 24-hour average concentration for most pollutants, except for Ozone and Carbon Monoxide, which are monitored on an 8-hour average basis to better reflect immediate health impacts.
• The overall AQI for a location is determined by the sub-index of the pollutant that is most prominent (the pollutant with the highest concentration relative to its standard) on a given day.

 Additional Information

• AQI Categories and Health Impact:
• Good (0−50): Minimal health impact.
• Satisfactory (51−100): May cause minor breathing discomfort to sensitive individuals.
• Moderately Polluted (101−200): May cause breathing discomfort to people with asthma and heart diseases.
• Poor (201−300): Causes breathing discomfort to most people on prolonged exposure.
• Very Poor (301−400): Leads to respiratory illness upon prolonged exposure.
• Severe (401−500): Affects healthy people and seriously impacts those with existing respiratory or cardiovascular ailments.
• Comparison with NAAQS:
• While the AQI monitors 8 pollutants, the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) officially monitor 12 pollutants.
• The four pollutants included in NAAQS but excluded from daily AQI reporting are Benzene, Benzo(a)pyrene, Arsenic, and Nickel, as they are primarily monitored for long-term (annual) chronic exposure rather than short-term spikes.

The correct answer is People's perception of having control over life decisions.

Key Points

• The World Happiness Report utilizes six key variables to explain the variation in happiness across different nations, one of which is the Freedom to make life choices.
• This specific metric is defined as the national average of binary responses (0 or 1) to the Gallup World Poll question: 'Are you satisfied or dissatisfied with your freedom to choose what you do with your life?'.
• It represents an individual's subjective perception of their own autonomy and the extent to which they feel they have the agency to steer their own life path without undue restriction.
• Unlike objective measures of civil liberties or legal rights, this indicator focuses on the internal psychological state of feeling 'free', which is highly correlated with overall life satisfaction.
• Data collected indicates that a strong sense of personal agency is a fundamental pillar of human well-being, often ranking as more significant than absolute income in developed economies.

 Additional Information

• The Happiness Index is published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN).
• The index is calculated using a three-year average of data, primarily employing the Cantril Ladder, where respondents rate their lives on a scale from 0 to 10.
• Other core variables in the report include:
• GDP per Capita: A measure of the average economic output per person, adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).
• Social Support: Evaluated by asking if citizens have relatives or friends they can count on during trouble.
• Healthy Life Expectancy: Extracted from World Health Organization (WHO) data, reflecting physical health and longevity.
• Generosity: Calculated based on the residual of average responses to questions regarding donating money to charity.
• Perceptions of Corruption: Measured by the perceived level of corruption in government and business sectors.

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

• The 37^th edition of the National Games of India was officially held in the state of Goa from October 26 to November 9, 2023.
• This was the first time that Goa hosted the prestigious multi-sport event, which saw participation from over 10,000 athletes representing all 28 states, 8 Union Territories, and the Services Sports Control Board (SSCB).
• The games were inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium located in Fatorda, South Goa.
• The official mascot for the event was named Moga, an Indian Bison (Gaur), which is the state animal of Goa; the name Moga is derived from the Konkani word for love or affection.
• The competition featured a record 43 sporting disciplines, including the debut of sports such as Beach Football, Rollball, Golf, Sepaktakraw, Kalaripayattu, Lagori, and Pencak Silat.
• The events were organized across five main Goan cities: Panaji, Margao, Mapusa, Ponda, and Vasco, with Cycling and Golf being the only events held in New Delhi due to infrastructure requirements.

 Additional Information

• Performance and Awards:
• Maharashtra finished at the top of the medal tally with a total of 228 medals (80 gold, 69 silver, and 79 bronze), successfully claiming the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy.
• The Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) secured the second position with 66 gold medals, while Haryana finished third with 62 gold medals.
• Srihari Nataraj, a swimmer from Karnataka, was adjudged the Best Male Athlete for winning 8 gold, 1 silver, and 1 bronze medal.
• Sanyukta Prashen Kale and Pranati Nayak, both gymnasts, were jointly named the Best Female Athlete.
• Context and History:
• The previous 36^th National Games were hosted by Gujarat in 2022 after a significant delay due to the pandemic.
• The 38^th edition of the National Games is scheduled to be held in the state of Uttarakhand.
• The National Games of India are modeled after the Olympics and are organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) to promote sports at the grassroots level and identify national talent.

The correct answer is Very high, leading to crisis.

Key Points

• During the late 1980s, India faced a severe macroeconomic imbalance due to persistent fiscal deficits, which climbed to nearly 8.4% of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by 1990-91.
• The government increasingly relied on external commercial borrowings and short-term debt to bridge the gap between revenue and expenditure, leading to a massive accumulation of external debt.
• By 1990, India's external debt had reached approximately $72 billion, and the debt-service ratio surged to over 35%, meaning more than one-third of export earnings went solely toward interest payments.
• This unsustainable debt level triggered a Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis, as the foreign exchange reserves plummeted to a critical low of about $1.2 billion.
• These reserves were sufficient to finance essential imports (like petroleum and fertilizers) for only about two weeks, pushing the country toward sovereign default.

 Additional Information

• The 1991 economic crisis was exacerbated by external factors and required significant policy shifts:
• Gulf War (1990): The conflict caused crude oil prices to skyrocket and led to a sharp decline in remittances from Indian workers in the Middle East, further draining foreign exchange.
• IMF Intervention: To secure an emergency loan from the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the Reserve Bank of India had to airlift 47 tonnes of gold to the Bank of England as collateral.
• New Economic Policy: The crisis served as a catalyst for the July 1991 reforms, introducing Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) to restructure the Indian economy.

The correct answer is Monopolized salt production and imposed heavy taxes.

Key Points

• The British Salt Act of 1882 prohibited Indians from collecting or selling salt, a staple nutrient, and established a government monopoly over its manufacture and sale.
• The act forced Indians to purchase salt from British-controlled agencies, which imposed heavy taxes on a resource that was naturally and freely available along the Indian coastline.
• Since salt is a universal necessity for both humans and livestock, the tax was viewed as highly regressive and cruel, disproportionately impacting the poorest sections of society.
• Mahatma Gandhi identified the Salt Law as the most inhuman of all colonial laws because it taxed a basic gift of nature essential for life.
• This law became the primary grievance that sparked the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930, as it unified different classes of Indian society against colonial exploitation.
• The Dandi March, which began on March 12, 1930, was a direct act of non-violent resistance where Gandhi and his followers manufactured salt to break the British monopoly.

 Additional Information

• The Dandi March and its Significance:
• The march covered 240 miles from Sabarmati Ashram to the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat.
• It demonstrated the power of Satyagraha (truth-force) and brought the Indian independence movement to the forefront of global media attention.
• Following the march, the salt satyagraha spread across India, with notable protests in Dharasana and along the Vedaranyam coast.
• British Economic Policy:
• The revenue generated from the salt tax contributed roughly 8.2 percent of the total British Raj tax revenue at its peak.
• The Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) eventually allowed Indians living near the sea to produce salt for domestic use but did not grant the right to sell it commercially.
• The Salt Law was eventually abolished when India gained independence in 1947, recognizing salt as a fundamental right of the people.

The correct answer is Vishnu.

Key Points

• The Alvars were a group of Tamil poet-saints from South India who flourished between the 6^th and 9^th centuries CE.
• They were wandering singers who were completely immersed in their devotion to Lord Vishnu and his diverse incarnations, such as Krishna and Rama.
• The term Alvar translates to 'one who is deeply immersed' in the ocean of divine love for the Supreme Being.
• There were 12 Alvars in total, including prominent figures like Nammalvar, Periyalvar, and Andal, who was the only female saint in the group.
• They played a vital role in initiating the Bhakti Movement, making religious devotion accessible to all sections of society regardless of caste or gender.
• Their sacred compositions were compiled by Nathamuni into a collection known as the Nalayira Divya Prabandham, often hailed as the Dravida Veda.

 Additional Information

• Nayanars:
• These were 63 saints who were devoted to Lord Shiva and were contemporaries of the Alvars.
• Their hymns were compiled into the Thirumurai, and the first seven volumes are known as the Tevaram.
• Durga:
• A principal deity in Shaktism, she represents feminine power (Shakti) and is revered as the destroyer of evil, specifically the demon Mahishasura.
• Agni and Indra:
• Agni is the God of Fire and acts as a mediator between gods and humans in Vedic rituals.
• Indra is the King of Gods and the God of Thunder and Rain, holding supreme status during the Rig Vedic period.

The correct answer is 63843.

Key Points

• The Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (DAJGUA) was approved by the Union Cabinet on October 2, 2024, to ensure the holistic development of tribal villages.
• The mission specifically targets 63,843 tribal-majority villages across the country to saturate gaps in social infrastructure and basic facilities.
• This massive tribal outreach program covers 549 districts and 2,740 blocks across 30 States and Union Territories.
• The scheme is designed to directly benefit more than 5 crore tribal people, focusing on improving their socio-economic indicators through inter-ministerial convergence.
• The implementation strategy involves identifying Scheduled Tribe (ST) dominated areas where the saturation of government schemes has not yet been achieved.

 Additional Information

• Financial and Administrative Structure:
• The total financial outlay for the mission is Rs. 79,156 crore, with the Central Government contributing Rs. 48,399 crore and the State Governments providing Rs. 30,757 crore.
• The mission involves 25 specific interventions that are implemented through 17 different Central Ministries.
• Core Objectives and Legacy:
• The program is named after Bhagwan Birsa Munda, popularly known as 'Dharti Aaba' (Father of the Earth), a legendary tribal freedom fighter and folk hero.
• It follows the model of the PM-JANMAN (Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan), which focused on Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
• Key infrastructure targets include the construction of 20 lakh pucca houses, 25,000 km of roads, and providing piped water to every tribal household.
• Education and health initiatives include the establishment of Tribal Multipurpose Marketing Centres (TMMCs) and Ashram schools.

The correct answer is Dharma.

Key Points

• Dharma is the foundational concept in the Vedic framework that refers to righteousness, moral values, and the ethical code of conduct necessary to maintain the balance of the universe.
• The term is derived from the Sanskrit root Dhri, which means to uphold, support, or sustain. It signifies the duties and laws that govern individual actions and social order.
• In the context of the Purusharthas (the four aims of human life), Dharma is considered the most critical because it provides the ethical framework within which the other goals must be pursued.
• It emphasizes integrity, justice, and Satya (truth), guiding individuals to perform their Svadharma (personal duty) in harmony with the cosmic order, known as Rta in the Rig Veda.
• By prioritizing ethical living, Dharma ensures that human behavior leads to both Abhyudaya (worldly prosperity) and Nishreyasa (spiritual well-being).

 Additional Information

• The Purusharthas provide a holistic approach to a fulfilling life by balancing material and spiritual needs:
• Artha: This goal focuses on material prosperity, wealth, and economic security. It is essential for survival and social stability but must be acquired through righteous means as defined by Dharma.
• Kama: It represents desire, sensory pleasure, love, and aesthetic enjoyment. The Vedas recognize Kama as a natural human urge that should be satisfied within the boundaries of moral law.
• Moksha: This is the ultimate goal of human existence, signifying liberation from the cycle of birth and death (Samsara). It represents the realization of the self (Atman) and union with the supreme reality (Brahman).

The correct answer is Writing.

Key Points

• Voluntary actions are those activities in the human body that are performed under the conscious control and will of the individual. These actions are primarily regulated by the cerebrum, the largest part of the brain, which processes sensory information and initiates motor impulses.
• Writing is a classic example of a voluntary action as it involves conscious thought, decision-making, and memory. The motor cortex in the frontal lobe of the brain sends specific signals through the spinal cord to the skeletal muscles in the fingers, hand, and wrist to execute precise movements.
• Unlike reflexes, voluntary actions can be initiated, modified, or stopped at any moment based on environmental stimuli or personal choice. These actions are learned over time and require a high degree of neuromuscular coordination and cognitive processing.

 Additional Information

• Involuntary Actions: These are spontaneous and automatic responses that do not require conscious thought. They are controlled by the autonomous nervous system and the hindbrain.
• Vomiting: This is a protective reflex action controlled by the vomit center located in the medulla oblongata. It is an involuntary ejection of stomach contents through the mouth.
• Salivation: This is an involuntary response to the sight, smell, or taste of food, managed by the salivary nuclei in the brainstem to facilitate digestion.
• Breathing: Although it can be modulated voluntarily for short durations, respiration is fundamentally an involuntary process driven by the pons and medulla to maintain homeostasis of oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

• Article 262 of the Indian Constitution specifically addresses the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys.
• According to Article 262(1), Parliament is the sole authority empowered to make laws providing for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint regarding the use, distribution, or control of the waters of any inter-State river or river valley.
• The Constitution further provides under Article 262(2) that Parliament may, by law, exclude the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or any other court in respect of such water disputes.
• This provision was included to ensure that complex riparian issues and inter-state conflicts are resolved through specialized mechanisms rather than standard judicial litigation, which might be time-consuming or technically limited.

 Additional Information

• Legislative Acts under Article 262:
• Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956: This Act was enacted to facilitate the creation of ad-hoc tribunals (e.g., Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal) for the adjudication of inter-state water conflicts.
• River Boards Act, 1956: This law provides for the establishment of River Boards for the regulation and development of inter-State rivers, aimed at advising the Central Government on coordination and development.
• Constitutional Distribution of Power:
• Entry 17 of the State List (List II) gives states power over water supplies, irrigation, and canals.
• Entry 56 of the Union List (List I) gives the Union power over the regulation and development of inter-State rivers and river valleys to the extent declared by Parliament to be in the public interest.
• Other Entities:
• The President, Council of Ministers, and Union Home Minister do not possess the constitutional authority to legislate or provide the legal framework for the adjudication of these specific water disputes; their roles are limited to executive functions or administrative implementation.

The correct answer is Tibetan New Year.

Key Points

• Losar is the most significant festival in the Tibetan calendar, marking the arrival of the New Year. The term is derived from the Tibetan words 'Lo' (year) and 'Sar' (new).
• The festival is primarily celebrated by followers of Tibetan Buddhism and is observed in Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, and various regions of India, including Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh (specifically by the Monpa tribe).
• It follows the Lunisolar Tibetan Calendar, typically falling in the months of February or March. The celebrations last for 15 days, though the first three days are considered the most crucial.
• The festival predates Buddhism in Tibet and has its roots in the Bon religion, where incense was offered to appease local spirits and deities.
• Key rituals include the preparation of Guthuk (a special noodle soup), house cleaning to drive away evil spirits, and the performance of Cham dances (masked religious dances) by monks in monasteries.
• The first day is known as Lama Losar, dedicated to the Dalai Lama and other spiritual leaders, while the second day is Gyalpo Losar (King's Losar).

 Additional Information

• Hindu New Year
• Celebrated under various names across India, such as Chaitra Sukladi, Ugadi (Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka), Gudi Padwa (Maharashtra), and Vaisakhi (Punjab).
• It usually marks the beginning of the Vikram Samvat or Shaka Samvat era in the month of Chaitra.
• Tamil New Year
• Known as Puthandu or Varusha Pirappu, it falls on the first day of the Tamil month Chithirai.
• It generally occurs on or around April 14 every year, following the solar cycle.
• Paris New Year
• Refers to the Gregorian New Year celebrated on January 1^st.
• It is a secular event marked by fireworks at the Eiffel Tower and gatherings at the Champs-Elysees.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• The Union Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying, Rajiv Ranjan Singh, officially launched the 5^th Marine Census during the Coastal State Fisheries Conference 2025 held in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• The census is a massive national-level exercise conducted to gather updated and granular data on the marine fisheries sector, which is vital for evidence-based policy formulation and the blue economy.
• The Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) has been designated as the nodal agency to execute this census, covering the entire 8,118 km coastline of India, including all maritime states and Union Territories.
• This initiative aims to enumerate fishing families, fishing craft, and gear, while also assessing the socio-economic status of the fishing community to ensure better targeted developmental schemes.
• The conference in Mumbai served as a platform for coastal states to discuss sustainable fishing practices, infrastructure development, and the implementation of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY).

 Additional Information

• Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI):
• Established in 1947 under the Ministry of Agriculture and later joined the ICAR (Indian Council of Agricultural Research) in 1967.
• Headquartered in Kochi, Kerala, it is the leading organization for marine fisheries research in India.
• Marine Fisheries Census History:
• The previous 4^th Marine Fisheries Census was conducted in 2016, providing data on over 4 million fisherfolk.
• The 5^th edition leverages digital technology and mobile applications for real-time data collection and enhanced accuracy.
• Significance of the Fisheries Sector:
• India is the third-largest fish producer and the second-largest aquaculture producer in the world.
• The sector contributes significantly to the Gross Value Added (GVA) of the Indian economy and provides livelihoods to nearly 28 million people.

The correct answer is Ministry of Home Affairs.

Key Points

• The Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner (ORGI) was established in 1961 by the Government of India to provide a permanent foundation for the census organization.
• It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), which oversees the security and internal policy of the country.
• The organization is headed by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, who is typically an officer of the rank of Joint Secretary or above from the Indian Administrative Service (IAS).
• The primary responsibility of this office is to conduct the decennial Population Census, which is authorized under the Census Act, 1948.
• It is also responsible for the implementation of the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969, which manages the Civil Registration System (CRS) across India.
• The office plays a critical role in the maintenance of the National Population Register (NPR) under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Linguistic Survey of India.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI):
• MoSPI is the nodal agency for the planned development of the statistical system in the country and manages the National Statistical Office (NSO).
• While it conducts major surveys like the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) and computes the Consumer Price Index (CPI), it is not responsible for the population census.
• Constitutional and Historical Context:
• The Census is a Union Subject listed under Entry 69 of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• The first census in India was conducted in 1872 under Lord Mayo, but the first synchronous (complete) census took place in 1881 under Lord Ripon.
• The Census Commissioner was a temporary post until the office was made permanent in 1961.

The correct answer is To cut off the supply of air, reduce the temperature of the fuel, or both.

Key Points

• Fire is a chemical reaction known as combustion, which requires three fundamental components typically represented as the Fire Triangle: Fuel (combustible material), Heat (to reach ignition temperature), and Oxygen (usually from air).
• The fundamental principle of a fire extinguisher is to disrupt this Fire Triangle by removing or neutralizing one or more of its legs.
• Extinguishers like Carbon Dioxide (CO2) work primarily by displacing oxygen. Since CO2 is heavier than air, it settles over the fire, creating a blanket that cuts off the air supply necessary for combustion.
• Water-based extinguishers function primarily by absorbing heat from the burning fuel, cooling it down below its flash point or ignition temperature to stop the reaction.
• Dry chemical extinguishers use agents like Monoammonium Phosphate to both smother the fire and interrupt the chemical chain reaction that sustains the flame.

 Additional Information

• Fire extinguishers are categorized based on the types of fires they are designed to combat:
• Class A: Used for ordinary solid combustibles such as wood, paper, and textiles.
• Class B: Designed for flammable liquids like petrol, oil, and paint.
• Class C: Suitable for fires involving flammable gases like methane or propane.
• Class D: Specialized for combustible metals like magnesium or potassium.
• Electrical Fires: Often handled by non-conductive agents like CO2 or Halon to prevent electrocution.
• The PASS technique is the standard operating procedure for using a portable fire extinguisher: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the trigger, and Sweep the nozzle from side to side.

The correct answer is Moral suasion.

Key Points

• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages the money supply and inflation in the Indian economy through its Monetary Policy, which utilizes two types of instruments: Quantitative and Qualitative.
• Quantitative tools (General tools) are intended to regulate the total volume of credit and liquidity available in the banking system without discriminating between the sectors that receive the credit.
• Qualitative tools (Selective tools) are used to regulate the direction and purpose of credit flow toward specific sectors of the economy, such as agriculture or priority sectors.
• Moral suasion is a Qualitative instrument where the RBI uses persuasion, informal suggestions, or psychological pressure on commercial banks to align their lending activities with the central bank’s economic objectives.
• Unlike Quantitative tools, Moral suasion does not involve mandatory legal requirements or immediate changes in interest rates but relies on the cooperation of the banking community.

 Additional Information

• Quantitative Tools of RBI:
• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): It is the percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that commercial banks are legally required to maintain as cash reserves with the RBI.
• Bank Rate: This is the standard rate at which the RBI is prepared to buy or rediscount bills of exchange or other commercial papers, acting as a long-term interest rate signal for the economy.
• Open Market Operations (OMO): This involves the simultaneous buying and selling of Government Securities (G-Secs) by the RBI to either inject liquidity into or absorb excess liquidity from the market.
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The minimum percentage of deposits that a bank must maintain in the form of liquid assets like gold or unencumbered government securities.
• Other Qualitative Tools:
• Margin Requirements: Adjusting the difference between the market value of a security and the loan amount granted against it.
• Rationing of Credit: Fixing a ceiling or maximum limit on credit for specific industries or sectors.

The correct answer is Brasilia.

Key Points

• The 11^th BRICS Parliamentary Forum is scheduled to be convened in Brasilia, Brazil, in June 2025.
• The hosting of this forum aligns with the rotating presidency of the BRICS group, where Brazil officially assumes the chairmanship for the year 2025, succeeding the Russian Federation.
• This forum serves as a primary platform for inter-parliamentary cooperation, enabling heads of legislative bodies from member states to discuss multilateralism, global security, and sustainable development.
• The 10^th BRICS Parliamentary Forum took place in St. Petersburg, Russia, in July 2024, where members emphasized the importance of legislative diplomacy in a multipolar world.
• As the host nation, Brazil is responsible for coordinating the agenda, which typically includes the 17^th BRICS Summit and various high-level ministerial meetings throughout the year.

 Additional Information

• BRICS Membership and Expansion:
• Founded in 2006 as BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, China) and joined by South Africa in 2010, the group represents a significant portion of global economic output.
• Effective January 1, 2024, the bloc expanded to include Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
• The 2025 meetings in Brasilia will be among the first major gatherings to fully integrate the legislative representatives of these newly admitted nations.
• Strategic Objectives:
• The forum aims to strengthen the New Development Bank (NDB) and promote the use of local currencies in international trade to reduce dependence on the US Dollar.
• Legislative cooperation within BRICS often focuses on reforming international financial institutions like the IMF and World Bank to reflect the current global economic landscape.
• Host City Significance:
• Brasilia, the federal capital of Brazil, is the seat of the National Congress of Brazil, making it the strategic venue for high-level parliamentary negotiations.

The correct answer is Abhinav Bindra.

Key Points

• A Shot at History: My Obsessive Journey to Olympic Gold is the official autobiography of the renowned Indian shooter Abhinav Bindra, published in 2011.
• The book was co-authored by the acclaimed sports journalist Rohit Brijnath and provides a deep dive into the mental and physical rigors of elite competitive shooting.
• The narrative focuses on Bindra's journey to winning India's first-ever individual Olympic gold medal in the 10m Air Rifle event at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
• It highlights his obsessive pursuit of perfection, detailing unique training methods such as commando training, brain mapping, and his struggle with a career-threatening back injury.
• The autobiography is considered a seminal work in Indian sports literature for its honest portrayal of the isolation and pressure faced by Olympic athletes.

 Additional Information

• Neeraj Chopra:
• He is an Indian Javelin Thrower who made history by winning the gold medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics.
• He is the second Indian, after Abhinav Bindra, to win an individual Olympic gold and the first from independent India to win a medal in Athletics.
• Gagan Narang:
• An Indian shooter who specialized in the Air Rifle category.
• He won the Bronze medal in the Men's 10m Air Rifle event at the 2012 London Olympics and has won multiple gold medals in Commonwealth Games.
• Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore:
• A former professional shooter and retired Indian Army officer.
• He won the Silver medal in the Men's Double Trap event at the 2004 Athens Olympics, which was India's first individual silver medal since independence.

The correct answer is 2020.

Key Points

• India recorded its best-ever performance in Olympic history at the Tokyo 2020 Summer Olympics (held in 2021), where the contingent won a total of 7 medals.
• The medal distribution for the Tokyo 2020 Games included 1 Gold, 2 Silver, and 4 Bronze medals, placing India at the 48^th position in the global medal standings.
• Neeraj Chopra created history by winning the Gold medal in the Men’s Javelin Throw with a massive throw of 87.58 meters, becoming the first Indian to win a track and field gold.
• The previous record for the highest medal tally was 6 medals, which was set during the London 2012 Olympics.
• The 7 medalists from Tokyo 2020 include Neeraj Chopra (Gold), Mirabai Chanu (Silver), Ravi Kumar Dahiya (Silver), P.V. Sindhu (Bronze), Lovlina Borgohain (Bronze), Bajrang Punia (Bronze), and the Indian Men’s Hockey Team (Bronze).

 Additional Information

• London 2012 Olympics:
• India won 6 medals (2 Silver and 4 Bronze). Notable winners were Vijay Kumar and Sushil Kumar (Silver), and Saina Nehwal, Mary Kom, Gagan Narang, and Yogeshwar Dutt (Bronze).
• Paris 2024 Olympics:
• India concluded the Paris 2024 campaign with 6 medals (1 Silver and 5 Bronze). Manu Bhaker became the first athlete from independent India to win two medals in a single Olympic edition.
• Beijing 2008 Olympics:
• This edition saw India winning 3 medals, highlighted by Abhinav Bindra winning India’s first-ever individual Gold medal in the 10m Air Rifle event.
• 1932 Los Angeles Olympics:
• India won a Gold medal in Field Hockey. The team, led by Lal Shah Bokhari, defeated the USA with a record-breaking score of 24−1 in the final match.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the bracket and multiplication first: (37 + 19) × 2 = 56 × 2 = 112.

Group all positive terms: 95 + 62 + 112 = 269.

Group all negative terms: −69 − 103 = −172.

Final calculation: 269 − 172 = 97.

∴ The correct answer is 97.

Alternate Method

Given: 95 + 62 − 69 + (37 + 19) × 2 − 103

Method Used: Apply the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

⇒ 95 + 62 − 69 + (56) × 2 − 103 (Solving Brackets)

⇒ 95 + 62 − 69 + 112 − 103 (Solving Multiplication)

⇒ 157 − 69 + 112 − 103 (Solving Addition from left)

⇒ 88 + 112 − 103 (Solving Subtraction)

⇒ 200 − 103 (Solving Addition)

⇒ 97

∴ The correct answer is 97.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It defines the order of operations: Brackets (), Of, Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Types of Brackets

Solve in the order of: Bar/Vinculum, then Parentheses (), then Curly braces {}, and finally Square brackets [].

Addition and Subtraction Priority

Addition and subtraction have the same priority and can be solved from left to right or by grouping terms with similar signs.

Shortcut Trick

Solve using BODMAS: Identify Of, Division, and Multiplication first.

96 − 27 + (14 × 2) + (39 ÷ 3) − (28 × 2) + 17

⇒ 96 − 27 + 28 + 13 − 56 + 17

⇒ (96 + 28 + 13 + 17) − (27 + 56) = 154 − 83 = 71

∴ The correct answer is 71.

Alternate Method

Given: 96 − 27 + 14 × 2 + 39 ÷ 3 − (28 of 2) + 17

Method Used: BODMAS Rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

⇒ 96 − 27 + 14 × 2 + 39 ÷ 3 − 56 + 17 (Solving Of: 28 × 2)

⇒ 96 − 27 + 14 × 2 + 13 − 56 + 17 (Solving Division: 39 ÷ 3)

⇒ 96 − 27 + 28 + 13 − 56 + 17 (Solving Multiplication: 14 × 2)

⇒ (96 + 28 + 13 + 17) − (27 + 56) (Grouping Positive and Negative terms)

⇒ 154 − 83

⇒ 71

∴ The correct answer is 71.

Additional Information

BODMAS / VBODMAS Rule

This mnemonic helps remember the order of operations: Vinculum, Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Importance of 'Of'

The Of operation is mathematically treated as multiplication but holds higher priority than division and regular multiplication in a sequence.

Grouping Strategy

To avoid calculation errors in long series, always group all positive numbers and all negative numbers separately before the final subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Check divisibility by HCF (18): Only option (4) contains numbers where both 90 and 108 are multiples of 18.

Verify Sum: 90 + 108 = 198 (Matches the condition).

Verify LCM: Numbers are 18×5 and 18×6 ⇒ LCM = 18 × 5 × 6 = 540 (Matches the condition).

∴ The correct answer is 90 and 108.

Alternate Method

Given: HCF = 18, LCM = 540, Sum = 198.

Formula Used: Product of numbers = HCF × LCM | Numbers can be assumed as Ha and Hb (where H is HCF and a, b are co-primes).

⇒ Let the numbers be 18a and 18b.

⇒ 18a + 18b = 198 ⇒ 18(a + b) = 198

⇒ a + b = 198 ÷ 18 = 11

⇒ LCM = 18 × a × b = 540

⇒ ab = 540 ÷ 18 = 30

⇒ We need two co-prime numbers whose sum is 11 and product is 30.

⇒ Solving x² − 11x + 30 = 0 ⇒ (x − 5)(x − 6) = 0

⇒ a = 5 and b = 6

⇒ Number 1 = 18 × 5 = 90

⇒ Number 2 = 18 × 6 = 108

∴ The correct answer is 90 and 108.

Additional Information

Product Property

For any two numbers A and B, the relationship is: A × B = HCF(A, B) × LCM(A, B).

Co-prime Factorization

If H is the HCF of two numbers, the numbers can be written as H × x and H × y, where HCF(x, y) = 1.

LCM of Multiples

The LCM of two numbers Hx and Hy (where H is the HCF) is H × x × y.

Shortcut Trick

Use the Algebraic Identity: (a⁴ − b⁴) ÷ (a² − b²) = a² + b².

Here, let a = 0.7 and b = 0.3.

Required value = (0.7)² + (0.3)²

⇒ 0.49 + 0.09 = 0.58.

∴ The correct answer is 0.58.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression = ((0.7)⁴ − (0.3)⁴) / ((0.7)² − (0.3)²)

Formula Used:

Difference of Squares: x² − y² = (x − y)(x + y)

⇒ Let a = 0.7 and b = 0.3.

⇒ The numerator is in the form a⁴ − b⁴, which can be written as (a²)² − (b²)².

⇒ Applying the formula to the numerator: (a²)² − (b²)² = (a² − b²)(a² + b²).

⇒ Expression = [(a² − b²)(a² + b²)] ÷ (a² − b²).

⇒ By cancellation of common terms, the expression simplifies to: a² + b².

⇒ Value = (0.7)² + (0.3)²

⇒ Value = 0.49 + 0.09

⇒ Value = 0.58.

∴ The correct answer is 0.58.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identities

Standard identities like a² − b² = (a − b)(a + b) and a² + b² = (a + b)² − 2ab are frequently used in Simplification problems.

Power Rules

The rule (x^m)ⁿ = x^m×n allows us to convert high-order powers like x⁴ or x⁶ into squared or cubed forms for easier calculation.

Decimal Calculations

When squaring a decimal, the number of decimal places doubles. For example, (0.1)² = 0.01 and (0.01)² = 0.0001.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the square roots first: 10 ÷ 5 + 8.

According to BODMAS, perform division before addition: 2 + 8 = 10.

The required value of 2x is 2 × 10 = 20.

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Alternate Method

Given: x = √100 ÷ √25 + √64

Formula: Apply the BODMAS rule (Division, then Addition).

⇒ x = 10 ÷ 5 + 8

⇒ x = 2 + 8

⇒ x = 10

Now, we need to find the value of 2x:

⇒ 2x = 2 × 10

⇒ 2x = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It defines the order of operations: Brackets, Orders (powers/roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Perfect Squares

A perfect square is a number that can be expressed as the product of two equal integers. For example, 10 × 10 = 100, so √100 = 10.

Square Root Properties

For any positive numbers a and b, √a ÷ √b = √(a ÷ b). In this case, √100 ÷ √25 = √(100 ÷ 25) = √4 = 2.

Shortcut Trick

First, calculate the square root of 20.25: √20.25 = 4.5.

Subtract 4.5 from the total sum: √(16 + x) = 9.5 − 4.5 = 5.

Square both sides to find the value inside the root: 16 + x = 5² = 25.

Solve for x: x = 25 − 16 = 9.

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Alternate Method

Given:

√20.25 + √(16 + x) = 9.5

Calculation:

⇒ √(2025/100) + √(16 + x) = 9.5

⇒ 45/10 + √(16 + x) = 9.5

⇒ 4.5 + √(16 + x) = 9.5

⇒ √(16 + x) = 9.5 − 4.5

⇒ √(16 + x) = 5

⇒ 16 + x = 5² (Squaring both sides)

⇒ 16 + x = 25

⇒ x = 25 − 16

⇒ x = 9

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Additional Information

Square Root of Decimal Numbers

To find the square root of a decimal, convert it to a fraction with a power of 10 in the denominator, or calculate √N and adjust the decimal point (e.g., √20.25 = √2025 ÷ 10).

Squaring Rule

If √A = B, then A = B². This property is used to eliminate radical signs in algebraic equations.

Perfect Square Shortcut (Ending in 25)

The square root of a number ending in 25 always ends in 5. For 2025, since 4 × 5 = 20, the root is 45.

Shortcut Trick

Recognize the standard Pythagorean triplet: 5, 12, 13.

In a rectangle, the diagonal acts as the hypotenuse (13 cm).

Since the given length is 5 cm, the breadth must be 12 cm.

Ratio of length to breadth = 5 : 12.

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 12.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length (l) = 5 cm

Diagonal (d) = 13 cm

Formula Used:

In a rectangle, d² = l² + b² (by Pythagorean theorem)

Calculations:

⇒ 13² = 5² + b²

⇒ 169 = 25 + b²

⇒ b² = 169 − 25

⇒ b² = 144

⇒ b = √144 = 12 cm

⇒ Ratio = Length : Breadth

⇒ Ratio = 5 : 12

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 12.

Additional Information

Area of Rectangle

The total space occupied by the rectangle is given by Length × Breadth.

Perimeter of Rectangle

The total boundary length of the rectangle is 2 × (Length + Breadth).

Pythagorean Triplets

Common sets of integers that satisfy a² + b² = c² include (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), (8, 15, 17), and (7, 24, 25).

Shortcut Trick

Semi-perimeter (L + B) = 160 ÷ 2 = 80 m

Given difference (L − B) = 8 m

Length (L) = (Sum + Difference) ÷ 2 = (80 + 8) ÷ 2 = 44 m

Breadth (B) = (Sum − Difference) ÷ 2 = (80 − 8) ÷ 2 = 36 m

Area = L × B = 44 × 36 = 1584 m²

∴ The correct answer is 1584 m².

Alternate Method

Given:

Perimeter of rectangle = 160 m

Difference between length (L) and breadth (B) = 8 m

Formula Used:

Perimeter = 2 × (L + B)

Area = L × B

Calculations:

⇒ 2 × (L + B) = 160

⇒ L + B = 80 — (Eq. 1)

⇒ L − B = 8 — (Eq. 2)

Adding (Eq. 1) and (Eq. 2):

⇒ 2L = 88

⇒ L = 44 m

Subtracting (Eq. 2) from (Eq. 1):

⇒ 2B = 72

⇒ B = 36 m

Calculating the Area:

⇒ Area = 44 × 36

⇒ Area = 1584 m²

∴ The correct answer is 1584 m².

Additional Information

Diagonal of a Rectangle

The distance between opposite corners is given by d = √(L² + B²).

Square with Same Perimeter

For a fixed perimeter, the shape with the maximum area is a square where L = B.

Relation between L+B and L-B

(L + B)² − (L − B)² = 4 × L × B = 4 × Area.

Shortcut Trick

When a number is removed and the average increases, the removed number is always less than the original average.

Total Increase = Count of remaining numbers × Increase in average

Total Increase = 7 × 2 = 14

Removed Number = Original Average − Total Increase = P − 14

∴ The correct answer is P − 14.

Alternate Method

Given: Average of 8 numbers = P. After removing 1 number, the average of 7 numbers = P + 2.

Formula Used: Sum of observations = Average × Total count of observations

⇒ Sum of original 8 numbers = 8 × P = 8P

⇒ Sum of remaining 7 numbers = 7 × (P + 2) = 7P + 14

⇒ Removed number = (Sum of 8 numbers) − (Sum of 7 numbers)

⇒ Removed number = 8P − (7P + 14)

⇒ Removed number = 8P − 7P − 14 = P − 14

∴ The correct answer is P − 14.

Additional Information

Basic Average Formula

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations).

Effect of Removal on Average

If the removed value is equal to the average, the average remains unchanged. If it is less than the average, the average increases.

Net Deviation Rule

The sum of deviations of all items from their arithmetic mean is always zero. This concept helps in solving complex average problems quickly.

Shortcut Trick

Use the formula for the sum of squares of the first n natural numbers: Sum = [n(n + 1)(2n + 1)] ÷ 6

Here, n = 60.

Sum = [60 × (60 + 1) × (2 × 60 + 1)] ÷ 6

Sum = 10 × 61 × 121 = 73810

∴ The correct answer is 73810.

Alternate Method

Given: The series is 1² + 2² + 3² + ...... + 60²

Formula Used: Sum of squares of first n natural numbers = [n × (n + 1) × (2n + 1)] ÷ 6

⇒ Number of terms, n = 60

⇒ Sum = [60 × (60 + 1) × (2 × 60 + 1)] ÷ 6

⇒ Sum = [60 × 61 × 121] ÷ 6

⇒ Sum = 10 × 61 × 121

⇒ Sum = 10 × 7381

⇒ Sum = 73810

∴ The correct answer is 73810.

Additional Information

Sum of first n natural numbers

The formula for the sum of the first n natural numbers is n(n + 1) ÷ 2.

Sum of cubes of first n natural numbers

The formula for the sum of cubes of the first n natural numbers is [n(n + 1) ÷ 2]².

Sum of first n odd numbers

The sum of the first n odd natural numbers is calculated as n².

Sum of first n even numbers

The sum of the first n even natural numbers is given by the formula n(n + 1).

Shortcut Trick

For consecutive natural numbers, the average is always the middle term of the series.

For 23 numbers, the middle term is the 12^th number.

The last 11 numbers are from the 13^th to the 23^rd position; their middle term is the 18^th number.

Given 18^th number = 34 ⇒ 12^th number = 18^th number − (18 − 12) = 34 − 6 = 28.

∴ The correct answer is 28.

Alternate Method

Given: Total numbers = 23; Numbers are consecutive natural numbers in ascending order; Average of last 11 numbers = 34.

Formula: Average of an Arithmetic Progression (AP) = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2

Let the 23 consecutive numbers be x, x+1, x+2, ..., x+22.

⇒ The last 11 numbers are: (x+12), (x+13), ..., (x+22).

⇒ Average of last 11 = [(x + 12) + (x + 22)] ÷ 2

⇒ 34 = (2x + 34) ÷ 2

⇒ 34 = x + 17

⇒ x = 34 − 17 = 17

⇒ Average of all 23 numbers = [First term + Last term] ÷ 2

⇒ Average = [x + (x + 22)] ÷ 2 = x + 11

⇒ Average = 17 + 11 = 28

∴ The correct answer is 28.

Additional Information

Average of Arithmetic Progression

For any series in AP, the average is always the mean of the first and last terms: Average = (a + l) ÷ 2.

Middle Term Rule

If the number of terms (n) is odd, the average is the (n + 1)/2^th term. If n is even, it is the mean of the two middle terms.

Sum of Natural Numbers

The sum of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula S = [n × (n + 1)] ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

To find the time when they meet again at the starting point, calculate the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of their individual round times.

LCM(180, 270, 360) = 1080 seconds.

Required time in minutes = 1080 ÷ 60 = 18 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 18 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 180 seconds

Time taken by B = 270 seconds

Time taken by C = 360 seconds

Formula Used:

Time to meet at starting point = LCM of (Time taken by each person to complete one round)

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factors of 180 = 2² × 3² × 5

⇒ Prime factors of 270 = 2 × 3³ × 5

⇒ Prime factors of 360 = 2³ × 3² × 5

⇒ LCM = 2³ × 3³ × 5 = 8 × 27 × 5 = 1080 seconds

⇒ To convert seconds to minutes, divide by 60:

⇒ Time = 1080 ÷ 60 = 18 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 18 min.

Additional Information

Circular Track Meeting Points

When starting together, the time to meet at the starting point is the LCM of individual round times, whereas the time to meet anywhere on the track involves relative speed.

LCM and HCF Property

For any two numbers x and y: LCM(x, y) × HCF(x, y) = x × y. This is useful for cross-verifying factors.

Unit Conversion

Always ensure all values are in the same unit before calculating LCM. 1 minute = 60 seconds.

Shortcut Trick

According to the Unitary Method:

20% of the Mixture = 120 kg

1% of the Mixture = 120 ÷ 20 = 6 kg

100% of the Mixture = 6 × 100 = 600 kg

∴ The correct answer is 600 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage of Element A = 20%

Required weight of Element A = 120 kg

Let the total weight of the mixture be x kg.

Formula Used:

Weight of Element = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Total Weight

⇒ 120 = (20 ÷ 100) × x

⇒ 120 = (1 ÷ 5) × x

⇒ x = 120 × 5

⇒ x = 600 kg

∴ The correct answer is 600 kg.

Additional Information

Percentage Change

Percentage increase or decrease is calculated as: (Difference ÷ Original Value) × 100.

Fraction to Percentage

To convert any fraction to a percentage, multiply it by 100. For example, 1/5 × 100 = 20%.

Base Change Rule

If A is x% more than B, then B is [x ÷ (100 + x)] × 100% less than A.

Shortcut Trick

Treat Cost Price (CP) as 100 units.

Since Profit Percentage is 30%, Selling Price (SP) = 100 + 30 = 130 units.

Given 100 units = ₹6800 ⇒ 1 unit = 68.

Selling Price = 130 units = 130 × 68 = ₹8840.

∴ The correct answer is ₹8840.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹6800

Profit Percentage (P%) = 30%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit

Profit = (Profit % ÷ 100) × CP

Calculations:

⇒ Profit = (30 ÷ 100) × 6800

⇒ Profit = 0.3 × 6800

⇒ Profit = ₹2040

⇒ SP = 6800 + 2040

⇒ SP = ₹8840

∴ The correct answer is ₹8840.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Percentages

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 and Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100. Both are always calculated on Cost Price.

Marked Price and Discount

Selling Price can also be calculated as Marked Price (MP) − Discount. Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price.

Basic SP Relation

SP = CP × (100 ± Profit/Loss %) ÷ 100. Use (+) for profit and (−) for loss.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP):

20% of CP = 25% of SP ⇒ CP / SP = 25 / 20 = 5 / 4

Loss = 5 − 4 = 1 unit on a CP of 5 units.

Loss % = (1 / 5) × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given:

20% of Cost Price (CP) = 25% of Selling Price (SP)

Formula Used:

Loss Percentage = [(CP − SP) / CP] × 100

Calculations:

⇒ 20/100 × CP = 25/100 × SP

⇒ 20 × CP = 25 × SP

⇒ CP / SP = 25 / 20

⇒ CP / SP = 5 / 4

⇒ Let CP = 5 units and SP = 4 units

⇒ Loss = CP − SP = 5 − 4 = 1 unit

⇒ Loss Percentage = (1 / 5) × 100

⇒ Loss Percentage = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Profit Percentage

Profit occurs when SP > CP. Formula: Profit% = [(SP − CP) / CP] × 100.

Relation with Marked Price

Selling Price = Marked Price − Discount. Also, CP × (100 + Profit%) = MP × (100 − Discount%).

Fraction to Percentage Conversion

Standard fractions: 1/4 = 25%, 1/5 = 20%, 1/6 = 16.66%, 1/8 = 12.5%.

Shortcut Trick

Let A = 100 units.

B is 30% more than A ⇒ B = 130 units.

C is 20% less than B ⇒ C = 130 − (20% of 130) = 104 units.

Required percentage = (A ÷ C) × 100 = (100 ÷ 104) × 100.

Calculation ⇒ 96.15%.

∴ The correct answer is 96.15%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Relation between A and B: B = 1.3 × A

Relation between B and C: C = 0.8 × B

Formula Used:

Percentage = (Value ÷ Base Value) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Express C in terms of A: C = 0.8 × (1.3 × A)

⇒ C = 1.04 × A

⇒ We need to find A as a percentage of C: (A ÷ C) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = (A ÷ 1.04A) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = 100 ÷ 1.04 = 96.1538...

⇒ Required Percentage ≈ 96.15%

∴ The correct answer is 96.15%.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Changes

When a value is changed by x% and then y%, the net change is [x + y + (xy ÷ 100)]%. This is useful for finding the direct relationship between the first and last variables.

Base Value Identification

In percentage comparison, the term after 'than' or 'of' acts as the reference base and is placed in the denominator of the fraction.

Fraction to Percentage Conversion

Memorizing common fractions (like 1/13 ≈ 7.69% or 1/4 = 25%) helps in speeding up competitive exam calculations involving complex ratios.

Shortcut Trick

Time taken by S for 1 full work = 16 × 3 ÷ 2 = 24 days.

Since R is 4 times as efficient as S, the time taken by R will be 1/4^th of the time taken by S.

Days taken by R = 24 ÷ 4 = 6 days.

∴ The correct answer is 6 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Work done by S = 2/3 part in 16 days.

Efficiency of R = 4 × Efficiency of S.

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Time taken by S to complete full work = 16 × (3 ÷ 2) = 24 days.

⇒ Let efficiency of S = 1 unit/day.

⇒ Total work = Efficiency of S × Time taken by S = 1 × 24 = 24 units.

⇒ Efficiency of R = 4 × Efficiency of S = 4 × 1 = 4 units/day.

⇒ Time taken by R alone = Total work ÷ Efficiency of R

⇒ Time taken by R = 24 ÷ 4 = 6 days.

∴ The correct answer is 6 days.

Additional Information

Work-Efficiency Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a work. If the ratio of efficiency of A and B is x : y, then the ratio of time taken by them is y : x.

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed in the ratio of the work done or in the ratio of the efficiencies if the people work for the same amount of time.

Combined Work Formula

If A can do a work in x days and B can do it in y days, then together they can do it in (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days.

Shortcut Trick

Use the MDH rule for proportionality: M₁ × D₁ × H₁ = M₂ × D₂ × H₂

Substitute: 40 × 50 × 9 = M₂ × 75 × 6

18000 = M₂ × 450

M₂ = 18000 ÷ 450 = 40 men

∴ The correct answer is 40 men.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial 40 men can build a wall in 50 days working 9 hours per day. We need to find men required for 75 days working 6 hours per day.

Formula Used: Total Work (Man-Hours) = Men × Days × Hours

⇒ Total work in man-hours = 40 × 50 × 9 = 18,000 units

⇒ Total capacity needed in Case 2 = 75 days × 6 hours = 450 hours per man

⇒ Number of men (M₂) = Total work ÷ Total capacity per man

⇒ M₂ = 18,000 ÷ 450

⇒ M₂ = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40 men.

Additional Information

MDH Rule (Chain Rule)

The general formula is (M₁ × D₁ × H₁ × E₁) ÷ W₁ = (M₂ × D₂ × H₂ × E₂) ÷ W₂, where M is men, D is days, H is hours, E is efficiency, and W is work.

Inverse Variation

Number of men is inversely proportional to the number of days and hours required. If we increase the number of days or hours, fewer men are needed for the same work.

Unit of Work

When the same wall is mentioned, W₁ = W₂, which allows us to equate the products of men, days, and hours directly.

Shortcut Trick

In opposite direction, relative speed is the sum of speeds of both trains.

Relative Speed = (Length of Train A + Length of Train B) ÷ Time

Total Speed = (500 + 200) ÷ 35

Total Speed = 700 ÷ 35 = 20 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 20 m/s.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of Train A (L_A) = 500 m

Length of Train B (L_B) = 200 m

Time taken to cross (T) = 35 seconds

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (in opposite direction) = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = L_A + L_B

⇒ Total Distance = 500 + 200 = 700 m

⇒ Total Speed (V_A + V_B) = Total Distance ÷ Time

⇒ Total Speed = 700 ÷ 35

⇒ Total Speed = 20 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 20 m/s.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two objects move in the same direction, the relative speed is the difference of their speeds: V_rel = |V₁ − V₂|.

Unit Conversion (km/h to m/s)

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply the value by 5/18. For example, 72 km/h = 72 × (5/18) = 20 m/s.

Crossing a Stationary Object

When a train crosses a stationary pole or man, the distance covered is equal to the length of the train itself.

Shortcut Trick

Convert Speed to metres per minute: 10 km/hr = (10 × 1000) ÷ 60 = 500/3 m/min.

Time taken to cross a stationary man = Length of Train ÷ Speed.

Time = 250 ÷ (500/3) = 250 × 3 ÷ 500 = 3/2 min.

∴ The correct answer is 3/2 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of train (L) = 250 m

Speed of train (v) = 10 km/hr

Formula:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Speed in m/s = 10 × (5/18) = 50/18 = 25/9 m/s

⇒ Time (in sec) = 250 ÷ (25/9)

⇒ Time = 250 × 9 ÷ 25

⇒ Time = 10 × 9 = 90 seconds

⇒ Time (in min) = 90 ÷ 60

⇒ Time = 3/2 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 3/2 min.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Crossing Stationary Objects

When a train crosses a point object (man, pole, tree), the distance covered equals the length of the train.

Crossing Lengthy Objects

When a train crosses a platform or bridge, the distance covered equals (Length of Train + Length of Platform).

Relative Speed

If two objects move in the same direction, Relative Speed = S₁ − S₂. If in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂.

The correct answer is: Option (1) i.e. 'A trustworthy and competent person'.

Key Points

• The idiom 'A safe pair of hands' refers to a person who is reliable, dependable, and can be trusted to do a job well without making mistakes or causing trouble. (एक विश्वसनीय और सक्षम व्यक्ति)
• Example: With his years of experience in finance, the new director is a safe pair of hands for the company.
• 'A trustworthy and competent person' describes someone who is honest and has the necessary ability or knowledge to do something successfully. (एक भरोसेमंद और कुशल व्यक्ति)
• Example: Every project manager wants a trustworthy and competent person to handle the most critical aspects of the work.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of the idiom 'a safe pair of hands' is 'a trustworthy and competent person'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: A trustworthy and competent person.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• One who has a lot of experience doing a particular task (वह व्यक्ति जिसे किसी विशेष कार्य को करने का बहुत अनुभव हो): This refers to a veteran or an expert.
• Example: As one who has a lot of experience in surgery, the doctor remained calm during the complication.
• Something of some value that is already acquired (कुछ मूल्यवान जो पहले से ही प्राप्त कर लिया गया हो): This is similar to the meaning of the proverb 'A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush'.
• Example: I accepted the modest bonus now rather than waiting for a potential raise later, as I prefer something of value that is already acquired.
• Additional help or assistance provided by another person (किसी अन्य व्यक्ति द्वारा प्रदान की गई अतिरिक्त सहायता): This is commonly referred to as lending a helping hand.
• Example: The project was finished ahead of schedule because the marketing team provided additional assistance.

The correct answer is: To leave a situation alone so as to avoid worsening it.

Key Points

• The idiom 'Let sleeping dogs lie' means to avoid interfering in a situation that is currently stable, even if it is not perfect, to prevent causing new trouble or complications. (किसी पुरानी विवादित स्थिति को न छेड़ना ताकि परेशानी न बढ़े)
• Example: I thought about bringing up the missing money again, but I decided to let sleeping dogs lie.
• 'To leave a situation alone so as to avoid worsening it' refers to the act of staying away from a problem or past conflict to ensure that things do not get more difficult or messy than they already are. (किसी स्थिति को उसके हाल पर छोड़ देना ताकि वह और खराब न हो)
• Example: The manager knew about the small disagreement between the colleagues but chose to leave the situation alone to avoid making it worse.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct meaning of the idiom 'let sleeping dogs lie' is to avoid disturbing a situation to prevent worsening it.

Therefore, the correct answer is: To leave a situation alone so as to avoid worsening it.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• To experience a very deep and restful sleep (गहरी और आरामदायक नींद लेना): This describes sleeping very soundly without waking up.
• Example: After the exhausting hike, she managed to sleep soundly for ten hours.
• To sleep easily and deeply, untroubled by one's conscience (बिना किसी पछतावे के चैन की नींद सोना): This refers to sleeping peacefully because one feels they have done the right thing.
• Example: He knew he had been honest in the deal, which allowed him to sleep easily at night.
• Refuse to rouse or provoke the latent power (किसी की छिपी हुई शक्ति को न उकसाना): This means choosing not to challenge or wake up a potentially powerful or dangerous force.
• Example: The small company decided not to provoke the industry giant with a direct legal challenge.

The correct answer is: Gaffe.

Key Points

• The word 'Gaffe' refers to an unintentional act or remark causing embarrassment; a social blunder or mistake. (भूल)
• Example: Making a social gaffe can be highly embarrassing in formal gatherings.
• 'Gaffe' is the correctly spelt word among the given options, and it functions as a noun in English. (गलती)
• Example: The minister's spelling gaffe on social media quickly became a trending topic.
• Hence, we can infer that 'Gaffe' is correctly spelt.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Gaffe.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Gregarious (सुसंसर्गप्रिय / मिलनसार): Fond of company; sociable.
• Example: She is a gregarious person who loves attending social events and making new friends.
• Garulity (वाचालता): This is an incorrect spelling. The correct spelling is 'Garrulity', which means the quality of talking constantly or excessively, especially on trivial matters.
• Example: His endless garrulity in the meeting bored everyone to sleep.
• Gluttony (पेटूपन / अतिभोजन): Habitual greed or excess in eating.
• Example: Excessive eating during holidays is often driven by sheer gluttony.

The correct answer is Option(3) i.e. 'Beneath'.

Key Points

• The word 'underneath' refers to being situated directly below or under another object. (के नीचे)
• Example: She found her lost keys underneath the sofa while cleaning the room.
• 'Beneath' is the closest synonym and means in or to a lower position than something else; it is often used to describe something being directly under another thing. (के नीचे)
• Example: They took shelter beneath a large tree during the heavy rainstorm.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'underneath' is 'beneath'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Beneath.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Above (के ऊपर): At a higher level or layer than something else.
• Example: The birds were soaring high above the clouds.
• Behind (के पीछे): At or to the back of something or someone.
• Example: The child was hiding behind the curtain so nobody could see him.
• Across (के पार): From one side to the other of something.
• Example: We walked across the bridge to reach the other side of the river.

The correct answer is Option(2) i.e. Prosecuter.

Key Points

• The word 'Prosecuter' is the misspelt version of 'Prosecutor'. It is an error where the suffix '-or' is incorrectly replaced by '-er'. (अशुद्ध वर्तनी)
• Example: The legal brief was returned for correction because the word 'prosecuter' was used repeatedly instead of the correct spelling.
• 'Prosecutor' refers to a person, especially a public official, who institutes legal proceedings against someone in a court of law. (अभियोजक)
• Example: The prosecutor presented the evidence to the jury to prove that the defendant was guilty.
• Hence, we can identify that 'prosecuter' is the misspelt word among the options.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Prosecuter.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Terminator (समाप्त करने वाला): A person or thing that terminates or brings something to an end.
• Example: The final clause in the agreement acts as a terminator for all previous contracts.
• Interloper (हस्तक्षेप करने वाला): A person who becomes involved in a place or situation where they are not wanted or are considered not to belong.
• Example: The local residents regarded the new developer as an interloper who didn't understand the community's needs.
• Perpetrator (अपराधी): A person who carries out a harmful, illegal, or immoral act.
• Example: The police are working hard to identify the perpetrator of the recent bank heist.

The correct answer is: Option (4) i.e. Moderation.

Key Points

• The word 'Extremism' refers to the quality or state of being extreme or the advocacy of extreme measures or views, especially in politics or religion. (अतिवाद)
• Example: The rise of political extremism often leads to social polarization and conflict within a nation.
• 'Moderation' refers to the avoidance of excess or extremes, particularly in one's behavior, actions, or opinions. (उदारवाद / मध्यम मार्ग)
• Example: The leader encouraged moderation in the debate to ensure that all viewpoints were heard respectfully.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym or opposite of 'Extremism' is 'Moderation'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Moderation.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Radicalism (कट्टरवाद): The beliefs or actions of people who advocate thorough or complete political or social reform.
• Example: The 19^th century saw a wave of radicalism that fundamentally changed labor laws.
• Zealotry (धर्मोन्माद): Fanatical and uncompromising pursuit of religious, political, or other ideals.
• Example: His religious zealotry made it difficult for him to accept anyone who did not share his specific faith.
• Fanaticism (कट्टरता): The quality of being fanatical; having excessive zeal and uncritical devotion toward a specific cause or belief.
• Example: The fanaticism of the crowd grew as the game reached its final minutes.

1. Choose the most suitable one-word substitution for the following. A person who believes that God is in everything including nature.

The correct answer is: Option (2) i.e. Pantheist.

Key Points

• The phrase 'A person who believes that God is in everything including nature' refers to a person who identifies the universe with God, believing that the divine is present in all aspects of the natural world. (सर्वेश्वरवादी)
• Example: A person who finds the presence of the divine in the mountains, the sea, and the stars can be described as following this belief.
• 'Pantheist' is a person who believes in the doctrine that the universe as a whole is God and that there is no God but the combined forces and laws which are manifested in the existing universe. (सर्वेश्वरवादी)
• Example: The philosopher Baruch Spinoza is famously known as a pantheist because he argued that God and Nature are two names for the same reality.
• Therefore, the correct answer is- Pantheist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Agnostic (अज्ञेयवादी): A person who believes that nothing is known or can be known of the existence or nature of God or of anything beyond material phenomena.
• Example: While his friends were deeply religious, he remained an agnostic, stating that the existence of a higher power is unproven.
• Polytheist (बहुदेववादी): A person who believes in or worships more than one god.
• Example: Followers of Ancient Egyptian religion were polytheists who worshipped a variety of deities like Ra, Osiris, and Isis.
• Chiropodist (पैर का चिकित्सक): A person who treats minor foot ailments and disorders, such as corns or ingrown toenails.
• Example: I went to see a chiropodist because my feet were aching after running the marathon.

The correct answer is The fire brigade must have been called..

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the Active Voice and utilizes a Modal Perfect structure: Subject + must + have + V3 (Past Participle) + Object.
• When converting a Modal Perfect sentence into the Passive Voice, the standard formula is: Object + Modal (must) + have + been + V3 (Past Participle) + (by agent).
• The object of the active sentence, 'the fire brigade', shifts to the subject position in the passive sentence.
• The verb phrase 'must have called' is correctly transformed into 'must have been called' to indicate the passive state.
• In English grammar, when the subject of the active voice is an indefinite pronoun such as 'somebody', 'someone', or 'anybody', the agent (the 'by' phrase) is usually omitted in the passive voice because the identity of the person is unknown or irrelevant.

 Additional Information

• Passive Voice Mechanics:
• Modals: For simple modals like can, may, must, should, the passive form is modal + be + V3. For modal perfects like must have, could have, should have, the form is modal + have + been + V3.
• Agent Omission: We omit the prepositional phrase beginning with 'by' when the doer is unimportant, unknown, or obvious from the context (e.g., 'The thief was arrested' implies the police did it).
• Tense Consistency: The Passive Voice must always maintain the aspect and tense of the original active sentence.
• Analysis of Incorrect Forms:
• Grammatical Errors: Using 'call' instead of the past participle 'called' violates the basic rule of passive construction.
• Structural Errors: Omitting the auxiliary 'been' results in an active verb form, which fails to convey that the action was performed upon the subject.
• Modal Misuse: Adding unnecessary words like 'to be' after 'have' changes the grammatical necessity and creates a non-standard English structure.

The correct answer is Sweets will be distributed among the poor by them..

Key Points

• The original sentence 'They will distribute sweets among the poor' is in the Active Voice and follows the Simple Future Tense (also known as Future Indefinite).
• In Simple Future Tense, the active structure is Subject + will/shall + Base Verb (V1) + Object.
• When converting to Passive Voice, the structure transforms to Object + will/shall + be + Past Participle (V3) + by + Subject.
• The Object of the active sentence (sweets) becomes the Subject of the passive sentence.
• The Subject of the active sentence (They) changes to its Objective Case (them) and is placed after the preposition by.
• The verb distribute is replaced by will be distributed to satisfy the requirement of the Future Passive form.

 Additional Information

• Simple Future Passive Rules:
• Auxiliary Verb: In the passive voice for future tense, the modal will or shall must always be followed by be.
• Main Verb: The main action must always be expressed in the Third Form of the Verb (V3), which is distributed in this instance.
• Contextual Placement: Adverbial phrases or complements like among the poor are typically placed after the main verb to maintain the flow of the sentence.
• Pronoun Case Shifts:
• Personal pronouns undergo a change from Nominative Case to Objective Case. For example, I becomes me, He becomes him, and They becomes them.
• Function of Passive Voice:
• The Passive Voice is utilized when the focus is intended to be on the recipient of the action (the sweets) rather than the doer (them).

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The error in the sentence lies in the use of the preposition 'to' in part 3: 'threw her sandals to him'.
• The verb 'throw' is followed by different prepositions depending on the intent:
• Throw at: Used when the intention is to hit or hurt someone or something (aggressive action).
• Throw to: Used when the intention is for the recipient to catch the object (cooperative action).
• Since the context indicates that Johnsy was 'angry' and the action resulted in the stranger being 'hurting' above his eyebrow, the correct preposition is 'at'.
• Thus, the error is found in the third segment of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Correct Sentence: 'Johnsy was so angry with the stranger that she threw her sandals at him hurting just above his right eyebrow.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'Johnsy was so' – This part is correct; it introduces the so...that structure which expresses a result or consequence.
• Option 2: 'angry with the' – This is correct as 'angry with' is the appropriate phrase when expressing anger toward a person.
• Option 4: 'hurting just above his right eyebrow.' – This part is grammatically correct as it uses a present participle phrase to describe the result of the previous action.

The correct answer is 'to'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective affectionate is used to describe someone who shows fondness or tenderness.
• In English grammar, affectionate is typically followed by the preposition to or towards when it is directed at a person or group.
• The sentence indicates that the grandmother shows fondness toward the family members, making to the grammatically correct choice.
• Options 1, 2, and 4 do not follow the standard idiomatic usage for the word affectionate in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "My grandmother is affectionate to all our family members."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: of is incorrect; however, the noun affection can be followed by for (e.g., She has a lot of affection for them).
• Option 2: with is sometimes used when describing interaction (e.g., being affectionate with one another), but to is the standard preposition for directing the quality toward a recipient.
• Option 4: by is a preposition of agency or proximity and is not used with the adjective affectionate.

The correct answer is No improvement required.

Key Points

• The sentence uses the phrasal verb put up with, which is an idiomatic expression meaning to tolerate, endure, or accept an unpleasant situation or person without complaining.
• Grammatically, put up with consists of a verb (put), an adverb (up), and a preposition (with), and it is a transitive phrasal verb that requires an object, which in this case is severe criticism.
• The Present Perfect Continuous tense (has been putting up with) is used correctly here to describe an action that started in the past and continues to the present moment, suggesting the NGO (Non-Governmental Organization) is currently enduring ongoing backlash.
• The prepositional phrase for its methods provides the reason for the criticism, making the sentence logically and syntactically sound.
• Since the original phrasal verb put up with perfectly fits the context of enduring negative feedback, no changes or improvements are necessary to the sentence structure.

 Additional Information

• Understanding other phrasal verbs using put:
• Put across: This means to communicate or convey an idea or message clearly so that it is understood. Adding with to this phrase (as in Option 1) makes it grammatically incorrect in this context.
• Put out: This has several meanings, including to extinguish (like a fire or light), to publish something, or to be inconvenienced. It does not carry the meaning of tolerating criticism.
• Put in: This usually refers to installing equipment, submitting a formal request (like a claim), or dedicating a specific amount of time or effort to a task.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The passage describes the changes that occurred within a family over a period of time. It starts with a fixed introductory sentence (S1) and ends with a fixed concluding sentence (S2).
• Sentence B follows S1: S1 ends with the phrase 'three years went by.' Sentence B ('Three precious years') serves as a rhetorical repetition that emphasizes the passage of time mentioned in the first sentence, making it the most logical immediate follow-up.
• Sentence A comes next: After establishing the timeframe, the paragraph begins detailing what happened to individual family members. Sentence A introduces Carrie and her situation as a school teacher.
• Sentence D is the third sentence: It continues the account of the family members by describing Eva's domestic struggles and the financial difficulties ('prices advanced and allowance retreated') faced during those years.
• Sentence C is the fourth sentence: It shifts the focus to Stell, the 'family beauty,' and notes that she was aging and moving past the stage of wearing 'curls.' This thematic focus on physical aging creates a perfect transition to the final sentence.
• Sentence S2 is the fixed conclusion: It completes the description of the sisters by mentioning Emily and how her hair lost its 'glint,' reinforcing the theme of time taking its toll on the characters' youth and appearance.
• The correct logical sequence is BADC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'And three years went by. Three precious years. Carrie still taught school, and hated it. Eva kept house, more and more complainingly as prices advanced and allowance retreated. Stell was still Babe, the family beauty; but even she knew that the time was past for curls. Emily's hair, somehow, lost its glint and began to look just plain brown.'

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes a landscape transition from a cleared area to a river and then to denser vegetation.
• Sentence B follows S1 because it uses the demonstrative phrase 'these weeds' to refer back to the 'tall grass' mentioned in S1. It describes the state of the vegetation ('dead and whitened') and introduces the presence of 'water':
• 'These weeds gathered upon themselves in a brittle tumult back where the vines and foliage of trees began, the weeds dead and whitened and the vines a glossy, rich green, as if sucking life out of the water into which they drooped.'
• Sentence D is the third sentence as it builds on the mention of 'water' in Sentence B by describing the 'river bank' and the 'waterline':
• 'All along the river bank trees and bushes leaned out and showed a yard or two of dead, whitish brown where the waterline had once been.'
• Sentence A follows D by identifying the water body as 'This river' and explaining its physical characteristic—bending often—which obstructed a long-distance view:
• 'This river bent so often you could never see far along it.'
• Sentence C is the fifth sentence because it provides a specific clarification ('Only a mile or so') to the phrase 'never see far' used in Sentence A:
• 'Only a mile or so.'
• The fixed sentence S2 concludes the paragraph by describing the start of the 'foliage'.
• The logical sequence is BDAC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'On either side of them tall grass shrank back from the cleared, patted area, stiff and dried with August heat. These weeds gathered upon themselves in a brittle tumult back where the vines and foliage of trees began, the weeds dead and whitened and the vines a glossy, rich green, as if sucking life out of the water into which they drooped. All along the river bank trees and bushes leaned out and showed a yard or two of dead, whitish brown where the waterline had once been. This river bent so often you could never see far along it. Only a mile or so. Then foliage began, confused and unmoving.'