SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 29 Apr, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

For 'XW' related to 'RP':

For 'AE' related to 'UX':

Applying the same logic to 'NY':

Thus, 'NY' is related to 'HR'.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

For the set (NF, QI, TL):

For the set (XO, AR, DU):

Applying the same logic to the options:

Checking (ZA, CD, FG):

The set (ZA, CD, FG) follows the same rule of adding 3 to each consecutive letter positional value.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Let us check the pairs provided in the options:

1. 1912 and 1923: 1912 is a leap year (divisible by 4), whereas 1923 is an ordinary year. Since their types differ, they cannot have identical calendars.

2. 1917 and 1923: Both are ordinary years. We calculate the sum of odd days starting from 1917 up to the beginning of 1923:

• 1917 (Ordinary Year) = 1 odd day
• 1918 (Ordinary Year) = 1 odd day
• 1919 (Ordinary Year) = 1 odd day
• 1920 (Leap Year) = 2 odd days
• 1921 (Ordinary Year) = 1 odd day
• 1922 (Ordinary Year) = 1 odd day

Total sum of odd days = 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 7 odd days.

Since 7 ÷ 7 = 0 remainder, the 1^st of January for both years falls on the same day of the week. As both are ordinary years, their entire calendars are identical.

3. 1921 and 1925: Both are ordinary years. Total odd days from 1921 to 1924 = 1 (1921) + 1 (1922) + 1 (1923) + 2 (1924) = 5 odd days. This is not a multiple of 7.

4. 1918 and 1924: 1918 is an ordinary year and 1924 is a leap year. Therefore, their calendars cannot be identical.

Therefore, the years 1917 and 1923 have identical calendars.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

5 teachers S, G, H, A and B are sitting in a row facing south (not necessarily in the same order).

1. B is to the immediate right of S.
2. A is fourth to the right of G.
3. H is to the left of S. 

S is sitting at third position from the right end of row.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

7 boys A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. Only four boys are to the right of C.
2. A is second to the left of C.
3. E is fifth to the right of D.
4. B is second to the left of G. 

G and E are immediate neighbour of each other.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given word: VEGETATION

(1) NEGOTIATED → Can not be formed as it requires the letter "D" which is not present in the given word.

(2) NEGATIVES → Can not be formed as it requires the letter "S" which is not present in the given word.

(3) VINTAGE → Can be formed as all the letters are present in the given word.

(4) VOTINGS → Can not be formed as it requires the letter "S" which is not present in the given word.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3.

Given word: ADMINISTRATION

(1) MIND → Can be formed as all the letters are present in the given word.

(2) RAIN → Can be formed as all the letters are present in the given word.

(3) ROAD → Can be formed as all the letters are present in the given word.

(4) ROYAL → Cannot be formed as the letter "Y" is not present in the given word.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is,

789 - 24 = 765

765 - 21 = 744

744 - 18 = 726

726 - 15 = 711

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Logic followed here is,

608 - 16 = 592 

592 - 16 = 576 

576 - 16 = 560

560 - 16 = 544

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is,

Thus, the missing term in the series is 4849.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4';

Pattern followed here is,

Similarity,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

PL446 : OK300 → 

KC356 : JB210 →

Similarly,

EZ550 : ?

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

For, KNP80 : NQS280 

For, ADI90 : DGL290

Similarly,

LVY100 : ?

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First Number − 51 = Second Number (or Fourth Number + 51 = Third Number)

For the first pair 7817 : 7766

⇒ 7817 − 51 = 7766

For the third pair 3063 : 3012

⇒ 3063 − 51 = 3012

Applying the same logic to find the third number from the fourth number

? : 4069

⇒ 4069 + 51 = 4120

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 2) − 9

For the second pair 77 : 145

⇒ (77 × 2) − 9

⇒ 154 − 9 = 145.

For the third pair 545 : 1081

⇒ (545 × 2) − 9

⇒ 1090 − 9 = 1081.

Applying the same logic to the first pair

23 : ?

⇒ (23 × 2) − 9

⇒ 46 − 9 = 37.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

VISE is coded as WMQA →

FLIT is coded as GPGP →

Similarly,

let us find the code for TWIN:

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The pattern observed is: (Sum of reverse positional values of letters) + 3.

CAST is coded as 68 →

Sum of reverse positional values = 24 + 26 + 8 + 7 = 65

Code = 65 + 3 = 68

TAPES is coded as 77 →

Sum of reverse positional values = 7 + 26 + 11 + 22 + 8 = 74

Code = 74 + 3 = 77

Similarly, let's find the code for LOAD:

Sum of reverse positional values = 15 + 12 + 26 + 23 = 76

Code = 76 + 3 = 79

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

1. Calculate the angle J at 2:50:

Here, H = 2 and M = 50.

Angle = |(60 × 2 − 11 × 50) / 2|

Angle = |(120 − 550) / 2|

Angle = |−430 / 2| = 215°

Since 215° is the reflex angle, the smaller interior angle (J) is:

J = 360° − 215° = 145°

2. Calculate the angle K at 7:20:

Here, H = 7 and M = 20.

Angle = |(60 × 7 − 11 × 20) / 2|

Angle = |(420 − 220) / 2|

Angle (K) = 200 / 2 = 100°

3. Find the difference between J and K:

Difference = 145° − 100° = 45°

Hence, the difference between J and K is 45°.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is Finance Commission.

Key Points

• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India to define the financial relations between the central government and the individual state governments.
• It is constituted by the President of India every five years or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary to ensure fiscal stability and cooperative federalism.
• The primary mandate of the commission is to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, commonly referred to as vertical devolution.
• It also determines the allocation of these tax proceeds among the states themselves, known as horizontal devolution, based on various criteria like fiscal capacity and demographic performance.
• The commission specifies the principles that govern Grants-in-aid to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India as per Article 275.
• Its recommendations are advisory in nature and are laid before both Houses of Parliament by the President under Article 281.
• The 15^th Finance Commission, chaired by N.K. Singh, recommended that the states be given 41% of the divisible pool of central taxes for the period 2021-2026.

 Additional Information

• NITI Aayog
• Established on January 1, 2015, it replaced the Planning Commission as the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
• It provides directional and policy inputs while fostering cooperative federalism through a bottom-up approach.
• Planning Commission
• Formed in 1950 as a non-constitutional and non-statutory body to formulate India's Five-Year Plans.
• It was dissolved in 2014 to make way for a more contemporary and collaborative institution.
• Parliament
• The supreme legislative body of India, governed by Articles 79 to 122 of the Constitution.
• While it approves the Union Budget and tax laws, it relies on the Finance Commission for professional recommendations on tax revenue sharing.

The correct answer is Reduce salaries of government employees.

Key Points

• Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if a situation has arisen where the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
• During the operation of a Financial Emergency, the executive authority of the Union extends to giving directions to any State to observe specified canons of financial propriety.
• The President is specifically authorized to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
• Furthermore, the President can direct that all money bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature be reserved for their consideration after they are passed.

 Additional Information

• Emergency Provisions in India:
• National Emergency (Article 352): This is declared due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. Under this, the President can suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (except Articles 20 and 21) as per Article 359.
• President's Rule (Article 356): This is imposed when the constitutional machinery in a state fails, allowing the President to dismiss State Governments and assume their functions.
• Dissolution of Parliament: While the President can dissolve the Lok Sabha under Article 85 on the advice of the Council of Ministers, it is not a specific feature or requirement of a Financial Emergency.
• Parliamentary Approval: A proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months by a simple majority and remains in force indefinitely until revoked.
• Historical Fact: To date, a Financial Emergency has never been declared in India, even during the severe economic crisis of 1991.

The correct answer is It uses many raga names still in use today.

Key Points

• The Raga Tarangini is a monumental work in the history of Indian classical music, authored by Pandit Lochana (also known as Lochan Kavi), who hailed from the Mithila region.
• The text is believed to have been composed around the 15^th century (specifically dated by many scholars to 1460 AD), serving as a crucial bridge between the ancient Gram-Murchana system and the modern Thaat or Mela system.
• Its primary importance lies in its nomenclature; it mentions and describes various ragas such as Bhairavi, Todi, Kafi, Kalyan, Sarang, and Kanada, which are still the backbone of modern Hindustani music.
• Pandit Lochana introduced a classification system based on 12 Melas (parent scales), which simplified the complex theoretical frameworks of earlier texts like the Sangeet Ratnakara.

 Additional Information

• Lochan Kavi's Contribution:
• His 12-Mela system acted as a precursor to the 10-Thaat classification system later standardized by Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande in the 20^th century.
• The work emphasizes the practical application of music, moving away from purely abstract ancient theories to reflect the actual performance practices of his time.
• Context of Other Options:
• Harmonium and Tabla: The Harmonium is a relatively modern instrument introduced to India in the 19^th century by European traders. While the Tabla is older, Raga Tarangini focuses on Melodic theory (Raga) rather than the introduction of these specific instruments.
• Southern Ragas: Although it shares the concept of Melas with Carnatic music, the text is fundamentally a pillar of North Indian or Hindustani musical evolution.
• Traditional Theories: Rather than rejecting traditional theories, the text evolved them to better suit the changing musical landscape of the medieval period.

The correct answer is The weight of the fluid displaced.

Key Points

• Archimedes' principle is a fundamental law in fluid mechanics formulated by the Greek mathematician and inventor Archimedes of Syracuse.
• The principle states that any object, wholly or partially immersed in a fluid (liquid or gas), is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object.
• This upward force is known as the buoyant force or upthrust, and it acts through the center of buoyancy of the displaced fluid.
• Mathematically, the buoyant force is calculated as F_b = ρ × V × g, where ρ represents the density of the fluid, V is the volume of the displaced fluid, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
• The magnitude of the buoyant force does not depend on the weight or the material of the submerged object, but strictly on the weight of the fluid it pushes aside.

 Additional Information

• Buoyancy and Density:
• The density of an object relative to the fluid determines whether it will sink or float.
• If the object's average density is less than that of the fluid, the buoyant force will be greater than the object's weight, causing it to rise and float.
• If the object's density is greater, it will sink as the gravitational pull exceeds the upthrust.
• Apparent Weight:
• An object submerged in a fluid appears to lose weight; this apparent weight is equal to the actual weight minus the buoyant force.
• Practical Applications:
• Shipbuilding: Huge steel ships float because their hollow structure displaces a volume of water whose weight is equal to the ship's own weight.
• Hydrometers: Used to measure the relative density of liquids based on the concept of buoyancy.
• Lactometers: Used to determine the purity of milk by measuring its density.
• Hot Air Balloons: They rise because the displaced air is heavier than the hot air and the structure of the balloon combined.

The correct answer is Chidambara.

Key Points

• Sumitranandan Pant was honored with the prestigious Jnanpith Award in the year 1968 for his poetic collection titled Chidambara.
• He was the first Hindi poet to receive the Jnanpith Award, which is India's highest literary honor, establishing a landmark in Hindi literature.
• Chidambara is a compilation of his selected poems that reflect his transition from the Chhayavaadi (Romantic) style to a more philosophical and humanistic approach influenced by the teachings of Sri Aurobindo.
• The work is highly acclaimed for its rhythmic structure, aesthetic sensibility, and the profound exploration of the universal consciousness and human spirit.

 Additional Information

• Sumitranandan Pant:
• Born in Kausani, Uttarakhand, he is famously known as the Prakriti ke Sukumar Kavi (Nature's Delicate Poet).
• He was one of the four main pillars of the Chhayavaad school of Hindi poetry.
• He was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 1961 and the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1960.
• Pallav:
• Published in 1928, it is considered one of the defining works of the Chhayavaad era, featuring a famous preface on Hindi poetics.
• Kala Aur Budhdha Chand:
• This collection earned him the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1960, showcasing his mastery over modern poetic forms.
• Veena:
• One of his earliest works published in 1927, primarily focusing on the raw beauty of nature and romantic themes.

The correct answer is Ganga and Brahmaputra.

Key Points

• The Sunderbans Delta, also known as the Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta, is the largest river delta in the world, located in the South Asia region.
• It is formed by the combined waters of the Ganga (Ganges) and Brahmaputra rivers, which empty into the Bay of Bengal after flowing through India and Bangladesh.
• The delta is a complex network of distributaries, islands, and tidal waterways, covering approximately 10,000 square kilometers of land and water.
• It is famously known for its vast mangrove forests, which act as a natural barrier against cyclones and storm surges from the ocean.
• The region is exceptionally fertile due to the continuous deposition of alluvial soil carried by the major river systems from the Himalayas.

 Additional Information

• Flora and Fauna:
• The delta is named after the Sundari tree (Heritiera fomes), which is the most dominant mangrove species in the area.
• It is the primary habitat for the Royal Bengal Tiger, known for its unique ability to swim in saline water.
• International Recognition:
• The Sunderbans National Park in India was designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1987.
• The entire area is recognized as a Ramsar Site, marking its status as a wetland of international importance.
• River Systems:
• While the Ganga and Brahmaputra are the primary architects, the Meghna River also merges with them in Bangladesh to form the final discharge.
• In contrast, the Godavari and Krishna rivers form a delta on the eastern coast of Andhra Pradesh, while the Mahanadi forms its delta in Odisha.

The correct answer is Western Himalayas.

Key Points

• The Himalayan mountain range exhibits a significant variation in its width from west to east, stretching across an arc of approximately 2,400 km.
• The Western Himalayas, which include the regions of Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, and parts of Himachal Pradesh, constitute the widest sector of the entire mountain system.
• In this western sector, the width of the mountains reaches approximately 400 km to 500 km, providing a broad geographical expanse for various sub-ranges like the Karakoram, Ladakh, and Zanskar.
• In stark contrast, the Eastern Himalayas, primarily located in Arunachal Pradesh, narrow down considerably to a width of about 150 km.
• The variation in width is geologically linked to the intensity of the tectonic compression between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate; the compression was more intense in the east, resulting in a narrower but steeper mountain profile.

 Additional Information

• Central Himalayas:
• This sector lies between the Kali River in the west and the Teesta River in the east, primarily covering the territory of Nepal.
• It serves as a transitional zone in terms of width and contains the highest peaks in the world, including Mount Everest.
• Shiwalik Himalayas:
• Also known as the Outer Himalayas, this is the southernmost and youngest range of the Himalayan system.
• Their width is quite small compared to the overall sector, ranging only from 10 km to 50 km, with altitudes rarely exceeding 1,500 meters.
• Eastern Himalayas:
• This region receives the highest monsoonal rainfall, leading to dense forest cover and high biodiversity.
• The abrupt rise from the Brahmaputra plains to high peaks is a hallmark of this narrower eastern sector.

The correct answer is Virat Kohli.

Key Points

• Virat Kohli was named the ICC Men's ODI Cricketer of the Year for 2023, marking his fourth win in this category (previously in 2012, 2017, and 2018), which is the most by any player.
• He had an exceptional year in One Day Internationals, scoring a total of 1,377 runs in 27 matches at a remarkable average of 72.47 and a strike rate of 99.13.
• During the 2023 ICC Men's Cricket World Cup hosted by India, Kohli broke the record for the most runs in a single edition of the tournament, amassing 765 runs in 11 innings.
• He reached a historic milestone during the World Cup semi-final against New Zealand by scoring his 50^th ODI century, surpassing the legendary Sachin Tendulkar's record of 49 centuries.
• His consistent performance throughout the year included six centuries and eight half-centuries, helping India reach the finals of the ODI World Cup and win the Asia Cup 2023.

 Additional Information

• Other major ICC Award winners for 2023 include:
• Pat Cummins: The Australian skipper won the Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy for ICC Men's Cricketer of the Year after leading his team to the WTC title and World Cup glory.
• Usman Khawaja: Named the ICC Men's Test Cricketer of the Year for his prolific run-scoring at the top of the order for Australia.
• Suryakumar Yadav: Won the ICC Men's T20I Cricketer of the Year for the second consecutive year due to his innovative batting and high strike rate.
• Rachin Ravindra: The New Zealand all-rounder was named the ICC Men's Emerging Cricketer of the Year.

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• The World Happiness Report uses six key variables to measure and explain the variation of self-reported happiness across different nations globally.
• GDP per Capita: This variable represents the economic power of a country and is adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) to reflect the relative living standards of its citizens.
• Social Support: This is measured by the national average of binary responses to the Gallup World Poll question asking if individuals have relatives or friends they can count on in times of trouble.
• Healthy Life Expectancy: This metric is derived from World Health Organization (WHO) data, estimating the number of years a person is expected to live in full health.
• Freedom to Make Life Choices: This captures the individual autonomy within a society, based on survey responses regarding satisfaction with the freedom to choose what to do with one's life.
• Generosity: This is calculated by comparing the average of responses on whether individuals have donated money to charity in the past month, adjusted for the country's GDP per capita.
• Perceptions of Corruption: This variable measures the trust in institutions by averaging responses on whether corruption is perceived as widespread in government and business sectors.

 Additional Information

• World Happiness Report (WHR) Context:
• The report is published annually by the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN).
• The ranking is primarily based on the Cantril Ladder, where respondents rate their own current lives on a scale of 0 to 10.
• Finland has frequently secured the top position as the happiest country in the world for several consecutive years.
• The report includes a benchmark called Dystopia, an imaginary country with the world's least-happy people, used as a regression baseline.
• The first report was launched in 2012 to support the UN High-Level Meeting on well-being and happiness.

The correct answer is 1960.

Key Points

• The India men's national football team made its last appearance at the Olympic Games during the 1960 Rome Olympics. Since then, the team has not been able to qualify for the final rounds of the tournament.
• In the 1960 Rome Olympics, India was drawn into a highly challenging group, often referred to as the Group of Death, which included Hungary, France, and Peru.
• During this tournament, India delivered one of its most spirited performances by holding France to a 1-1 draw, with the legendary Tulsidas Balaram scoring the equalizer.
• The team was led by P.K. Banerjee as the captain and coached by the visionary Syed Abdul Rahim, who is credited with the Golden Era of Indian football between 1951 and 1962.
• Despite the draw against France, India lost to Hungary (2-1) and Peru (3-1), leading to an early exit from the competition, marking the end of India's consistent presence on the world stage at the Olympics.

 Additional Information

• 1956 Melbourne Olympics
• This was India's most successful Olympic campaign where they finished in 4^th place.
• Neville D'Souza became the first Asian to score a hat-trick in the Olympics during a 4-2 victory over Australia.
• India narrowly lost the bronze medal match to Bulgaria with a score of 3-0.
• Other Olympic Appearances
• India first participated in the 1948 London Olympics, which was their first major international tournament as an independent nation. They played barefoot and lost 2-1 to France.
• The team also participated in the 1952 Helsinki Olympics but suffered a heavy defeat against Yugoslavia in freezing conditions.
• Historical Context
• The decline in Olympic qualification coincided with the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and FIFA introducing age-restriction rules (U-23) for the tournament starting from 1992.

The correct answer is Event Horizon Telescope.

Key Points

• The Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) is a large telescope array consisting of a global network of radio telescopes that are synchronized to function as a single, Earth-sized virtual observatory.
• On April 10, 2019, the EHT collaboration released the first-ever direct visual image of a black hole and its shadow, marking a historic milestone in astrophysics.
• The image depicts the supermassive black hole located at the center of Messier 87 (M87), a massive galaxy in the Virgo galaxy cluster, situated approximately 55 million light-years from Earth.
• This feat was accomplished using Very Long Baseline Interferometry (VLBI), a technique that allows researchers to observe celestial objects with incredibly high angular resolution by combining signals from multiple stations.
• The observation revealed a bright, ring-like structure caused by the bending of light in the intense gravity around the black hole, which has a mass 6.5 billion times that of the Sun.

 Additional Information

• Hubble Space Telescope:
• Launched in 1990, it orbits Earth and provides high-resolution images in visible, ultraviolet, and near-infrared light.
• While it has provided indirect evidence of black holes through stellar movement, it cannot resolve the event horizon directly.
• Spitzer Space Telescope:
• Launched in 2003 as part of NASA’s Great Observatories program, it specialized in infrared astronomy.
• It was used to study the hidden regions of the universe, such as dusty nebulae and the centers of galaxies, before being decommissioned in 2020.
• Kepler Space Telescope:
• Launched in 2009, its primary mission was to discover Earth-sized planets orbiting other stars.
• It used the transit method to identify over 2,700 confirmed exoplanets during its operational lifetime.

The correct answer is 117 N.

Key Points

• Mass is an intrinsic property of matter that represents the amount of substance in an object and remains constant regardless of the gravitational environment; in this case, the astronaut's mass is 70 kg.
• Weight is a measure of the gravitational force exerted on an object and is calculated using the formula Weight (W) = mass (m) × acceleration due to gravity (g).
• The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s², but for many standardized calculations and competitive exams, it is approximated as 10 m/s² to facilitate cleaner arithmetic.
• The Moon's gravity is significantly weaker than Earth's, specifically about 1/6^th of the gravitational pull found on Earth's surface.
• To find the weight on the Moon, we first determine the weight on Earth (70 kg × 10 m/s² = 700 N) and then divide by 6, or directly multiply the mass by the Moon's gravity: 70 kg × (10 / 6) m/s².
• The resulting calculation 700 / 6 equals approximately 116.67 N, which, when rounded to the nearest whole number, gives 117 N.

 Additional Information

• Fundamental Differences:
• Mass is a scalar quantity measured in kilograms (kg) using a beam balance and does not change with location.
• Weight is a vector quantity measured in Newtons (N) using a spring balance and varies based on the gravitational field strength.
• Gravitational Values:
• The precise value for gravity on Earth is 9.807 m/s², while on the Moon, it is approximately 1.62 m/s².
• If using 9.8 m/s², the weight on Earth is 686 N, and 1/6^th of that is roughly 114.3 N; however, the option 117 N aligns with the standard g = 10 m/s² approximation.
• This distinction is vital for physics problems where the choice of the gravitational constant (9.8 vs 10) can slightly alter the final numerical result.

The correct answer is 1960s.

Key Points

• The Minimum Support Price (MSP) system was established in India during the 1960s to stabilize agricultural prices and ensure food security.
• The Agricultural Prices Commission (APC) was constituted in January 1965 to suggest appropriate price policies for agricultural commodities.
• The first MSP was declared by the Government of India for Wheat in the 1966-67 marketing season, following the recommendations of the L.K. Jha Committee.
• The policy was a key component of the Green Revolution strategy, intended to encourage farmers to adopt high-yielding varieties (HYV) and modern agricultural practices without fear of price crashes.
• It serves as a floor price, acting as a guarantee from the government to purchase crops at a fixed rate if market prices fall below the set threshold.

 Additional Information

• Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP):
• In March 1985, the Agricultural Prices Commission was renamed the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
• The CACP is a statutory body under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare that recommends MSP for various crops based on production costs.
• The final decision on MSP levels is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), which is chaired by the Prime Minister.
• Currently, the government announces MSP for 22 mandated crops, including 14 Kharif crops, 6 Rabi crops, and 2 commercial crops (Jute and Copra), along with the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for Sugarcane.
• The price determination factors include cost of production, demand-supply balance, price trends in domestic and international markets, and terms of trade between agricultural and non-agricultural sectors.

The correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• The Make in India initiative was officially launched by the Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi, on September 25, 2014, at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
• It is a major national program designed to facilitate investment, foster innovation, enhance skill development, protect Intellectual Property, and build best-in-class manufacturing infrastructure within the country.
• The initiative is spearheaded by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• The primary objective of the program is to increase the manufacturing sector growth to 12−14% per annum and to raise the sector's contribution to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) from 16% to 25% by 2025.
• It aims to create 100 million additional manufacturing jobs in the Indian economy by 2022 (later revised) to harness the country's demographic dividend.

 Additional Information

• Four Pillars of Make in India:
• New Processes: Improving the Ease of Doing Business through deregulation and the introduction of the e-Biz portal for single-window clearances.
• New Infrastructure: Developing Industrial Corridors, Smart Cities, and integrating state-of-the-art technology to support logistics and supply chains.
• New Sectors: Opening up Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in 25 focal sectors, including significant liberalization in Defense, Railways, and Space.
• New Mindset: Changing the role of government from a regulator to a business facilitator.
• Key Highlights:
• The Logo of the initiative is a striding lion made of cogs, symbolizing manufacturing, strength, and national pride.
• The program promotes the Zero Defect Zero Effect slogan, which encourages high-quality manufacturing with zero environmental impact.
• Focal sectors include Automobiles, Aviation, Biotechnology, Chemicals, Electronic Systems, Food Processing, and Renewable Energy.

The correct answer is Bhargavastra.

Key Points

• In 2025, India successfully developed and tested Bhargavastra, an advanced indigenous micro-missile system.
• The system is specifically engineered to counter modern asymmetric threats, focusing on the destruction of unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), low-flying aerial platforms, and light tactical ground assets.
• It incorporates high-end miniaturized seeker technology and precision-guided solid propulsion, ensuring high kill probability with a minimized collateral damage footprint.
• The Bhargavastra is highly versatile and capable of integration with man-portable air-defense systems (MANPADS), combat drones, and light utility vehicles.

 Additional Information

• Astra-II:
• It is a next-generation Beyond-Visual-Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
• It utilizes an advanced dual-pulse solid rocket motor to intercept highly maneuvering supersonic aerial targets at ranges exceeding 160 kilometers.
• Pralay:
• It is a canisterized, surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile (SRBM) developed for the tactical regiment of the Indian Army.
• It features a payload capacity of 350 kg to 1000 kg with an operational strike range of 150 to 500 kilometers.
• Vibhavasu:
• Representing conceptual high-energy or thermal research parameters, it does not denote any active tactical micro-missile system in India's current weapon catalog.

The correct answer is Wholesale Price Index.

Key Points

• The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is a primary measure used to track the changes in the price of goods traded and sold in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
• In India, the Office of Economic Adviser, under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is responsible for compiling and releasing the WPI data on a monthly basis.
• The base year for the current WPI series in India is 2011-12, which provides a benchmark for comparing price fluctuations over time.
• The index specifically tracks price movements at the producer level or the 'first point of sale', providing insights into the inflationary pressures within the production and manufacturing sectors.
• The WPI basket consists of three major commodity groups: Manufactured Products (which carries the highest weightage at 64.23%), Primary Articles (22.62%), and Fuel and Power (13.15%).
• Unlike other indices, the WPI only accounts for goods and does not include the price changes of services, making it a specialized tool for industrial and commercial price analysis.

 Additional Information

• Consumer Price Index (CPI)
• Measures the average change in prices paid by retail consumers for a basket of goods and services.
• It is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) and is the primary tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for inflation targeting and monetary policy.
• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) Deflator
• A comprehensive measure of inflation that reflects the prices of all domestically produced final goods and services in an economy.
• Calculated as the ratio of Nominal GDP to Real GDP multiplied by 100.
• Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
• An indicator that measures the growth rate in different industry groups of the economy in a fixed period.
• It tracks the physical volume of production rather than prices and is published by the NSO under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

The correct answer is High dependence on monsoonal variability.

Key Points

• Indian agriculture is famously described as a gamble on the monsoons because approximately 52% of the country’s Net Sown Area remains rainfed, lacking access to assured irrigation.
• The Southwest Monsoon (June to September) provides nearly 75% of India’s total annual precipitation, making the Kharif crop cycle entirely dependent on the timing and spatial distribution of these rains.
• Structural vulnerability arises from temporal and spatial variability; even a slight delay in the monsoon onset or prolonged dry spells can lead to massive crop failures and reduced yields in water-intensive crops like paddy and sugarcane.
• High dependence on rainfall limits the cropping intensity (the ability to grow more than one crop a year), as many farmers cannot sustain a Rabi season crop without significant groundwater or canal support.
• Climatic phenomena such as El Niño frequently disrupt rainfall patterns, causing droughts that directly impact the Agricultural GDP and national food security.

 Additional Information

• Mitigation Strategies:
• The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) was launched to achieve Har Khet Ko Pani (Water for every field) and improve water-use efficiency through Per Drop More Crop.
• Development of climate-resilient and drought-tolerant seed varieties is being prioritized by organizations like ICAR.
• Analysis of Other Constraints:
• Inadequacy of Fertile Soils: While soil erosion is a challenge, India possesses vast tracts of naturally fertile Alluvial and Black Cotton soils; thus, it is not the primary limiting factor compared to water.
• Agricultural Labor: India actually experiences disguised unemployment in rural areas, meaning there is a surplus of labor rather than a chronic shortage.
• Market Linkages: Weaknesses in the supply chain and e-NAM integration affect farmers' income and price realization rather than the physical productivity of the land itself.

The correct answer is December 2024.

Key Points

• The Ministry of Education officially notified the scrapping of the No-Detention Policy for Class 5 and Class 8 in schools under the Central Government in December 2024.
• This move allows central government-run institutions, such as Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVs) and Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs), to hold back students if they fail to clear the prescribed examinations.
• The decision is based on the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Act, 2019, which modified the original RTE Act of 2009 to give states and the Centre the power to decide on detention.
• According to the notification, students who fail the regular examination will be given remedial coaching and a opportunity for a re-examination within two months of the declaration of results.
• If a student fails the re-examination, the educational institution is now authorized to detain the child in the same grade to ensure they achieve the required learning outcomes.

 Additional Information

• No-Detention Policy (NDP):
• Originally implemented under Section 16 of the RTE Act, 2009, it mandated that no child be held back in any class until the completion of elementary education (up to Class 8).
• The primary objective was to reduce school dropout rates and eliminate the fear of failure among children aged 6 to 14 years.
• Reasons for Scrapping:
• Several committees, including the T.S.R. Subramanian Committee, highlighted that the policy led to a lack of accountability and a significant decline in academic standards and learning levels.
• Data from the National Achievement Survey (NAS) indicated that many students in higher classes lacked basic literacy and numeracy skills.
• Alignment with NEP 2020:
• The National Education Policy 2020 emphasizes a shift toward competency-based learning and regular assessment to track the progress of students effectively throughout their schooling.

The correct answer is Saadat Ali Khan.

Key Points

• Saadat Ali Khan I, also known as Burhan-ul-Mulk, was the founder of the independent state of Awadh in 1722. He served as the Subahdar of Awadh under the Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah and was never associated with the administration of Bengal.
• Alivardi Khan was the Nawab of Bengal from 1740 to 1756. He was a strong ruler who seized power after defeating Sarfaraz Khan in the Battle of Giria and is noted for his successful military campaigns against the Maratha invaders.
• Sirajuddaulah, the grandson of Alivardi Khan, was the Nawab of Bengal from 1756 to 1757. His reign is historically significant due to the Battle of Plassey in June 1757, where he was defeated by the British East India Company forces led by Robert Clive.
• Mir Qasim served as the Nawab of Bengal from 1760 to 1763. He succeeded his father-in-law Mir Jafar with British support but later formed an alliance with the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and Shuja-ud-Daula of Awadh to fight the British in the Battle of Buxar in 1764.

 Additional Information

• Nawabs of Bengal Dynasty:
• Murshid Quli Khan (1717−1727) was the first independent Nawab who transferred the capital from Dacca to Murshidabad.
• The Nawabi rule effectively ended after the Battle of Buxar, leading to the Treaty of Allahabad in 1765, which granted Diwani Rights to the British.
• Nawabs of Awadh Dynasty:
• Saadat Ali Khan I was responsible for establishing a semi-independent state as the Mughal Empire declined. He was succeeded by Safdar Jung.
• The Awadh rulers were known for their patronage of Urdu literature, architecture, and the distinct Lucknowi culture before the state was annexed in 1856.

The correct answer is Awadh.

Key Points

• Sir Henry Lawrence was a prominent British military officer and administrator who was appointed as the Chief Commissioner of Awadh (Oudh) in March 1857.
• He arrived in Lucknow just weeks before the outbreak of the Great Revolt of 1857, tasked with stabilizing the province after its controversial annexation by the British.
• Lawrence is best remembered for his leadership during the Siege of Lucknow; he anticipated the rebellion and moved the British population and loyal Indian troops into the fortified Lucknow Residency.
• His strategic foresight in stockpiling provisions and strengthening the defenses of the Residency complex is credited with the survival of the garrison during the prolonged siege.
• During the conflict, Lawrence was severely wounded by a fragment of an exploding shell on July 2, 1857, and succumbed to his injuries on July 4, 1857.

 Additional Information

• Awadh (Oudh):
• The province was formally annexed by Lord Dalhousie in 1856 on the grounds of maladministration by the then-ruler, Wajid Ali Shah.
• This annexation caused widespread resentment among the Taluqdars and the Bengal Army sepoys, many of whom hailed from this region, making it a major center of the 1857 uprising.
• Punjab:
• Before his posting in Awadh, Henry Lawrence served as the President of the Board of Administration in Punjab following its annexation in 1849.
• His brother, John Lawrence, was the Chief Commissioner of Punjab during the 1857 revolt and later became the Viceroy of India.
• Odisha and Maharashtra:
• While these regions saw localized disturbances, they were not the primary administrative focus of Henry Lawrence during the peak of the 1857 rebellion.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the bracketed part first: 39 + 24 = 63.

Group all positive integers: 92 + 58 + 63 + 41 = 254.

Group all negative integers: 66 + 73 = 139.

Calculate the final difference: 254 − 139 = 115.

∴ The correct answer is 115.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 92 + 58 − 66 + (39 + 24) − 73 + 41

Follow the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):

⇒ 92 + 58 − 66 + 63 − 73 + 41

⇒ 150 − 66 + 63 − 73 + 41

⇒ 84 + 63 − 73 + 41

⇒ 147 − 73 + 41

⇒ 74 + 41

⇒ 115

∴ The correct answer is 115.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

The BODMAS acronym helps remember the order of operations: Brackets first, then Orders (powers/roots), followed by Division and Multiplication, and finally Addition and Subtraction.

Commutative Property

In expressions involving only addition and subtraction, terms can be rearranged or grouped as long as the sign preceding each number remains attached to it.

Simplification Tip

When dealing with multiple terms, adding all positive numbers together and all negative numbers together before taking the final difference reduces the risk of calculation errors.

Shortcut Trick

Apply BODMAS: 84 − (63 ÷ 7) + (36 × 2) − 19 + (45 ÷ 5)

⇒ 84 − 9 + 72 − 19 + 9

Note: The terms −9 and +9 cancel each other out.

⇒ 84 + 72 − 19 = 156 − 19 = 137

∴ The correct answer is 137.

Alternate Method

Given: 84 − 63 ÷ 7 + (36 × 2) − 19 + 45 ÷ 5

Following the BODMAS rule (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):

Step 1: Solve Bracket

⇒ 84 − 63 ÷ 7 + 72 − 19 + 45 ÷ 5

Step 2: Solve Division

⇒ 84 − 9 + 72 − 19 + 9

Step 3: Solve Addition

⇒ (84 + 72 + 9) − 9 − 19

⇒ 165 − 28

Step 4: Solve Subtraction

⇒ 137

∴ The correct answer is 137.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It specifies the order of mathematical operations: Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Left to Right Rule

When operations of the same priority (like Division and Multiplication, or Addition and Subtraction) appear together, solve them from left to right.

Sign Convention

Always group positive numbers together and negative numbers together before the final subtraction to minimize calculation errors.

Shortcut Trick

Compare the base fraction 7/13 with the options using cross-multiplication.

For 7/13 and 4/7: Multiply 7 × 7 and 13 × 4.

7 × 7 = 49 and 13 × 4 = 52.

Since 52 > 49, the fraction 4/7 is greater than 7/13.

∴ The correct answer is 4/7.

Alternate Method

Convert the given fraction and the options into decimal values to compare their magnitudes.

Given: 7/13

⇒ Base fraction: 7/13 ≈ 0.5384

⇒ Option (1): 8/15 ≈ 0.5333 (Smaller)

⇒ Option (2): 21/40 = 0.5250 (Smaller)

⇒ Option (3): 14/27 ≈ 0.5185 (Smaller)

⇒ Option (4): 4/7 ≈ 0.5714 (Greater)

⇒ Comparing the values: 0.5714 > 0.5384.

∴ The correct answer is 4/7.

Additional Information

Cross-Multiplication Rule

For two fractions a/b and c/d, if a × d > b × c, then a c/d. If a × d < b × c, then a/b < c/d.

Comparison of Like Numerators

If two fractions have the same numerator, the fraction with the smaller denominator is the larger value.

LCD Method

Fractions can be compared by converting them to a Common Denominator using the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the denominators.

Shortcut Trick

Count the decimal places: 0.625 (3 places) and 0.00625 (5 places).

Shift the decimal 5 places to the right for both numbers to remove the decimal from the divisor.

0.625 → 62500 and 0.00625 → 625.

Perform the division: 62500 ÷ 625 = 100.

∴ The correct answer is 100.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression: 0.625 ÷ 0.00625

Method: Convert decimals into fractions for simplification.

⇒ 0.625 = 625/1000

⇒ 0.00625 = 625/100000

⇒ (625/1000) ÷ (625/100000)

⇒ (625/1000) × (100000/625)

⇒ (625 ÷ 625) × (100000 ÷ 1000)

⇒ 1 × 100

⇒ 100

∴ The correct answer is 100.

Additional Information

Scientific Notation

A number can be expressed as a × 10ⁿ. For 0.625, it is 6.25 × 10⁻¹, and for 0.00625, it is 6.25 × 10⁻³. Division results in subtraction of exponents.

Dividing by Powers of 10

To divide a decimal by 10, 100, or 1000, move the decimal point to the left by as many places as there are zeros in the divisor.

BODMAS Rule

In complex expressions, always follow the order: Brackets, Orders, Division/Multiplication, and Addition/Subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the expression as the Algebraic Identity: a³ − b³ − 3ab(a − b) = (a − b)³.

Here, a = 45 and b = 30, so (a − b) = 15.

The expression simplifies to 15³.

15³ = 15 × 15 × 15 = 3375.

∴ The correct answer is 3375.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 45³ − 30³ − 3 × 45 × 30 × 15

Formula Used: (a − b)³ = a³ − b³ − 3ab(a − b)

⇒ Let a = 45 and b = 30.

⇒ Then (a − b) = 45 − 30 = 15.

⇒ Substituting these values into the identity:

⇒ 45³ − 30³ − 3 × 45 × 30 × (45 − 30) = (45 − 30)³

⇒ 45³ − 30³ − 3 × 45 × 30 × 15 = 15³

⇒ 15³ = 15 × 15 × 15

⇒ 225 × 15 = 3375

∴ The correct answer is 3375.

Additional Information

Cube of a Sum

The identity for the cube of a sum is (a + b)³ = a³ + b³ + 3ab(a + b).

Difference of Two Cubes

The factorized form is a³ − b³ = (a − b)(a² + ab + b²).

Sum of Two Cubes

The factorized form is a³ + b³ = (a + b)(a² − ab + b²).

Shortcut Trick

Second diagonal d₂ = (2 × Area) ÷ d₁ = (2 × 216) ÷ 18 = 24 cm.

In a rhombus, side a = √((d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)²).

Using Pythagorean triplet (9, 12, 15): Side = √(9² + 12²) = 15 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 15 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Area of rhombus = 216 cm², Diagonal (d₁) = 18 cm.

Formula Used: Area = (1/2) × d₁ × d₂; Side (a) = √((d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)²)

Calculations:

⇒ 216 = (1/2) × 18 × d₂

⇒ 216 = 9 × d₂

⇒ d₂ = 24 cm

In a rhombus, diagonals bisect each other at right angles (90°).

⇒ Half of d₁ = 18/2 = 9 cm

⇒ Half of d₂ = 24/2 = 12 cm

Applying Pythagoras Theorem in the right-angled triangle:

⇒ Side² = 9² + 12²

⇒ Side² = 81 + 144 = 225

⇒ Side = √225 = 15 cm

∴ The correct answer is 15 cm.

Additional Information

Perimeter of a Rhombus

Since all sides of a rhombus are equal, the Perimeter = 4 × side.

Properties of Diagonals

The diagonals of a rhombus are perpendicular bisectors of each other and they also bisect the internal angles.

Area via Base and Height

The area can also be calculated as Base × Height, similar to a parallelogram.

Shortcut Trick

Product of diagonals (d₁ × d₂) = 2 × Area

d₂ = (2 × 120) ÷ 15 = 16 cm

Ratio of diagonals = 15 : 16

∴ The correct answer is 15 : 16.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of the rhombus = 120 cm²

Length of one diagonal (d₁) = 15 cm

Formula Used:

Area of a Rhombus = ½ × d₁ × d₂

Calculations:

⇒ Area = ½ × d₁ × d₂

⇒ 120 = ½ × 15 × d₂

⇒ 120 × 2 = 15 × d₂

⇒ 240 = 15 × d₂

⇒ d₂ = 240 ÷ 15

⇒ d₂ = 16 cm

⇒ Ratio = d₁ : d₂ = 15 : 16

∴ The correct answer is 15 : 16.

Additional Information

Side and Diagonal Relationship

In a rhombus with side 'a' and diagonals d₁ and d₂, the relation is 4a² = d₁² + d₂².

Perimeter of Rhombus

The perimeter is calculated as 4 × side, as all four sides of a rhombus are equal in length.

Diagonal Properties

The diagonals of a rhombus always bisect each other at a 90-degree angle.

Shortcut Trick

The Least Common Multiple (LCM) of a set of numbers is the LCM of the LCMs of its subsets.

To find LCM(A, B, C, D), we calculate LCM(LCM(A, B), LCM(C, D)).

⇒ Required LCM = LCM(18, 24)

⇒ Multiples of 18: 18, 36, 54, 72... | Multiples of 24: 24, 48, 72...

∴ The correct answer is 72.

Alternate Method

Given:

⇒ LCM(A, B) = 18

⇒ LCM(C, D) = 24

Formula Used:

LCM by Prime Factorization: Product of the highest powers of all prime factors involved.

Calculations:

⇒ LCM(A, B, C, D) = LCM(18, 24)

⇒ Prime factors of 18 = 2 × 3 × 3 = 2¹ × 3²

⇒ Prime factors of 24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 2³ × 3¹

⇒ LCM = 2^max(1,3) × 3^max(2,1)

⇒ LCM = 2³ × 3² = 8 × 9 = 72

∴ The correct answer is 72.

Additional Information

Associative Property of LCM

For any numbers a, b, c, and d, the LCM(a, b, c, d) is equal to LCM(LCM(a, b), LCM(c, d)).

Relation between HCF and LCM

For any two numbers x and y, HCF(x, y) × LCM(x, y) = x × y.

LCM of Fractions

LCM of fractions = LCM of Numerators ÷ HCF of Denominators.

Shortcut Trick

The Least Common Multiple (LCM) is always exactly divisible by the Highest Common Factor (HCF).

Check the options for divisibility by HCF (10):

135 ÷ 10 = 13.5 | 120 ÷ 10 = 12 | 166 ÷ 10 = 16.6 | 175 ÷ 10 = 17.5

Only 120 is a multiple of 10.

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Alternate Method

Given: HCF of two numbers = 10.

Property Used: For any two numbers, the LCM must be of the form (HCF × k), where k is a positive integer.

Let the two numbers be 10a and 10b, where a and b are co-prime numbers.

⇒ LCM = HCF × a × b

⇒ LCM = 10 × a × b

⇒ LCM ÷ 10 = a × b (must be an integer)

Checking the options:

⇒ 135 ÷ 10 = 13.5 (Not an integer)

⇒ 120 ÷ 10 = 12 (Integer)

⇒ 166 ÷ 10 = 16.6 (Not an integer)

⇒ 175 ÷ 10 = 17.5 (Not an integer)

∴ The correct answer is 120.

Additional Information

Fundamental Relation

For any two numbers, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM. (Product = HCF × LCM)

HCF of Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime, their Highest Common Factor is always 1, and their LCM is simply their product.

Divisibility Rule

The HCF is the largest number that divides both given numbers exactly, while the LCM is the smallest number divisible by both.

Shortcut Trick

A loss of 30% means the Selling Price is (100 − 30) = 70% of the Cost Price.

SP = 70% of 5000

⇒ SP = 0.7 × 5000 = 3500

∴ The correct answer is ₹3500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) of the article = ₹5000

Loss Percentage = 30%

Formula Used:

Loss = (Loss% ÷ 100) × CP

Selling Price (SP) = CP − Loss

Calculations:

⇒ Loss = (30 ÷ 100) × 5000

⇒ Loss = 0.3 × 5000 = ₹1500

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 5000 − 1500

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = ₹3500

∴ The correct answer is ₹3500.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when SP > CP, and Loss occurs when CP > SP. Both are always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise.

Relationship Formula

SP = CP × [ (100 ± Profit/Loss %) ÷ 100 ]. Use plus for profit and minus for loss.

Marked Price and Discount

Selling Price is also calculated as Marked Price (MP) − Discount. Discount % is always calculated on the Marked Price.

Shortcut Trick

If 40% of the eggs are rotten, then the remaining 60% are NOT rotten.

Direct calculation: 60% of 500 = 0.60 × 500 = 300.

∴ The correct answer is 300 eggs.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of eggs = 500

Percentage of rotten eggs = 40%

Calculations:

⇒ Number of rotten eggs = 40% of 500

⇒ Number of rotten eggs = (40 ÷ 100) × 500

⇒ Number of rotten eggs = 40 × 5 = 200

⇒ Number of NOT rotten eggs = Total eggs − Rotten eggs

⇒ Number of NOT rotten eggs = 500 − 200 = 300

∴ The correct answer is 300 eggs.

Additional Information

Percentage Complement Rule

If a certain part of a whole is x%, the remaining part is always (100 − x)% of that whole.

Percentage to Fraction

To convert a percentage to a fraction, divide by 100. For example, 40% = 40/100 = 2/5 and 60% = 60/100 = 3/5.

Fraction of a Value

To find the value of a fraction of a total, multiply the fraction by the total: (3/5) × 500 = 300.

Shortcut Trick

Total maximum marks = 6 × 100 = 600

Total marks obtained = 50% of 600 = 300

Subject 1 marks = 30% of total marks obtained = 30% of 300 = 90

∴ The correct answer is 90.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of subjects = 6

Marks per subject = 100

Total percentage scored = 50%

Subject 1 score percentage (relative to total marks obtained) = 30%

Formula used:

Marks Obtained = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Total Maximum Marks

Calculations:

⇒ Total Maximum Marks = 6 × 100 = 600

⇒ Total Marks Obtained = 50% of 600

⇒ Total Marks Obtained = (50 ÷ 100) × 600 = 300

⇒ Score in Subject 1 = 30% of 300

⇒ Score in Subject 1 = (30 ÷ 100) × 300

⇒ Score in Subject 1 = 30 × 3 = 90

∴ The correct answer is 90.

Additional Information

Percentage Calculation

To find the percentage of a quantity, use the formula: (Value ÷ Total Value) × 100. Conversely, to find a value from a percentage, use: (Percentage ÷ 100) × Total.

Successive Percentage Case

When taking a percentage of an already calculated percentage value (like 30% of the 50% obtained), the effective percentage of the original total is: (x × y) ÷ 100. Here: (30 × 50) ÷ 100 = 15% of 600.

Weighted Average

In problems involving multiple subjects with different maximum marks, the total percentage is calculated as (Sum of marks obtained ÷ Sum of total marks) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Let Selling Price (SP) = 100.

Loss = 20% of SP = 20.

Cost Price (CP) = SP + Loss = 100 + 20 = 120.

Loss % on CP = (20 ÷ 120) × 100 = (1 ÷ 6) × 100 = 16.67%.

∴ The correct answer is 16.67 percent.

Alternate Method

Given: Loss calculated on Selling Price (SP) is 20%.

Formula Used: Loss % (on CP) = (Loss ÷ Cost Price) × 100; where Cost Price (CP) = Selling Price (SP) + Loss.

⇒ Let the Selling Price (SP) be ₹100.

⇒ According to the question, Loss = 20% of SP = (20 ÷ 100) × 100 = ₹20.

⇒ We know that Loss = Cost Price (CP) − Selling Price (SP).

⇒ CP = SP + Loss = 100 + 20 = ₹120.

⇒ Loss % on Cost Price = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

⇒ Loss % = (20 ÷ 120) × 100.

⇒ Loss % = (1 ÷ 6) × 100 = 16.666...

⇒ Loss % ≈ 16.67%.

∴ The correct answer is 16.67 percent.

Additional Information

Standard Loss Percentage

By default, Loss % is calculated as (CP − SP) ÷ CP × 100. It represents the loss relative to the initial investment.

Profit/Loss on Selling Price

When profit is calculated on SP, the CP is smaller (CP = SP − Profit). When loss is calculated on SP, the CP is larger (CP = SP + Loss).

Important Reciprocals

1/5 = 20% | 1/6 ≈ 16.67% | 1/7 ≈ 14.28% | 1/8 = 12.5%. These are useful for fast calculations in competitive exams.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Total Work (LCM of 8, 10) = 40 units.

Efficiency of (A+B+C) = 40 ÷ 8 = 5 units/day.

Efficiency of (A+B) = 40 ÷ 10 = 4 units/day.

Efficiency of C = 5 − 4 = 1 unit/day.

Required work = 3/8 × 40 = 15 units; Time = 15 ÷ 1 = 15 days.

∴ The correct answer is 15 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by A, B and C = 8 days; Time taken by A and B = 10 days.

⇒ Efficiency of C = Efficiency of (A + B + C) − Efficiency of (A + B)

⇒ Efficiency of C = 5 − 4 = 1 unit/day

⇒ Work to be completed = 3/8 × Total Work = 3/8 × 40 = 15 units

⇒ Time taken by C = 15 units ÷ 1 unit/day = 15 days

∴ The correct answer is 15 days.

Additional Information

Total Work and Efficiency

The core formula is Work = Efficiency × Time. Efficiency is the amount of work done in a single unit of time (e.g., one day).

Combined Efficiency

When people work together, their individual efficiencies are added to find the total group efficiency.

Partial Work

To find the time for a portion of work, multiply the total work by the required fraction and divide by the person's efficiency.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Total Work = LCM(16, 24, 12) = 48 units.

Sum of efficiencies of pairs = (M + R) + (R + P) + (P + M) = (48 ÷ 16) + (48 ÷ 24) + (48 ÷ 12) = 3 + 2 + 4 = 9 units/day.

Efficiency of (M + R + P) = 9 ÷ 2 = 4.5 units/day.

Efficiency of P = (M + R + P) − (M + R) = 4.5 − 3 = 1.5 units/day.

Time taken by P alone = 48 ÷ 1.5 = 32 days.

∴ The correct answer is 32 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by (M + R) = 16 days

Time taken by (R + P) = 24 days

Time taken by (P + M) = 12 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Time × Efficiency

Calculations:

⇒ Total efficiency of 2 × (M + R + P) = 3 + 2 + 4 = 9 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of (M + R + P) = 9 ÷ 2 = 4.5 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of P alone = Efficiency of (M + R + P) − Efficiency of (M + R)

⇒ Efficiency of P = 4.5 − 3 = 1.5 units/day

⇒ Time taken by P alone = 48 ÷ 1.5

⇒ Time = 32 days

∴ The correct answer is 32 days.

Additional Information

Combined Work Principle

When individuals work in pairs (A+B, B+C, C+A), their combined efficiency is 2 × (A+B+C). Individual efficiency is then found by subtracting the required pair from the total.

Work and Wages

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the Work Done. If all persons work for the same duration, the wage ratio is the same as the Efficiency Ratio.

Pipes and Cisterns

The same logic applies where efficiency of an inlet pipe is positive and an outlet/leak pipe is negative. Total capacity is equivalent to Total Work.

Shortcut Trick

To convert speed from m/s to km/hr, multiply the given value by the fraction 18/5.

Speed in km/hr = 75 × (18 ÷ 5)

Speed = 15 × 18 = 270 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 270 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed = 75 m/s

Formula Used:

Speed (km/hr) = Speed (m/s) × (3600 ÷ 1000)

Calculations:

⇒ Speed in km/hr = 75 × (18 ÷ 5)

⇒ Speed = (75 ÷ 5) × 18

⇒ Speed = 15 × 18

⇒ Speed = 270 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 270 km/hr.

Additional Information

km/hr to m/s Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply the value by 5/18 (e.g., 90 km/hr = 90 × 5/18 = 25 m/s).

Average Speed Formula

When a certain distance is covered at speed u and the same distance is covered at speed v, the Average Speed = (2 × u × v) ÷ (u + v).

Relative Speed

If two bodies move in the same direction, relative speed = u − v. In opposite directions, relative speed = u + v.

Shortcut Trick

Relative speed in opposite direction = Distance ÷ Time = 500 ÷ 5 = 100 m/s.

Ratio of speeds (Train : Man) = 9 : 1. Total ratio parts = 9 + 1 = 10 units.

10 units = 100 m/s ⇒ 1 unit = 10 m/s.

Speed of train = 9 units = 9 × 10 = 90 m/s.

Speed in km/hr = 90 × (18 ÷ 5) = 18 × 18 = 324 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 324 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of train (L) = 500 m

Time taken (t) = 5 sec

Let speed of man = x m/s, then speed of train = 9x m/s.

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = (L₁ + L₂) ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ Relative Speed = Speed of train + Speed of man

⇒ 9x + x = 500 ÷ 5

⇒ 10x = 100

⇒ x = 10 m/s

⇒ Speed of train = 9 × 10 = 90 m/s

⇒ To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18 ÷ 5

⇒ Speed of train = 90 × (18 ÷ 5) = 18 × 18

⇒ Speed of train = 324 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 324 km/hr.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Same Direction

When two objects move in the same direction with speeds S₁ and S₂, the relative speed is |S₁ − S₂|.

Relative Speed in Opposite Direction

When two objects move towards each other, the relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds (S₁ + S₂).

Unit Conversion Shortcut

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5 ÷ 18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18 ÷ 5.

Crossing a Point Object

When a train crosses a man, pole, or tree, the distance covered is equal to the length of the train itself.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Marked Price (X) = 100.

Purchase Price (Y) = 100 − 30% = 70.

Selling Price (Z) = 100 + 25% = 125.

Difference (Z − Y) = 125 − 70 = 55.

Required Percentage = (55 ÷ 70) × 100 = 550 ÷ 7 = 78.57%.

∴ The correct answer is 78.57 percent more.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price of the article = Rs. X

Discount = 30% of X

Purchase Price (Y) = X − 30% of X

Selling Price (Z) = X + 25% of X

Let the Marked Price (X) be 100 units.

⇒ Purchase Price (Y) = 100 − (30% of 100)

⇒ Y = 100 − 30 = 70 units.

⇒ Selling Price (Z) = 100 + (25% of 100)

⇒ Z = 100 + 25 = 125 units.

To find how much percent more Z is than Y:

⇒ Difference = Z − Y = 125 − 70 = 55 units.

⇒ Percentage Increase = (Difference ÷ Base Value Y) × 100

⇒ Percentage = (55 ÷ 70) × 100

⇒ Percentage = (550 ÷ 7) % ≈ 78.57%.

∴ The correct answer is 78.57 percent more.

Additional Information

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount.

Percentage Change Formula

Percentage change = [(Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value] × 100. Use positive for 'more' and negative for 'less'.

Profit Percentage

Profit % = (SP − CP) ÷ CP × 100, where CP (Cost Price) is the price at which the person bought the article.

Shortcut Trick

For two successive discounts a% and b%, the Net Discount % = a + b − (a × b)/100.

Net Discount % = 25 + 20 − (25 × 20)/100

Net Discount % = 45 − 500/100 = 45 − 5 = 40%

∴ The correct answer is 40%.

Alternate Method

Given:

First discount (d₁) = 25%

Second discount (d₂) = 20%

Formula Used:

Equivalent Discount = 100 − [100 × (100 − d₁)/100 × (100 − d₂)/100]

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Marked Price (MP) of the article be 100.

⇒ Price after 1^st discount = 100 − (25% of 100) = 100 − 25 = 75

⇒ Price after 2^nd discount = 75 − (20% of 75)

⇒ Price after 2^nd discount = 75 − (20/100 × 75) = 75 − 15 = 60

⇒ Total Net Discount = MP − Final Selling Price = 100 − 60 = 40

⇒ Net Discount % = (40 / 100) × 100 = 40%

∴ The correct answer is 40%.

Additional Information

Three Successive Discounts

For three discounts d₁, d₂, and d₃, find the equivalent of the first two using the formula, then apply the formula again with the third discount.

Relationship between MP and CP

MP/CP = (100 + Profit%)/(100 − Discount%). This is useful for finding the markup percentage.

Discount Calculation Rule

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP), while Profit or Loss is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise.

Shortcut Trick

Formula for Net Discount for two successive discounts a and b = a + b − (a × b / 100)

Given: a = 50 and b = 30

Net Discount = 50 + 30 − (50 × 30 / 100)

Net Discount = 80 − 15 = 65%

∴ The correct answer is 65%.

Alternate Method

Assume the Marked Price (MP) of the article is 100.

⇒ First discount = 50% of 100 = 50

⇒ Price after first discount = 100 − 50 = 50

⇒ Second discount = 30% of 50 = (30/100) × 50 = 15

⇒ Final Selling Price (SP) = 50 − 15 = 35

⇒ Total Discount = 100 − 35 = 65

⇒ Net Discount Percentage = (65 / 100) × 100 = 65%

∴ The correct answer is 65%.

Additional Information

Relationship between MP and SP

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) × (100 − Discount%) / 100. Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price.

Three Successive Discounts

If three discounts a%, b%, and c% are given, the equivalent discount is calculated by finding the resultant of a and b first, and then using that result with c.

Successive Percentage Change

The formula x + y + (xy/100) is used for percentage increases (positive values) and decreases (negative values like discounts).

The correct answer is 'wind up in the wrong hands'.

 

Key Points

• The idiom 'wind up in the wrong hands' (or fall into the wrong hands) means to come into the possession of someone who is undesirable, such as an opponent, a competitor, or someone who might use the information for harmful purposes.
• In the given sentence, the speaker is warning against disclosing weaknesses because that information could be used by enemies or rivals against the person.
• The phrasal verb 'wind up' means to reach or come to a certain place, situation, or condition, often unexpectedly.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Do not disclose your weaknesses to anyone as it may wind up in the wrong hands.

Additional Information

• 'In the right hands': This means being in the care or possession of someone competent, trustworthy, or reliable.
• The phrases 'right ends' and 'odd hands' are not standard idiomatic expressions in the English language and do not fit the semantic requirements of the sentence.
• The warning context of the sentence ('Do not disclose...') requires a negative outcome, making 'wrong hands' the only logical choice.

Selecting from the given alternatives, fill in the blank in the following sentence with the correct idiom with the meaning 'a person who is widely admired'. Kapil Dev has been ______ after his World Cup victory.

The correct answer is 'the toast of the town' i.e. 'the toast of the town'.

Key Points

• The phrase 'a person who is widely admired' refers to an individual who has earned significant respect, fame, or praise from a large number of people due to their achievements or character. (एक व्यक्ति जिसकी व्यापक रूप से प्रशंसा की जाती है)
• Example: After his record-breaking performance, the athlete became a person who is widely admired across the country.
• 'The toast of the town' is an idiomatic expression that describes someone who is currently very popular, celebrated, or the center of positive attention in a specific place or community. (शहर की शान या बहुत लोकप्रिय व्यक्ति)
• Example: Since his return from the international science fair, Ravi has been the toast of the town.
• In the given sentence, Kapil Dev became highly celebrated and admired throughout India following the historic 1983 World Cup victory, making him 'the toast of the town'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- the toast of the town.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained:

• 'The pie of the town' (एक अर्थहीन वाक्यांश): This is not a recognized English idiom or phrase.
• 'The burger of the city' (एक अर्थहीन वाक्यांश): This is not a standard idiomatic expression and lacks a specific figurative meaning.
• 'The toast of the wilderness' (निर्जन स्थान में लोकप्रिय): While it uses the word 'toast', the term 'wilderness' refers to an uninhabited or wild region, which contradicts the concept of being a popular public figure in a society or town.

The correct answer is: Defend.

Key Points

• The word 'guard' means to watch over in order to protect or control, or to keep watch over a person or place to prevent a loss or escape. (रक्षा करना / पहरा देना)
• Example: The security officer was hired to guard the private property and ensure no unauthorized entry.
• 'Defend' refers to the act of resisting an attack made on someone or something, or protecting someone or something from harm or danger. (बचाव करना / रक्षा करना)
• Example: It is the duty of the national army to defend the country from any external threats.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym of 'guard' is 'defend' as both words involve the concept of protection.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Defend.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Attack (आक्रमण करना): To take aggressive action against someone or something with weapons or armed force.
• Example: The general ordered his troops to attack the enemy base at dawn.
• Discard (निकाल देना / त्यागना): To get rid of someone or something as no longer useful or desirable.
• Example: You should discard any items in the refrigerator that have passed their expiration date.
• Abandon (छोड़ देना / परित्याग करना): To cease to support or look after someone; to desert or leave a place or thing permanently.
• Example: The sailors were forced to abandon the ship when it started to sink rapidly.

The correct answer is: Pledge.

Key Points

• The word 'promise' refers to a declaration or assurance that one will do something or that a particular thing will happen. (वादा)
• Example: He gave his promise that he would arrive on time for the meeting.
• 'Pledge' is a word that describes a solemn promise or undertaking, often formal in nature. (प्रतिज्ञा)
• Example: The candidate made a pledge to lower taxes if elected.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'promise' is 'pledge'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Pledge.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Deny (अस्वीकार करना): To state that something is not true or to refuse to admit the truth.
• Example: The suspect continued to deny any involvement in the crime.
• Break (तोड़ना): To fail to keep a promise, rule, or agreement.
• Example: It is wrong to break a commitment you have made to someone.
• Forget (भूलना): To fail to remember something.
• Example: Please do not forget to bring the documents for the registration.

The correct answer is: Wrangeling.

Key Points

• The word 'Wrangeling' is misspelt in the given options; it refers to the act of engaging in a long and complicated argument. (तकरार)
• Example: The Wrangeling between the two neighbors over the property line lasted for years.
• The correct spelling is 'Wrangling', which means having a long, complicated, and often noisy argument or dispute. (तकरार)
• Example: After weeks of political wrangling, the new law was finally passed by the parliament.
• Hence, we can conclude that the incorrect spelling among the options is 'Wrangeling'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Wrangeling.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Worldliness (सांसारिकता): The quality of being experienced and sophisticated in the ways of the world, often focusing on material rather than spiritual values.
• Example: His worldliness allowed him to navigate the complex social circles of the city with ease.
• Waterproof (जलरोधक): Something that is rendered impervious to water, especially by being covered or treated with a layer of resistant material.
• Example: I bought a waterproof watch so I can wear it while swimming.
• Willingness (इच्छा/तत्परता): The quality or state of being prepared or ready to do something.
• Example: The manager appreciated her willingness to take on extra responsibilities during the busy season.

The correct answer is: Trivia.

Key Points

• The word important refers to something of great significance, value, or consequence; it is something that matters a lot. (महत्वपूर्ण)
• Example: It is important to maintain discipline to achieve success in life.
• Trivia refers to details, considerations, or pieces of information of little importance or value; it represents the opposite of something significant. (नगण्य / तुच्छ बातें)
• Example: Most of the questions in the competition were based on historical trivia.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of important is trivia.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Trivia.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Essential (अनिवार्य / आवश्यक): Something that is absolutely necessary or extremely important for a particular purpose.
• Example: Vitamins are essential for the proper growth of the body.
• Useful (उपयोगी): Something that is able to be used for a practical purpose or in several ways.
• Example: This dictionary is very useful for learning new vocabulary.
• Major (प्रमुख / बड़ा): Something that is important, serious, or significant in size or extent.
• Example: The government is planning major reforms in the education sector.

The correct answer is: villain.

Key Points

• The term 'antagonist' refers to a person who actively opposes or is hostile to someone or something; an adversary. (विरोधी)
• Example: The antagonist in the story created numerous obstacles for the hero to overcome.
• 'Villain' refers to a character whose evil actions or motives are important to the plot, specifically serving as the main antagonist in a movie, play, or novel. (खलनायक)
• Example: Joker is often portrayed as the primary villain in Batman movies.
• Hence, we can infer that the one-word substitution for the given phrase is 'villain'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- villain.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hero (नायक): A person who is admired or idealized for courage, outstanding achievements, or noble qualities.
• Example: The hero of the film saved the entire city from a natural disaster.
• Protagonist (मुख्य पात्र): The leading character or one of the major characters in a drama, movie, novel, or other fictional text.
• Example: The protagonist of the novel undergoes a deep emotional journey throughout the chapters.
• Sidekick (सहायक/साथी): A person's assistant or close associate, especially one who is less powerful or important than that person.
• Example: The detective never went anywhere without his loyal sidekick.

The correct answer is: Irrevocable.

Key Points

• The expression 'An action that cannot be changed' refers to a decision, event, or step that is final and permanent, meaning it cannot be reversed or undone. (एक कार्य जिसे बदला नहीं जा सकता)
• Example: The damage caused to the ancient monument was an irrevocable loss to our heritage.
• 'Irrevocable' means something that is not capable of being changed, recovered, or undone; it signifies a finality that persists over time. (अपरिवर्तनीय/अटल)
• Example: Once the irrevocable trust was established, the grantor could no longer modify its terms.
• Hence, we can infer that the most suitable one-word substitution for 'an action that cannot be changed' is 'irrevocable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Irrevocable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Irascible (चिड़चिड़ा): Having or showing a tendency to be easily angered or provoked.
• Example: The irascible coach was known for shouting at the players during every practice session.
• Irrefutable (अकाट्य): Something that is impossible to deny or disprove; certain and beyond doubt.
• Example: The DNA test provided irrefutable evidence that the suspect was at the crime scene.
• Irreplicable (अनुपमेय/अद्वितीय): Not able to be duplicated, copied, or repeated exactly.
• Example: The natural beauty of this valley is irreplicable and must be protected from urban development.

The correct answer is 'to'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective 'blind' takes the preposition 'to' when it is used figuratively to mean unaware of, ignoring, or unwilling to recognize something.
• The phrase 'blind to' is a fixed expression commonly used with words like faults, defects, dangers, or realities.
• In the given sentence, it describes people who are unable or unwilling to see their own shortcomings.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: 'Many people in the world are blind to their own faults.'

 

Additional Information

• Blind in: This is used for physical blindness in a specific eye (e.g., blind in the right eye).
• Blind by: This is usually used as a verb form (blinded by) to indicate the cause of the loss of sight (e.g., blinded by the bright light).
• Options 1, 2, and 3 do not fit the idiomatic requirement of the sentence.

The correct answer is Had invitation cards been sent by her to all the guests on Monday?.

Key Points

• The original sentence is an interrogative sentence in the Past Perfect Tense, which follows the active voice structure: Had + Subject + V3 (Past Participle) + Object + ?.
• To convert a Past Perfect question into Passive Voice, the structure changes to: Had + Object (New Subject) + been + V3 + by + Agent + ?.
• In this transformation, the direct object invitation cards moves to the subject position, while the auxiliary verb Had remains at the beginning to maintain the question format.
• The word been is introduced as the passive auxiliary required for perfect tenses to denote that the action was performed upon the object.
• The main verb sent is already in its past participle (V3) form, so it remains unchanged in the passive construction.
• The active subject she is converted into its objective pronoun form her and is preceded by the preposition by to indicate the agent of the action.
• The additional phrase to all the guests on Monday remains intact as it specifies the recipients and the timeframe of the completed action.

 Additional Information

• Comparison with incorrect tense forms:
• Present Perfect Tense: Option 2 uses Have. In passive voice, Present Perfect uses Has/Have + been + V3, which is incorrect here as the original sentence is in the past.
• Simple Past Tense: Option 3 uses Were. The Simple Past passive structure is Was/Were + V3. This is incorrect because it fails to capture the perfective aspect (completed action in the past) indicated by Had.
• Grammatical Consistency: Option 4 uses the auxiliary Were combined with the base verb send. Passive voice always requires the Past Participle form (sent), making this option grammatically invalid.

The correct answer is Hundreds of distinguished guests from different countries attended the annual award ceremony.

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Passive Voice. This is identified by the structure Subject (The annual award ceremony) + was + Past Participle (attended) + by + Agent (hundreds of distinguished guests...).
• In Active Voice, the agent of the action becomes the subject. Therefore, Hundreds of distinguished guests from different countries must lead the sentence.
• The tense of the sentence must be preserved during conversion. The phrase was attended is in the Simple Past Tense. The corresponding active form is the simple past verb attended.
• The receiver of the action in the passive sentence (The annual award ceremony) functions as the direct object in the active sentence.
• Combining these elements, the structure becomes: Subject + V2 (attended) + Object. Hence, the second option is the logically and grammatically correct conversion.

 Additional Information

• Understanding Voice and Tense consistency:
• Simple Present Tense: If the active verb is attend/attends, the passive form becomes is/am/are attended.
• Present Continuous Tense: If the active verb is are attending, the passive form becomes is/are being attended.
• Simple Future Tense: If the active verb is will attend, the passive form becomes will be attended.
• Simple Past Tense: The active verb attended matches the passive was/were attended, which is the specific case in this question.
• The phrase from different countries acts as an adjective phrase modifying the noun guests and must remain attached to it to maintain the original meaning.

The correct answer is 'into'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase 'look into' is a phrasal verb that means to investigate, examine, or research a situation or a matter.
• In the given sentence, the Principal is making a promise to the student to investigate or check the details of a specific issue.
• Prepositions like 'for' or 'in' do not fit the context of investigating a formal matter when paired with the verb 'look'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The principal promised the student that he would look into the matter.'

 

Additional Information

• Look for: This phrasal verb means to search for someone or something (e.g., looking for lost keys).
• Look at: This means to direct one's gaze toward someone or something.
• Look after: This means to take care of someone or something (e.g., looking after a pet).

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The phrase in accordance is a fixed idiomatic expression that must be followed by the preposition with.
• It means 'in a way that agrees with or follows' a particular rule, law, or wish.
• The original sentence incorrectly uses the preposition to after accordance, which is grammatically improper.
• Replacing in accordance to with in accordance with ensures the sentence follows standard English grammar rules.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Correct Sentence: 'The principal stated that the proposed plan was in accordance with the guidelines issued by the education department.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'n accordance for the guidelines' – This option is incorrect because it uses the wrong preposition for and contains a spelling error ('n' instead of 'in').
• Option 3: 'n accordance on the guidelines' – This option is incorrect because it uses the wrong preposition on and contains a spelling error ('n' instead of 'in').
• Option 4: 'No improvement required' – This is incorrect as the original sentence uses the wrong preposition to.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The paragraph describes a frustrating classroom interaction between a teacher and a student regarding a basic multiplication question.
• S1 is the opening sentence as it initiates the dialogue with a specific question:
• 'What is sixteen and three multiplied?' asked the teacher.
• Sentence B follows S1 because it depicts the boy's immediate physical reaction to being questioned:
• 'The boy blinked.'
• Sentence D is the third sentence as it continues the interaction; the teacher presses for an answer, and the boy provides an incorrect one:
• 'The teacher persisted, and the boy promptly answered: 'Twenty-four,' with, as it seemed to the teacher, a wicked smile on his lips.'
• Sentence A follows D because it provides the teacher's interpretation of the boy's behavior and the 'wicked smile' mentioned previously:
• 'The boy evidently was trying to fool him and was being contrary on purpose.'
• Sentence C is the fifth sentence as it offers the background context that explains the teacher's suspicion, noting that this specific error was not new:
• 'He had corrected this error repeatedly, and now the boy persisted in saying twenty-four.'
• S2 is the concluding sentence which reflects the teacher's despair regarding the boy's academic future and the goal of double-promotion.
• The correct sequence is BDAC.

Coherent paragraph after rearrangement:

'What is sixteen and three multiplied?' asked the teacher. The boy blinked. The teacher persisted, and the boy promptly answered: 'Twenty-four,' with, as it seemed to the teacher, a wicked smile on his lips. The boy evidently was trying to fool him and was being contrary on purpose. He had corrected this error repeatedly, and now the boy persisted in saying twenty-four. How could this fellow be made to obtain fifty in the class test and go up by double-promotion to the first form, as his parents fondly hoped?

The correct answer is failed to remember anything.

Key Points

• The original sentence contains a double negative error. In English grammar, using two negative words in the same clause typically results in a positive meaning, which contradicts the intended context of the sentence.
• The verb failed already carries a negative implication (the inability to achieve an action). Pairing it with the negative pronoun nothing creates a logical fallacy suggesting the subject remembered something.
• To express a total lack of recall, the negative verb must be followed by the non-assertive indefinite pronoun anything. This structure maintains the negative sense required by the conjunction but, which indicates a contrast between studying all night and the poor outcome.
• Grammatically, failed to remember anything is equivalent to the phrase remembered nothing. However, since failed is already part of the sentence structure, anything is the only appropriate choice to complete the thought logically.

 Additional Information

• Usage of Indefinite Pronouns:
• Anything: This is an indefinite pronoun used primarily in negative sentences, questions, and conditional clauses. It serves as the counterpart to something in non-affirmative contexts.
• Nothing: This is used in affirmative sentences to give them a negative meaning (e.g., 'I have nothing'). Combining it with words like failed, without, or scarcely is a common stylistic error.
• Contextual Logic of Other Options:
• Failed to forget everything: This would logically imply that the person managed to remember everything, which is semantically opposite to the failure suggested by the context of a difficult exam situation.
• Failed to forget anything: This suggests a perfect memory or total recall, which does not align with the narrative of struggling after a long night of study.