SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 07 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

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Pattern followed here,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

For 'RMZ' related to 'PKX':

For 'HQT' related to 'FOR':

Applying the same logic to 'CPI':

Thus, CPI is related to ANG.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed in this pattern is based on alphabetical shifts.

For 'AI' related to 'YB':

For 'SP' related to 'QI':

Applying the same logic to 'WL':

Thus, WL is related to UE.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed in this pattern is based on alphabetical shifts within each set of letter clusters. Each subsequent cluster is formed by subtracting fixed values from the positions of the letters.

For the set '(XG, VC, TY)':

For the set '(RB, PX, NT)':

Applying the same logic to '(QM, OI, ME)':

Thus, the set (QM, OI, ME) follows the same logic as the given letter clusters.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The given year is 2002.

Since 2002 is not divisible by 4 (2002 ÷ 4 = 500.5), it is a non-leap year.

Therefore, February 2002 has 28 days.

Number of weeks in 28 days = 28 ÷ 7 = 4 weeks.

In a month consisting of exactly 4 weeks, every day of the week (Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, and Sunday) occurs exactly 4 times.

Number of Mondays in February 2002 = 4

Number of Wednesdays in February 2002 = 4

Product of the number of Mondays and Wednesdays = 4 × 4 = 16

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Let us check the pair 1966 and 1977:

Type of year: Both 1966 and 1977 are Ordinary years (not divisible by 4).

Now, we count the odd days from 1966 to 1976:

1966 (Ordinary year) = 1 odd day

1967 (Ordinary year) = 1 odd day

1968 (Leap year) = 2 odd days

1969 (Ordinary year) = 1 odd day

1970 (Ordinary year) = 1 odd day

1971 (Ordinary year) = 1 odd day

1972 (Leap year) = 2 odd days

1973 (Ordinary year) = 1 odd day

1974 (Ordinary year) = 1 odd day

1975 (Ordinary year) = 1 odd day

1976 (Leap year) = 2 odd days

Total odd days = 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 = 14 odd days.

Since 14 ÷ 7 = 2 with a remainder of 0, the sum of odd days is a multiple of 7.

Because both conditions are satisfied, the years 1966 and 1977 have identical calendars.

Checking other options:

1. 1972 and 1978: 1972 is a Leap year while 1978 is an Ordinary year. (Not identical)
2. 1960 and 1967: 1960 is a Leap year while 1967 is an Ordinary year. (Not identical)
3. 1965 and 1977: Sum of odd days from 1965 to 1976 = 1 (for 1965) + 14 = 15. 15 is not divisible by 7. (Not identical)

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

330 + 91 = 421

421 + 91 = 512

512 + 91 = 603

603 + 91 = 694

694 + 91 = 785

785 + 91 = 876

876 + 91 = 967

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

5 girls R, S, T, V and H are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. Only one girl is to the right of S.
2. H is to the immediate right of R and to the immediate left of V. 

S is fourth from the left end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

7 students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. V is fourth to the right of Q.
2. Considering towards left of S, there is only 1 student between S and Q.
3. T is not the immediate neighbour of V or S.
4. P is fourth to the right of U.

Considering towards right of U, two students are sitting between V and U.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

WF851 : UH823

 

QW270 : OY242

Similarly,

 

XS115 : ?

 

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

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KPS15 : JOR196

ZYO17 : YXN256

Similarly,

ACD13 : ?

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number + 2)³

For the first pair 16 : 5832

⇒ (16 + 2)³

⇒ 18³ = 5832.

Applying the same logic to the second pair 22 : 13824

⇒ (22 + 2)³

⇒ 24³ = 13824.

Applying the same logic to the third pair 27 : ?

⇒ (27 + 2)³

⇒ 29³ = 24389.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

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NANS is coded as SZKN →

TARE is coded as YZOZ →

Similarly, let us find the code for ITCH:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The watch is 4 minutes slow at 1 AM.

The watch gains 8 seconds every hour.

First, convert the total lag into seconds:

Total lag = 4 minutes = 4 × 60 seconds = 240 seconds

Now, calculate the total number of hours required to gain 240 seconds:

Hours required = 240 seconds ÷ 8 seconds/hour

Hours required = 30 hours

Now, we add 30 hours to the initial time of 1 AM:

30 hours = 24 hours + 6 hours

1 AM + 24 hours = 1 AM (the following day)

1 AM + 6 hours = 7 AM (the following day)

Therefore, the watch will show the correct time at 7:00 AM.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Ages 8 years ago from present:

Ages 5 years after from present:

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The total time difference between 8 years ago and 5 years after = 8 + 5 = 13 years.

Change in ratio units for L = 6 − 5 = 1 unit

Change in ratio units for M = 7 − 6 = 1 unit

This 1 unit increase corresponds exactly to the 13-year interval from the past timeframe to the future timeframe.

Therefore, 1 unit = 13 years.

Age of L 8 years ago = 5 × 13 = 65 years

 

Age of M 8 years ago = 6 × 13 = 78 years

To find the present age, we add 8 years to their respective ages from 8 years ago.

Present age of L = 65 + 8 = 73

Present age of M = 78 + 8 = 86

The respective ratio of their present ages is 73 : 86.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is Photosynthesis.

Key Points

• Carbon is the fundamental structural element of all known life, forming the essential backbone of complex molecules such as DNA, RNA, proteins, and lipids.
• The incorporation of carbon into the biological world occurs primarily through Photosynthesis, a physiological process where inorganic carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere is 'fixed' into organic molecules.
• This biological transformation is driven by photoautotrophs, including terrestrial plants, algae, and cyanobacteria, which represent the base of the trophic pyramid.
• Within the chloroplasts of these organisms, the enzyme RuBisCO facilitates the binding of CO₂ to an organic sugar during the Calvin Cycle (light-independent reactions).
• The chemical energy required for this fixation is derived from ATP and NADPH, which are synthesized during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.
• The chemical summary for this conversion is: 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + solar energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂.
• Once carbon is incorporated into glucose, it is used to build plant tissues, which are then consumed by heterotrophs, thereby moving carbon through the entire food chain.

 Additional Information

• Respiration:
• This is a catabolic process occurring in the mitochondria where organic molecules are oxidized to release energy.
• It results in the release of carbon dioxide as a byproduct, making it an output phase of the carbon cycle rather than an incorporation phase.
• Decomposition:
• Carried out by decomposers or saprotrophs like fungi and bacteria.
• This process breaks down the complex carbon compounds of dead matter, recycling nutrients and returning CO₂ to the atmosphere or soil.
• Fermentation:
• An anaerobic pathway used by organisms like yeast to extract energy from carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen.
• It involves the breakdown of sugar into ethanol or lactic acid and carbon dioxide, rather than the initial entry of carbon into life-forms.

The correct answer is Snake.

Key Points

• The Kalbelia dance is a world-renowned folk dance originating from the state of Rajasthan, India, specifically associated with the Kalbelia tribe.
• The dance is a creative celebration of the tribe's traditional occupation as snake charmers, where every movement is designed to mimic the graceful, slithering, and sinuous motions of a snake or cobra.
• The performers, primarily women, wear heavy black skirts (Lehenga) decorated with silver embroidery and mirrors that swirl rhythmically, resembling the shimmering scales of a serpent.
• The choreography involves flexible body movements, acrobatic bends, and swirling spins that intensify as the music's tempo increases, mirroring the agile nature of a reptile.
• In 2010, the Kalbelia folk songs and dances were inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity, recognizing its cultural significance.

 Additional Information

• Musical Instruments:
• The most critical instrument is the Pungi (or Been), a wind instrument traditionally used to charm snakes, which provides the soul of the performance.
• Other accompanying instruments played by the men include the Dafli, Khanjari, Dholak, and Khuralio.
• Historical Background:
• The Kalbelia community is also known as Saperas or Jogis; they were traditionally nomadic and known for catching venomous snakes and trading their venom.
• Due to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, the tribe moved away from snake handling towards professional dance and music to preserve their cultural identity.
• Prominent Personalities:
• Gulabo Sapera is a legendary dancer who is credited with bringing the Kalbelia dance to the international stage and earning it global acclaim.

The correct answer is Ganga.

Key Points

• Mauni Amavasya is observed on the Amavasya (new moon day) of the Hindu month of Magha, which typically falls in January or February.
• It is considered one of the most auspicious days in the Hindu calendar, believed to be the day when the universe was created and the first day of the Krita Yuga.
• Taking a holy dip in the Ganga on this day is believed to cleanse a person of all sins and lead them toward Moksha (salvation).
• The primary ritual involves Mauna Vrata, a vow of silence, which devotees maintain throughout the day to focus on inner peace and spiritual discipline.
• The Triveni Sangam in Prayagraj, where the Ganga joins the Yamuna and the invisible Saraswati, is the most significant site for this ritual, especially during the Kumbh Mela or Magh Mela.
• Ancient scriptures suggest that on the day of Mauni Amavasya, the water of the Ganga turns into Amrit (divine nectar).

 Additional Information

• Significance of Other Options:
• Yamuna: While the Yamuna is a sacred river and part of the Triveni Sangam, the specific merit of the Magha ritual is traditionally centered around the Ganga.
• Godavari: Known as the Dakshin Ganga, it is the most sacred river of South India. It is central to the Pushkaram festivals but is not the primary focus of Mauni Amavasya traditions.
• Saraswati: A mythical river mentioned in the Rigveda, it is believed to flow underground and meet the other two rivers at Prayagraj, adding to the spiritual potency of the Sangam bath.
• Key Rituals:
• Devotees often perform Tarpan (offerings to ancestors) on the banks of the Ganga after the holy dip.
• Donating items like clothes, food, and Til (sesame seeds) to the needy is considered highly virtuous on this day.

The correct answer is Nagaland.

Key Points

• Nagaland, situated in the far northeastern part of India, is widely recognized as the Land of Festivals, where music and dance are central to the cultural identity of its 16 major tribes.
• The Zeliang folk songs belong to the Zeliang tribe, which is a combined entity of the Zeme and Liangmai Naga communities primarily residing in the Peren district of Nagaland. These songs often accompany the vibrant Zeliang dance, characterized by rhythmic movements mimicking birds and animals.
• Li is a specific category of traditional folk songs practiced by the Chakhesang Naga tribe. These songs are vital to their oral tradition, serving as a medium to pass down historical narratives, agricultural cycles, and romantic folklore across generations.
• The folk music of Nagaland is predominantly vocal-centric and is frequently performed during major agricultural festivals like the Hornbill Festival (celebrated in December) and the Sekrenyi festival.
• Musical instruments such as the Bamhum, Maku-Li, and various types of log drums are used to provide rhythmic accompaniment to these traditional melodies, reflecting the state's deep connection with indigenous craftsmanship and nature.

 Additional Information

• Sikkim:
• This state is famous for folk songs like Tamang Selo, which is performed to the beats of a circular drum called the Damphu.
• Another significant form is the Ghantu, which is a traditional dance-drama performed by the Gurung community.
• Arunachal Pradesh:
• Home to diverse tribes like the Nyishi and Adi, the state features folk songs such as Ja-Jin-Ja, which is usually performed during weddings and social gatherings.
• The Bari folk song is another traditional form used to narrate the history of the creation of the world.
• Assam:
• The most iconic musical form is Bihu Geet, sung during the three Bihu festivals (Rongali, Kongali, and Bhogali) to celebrate the harvest and seasons.
• Assam is also known for Borgeet, a collection of devotional songs composed by the 15th-16th century saint-scholar Srimanta Sankardev and his disciple Madhavdev.

The correct answer is Distance light travels in one year.

Key Points

• A light-year is a unit of astronomical distance used to express the vast spans between celestial objects in space.
• It is defined as the total distance that light travels in a vacuum in one Julian year, which consists of 365.25 days.
• Since light travels at a constant speed of approximately 299,792,458 meters per second (roughly 3 × 10⁸ m/s), a light-year equals about 9.46 trillion kilometers (9.46 × 10¹² km).
• In the field of astronomy, this unit is preferred over terrestrial units like kilometers because distances to stars and galaxies are so immense that using smaller units would result in unwieldy numbers.

 Additional Information

• Related Astronomical Units:
• Astronomical Unit (AU): This represents the average distance between the Earth and the Sun, approximately 150 million kilometers.
• Parsec (pc): Short for parallax second, it is equal to approximately 3.26 light-years and is used by astronomers to measure even larger distances based on trigonometric parallax.
• Light-second/Light-minute: These are smaller subdivisions; for instance, the Sun is about 8.3 light-minutes away from Earth.
• Common Misconceptions:
• Despite containing the word year, a light-year is strictly a measure of distance and not time.
• The time taken for light to reach us from distant stars means we are seeing those objects as they appeared in the past.

The correct answer is Radio telescope.

Key Points

• A radio telescope is a specialized astronomical instrument designed to detect and collect radio waves from space, which have much longer wavelengths than visible light.
• The core component is typically a large parabolic antenna (dish) that acts as a collector, reflecting incoming radio signals to a central receiver or feed horn.
• These telescopes are essential for observing celestial objects that emit little to no visible light, such as pulsars, quasars, and cold interstellar gas clouds.
• Because radio waves can penetrate thick clouds of cosmic dust and the Earth's atmosphere with ease, these telescopes can operate effectively during the day and in overcast conditions.
• The development of radio astronomy allowed for the discovery of the Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) radiation, providing crucial evidence for the Big Bang theory.
• Due to the long wavelength of radio signals, these telescopes must be physically much larger than optical telescopes to achieve high angular resolution.

 Additional Information

• Optical Telescope:
• Designed to gather and focus electromagnetic radiation specifically from the visible light portion of the spectrum (approx. 400 to 700 nanometers).
• It includes two main sub-types: refracting and reflecting telescopes, used primarily for observing stars, planets, and nebulae.
• Refracting Telescope:
• Uses a converging objective lens to bend (refract) and focus light.
• Often suffers from chromatic aberration, where different wavelengths of light focus at slightly different spots, creating a color blur.
• Reflecting Telescope:
• Uses a curved primary mirror to reflect light to a focal point.
• Invented by Sir Isaac Newton, this design is the standard for modern professional astronomy because mirrors can be supported from the back, allowing for much larger apertures than lenses.

The correct answer is Two innings, each lasting 50 overs.

Key Points

• A standard One Day International (ODI) is a form of limited-overs cricket played between two teams, where each team is allotted a single innings to bat and bowl.
• The duration of a full match consists of two innings in total, with each innings strictly limited to a maximum of 50 overs (unless a team is bowled out earlier).
• Each over consists of 6 legal deliveries, meaning each side faces up to 300 balls to set or chase a target score.
• The match is designed to be completed within a single day, typically requiring a total playing time of approximately 7 to 8 hours, excluding weather interruptions.
• A mandatory innings break is provided between the two innings, which usually lasts for 45 minutes, allowing players to rest and the pitch to be maintained.
• The team scoring the most runs at the end of their respective 50 overs (or upon bowling out the opposition) is declared the winner.

 Additional Information

• Historical Evolution:
• The first-ever ODI was played on January 5, 1971, between Australia and England at the Melbourne Cricket Ground (MCG).
• Initially, World Cup matches (1975, 1979, and 1983) were played as 60 overs per side. The format was reduced to 50 overs starting from the 1987 World Cup held in the Indian subcontinent.
• Format Comparison:
• T20 Internationals: This format consists of two innings of 20 overs each, lasting roughly 3 hours in total.
• Test Cricket: The longest format, involving up to four innings (two per team) played over a maximum of five days without a fixed over limit per innings.
• Fielding Restrictions:
• ODIs utilize Powerplays to regulate field placements. Powerplay 1 (Overs 1-10) allows only 2 fielders outside the 30-yard circle, while Powerplay 2 (Overs 11-40) allows 4, and Powerplay 3 (Overs 41-50) allows 5 fielders outside the circle.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The 4th BRICS Summit was hosted by India on March 29, 2012, at Vigyan Bhawan in New Delhi.
• This summit was historically significant as it was the first time India hosted the group of five major emerging national economies, including Brazil, Russia, China, and South Africa.
• The official theme for the 2012 summit was 'BRICS Partnership for Global Stability, Security and Prosperity', reflecting the group’s commitment to collective economic development.
• A major outcome of the summit was the proposal to establish the New Development Bank (NDB), which was intended to mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging markets.
• The summit concluded with the Delhi Declaration, which urged for a more representative international financial system and called for the urgent implementation of the 2010 International Monetary Fund (IMF) quota and governance reforms.
• The meeting was attended by prominent leaders, including Prime Minister Manmohan Singh (India), President Dilma Rousseff (Brazil), President Dmitry Medvedev (Russia), President Hu Jintao (China), and President Jacob Zuma (South Africa).

 Additional Information

• Brazil:
• Brazil hosted the 2nd BRICS Summit in April 2010 in Brasília and later hosted the 6th Summit in Fortaleza in 2014, where the agreement for the New Development Bank was signed.
• China:
• China hosted the 3rd BRICS Summit in April 2011 in Sanya, which marked the inaugural summit for South Africa as a full member of the group.
• South Africa:
• After joining the group in December 2010, the nation hosted its first summit, the 5th BRICS Summit, in March 2013 in Durban under the theme of 'BRICS and Africa'.
• BRICS Evolution:
• The term BRIC was originally coined by Jim O'Neill of Goldman Sachs in 2001; the first formal summit was held in June 2009 in Yekaterinburg, Russia.

The correct answer is Groundwater recharge.

Key Points

• Rainwater harvesting is a sustainable technique for the collection and storage of rainwater from surfaces such as roofs and ground for later use, preventing it from being lost as surface runoff.
• The primary objective is groundwater recharge, a process where collected rainwater is directed into the ground to replenish subsurface aquifers and raise the water table.
• The process employs structures like recharge pits, percolation tanks, dug wells, and recharge shafts to facilitate the downward movement of water into the geological layers.
• It is particularly critical in urbanized areas where the construction of roads and buildings creates impermeable surfaces, blocking natural percolation and leading to the depletion of underground water reserves.
• Effective harvesting reduces the extraction-to-recharge ratio, helping to stabilize ecosystems and ensure water security in regions prone to over-exploitation of borewells.

 Additional Information

• Environmental Benefits:
• Soil Conservation: By capturing runoff at the source, harvesting reduces the velocity and volume of water flowing over land, which effectively prevents soil erosion and the washing away of topsoil nutrients.
• Water Quality Improvement: As rainwater filters through the soil, it acts as a natural purification method and helps in diluting the concentration of fluoride, nitrates, and salinity in existing groundwater.
• Clarification of Incorrect Concepts:
• Reducing Air Pollution: While the supported greenery may filter some air, the technique itself is a hydrological management tool and does not directly mitigate atmospheric pollutants.
• Global Warming: Rainwater harvesting is an adaptation strategy for climate change; it does not contribute to greenhouse gas emissions or the global warming effect.
• Global and National Context:
• Harvesting aligns with Sustainable Development Goal 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation) and is supported by initiatives like the Atal Bhujal Yojana and the Jal Shakti Abhiyan in India to promote water conservation.

The correct answer is Bhim Singh Bhavesh.

Key Points

• Bhim Singh Bhavesh, a prominent social activist from Bihar, has been conferred with the Padma Shri award in 2025 for his distinguished service in the field of Social Work.
• He is widely recognized for his tireless efforts spanning over three decades toward the empowerment and holistic development of the Musahar community, which is one of the most socio-economically marginalized groups in eastern India.
• His work primarily centers on improving educational access for Musahar children, eradicating social stigmas, and ensuring the delivery of government welfare schemes to the grassroots level.
• Through his advocacy, he has played a pivotal role in promoting land rights and vocational training, helping thousands of families transition from extreme poverty toward sustainable livelihoods.
• The recognition highlights the Government of India's focus on honoring unsung heroes who work for the upliftment of the Mahadalit and underprivileged sections of society.

 Additional Information

• Musahar Community:
• The term Musahar is derived from 'mus' (rat) and 'ahar' (seeker/eater), reflecting their traditional occupation.
• They are predominantly found in Bihar, Jharkhand, and the Terai regions of Nepal, and are classified under the Scheduled Castes category.
• Historically, they have faced severe social exclusion, with literacy rates significantly lower than the national average.
• Padma Awards 2025:
• The Padma Shri is the fourth-highest civilian honor in India, announced annually on the eve of Republic Day (January 26).
• The 2025 list featured a diverse group of individuals recognized for their contributions in Science and Engineering, Medicine, Literature, and Public Affairs.
• The selection process is managed by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year.

The correct answer is Harikrishnan A Ra.

Key Points

• Harikrishnan A Ra, a talented chess prodigy from Tamil Nadu, officially became India's 87th Grandmaster in January 2025.
• The title was conferred by the International Chess Federation (FIDE) after he secured his third and final Grandmaster norm during the Monte-Carlo Open held in Monaco.
• To achieve this elite status, Harikrishnan crossed the required live Elo rating of 2500, a mandatory technical benchmark for all aspiring Grandmasters worldwide.
• His journey to the title involved consistent performances against high-rated international opponents, meeting the FIDE criteria of playing at least 27 games across specific norm-granting tournaments.
• With this achievement, he continues the legacy of Tamil Nadu as a powerhouse of Indian chess, a state that has produced more than half of the country's Grandmasters, including the first one, Viswanathan Anand.

 Additional Information

• Grandmaster (GM) Title Requirements:
• Norms: A player must achieve three GM norms in tournaments that meet FIDE standards regarding the number of participants, their titles, and their diverse nationalities.
• Rating: A minimum FIDE rating of 2500 must be reached at some point during the player's career to finalize the title application.
• Comparison with Options:
• D. Gukesh (Dommaraju Gukesh) became India's 59th Grandmaster in 2019 at the age of 12, making him one of the youngest in history. He is widely recognized for winning the Candidates Tournament 2024.
• The name Parag Jain does not correspond to a recognized Indian Grandmaster in the current top-tier rankings as of the 2024-2025 period.
• Indian Chess Milestones:
• India's chess revolution began in 1988 with Viswanathan Anand. The pace of title acquisition has increased significantly, with the jump from 50 to 87 GMs occurring in less than a decade due to better coaching and AI-driven training tools.
• The All India Chess Federation (AICF) plays a pivotal role in organizing the National Championships and facilitating international exposures for rising stars like Harikrishnan.

The correct answer is One-horned Rhinoceros.

Key Points

• Kaziranga National Park is located in the Golaghat and Nagaon districts of Assam, situated on the edge of the Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspot.
• The park is globally famous for hosting the world's largest population of the Great Indian One-horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis), which accounts for approximately two-thirds of their global numbers.
• It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985 due to its unique natural environment and the presence of rare wildlife species that thrive in its grasslands and wetlands.
• According to the 2022 census, the population of rhinoceroses in the park was estimated at 2,613 individuals, reflecting successful conservation efforts over the decades.
• The park comprises vast expanses of tall elephant grass, marshland, and dense tropical moist broadleaf forests, providing the ideal habitat for these megaherbivores.

 Additional Information

• Asiatic Lion:
• This species is found exclusively in the Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat, India.
• It is currently listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List and is distinct from African lions by the skin fold along its belly.
• Bengal Tiger:
• Kaziranga was designated as a Tiger Reserve in 2006 due to its high density of tigers.
• While present in Kaziranga, they are primarily the flagship species of reserves like the Sundarbans and Jim Corbett National Park.
• Elephant:
• The Asian Elephant is one of the 'Big Five' of Kaziranga, and the park is a key part of the Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong Elephant Reserve.
• They are frequently sighted in the riverine floodplains of the Brahmaputra River.

The correct answer is Bhakra Dam.

Key Points

• The Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity dam located on the Sutlej River in the Bilaspur district of Himachal Pradesh.
• It is the primary component of the Bhakra-Nangal Project, which is a joint venture of the states of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan designed for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation.
• The dam creates a massive reservoir called the Gobind Sagar Lake, named after the tenth Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh, which has a storage capacity of about 9.34 billion cubic meters.
• Standing at a height of approximately 226 meters (741 feet), it is one of the highest gravity dams in the world and was the highest in Asia at the time of its completion.
• The project was officially dedicated to the nation in 1963 by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, who famously described such large-scale engineering works as the Temples of Modern India.

 Additional Information

• Nagarjuna Sagar Dam:
• Located on the Krishna River, it straddles the border between the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh and the Nalgonda district of Telangana.
• It is recognized as the world’s largest masonry dam, featuring 26 crest gates.
• Hirakud Dam:
• Built across the Mahanadi River in Sambalpur, Odisha.
• It holds the distinction of being the longest earthen dam in the world, with a total length of 25.8 kilometers.
• Tehri Dam:
• Constructed on the Bhagirathi River in the state of Uttarakhand.
• It is the highest dam in India and one of the highest in the world, reaching a height of 260.5 meters.

Therefore, the correct option is 1.

The correct answer is They attract each other.

Key Points

• According to Ampere's Circuital Law, a current-carrying conductor generates a magnetic field around it. For a long straight wire, the magnetic field lines form concentric circles centered on the wire, as determined by the Right-Hand Thumb Rule.
• When two long parallel wires carry currents I1 and I2 in the same direction, the magnetic field produced by the first wire at the position of the second wire is perpendicular to the length of the second wire.
• The second wire, being a current-carrying conductor in an external magnetic field, experiences a Lorentz force. By applying Fleming's Left-Hand Rule, the direction of the force on the second wire is found to be directed toward the first wire.
• Similarly, the first wire experiences a force due to the magnetic field of the second wire, which is directed toward the second wire. Because both wires experience forces pulling them together, they attract each other.

 Additional Information

• Force Magnitude and Formula:
• The magnitude of the magnetic force per unit length (f) between two parallel wires separated by a distance d in a vacuum is given by the expression: f = (μ₀ × I₁ × I₂) / (2 × π × d).
• Here, μ₀ represents the permeability of free space, which has a constant value of approximately 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A.
• Opposite Currents (Anti-parallel):
• If the currents in the two parallel wires flow in opposite directions, the magnetic forces acting on them will be directed away from each other, causing the wires to repel.
• This phenomenon is the fundamental principle used to define the SI unit of current, the Ampere. One Ampere is defined as the constant current which, if maintained in two straight parallel conductors of infinite length and negligible circular cross-section placed 1 meter apart in vacuum, would produce a force equal to 2 × 10⁻⁷ Newtons per meter of length.

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• The PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana is a specialized agricultural intervention scheduled for launch in July 2025, aimed at boosting the productivity of the primary sector.
• The scheme specifically targets 100 low-performing agri-districts across the nation, identifying regions where the current crop yield is significantly below the national average.
• A robust financial framework has been established for this initiative, featuring an annual outlay of Rs. 24,000 crore to support modern irrigation, seed quality improvement, and mechanization.
• The total duration of the program is fixed at 6 years, ensuring that the long-term structural reforms required in these districts have sufficient time to manifest as measurable economic growth.
• By maintaining this annual outlay over a period of 6 years, the total projected expenditure for the mission is estimated at Rs. 1,44,000 crore.

 Additional Information

• Selection Criteria for Districts:
• Districts are selected based on parameters such as low cropping intensity, high dependency on monsoon, and limited access to credit.
• The scheme aims to integrate these districts into the national agricultural value chain through better market linkages.
• Key Objectives:
• Enhancing Soil Health through the systematic distribution of micronutrients and organic fertilizers.
• Deployment of Agri-Tech solutions, including drones for pesticide spraying and IoT devices for moisture monitoring.
• Strengthening Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) to improve the bargaining power of small and marginal landholders.

The correct answer is Maintaining a specified number of cavalrymen.

Key Points

• The Mansabdari system was the administrative and military framework of the Mughal Empire, introduced by Emperor Akbar in 1571 to organize the nobility and the army.
• The term Mansab denotes a rank or position, and every officer in the Mughal service was assigned a dual rank: Zat and Sawar.
• The Sawar rank specifically determined the military responsibility of the Mansabdar, requiring him to maintain a fixed number of cavalrymen (soldiers on horseback) and horses for the imperial service.
• Mansabdars were required to bring their troops for regular inspection, where the Dagh system (branding of horses) and Chehra (descriptive rolls of soldiers) were used to prevent duplication and ensure military readiness.
• The number of cavalrymen maintained was crucial for the expansion and defense of the empire, as these troops formed the bulk of the Mughal fighting force during military campaigns.

 Additional Information

• Rank Structure:
• Zat: Indicated the personal status of the officer and determined his personal salary in the hierarchy.
• Salary (Jagir): Most Mansabdars were paid through Jagirs (land revenue assignments), though some were paid in cash, known as Naqdi.
• Incorrect Functions:
• Collecting Taxes: While Mansabdars collected revenue from their assigned Jagirs to pay their troops, the primary responsibility for revenue administration lay with the Amils and Zamidars under the Diwan.
• Administering Justice: This was the specialized duty of the Qazi and Mir Adl, who interpreted Sharia and imperial decrees.
• Land Distribution: The Diwan-i-Ala was the head of the revenue department responsible for overall land records and the distribution of revenue assignments.

The correct answer is Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, introduced the Paryatan Mitra & Paryatan Didi initiative in December 2024 to enhance the tourist experience by transforming local citizens into tourism ambassadors.
• The program was piloted across several culturally significant locations including Orchha, Gandikota, Bodh Gaya, Aizawl, Jodhpur, and Sri Nagar to test community-based hospitality models.
• The initiative is deeply rooted in the philosophy of Atithi Devo Bhava, focusing on training frontline service providers like cab drivers, hotel staff, and local vendors in soft skills, safety, and cleanliness.
• A primary objective is women empowerment through the Paryatan Didi component, which encourages women to lead tourism activities such as homestay management and cultural storytelling, fostering inclusive growth.
• The scheme aims to promote Responsible Tourism by educating participants on sustainability and heritage preservation, aligning with the broader vision of Viksit Bharat @ 2047.
• By integrating digital literacy into the training modules, the initiative ensures that local stakeholders can leverage technology to improve service delivery and reach a global audience.

 Additional Information

• Dekho Apna Desh:
• This initiative was launched to promote domestic tourism by encouraging citizens to travel within India and witness the country's rich cultural diversity.
• It includes a pledge where travelers commit to visiting at least 15 tourist destinations across the country by a certain timeframe.
• Incredible India 2.0:
• This is an upgraded global marketing campaign aimed at promoting India as a holistic destination for international travelers.
• It focuses on niche tourism products such as Wellness, Spiritual, Medical, and Adventure tourism to increase foreign exchange earnings and tourist footfall.
• Responsible Tourism:
• A concept focused on minimizing negative economic, environmental, and social impacts while generating greater economic benefits for local people and enhancing the well-being of host communities.

The correct answer is Automated Air Defence Control.

Key Points

• Project Akashteer is a significant technological initiative developed for the Indian Army to automate its Air Defence Control and Reporting processes.
• Developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), the project aligns with the Atmanirbhar Bharat vision, aiming to modernize and digitize the military's operational capabilities through indigenous technology.
• The primary function of this project is to integrate various radars and sensors across the battlefield into a single, unified digital network, providing a comprehensive Situational Awareness picture.
• It streamlines the sensor-to-shooter loop, allowing for the rapid detection, identification, and engagement of hostile aerial targets while ensuring seamless coordination between different units.
• The system is designed to operate in a Network-Centric Warfare environment, enabling commanders to make informed decisions in real-time by consolidating data from diverse geographical locations.

 Additional Information

• Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL):
• A Navratna Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) headquartered in Bengaluru, functioning under the Ministry of Defence.
• It plays a pivotal role in manufacturing advanced electronic systems for the Indian Armed Forces, including sonar, radar, and communication equipment.
• Significance in Air Defence:
• Automation through Akashteer minimizes the risk of fratricide (accidental engagement of friendly aircraft) by maintaining an accurate Air Space Management record.
• The system enhances the mobility and flexibility of Air Defence units, allowing them to maintain connectivity even while deployed in remote or high-altitude border regions.
• It serves as a force multiplier by optimizing the utilization of expensive assets like Surface-to-Air Missiles (SAMs) and Anti-Aircraft Guns.

The correct answer is Raman Research Institute.

Key Points

• Researchers at the Raman Research Institute (RRI), an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), developed a point-of-care, low-cost electro-fluidic device for the preliminary screening of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD).
• The device utilizes the resistive pulse sensing technique, which measures variations in ionic current as individual red blood cells (RBCs) pass through a micro-aperture.
• It identifies sickled cells by analyzing their mechanical stiffness and morphological changes, as sickle cells are significantly less deformable than healthy, disc-shaped RBCs.
• This affordable screening tool is designed to provide rapid results, making it highly effective for use in resource-limited settings and rural areas where expensive diagnostic infrastructure is unavailable.
• The development supports India's National Sickle Cell Anemia Elimination Mission, which aims to eliminate the disease as a public health problem by the year 2047.

 Additional Information

• Sickle Cell Disease (SCD):
• It is a genetic blood disorder characterized by abnormal hemoglobin S, which causes RBCs to become rigid and crescent-shaped.
• These distorted cells can block blood flow, leading to severe pain, organ damage, and anemia.
• India has the second-highest burden of SCD globally, particularly prevalent among tribal populations in Central and South India.
• Raman Research Institute (RRI):
• Founded in 1948 by the Nobel Laureate Sir C.V. Raman in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
• The institute specializes in fundamental research in Physics, including Astronomy, Astrophysics, Light and Matter Physics, and Soft Condensed Matter.
• Other Research Entities:
• Tata Memorial Centre (TMC): A premier national institute for cancer research and treatment located in Mumbai.
• Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR): India's largest research and development organization operating a network of 37 laboratories.
• AIIMS: A group of autonomous public medical universities known for clinical excellence and medical education.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The Forehand is a primary groundstroke in Tennis where the player swings the racket across their body with the palm of the dominant hand facing the direction of the stroke. It is widely considered the most powerful and versatile offensive weapon for most players, often utilizing grips like the Eastern, Western, or Semi-Western to generate significant topspin and pace. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The Backhand is a fundamental stroke played on the opposite side of the body from the forehand, with the back of the hand preceding the palm during the swing. Players may employ a one-handed backhand for greater reach and variety or a two-handed backhand for increased stability, power, and better handling of high-bouncing balls. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• Other essential shots and technical aspects of a Tennis match include:
• Serve: The overhead shot that begins every point, which must land within the opponent’s cross-court service box to be considered valid.
• Volley: A shot typically played near the net where the player strikes the ball before it bounces on the ground, used to finish points quickly.
• Smash: A powerful overhead stroke, similar in motion to a serve, usually executed in response to a high Lob sent by the opponent.
• Lob: A high, arching shot intended to pass over an opponent standing at the net or to provide the player time to recover their defensive position.
• Drop Shot: A delicate touch shot designed to land just over the net with minimal bounce, catching the opponent far back at the baseline.
• Court Surfaces: Matches are played on various surfaces including Grass (Wimbledon), Clay (French Open), and Hard Courts (Australian and US Open), each affecting the ball’s speed and bounce height differently.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the 'Of' operator first, then group positive and negative terms for faster calculation.

18 of 2 = 36

Positive terms: 88 + 21 + 28 + 36 + 17 = 190

Negative terms: −34 − 13 = −47

190 − 47 = 143

∴ The correct answer is 143.

Alternate Method

Given: 88 + 21 − 34 + 28 + (18 of 2) + 17 − 13

Formula Used: Apply BODMAS Rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

⇒ 88 + 21 − 34 + 28 + (18 × 2) + 17 − 13

⇒ 88 + 21 − 34 + 28 + 36 + 17 − 13

⇒ (88 + 21 + 28 + 36 + 17) − (34 + 13)

⇒ 190 − 47

⇒ 143

∴ The correct answer is 143.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

The rule defines the order of precedence: Brackets (), Of (orders), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Precedence of 'Of'

The 'Of' operator is treated as multiplication but must be performed before division and standard multiplication.

Grouping Property

When multiple additions and subtractions are present, grouping like-signed numbers helps reduce calculation errors.

Shortcut Trick

Check the product of HCF and LCM: 80 × 3600 = 288,000.

Check options where the product is 288,000 and difference is 320.

Option 4: 720 − 400 = 320 (Matches difference).

Option 4: 720 × 400 = 288,000 (Matches HCF × LCM product).

∴ The correct answer is 720 and 400.

Alternate Method

Given: HCF = 80, LCM = 3600, Difference = 320

Formula Used: Product of numbers = HCF × LCM | Numbers = HCF × a and HCF × b (where a, b are co-primes)

⇒ Let the numbers be 80a and 80b.

⇒ LCM = 80 × a × b = 3600

⇒ ab = 3600 ÷ 80 = 45

⇒ Difference = 80a − 80b = 320

⇒ 80(a − b) = 320

⇒ a − b = 320 ÷ 80 = 4

⇒ We need two co-prime numbers whose product is 45 and difference is 4.

⇒ The factors of 45 are (9, 5) since 9 × 5 = 45 and 9 − 5 = 4.

⇒ First number = 80 × 9 = 720

⇒ Second number = 80 × 5 = 400

∴ The correct answer is 720 and 400.

Additional Information

Fundamental Property of HCF and LCM

For any two numbers x and y, the product of the numbers is always equal to the product of their HCF and LCM (x × y = HCF × LCM).

Relation with Difference

The HCF of two numbers is always a factor of their difference, their sum, and their LCM.

Co-prime Factors

If HCF is h, the numbers can be expressed as ha and hb, where a and b are co-prime (HCF of a and b is 1).

Shortcut Trick

Separate the whole numbers and the fractions from the mixed terms.

Sum of integers = 3 + 33 + 333 + 3333 = 3702.

Sum of fractional parts = 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 = 2.

Total value = 3702 + 2 = 3704.

∴ The correct answer is 3704.

Alternate Method

Given: 3(1/2) + 33(1/2) + 333(1/2) + 3333(1/2)

Formula Used: A(b/c) = A + b/c

⇒ (3 + 1/2) + (33 + 1/2) + (333 + 1/2) + (3333 + 1/2)

⇒ (3 + 33 + 333 + 3333) + (1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2)

⇒ 3702 + (1 + 1 + 1 + 1)/2

⇒ 3702 + 4/2

⇒ 3702 + 2 = 3704

∴ The correct answer is 3704.

Additional Information

Mixed Fraction Addition

A mixed fraction consists of a whole number and a proper fraction. When adding multiple mixed fractions, it is mathematically simpler to sum the integer parts and the fractional parts independently.

BODMAS Rule

For simplification, always follow the BODMAS order (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction) to ensure accurate results in multi-step expressions.

Fraction Simplification

Fractions with the same denominator can be added by simply summing their numerators while keeping the denominator constant: a/c + b/c = (a + b)/c.

Shortcut Trick

Use the Algebraic Identity: (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab.

In the given problem, a = 7.5 and b = 2.5.

The expression is in the form: (4ab) ÷ (ab).

The term (ab) cancels out, leaving only the constant 4.

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Alternate Method

Given: Expression = ((7.5 + 2.5)² − (7.5 − 2.5)²) ÷ (7.5 × 2.5)

Method: Perform direct addition and subtraction inside the brackets first.

⇒ (10)² − (5)² ÷ (7.5 × 2.5)

⇒ (100 − 25) ÷ 18.75

⇒ 75 ÷ 18.75

⇒ 4

∴ The correct answer is 4.

Additional Information

Square of Sum and Difference

The identity (a + b)² + (a − b)² = 2(a² + b²) is another frequently used variation in simplification.

Difference of Squares

The formula a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b) can also be applied to solve the numerator by treating (a+b) and (a-b) as two separate terms.

BODMAS Rule

Always solve Brackets first, followed by Orders (powers/roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Use the algebraic identity: (a + b)² + (a − b)² = 2(a² + b²).

Here, let a = √5 and b = √3.

Expression = 2 × [(√5)² + (√3)²]

Expression = 2 × (5 + 3) = 2 × 8 = 16.

∴ The correct answer is 16.

Alternate Method

Given: (√5 + √3)² + (√5 − √3)²

Formula Used: (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab and (a − b)² = a² + b² − 2ab

⇒ [(√5)² + (√3)² + 2 × √5 × √3] + [(√5)² + (√3)² − 2 × √5 × √3]

⇒ [5 + 3 + 2√15] + [5 + 3 − 2√15]

⇒ 8 + 2√15 + 8 − 2√15

⇒ 16

∴ The correct answer is 16.

Additional Information

Algebraic Difference Identity

When subtracting the squares of sums and differences, the result is (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab.

Square Root Property

For any non-negative number x, the square of its square root is the number itself: (√x)² = x.

Difference of Squares

The product of the sum and difference of two terms results in (a + b)(a − b) = a² − b².

Shortcut Trick

For any three consecutive even numbers, the average of the numbers is always equal to the middle number.

Middle Number = Sum ÷ 3 = 24 ÷ 3 = 8

Since the numbers are consecutive even numbers, the set is: (8 − 2), 8, and (8 + 2) ⇒ 6, 8, 10

Product of the numbers = 6 × 8 × 10 = 480

∴ The correct answer is 480.

Alternate Method

Given: Sum of three consecutive even numbers = 24

Formula Used: Let the three consecutive even numbers be x, x + 2, and x + 4.

Calculations:

⇒ x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) = 24

⇒ 3x + 6 = 24

⇒ 3x = 24 − 6

⇒ 3x = 18

⇒ x = 18 ÷ 3 = 6

⇒ First number = 6

⇒ Second number = 6 + 2 = 8

⇒ Third number = 6 + 4 = 10

⇒ Product = 6 × 8 × 10 = 480

∴ The correct answer is 480.

Additional Information

Consecutive Even Numbers

These are even integers that follow each other in order, where each number is 2 greater than the previous one (e.g., n, n + 2, n + 4).

Arithmetic Mean Property

For any Arithmetic Progression (AP) with an odd number of terms, the Average is always the exact middle term.

Sum of First n Even Numbers

The sum of the first n even natural numbers is given by the formula S_n = n(n + 1).

Shortcut Trick

Apply the algebraic identity: (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab.

Here, a = 5 and b = √3.

⇒ 4 × 5 × √3 − 4√3

⇒ 20√3 − 4√3 = 16√3

∴ The correct answer is 16√3.

Alternate Method

Given: (5 + √3)² − (5 − √3)² − 4√3

Formula Used: (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² and (a − b)² = a² − 2ab + b²

⇒ [(5)² + 2 × 5 × √3 + (√3)²] − [(5)² − 2 × 5 × √3 + (√3)²] − 4√3

⇒ [25 + 10√3 + 3] − [25 − 10√3 + 3] − 4√3

⇒ [28 + 10√3] − [28 − 10√3] − 4√3

⇒ 28 + 10√3 − 28 + 10√3 − 4√3

⇒ 20√3 − 4√3

⇒ 16√3

∴ The correct answer is 16√3.

Additional Information

Difference of Squares Identity

The identity (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab is a derived form of the basic square identities, extremely useful in simplification.

Sum of Squares Identity

Similarly, (a + b)² + (a − b)² = 2(a² + b²), which helps in solving expressions involving sum of squares.

Operations on Like Surds

Irrational numbers with the same radical part are called like surds and can be added or subtracted directly: x√y ± z√y = (x ± z)√y.

Shortcut Trick

Use the algebraic identity: (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab.

Here, a = 290 and b = 210.

Expression = 4 × 290 × 210.

Rearrange as (2 × 290) × (2 × 210) = 580 × 420.

∴ The correct answer is 580 × 420.

Alternate Method

Given: (290 + 210)² − (290 − 210)²

Formula Used: (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab

⇒ Let a = 290 and b = 210.

⇒ Applying the identity: (290 + 210)² − (290 − 210)² = 4 × 290 × 210.

⇒ Split the factor 4 into 2 × 2.

⇒ (2 × 290) × (2 × 210).

⇒ 580 × 420.

∴ The correct answer is 580 × 420.

Additional Information

Sum of Squares Identity

(a + b)² + (a − b)² = 2(a² + b²). This is used when the middle sign is positive.

Difference of Two Squares

a² − b² = (a − b)(a + b). This is a fundamental identity for factorisation.

Standard Expansion

(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² and (a − b)² = a² − 2ab + b².

Shortcut Trick

Identify the standard Pythagorean Triplet ratio: 3 : 4 : 5.

Scale the triplet by a factor of 2: (3 × 2) : (4 × 2) : (5 × 2) = 6 : 8 : 10.

Given that the Length is 6 cm and the Diagonal (hypotenuse) is 10 cm.

The missing side, which is the Breadth, must correspond to the middle value of the triplet.

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length (l) of the rectangle = 6 cm

Diagonal (d) of the rectangle = 10 cm

Formula Used:

In a Rectangle, the diagonal forms a right-angled triangle with the length and breadth. According to Pythagoras Theorem:

Diagonal² = Length² + Breadth²

Calculations:

⇒ 10² = 6² + Breadth²

⇒ 100 = 36 + Breadth²

⇒ Breadth² = 100 − 36

⇒ Breadth² = 64

⇒ Breadth = √64

⇒ Breadth = 8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Additional Information

Area of Rectangle

The total space occupied by the rectangle is given by Length × Breadth.

Perimeter of Rectangle

The total boundary length is calculated as 2 × (Length + Breadth).

Pythagorean Triplets

Sets of three integers that satisfy a² + b² = c², such as (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), and (8, 15, 17).

Properties of Rectangle

All internal angles are 90°, and diagonals are equal and bisect each other.

Shortcut Trick

Check the options for divisibility by both 8 and 9 (factors of 72).

For 9936: Sum of digits = 9+9+3+6 = 27 (divisible by 9).

Last 3 digits 936 ÷ 8 = 117 (divisible by 8).

Other options: 9986 (sum 32 ✗), 9972 (972 ÷ 8 ✗), 9948 (sum 30 ✗).

∴ The correct answer is 9936.

Alternate Method

Given: The largest 4-digit number is 9999 and the divisor is 72.

Formula: Largest divisible number = Largest number − Remainder

⇒ Divide 9999 by 72 to find the remainder.

⇒ 9999 ÷ 72

⇒ 72 × 138 = 9936

⇒ Remainder = 9999 − 9936 = 63

⇒ Required number = 9999 − 63

⇒ 9936

∴ The correct answer is 9936.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 72

A number is divisible by 72 if it is divisible by both 8 and 9, as they are co-prime factors.

Divisibility by 8 and 9

A number is divisible by 8 if its last three digits are divisible by 8, and divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 9.

Largest N-digit Number Divisibility

To find the largest n-digit number divisible by x, divide the largest n-digit number by x and subtract the remainder from the original number.

Shortcut Trick

Total sum of ages of E, F, and G = 50 × 3 = 150 years.

Sum of ages of E and F = 96 years.

Age of G = Total sum − Sum of (E + F) = 150 − 96 = 54 years.

∴ The correct answer is 54 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of ages of E and F = 96 years

Average age of E, F, and G = 50 years

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculations:

⇒ (E + F + G) ÷ 3 = 50

⇒ E + F + G = 50 × 3

⇒ E + F + G = 150

⇒ 96 + G = 150

⇒ G = 150 − 96

⇒ G = 54

∴ The correct answer is 54 years.

Additional Information

Sum from Average

The total sum of n items can be calculated by multiplying the Average by n. Formula: Sum = Average × n.

Finding a Missing Value

To find the value of a missing observation, subtract the sum of the known observations from the total calculated sum.

Weighted Average

If two groups have averages A₁ and A₂ and sizes n₁ and n₂, the combined average is (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Shortcut Trick

If 50% of students passed, then the remaining 50% must have failed.

Since the percentage of Passed and Failed students is equal (both 50%), their numerical counts must also be equal.

Given Failed students = 20000, it directly implies Passed students = 20000.

∴ The correct answer is 20000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage of passed students = 50%

Total number of failed students = 20000

Formula:

Total Students (100%) = Passed Students + Failed Students

Calculations:

⇒ Percentage of failed students = 100% − 50% = 50%

⇒ Let the total number of appeared students be x

⇒ 50% of x = 20000

⇒ (50 ÷ 100) × x = 20000

⇒ 0.5 × x = 20000

⇒ x = 20000 ÷ 0.5 = 40000

⇒ Number of passed students = 50% of 40000

⇒ Passed students = 0.5 × 40000 = 20000

∴ The correct answer is 20000.

Additional Information

Basic Percentage Concept

Percentage represents a part per hundred. Value = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Total.

Complementary Percentages

If a set is divided into two categories (e.g., Pass/Fail), the sum of their percentages always equals 100%.

Fraction Equivalents

Common percentages like 50% can be treated as fractions (1/2) to simplify calculations quickly: Value = Total × 1/2.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP) = 5000 : 4000 = 5 : 4.

Loss unit = 5 − 4 = 1 unit.

Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Loss % = (1 ÷ 5) × 100 = 20%.

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given: The Cost Price (CP) of the article is ₹5000 and the Selling Price (SP) is ₹4000.

Formula Used: Loss % = [(Cost Price − Selling Price) ÷ Cost Price] × 100

⇒ Loss = CP − SP

⇒ Loss = ₹5000 − ₹4000 = ₹1000

⇒ Loss percentage = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Loss % = (1000 ÷ 5000) × 100

⇒ Loss % = (1 ÷ 5) × 100

⇒ Loss % = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Profit Percentage

When SP is greater than CP, then Profit % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Relationship between CP and SP

Cost Price (CP) = [100 ÷ (100 − Loss%)] × SP, or Selling Price (SP) = CP × [(100 − Loss%) ÷ 100].

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount.

Shortcut Trick

Gap between selling prices = 1600 − 1200 = 400.

Ratio of Loss : Profit = 1 : 19 ⇒ Total 20 units = 400.

1 unit (Loss) = 20 ⇒ Cost Price = 1200 + 20 = ₹1220.

New Selling Price = 1220 × 130% = ₹1586.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1586.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price 1 (SP₁) = ₹1600

Selling Price 2 (SP₂) = ₹1200

Profit at SP₁ = 19 × Loss at SP₂

Formula Used:

Profit = Selling Price − Cost Price

Loss = Cost Price − Selling Price

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) of the article be x.

⇒ According to the condition: (1600 − x) = 19 × (x − 1200)

⇒ 1600 − x = 19x − 22800

⇒ 19x + x = 1600 + 22800

⇒ 20x = 24400

⇒ x = 24400 ÷ 20 = ₹1220

⇒ Desired Profit Percentage = 30%

⇒ New Selling Price = 1220 × (1 + 30 ÷ 100)

⇒ New Selling Price = 1220 × 1.3 = ₹1586

∴ The correct answer is ₹1586.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 and Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100. Both are always calculated on Cost Price.

Effective SP Formula

When a profit of P% is required, the Selling Price is given by: SP = CP × (100 + P) ÷ 100.

Relationship Shortcut

If Profit at SP₁ is n times Loss at SP₂, then CP = (SP₁ + n × SP₂) ÷ (n + 1).

Shortcut Trick

Apply the Successive Percentage formula: Net change = a + b + (ab/100).

Here, a = +40% (increase) and b = −25% (decrease).

Net % = 40 − 25 + [(40 × −25) / 100]

Net % = 15 − 10 = +5%.

A positive sign indicates a net increase in salary.

∴ The correct answer is 5% increase.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial salary increase = 40%

Subsequent salary reduction = 25%

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial Salary be 100 units.

⇒ Salary after 40% increase = 100 + (40/100 × 100) = 100 + 40 = 140 units.

⇒ Now, the salary is reduced by 25% on the new value (140).

⇒ Reduction amount = 25% of 140 = (25/100) × 140 = 1/4 × 140 = 35 units.

⇒ Final Salary = 140 − 35 = 105 units.

⇒ Net change = Final Salary − Initial Salary = 105 − 100 = 5.

⇒ Net percentage change = (5 / 100) × 100 = 5%.

∴ The correct answer is 5% increase.

Additional Information

Multiplying Factor (MF) Method

Final Value = Initial Value × MF₁ × MF₂. For a 40% increase, MF₁ = 1.40. For a 25% decrease, MF₂ = 0.75. Net MF = 1.40 × 0.75 = 1.05 (i.e., 5% increase).

Base Value 100 Rule

In percentage change problems, assuming 100 as the base value simplifies calculations because any change is directly equivalent to the percentage value.

Successive Change Application

This logic is widely used in Profit and Loss (successive discounts), Compound Interest, and Population Growth problems.

Shortcut Trick

Remaining fraction after Day 1 = 1 − 2/3 = 1/3.

Remaining fraction after Day 2 = 1/3 × (1 − 1/4) = 1/3 × 3/4 = 1/4.

Given that 1/4 of the Total work = 20 units.

Total work = 20 × 4 = 80 units.

∴ The correct answer is 80 units.

Alternate Method

Given:

Work done on first day = 2/3 part

Work done on second day = 1/4 of the remaining work

Final remaining work = 20 units

Formula Used:

Total Work = Work Done + Remaining Work

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Total work be 1 unit.

⇒ Work done on Day 1 = 2/3

⇒ Remaining work after Day 1 = 1 − 2/3 = 1/3

⇒ Work done on Day 2 = 1/4 × 1/3 = 1/12

⇒ Total work done in 2 days = 2/3 + 1/12

⇒ Total work done = (8 + 1) / 12 = 9/12 = 3/4

⇒ Final remaining work = 1 − 3/4 = 1/4

⇒ According to the question, 1/4 part = 20 units

⇒ 1 part (Total Work) = 20 × 4 = 80 units

∴ The correct answer is 80 units.

Additional Information

Successive Remaining Fractions

If fractions f₁, f₂... are removed successively from a remainder, the final remainder is Total × (1 − f₁) × (1 − f₂)...

LCM Method for Work

To avoid fractions, assume the Total Work as the LCM of all denominators (e.g., LCM of 3 and 4 is 12).

Unitary Method in Work

If '1/n' part of work is 'k' units, then the complete work (1 unit) is 'n × k' units.

Shortcut Trick

Use the combined work formula: Time = (X × Y) ÷ (X + Y)

Where X = 12 days (for P and Q together) and Y = 18 days (for R alone).

Total time for P, Q, and R = (12 × 18) ÷ (12 + 18)

Total time = 216 ÷ 30 = 7.2 days.

∴ The correct answer is 7.2 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by P and Q together = 12 days

Time taken by R alone = 18 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

⇒ Total work is LCM of 12 and 18 = 36 units.

⇒ Combined efficiency of P, Q, and R = (Efficiency of P + Q) + (Efficiency of R)

⇒ Total Efficiency = 3 + 2 = 5 units/day

⇒ Time taken by P, Q, and R = 36 ÷ 5

⇒ Time taken = 7.2 days

∴ The correct answer is 7.2 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

The time taken to complete a work is inversely proportional to the efficiency of the worker (Time = 1/Efficiency).

Total Work Assumption

Assuming Total Work as the LCM of given time periods makes calculations easier by providing integer values for efficiency.

Combined Rate Rule

If multiple people work together, their individual efficiencies (work done per unit time) are added to find the total work rate.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance to be covered = 250 + 350 = 600 m

Relative speed (Opposite direction) = Total distance ÷ Time = 600 ÷ 60 = 10 m/s

Since speeds are equal, speed of each train = 10 ÷ 2 = 5 m/s

Convert m/s to km/hr: 5 × (18/5) = 18 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 18 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of Train A = 250 m

Length of Train B = 350 m

Crossing time = 60 sec

Speed of Train A = Speed of Train B = S

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = Speed₁ + Speed₂

Distance = Relative Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = 250 + 350 = 600 m

⇒ Relative Speed = S + S = 2S

⇒ 2S = 600 ÷ 60

⇒ 2S = 10 m/s

⇒ S = 5 m/s

⇒ To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5

⇒ Speed = 5 × (18/5) = 18 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 18 km/hr.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Opposite Direction

When two objects move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds: V_rel = V₁ + V₂.

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two objects move in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference between their speeds: V_rel = |V₁ − V₂|.

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Crossing Stationary Objects

When a train crosses a pole or a man, distance = length of train. When it crosses a platform or bridge, distance = length of train + length of platform.

Shortcut Trick

The speed per hour forms an Arithmetic Progression (AP): 22, 30, 38, ...

Distance after n hours = (n/2) × [2 × Initial Speed + (n − 1) × Increment]

Check options: For n = 6 ⇒ (6/2) × [2(22) + (6 − 1)8] = 3 × [44 + 40] = 3 × 84 = 252 km.

Since the sum matches the total distance, the time taken is 6 hr.

∴ The correct answer is 6 hr.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial speed (a) = 22 km/hr, Increment (d) = 8 km/hr, Total distance (S_n) = 252 km.

Formula Used: Sum of AP, S_n = (n/2)[2a + (n − 1)d]

⇒ 252 = (n/2) × [2 × 22 + (n − 1) × 8]

⇒ 252 = (n/2) × [44 + 8n − 8]

⇒ 252 = (n/2) × [36 + 8n]

⇒ 252 = n × (18 + 4n)

⇒ 252 = 18n + 4n²

⇒ 4n² + 18n − 252 = 0

⇒ 2n² + 9n − 126 = 0

⇒ 2n² + 21n − 12n − 126 = 0

⇒ n(2n + 21) − 6(2n + 21) = 0

⇒ (n − 6)(2n + 21) = 0

⇒ n = 6 (Since time cannot be negative)

∴ The correct answer is 6 hr.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Progression (AP) Sum

The sum of the first n terms of an AP is given by S_n = (n/2)[2a + (n − 1)d], where a is the first term and d is the common difference.

General Term of AP

The n^th term of an AP is calculated as T_n = a + (n − 1)d. In this question, it represents the speed in the n^th hour.

Quadratic Formula

For an equation ax² + bx + c = 0, the roots are found using x = [−b ± √(b² − 4ac)] / 2a.

Shortcut Trick

Discount 30% = 3/10 → MP : SP = 10 : 7

Discount 20% = 1/5 → MP : SP = 5 : 4

Multiply corresponding parts: (10 × 5) : (7 × 4) = 50 : 28

On simplifying, 50 : 28 ÷ 2 = 25 : 14

∴ The correct answer is 25 : 14.

Alternate Method

Given: First discount = 30%, Second discount = 20%

Formula: Net Discount = d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100

⇒ Let Marked Price = 100 units

⇒ After 30% discount, Price = 100 − (30% of 100) = 100 − 30 = 70 units

⇒ After 20% discount on remaining, Selling Price = 70 − (20% of 70) = 70 − 14 = 56 units

⇒ Ratio of MP to SP = 100 : 56

⇒ Dividing both sides by 4, we get 25 : 14

∴ The correct answer is 25 : 14.

Additional Information

Successive Discount Formula

For two successive discounts of a% and b%, the equivalent single discount is (a + b − ab/100)%.

Relation Between MP and SP

Selling Price = Marked Price × (1 − d₁/100) × (1 − d₂/100), where d represents discount percentages.

Markup and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP), while Profit or Loss is calculated on the Cost Price (CP).

The correct answer is 'with a pinch of salt'.

 

Key Points

• The idiom 'with a pinch of salt' means to view something with skepticism or to not believe that something is completely accurate or true.
• In the context of the sentence, Rohan likes Mohan, so he chooses not to take Mohan's harsh words too seriously or literally.
• The other options such as 'with a jar of sugar', 'with a sheet of paper', and 'with a bar of chocolate' are not recognized idioms in the English language.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Rohan likes Mohan very much and the former takes the latter's harsh words with a pinch of salt.

Additional Information

• The phrase 'with a grain of salt' is a common synonym for 'with a pinch of salt', used primarily in American English.
• This idiom is often used when someone is known to exaggerate or when a statement lacks verified evidence.

The correct answer is: silly.

Key Points

• The word 'absurd' refers to something that is wildly unreasonable, illogical, or completely inappropriate. (बेतुका)
• Example: It is absurd to think that you can fly just by flapping your arms.
• 'silly' means having or showing a lack of common sense or judgment; it is often used to describe something foolish or ridiculous, making it the closest synonym to absurd. (मूर्खतापूर्ण)
• Example: Stop making silly faces and pay attention to the lesson.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate synonym of 'absurd' is 'silly'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: silly.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• sensible (समझदार): Choosing or acting with good sense and practicality.
• Example: It would be sensible to take an umbrella since the sky looks cloudy.
• Logical (तार्किक): Something based on clear reasoning or sound principles.
• Example: There is a logical explanation for why the machine stopped working.
• Smart (होशियार): Having or showing a quick-witted intelligence or being neat in appearance.
• Example: She is a smart student who always finishes her work on time.

The correct answer is illegaly.

Key Points

• The word illegaly is the misspelt word in the given sentence.
• The correct spelling is illegally, which requires a double 'l' before the suffix.
• In English orthography, when an adjective ends in the letter 'l' (such as illegal), the suffix -ly is added to form an adverb, resulting in the double 'l' spelling (illegally).
• This word functions as an adverb of manner in the sentence, modifying the participle 'detaining' to indicate that the action was performed in a way that violates the law.
• Other examples of this rule include final becoming finally and formal becoming formally.

 Additional Information

• Tribunal:
• This is a noun referring to a judicial body or a court of justice established to settle specific types of disputes or claims.
• In international law, it often refers to bodies like the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea.
• Breaching:
• This is the present participle form of the verb breach, which means to break or fail to observe a law, agreement, or code of conduct.
• Commonly used in legal contexts such as a breach of contract or breaching international treaties.
• Suppressing:
• This verb means to forcibly end or prevent the expression of something, such as dissent, opposition, or information.
• It is spelled correctly with a double 'p' and a double 's'.

The correct answer is: Option (3) i.e. suspention.

Key Points

• The word 'suspention' is a misspelt word that does not exist in the English dictionary; it is often used incorrectly in place of its phonetic counterpart. (अशुद्ध वर्तनी)
• Example: The teacher pointed out that the word 'suspention' in the student's paper was an error.
• 'Suspension' is the correct spelling, which refers to the act of stopping something for a period of time or the state of being temporarily barred from a place or position. (निलंबन)
• Example: The board of directors ordered a suspension of the new project due to budget cuts.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word among the given options is 'suspention'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- suspention.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Innovation (नवाचार): The introduction of new things, ideas, or ways of doing something.
• Example: The company's focus on innovation has helped it stay ahead of its competitors.
• Invention (आविष्कार): The creation of something that has never been made before.
• Example: The invention of the light bulb revolutionized the way people lived after dark.
• Revelation (रहस्योद्घाटन): The act of making known a surprising and previously secret fact.
• Example: The documentary provided a shocking revelation about the history of the ancient ruins.

The correct answer is: Release.

Key Points

• The word 'reserve' means to keep something back or set it aside for a particular person or for later use; it involves holding something in store. (आरक्षित करना / बचा कर रखना)
• Example: I would like to reserve a table for two for tonight at 8 PM.
• 'Release' refers to the act of allowing something to move, act, or flow freely, or to let go of something that was being held back; it is the direct opposite of keeping or reserving something. (मुक्त करना / छोड़ना)
• Example: The committee decided to release the funds for the new project immediately.
• Hence, we can infer that the most opposite word for 'reserve' is 'release'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Release.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Withhold (रोक लेना): To refuse to give something that is due or desired.
• Example: The bank decided to withhold the payment until the documents were verified.
• Allocate (आवंटित करना): To distribute resources or duties for a particular purpose.
• Example: The government will allocate more budget for healthcare this year.
• Accumulate (संचित करना / जमा करना): To gather together or acquire an increasing number or quantity of something.
• Example: Dust tends to accumulate very quickly in this old house.

The correct answer is 'see'.

 

Key Points

• The word 'see' is a verb that means to perceive with the eyes. (देखना)
• In the given sentence, the auxiliary 'did not' must be followed by the base form of the main verb to indicate a past action.
• Among the given options, 'see' is the only word that fits both the grammatical structure and the logical context of noticing a vehicle.
• The other options are either nouns or contextually irrelevant.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: The boy did not see the car coming from the other side.

Additional Information

• Sea (समुद्र): A noun referring to the large body of salt water that covers most of the Earth.
• Scene (दृश्य): A noun referring to the place where an incident occurs or a sequence in a movie/play.
• Sin (पाप): A noun or verb referring to an immoral act or a transgression against divine law.

The correct answer is Option (2) i.e. Anagram.

Key Points

• The phrase 'a word formed by rearranging the letters of another word' refers to a linguistic process where the letters of a word are rearranged to create a new word or phrase. (किसी शब्द के अक्षरों को फिर से व्यवस्थित करके बनाया गया शब्द)
• Example: The word 'silent' can be rearranged to form 'listen'.
• An 'Anagram' is a word or phrase formed by rearranging the letters of a different word or phrase, typically using all the original letters exactly once. (एनाग्राम / वर्णविपर्यय)
• Example: 'Dormitory' is an anagram of 'Dirty room'.
• Hence, we can infer that a word formed by rearranging the letters of another word is an 'anagram'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Anagram.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Acronym (परिवर्णी शब्द / संक्षिप्त नाम): An abbreviation formed from the initial letters of other words and pronounced as a word.
• Example: 'NASA' is an acronym for National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
• Homonym (समनाम / समानार्थक शब्द): Each of two or more words having the same spelling or pronunciation but different meanings.
• Example: The word 'bark' can mean the sound a dog makes or the outer covering of a tree.
• Synonym (पर्यायवाची / समानार्थी शब्द): A word or phrase that means exactly or nearly the same as another word or phrase in the same language.
• Example: 'Huge' is a synonym for 'Enormous'.

The correct answer is 'down'.

 

Key Points

• The phrasal verb 'knock down' means to strike someone or something so that they fall to the ground.
• In the context of a boxing match, it is the standard term used when a fighter is hit and falls to the canvas.
• The sentence refers to the historic 1988 heavyweight title fight where Mike Tyson defeated Larry Holmes.
• Therefore, Option 3 is the grammatically and contextually correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: "Mike Tyson knocked Larry Holmes down in 1988 in a boxing match."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'Up' is incorrect; 'knock up' has different informal meanings (such as to make someone pregnant or to wake someone) that do not fit the sports context.
• Option 2: 'into' is incorrect; 'knock into' means to collide with someone or something by accident.
• Option 4: 'away' is incorrect; 'knock away' means to hit something so that it moves to a distance, but it is not the standard term for floorng an opponent in boxing.

The correct answer is This festival has been celebrated for centuries..

Key Points

• The sentence provided is in the Active Voice and follows the structure of the Present Perfect Tense: Subject (People) + have + Verb (Past Participle) + Object (this festival).
• To convert a sentence from Active Voice to Passive Voice in the Present Perfect Tense, the object of the active sentence becomes the new subject. The formula used is: New Subject + has/have + been + Past Participle (V3) + (by + Agent).
• In this case, this festival is a singular noun. Therefore, according to the rules of Subject-Verb Agreement, it must be followed by the auxiliary has been rather than have been.
• The Past Participle form of the verb celebrate remains celebrated in the passive construction.
• Generic or indefinite subjects like people, someone, they, or somebody are typically omitted in the passive voice because the emphasis is on the action or the receiver of the action.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of incorrect options:
• Tense Mismatch: Option (3) uses is celebrated, which is the Simple Present Passive, while Option (4) uses was celebrated, which is the Simple Past Passive. Neither maintains the original Present Perfect context.
• Grammatical Error: Option (2) uses have been, which is plural. This creates an error in concord because the subject this festival is singular.
• Function of Passive Voice: It is used when the action is more important than the actor, or when the actor is unknown or obvious.

The correct answer is Are the municipal workers repairing the road after last week's heavy rains?.

Key Points

• The given sentence is an interrogative sentence written in the Passive Voice of the Present Continuous Tense, identified by the structure Is + Subject + being + V3.
• According to the rules of English Grammar, the passive structure for Present Continuous questions is: Is/Am/Are + Subject + being + Past Participle (V3) + by + Agent?
• To convert this into Active Voice, the Agent (the municipal workers) becomes the new Subject, and the Subject (the road) becomes the Object.
• Since the municipal workers is a plural noun, the auxiliary verb Are must be used at the beginning of the active sentence to maintain Subject-Verb Agreement.
• The verb phrase being repaired is converted into its active present participle form, which is repairing (V1 + ing).
• The standard active structure for this tense is: Is/Am/Are + Subject + Present Participle (Verb-ing) + Object? Following this logic, the sentence becomes: Are the municipal workers repairing the road after last week's heavy rains?

 Additional Information

• When converting voice, the tense of the sentence must remain unchanged. The incorrect options represent different linguistic tenses:
• Simple Present Tense: Option 2 uses Do ... repair, which describes habitual actions rather than ongoing ones.
• Present Perfect Tense: Option 3 uses Have ... repaired, which indicates a completed action in the recent past.
• Simple Past Tense: Option 4 uses Did ... repair, which is used for actions that occurred and finished at a specific time in the past.

The correct answer is 'with'.

 

Key Points

• The verb experiment is followed by the preposition with when it refers to trying out a new idea, method, or thing to see how it works or what its effects are.
• In this context, the phrase experimenting with is used because the girls are trying out new types of hairstyles.
• Other prepositions like in, for, or oy (which is not a standard preposition) do not fit the idiomatic usage of the verb in this sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The urban girls are experimenting with new types of hairstyles.'

 

Additional Information

• Experiment on: This is used when the experiment is being conducted upon a subject (e.g., Scientists experiment on lab rats).
• Experiment in: This is used when referring to a specific field or branch of knowledge (e.g., She conducted an experiment in organic chemistry).

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes the historical journey of Balboa to find the Pacific Ocean. It follows a chronological sequence from the decision to the discovery.
• Sentence D follows S1 as it describes the immediate action taken after Balboa made up his mind to find the sea, detailing his preparations and departure:
• 'With two hundred men and a pack of bloodhounds to chase unfriendly Indians, he set off toward the mountains.'
• Sentence B follows D as it explains the progress and challenges of the journey mentioned in the previous sentence:
• 'The distance was not great, but the country was very rough, the forest was almost impassable, and the party had to move slowly.'
• Sentence A is the third sentence in the sequence, marking the arrival at the destination after the difficult travel described in B:
• 'After many days they came to the highest ridge of the mountains.'
• Sentence C is the fourth sentence as it describes the final individual action taken by Balboa upon reaching the ridge to get a clear view:
• 'Balboa climbed to the top of the loftiest peak and looked around.'
• The sequence concludes with S2, which describes what he saw from that peak: 'South and west of him he beheld a great sea.'
• The correct sequence is DBAC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'Balboa made up his mind to go at once in search of that sea. With two hundred men and a pack of bloodhounds to chase unfriendly Indians, he set off toward the mountains. The distance was not great, but the country was very rough, the forest was almost impassable, and the party had to move slowly. After many days they came to the highest ridge of the mountains. Balboa climbed to the top of the loftiest peak and looked around. South and west of him he beheld a great sea.'

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The paragraph follows a chronological sequence of events during a character's evening routine, moving from dinner to bedtime.
• Sentence D is the first sentence in the sequence as it transitions from the fixed sentence S1 (having dinner) to the character's preparation for bed:
• 'Then, after putting on a flannel robe and cold-creaming her face, she propped herself up in bed with a hot water bottle under her feet.'
• Sentence A follows D, describing the activity the character is performing while in bed and introducing the disruptive event:
• 'She was reading the Times when the doorbell rang.'
• Sentence C is the third sentence as it details the character's initial reaction to the doorbell:
• 'At first, she thought it must be a mistake and whoever it was would go away.'
• Sentence B is the fourth sentence because the word 'But' contrasts her initial hope that the caller would leave with the reality of the continuous noise:
• 'But it rang and rang and settled to a persistent buzz.'
• The sequence naturally leads to S2, where the character checks the clock and realizes it is after eleven, long past her usual bedtime.
• The correct sequence is DACB.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'That evening she scrambled eggs and fixed a bowl of tomato soup. Then, after putting on a flannel robe and cold-creaming her face, she propped herself up in bed with a hot water bottle under her feet. She was reading the Times when the doorbell rang. At first, she thought it must be a mistake and whoever it was would go away. But it rang and rang and settled to a persistent buzz. She looked at the clock: a little after eleven; it did not seem possible, she was always asleep by ten.'

The correct answer is and riding her bike in the park.

Key Points

• The sentence requires the use of parallel structure (parallelism), which dictates that items in a list or series must share the same grammatical form to ensure clarity and balance.
• The main verb enjoys is followed by a series of activities acting as its objects. The first two activities, hiking and swimming, are gerunds (the -ing form of a verb).
• For the third activity to be grammatically consistent with the established pattern, it must also be a gerund. The original phrase to ride is an infinitive, which creates a grammatical mismatch.
• By replacing to ride with riding, the sentence maintains a uniform structure: hiking, swimming, and riding.

 Additional Information

• Parallelism Rules:
• Parallelism is essential when using coordinating conjunctions like and to link phrases. Using a mixture of gerunds and infinitives in one series results in faulty parallelism.
• Consistency in form makes sentences easier to process and more professional in tone.
• Verbs Followed by Gerunds:
• In English grammar, specific verbs like enjoy, suggest, avoid, and finish are followed by the gerund form rather than the infinitive form.
• Option 1 uses the base form (ride), and Option 2 uses the infinitive (to ride); both are grammatically incorrect after the verb enjoy in this context.
• The phrase riding her bike correctly functions as the third direct object in the series.

The correct answer is usually gives place on weekends..

Key Points

• The error lies in the fourth part of the sentence where the phrase gives place is used incorrectly to describe the occurrence of an event.
• In English grammar, an event, occurrence, or scheduled gathering like a flea market is said to take place, not give place.
• The phrase takes place is a fixed idiomatic expression meaning to happen or occur, especially after being planned or organized.
• Therefore, the sentence should correctly read: '...a large flea market that is in a major city and usually takes place on weekends.'

 Additional Information

• Understanding the difference between Take place and Give place:
• Take place: Refers to the execution or occurrence of a scheduled event (e.g., The Olympics take place every four years).
• Give place to: A specific idiom meaning to be replaced, superseded, or to yield to something else (e.g., Winter gives place to spring).
• Flea Market: A location where multiple vendors sell second-hand goods, antiques, or handcrafted items; it is a count noun that requires a verb indicating its occurrence.
• Collocation: Using takes with place is a standard lexical collocation. Using gives in this context violates the semantic rules of verb-noun pairings.