General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Governor.

Key Points

• The Governor of a state is vested with the constitutional authority to summon, prorogue, and dissolve the state legislature under the provisions of the Indian Constitution.
• According to Article 174, the Governor shall from time to time summon the House or each House of the State Legislature to meet at such time and place as they think fit.
• Summoning is the official process of calling the members of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council to commence a new session.
• Prorogation refers to the act of terminating a session of the House without dissolving the Legislative Assembly itself; it is typically done after a session is adjourned sine die by the presiding officer.
• The Governor must ensure that the maximum gap between two consecutive sessions of the state legislature does not exceed six months.
• While these powers are technically discretionary in certain extreme situations, the Governor generally exercises them based on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.

 Additional Information

• Speaker of the Assembly:
• The Speaker has the power to adjourn the House, which means suspending the work in a sitting for a specific period (minutes, hours, or days).
• The Speaker can also adjourn the House sine die, which terminates a sitting for an indefinite period.
• President of India:
• Under Article 85, the President holds analogous powers at the central level to summon and prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
• Chief Minister:
• The Chief Minister is the head of the state government who recommends the summoning or prorogation of the house to the Governor.
• Dissolution:
• While prorogation only ends a session, dissolution ends the very life of the Legislative Assembly, necessitating a fresh General Election.

The correct answer is Supreme Court.

Key Points

• According to Article 71 of the Constitution of India, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court.
• The Supreme Court holds exclusive and original jurisdiction over such matters, and its decision is final and binding on all parties involved.
• An election petition challenging the election of the Vice-President can be presented to the Supreme Court only after the election process is concluded; it cannot be challenged while the election is in progress.
• If the Supreme Court declares the election of a person as Vice-President void, acts done by them in the exercise of their powers and duties before the date of the court's decision are not invalidated.
• The election of a Vice-President cannot be questioned on the ground of any vacancy existing among the members of the Electoral College electing them.

 Additional Information

• Election Commission of India:
• Under Article 324, the Election Commission is responsible for the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President.
• While the Election Commission manages the procedural aspects of the election, it does not have the legal authority to adjudicate disputes regarding the validity of the election outcome.
• Electoral College for Vice-President:
• The Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) through a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• This includes both elected and nominated members of Parliament, unlike the Presidential election where nominated members do not participate.
• Constitutional Role:
• The Vice-President serves as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha as per Article 64 and Article 89.
• The term of office is five years, but the individual may continue to hold office until their successor enters upon the office.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

 

Key Points

• Maand is a sophisticated semi-classical style of singing that originated in the Marwar region of Rajasthan, particularly associated with the Jaisalmer district.
• The name of this musical style is derived from Maand, which was the ancient geographical name for the Jaisalmer territory during the medieval period.
• It occupies a unique position in Indian music, bridging the gap between Hindustani Classical music and the raw folk traditions of the desert, characterized by its complex melodic structure.
• Historically, this style was patronized by the royal courts of Rajasthan, where professional singers performed for kings and nobles to celebrate valour, romance, and seasonal changes.
• The most iconic composition in this style is Kesariya Balam Padharo Mare Desh, which has become the definitive cultural anthem of the state, used to welcome tourists and dignitaries.

 Additional Information

• Allah Jilai Bai:
• She was a legendary Maand singer from Bikaner who gained international fame for her soulful renditions.
• In recognition of her immense contribution to the preservation of this art form, she was awarded the Padma Shri in 1982.
• Performers and Communities:
• The preservation of Maand is largely credited to traditional musician communities such as the Manganiyars and Langas.
• Other notable exponents of this style include Mangi Bai of Udaipur and Gavri Devi of Jodhpur, both of whom specialized in royal court singing traditions.
• Musical Attributes:
• Unlike typical folk music, Maand requires formal training to master its vocal modulations and rhythmic patterns.
• It is often accompanied by traditional Rajasthani instruments like the Kamayacha, Sarangi, and Khartal to enhance the desert resonance.

The correct answer is 17.2 m.

Key Points

• The sensation of sound persists in the human brain for about 0.1 seconds. This time interval is technically known as the persistence of hearing.
• To hear a distinct echo, the reflected sound must reach the ear after a time interval of at least 0.1 seconds after the original sound is produced.
• The speed of sound in air at a standard room temperature (approximately 22 degrees Celsius) is taken as 344 m/s.
• The total distance traveled by the sound from the source to the obstacle and back to the listener is 2d, where d represents the minimum distance of the obstacle.
• By applying the formula Total Distance = Speed × Time, we get 2d = 344 m/s × 0.1 s, which equals 34.4 m.
• The minimum distance d of the obstacle from the source is calculated by dividing the total distance by two: 34.4 m ÷ 2 = 17.2 m.

 Additional Information

• Factors Affecting Echo:
• Temperature: The speed of sound increases with an increase in temperature. Consequently, the minimum distance required for an echo also increases as the air gets warmer. For instance, at 0 degrees Celsius, the speed is 331 m/s, making the distance approximately 16.55 m.
• Medium: Sound requires a material medium to travel. It travels fastest in solids, followed by liquids, and slowest in gases.
• Reflecting Surface: For an echo to be clear, the reflecting surface must be large enough compared to the wavelength of the sound and should be rigid.
• Reverberation:
• If the distance between the source and the obstacle is less than 17.2 m, the reflections occur too quickly to be distinguished as separate sounds. This leads to the persistence or prolongation of sound, known as reverberation.

The correct answer is The Other Side of Midnight.

 

Key Points

• The Other Side of Midnight, published in 1973, is one of the most commercially successful novels by Sidney Sheldon, solidifying his reputation as a master of the page-turner.
• The narrative is set against the sprawling backdrop of World War II and the years following it, covering a timeline from 1939 to 1947.
• The plot revolves around a tragic love story and a ruthless, obsessive quest for revenge involving three main characters: Noelle Page, a French woman; Larry Douglas, an American World War II pilot; and Catherine Alexander, an innocent American woman.
• The story moves across international locations, including Paris, Washington D.C., and Greece, capturing the historical atmosphere of wartime Europe and the high-stakes world of the elite.
• The novel is characterized by its exploration of betrayal, legal drama, and extreme passion, culminating in a shocking climax that highlights the consequences of obsession.

 Additional Information

• Tell Me Your Dreams:
• Released in 1998, this novel is a psychological thriller that focuses on the medical condition of Multiple Personality Disorder (now known as Dissociative Identity Disorder).
• It follows characters like Ashley Patterson and involves a high-profile murder trial.
• If Tomorrow Comes:
• Published in 1985, this work is a crime fiction novel that details the life of Tracy Whitney.
• The story centers on her transformation from an ordinary woman into a brilliant con artist following a wrongful imprisonment.
• Windmills of the Gods:
• Published in 1987, this is a political thriller involving Mary Ashley, who is appointed as the U.S. Ambassador to Romania.
• The plot deals with Cold War espionage and a secret international conspiracy known as the Committee.

The correct answer is Alluvial soil.

Key Points

• The Northern Plains of India are a vast depositional plain formed over millions of years by the sediment loads of three major river systems: the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra.
• As these Himalayan rivers flow from the mountains to the plains, they carry massive quantities of silt, sand, and clay, which are deposited in a large foredeep basin located at the foothills of the Himalayas.
• This continuous process of deposition has resulted in the formation of Alluvial soil, which covers about 40 percent of India's total land area and makes the Northern Plains one of the most fertile agricultural tracts in the world.
• Alluvial soil is chemically rich in potash, phosphoric acid, and lime, although it is generally poor in nitrogen and organic matter.
• The soil is categorized into two types based on geological age: Bhangar, which is the older, less fertile alluvium containing calcareous deposits called Kankar, and Khadar, which is the newer, highly fertile alluvium replenished annually by floods.

 Additional Information

• Black Soil
• Commonly known as Regur soil or Black Cotton Soil, it is primarily found in the Deccan Trap region covering Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat.
• It is derived from the weathering of basaltic rocks (lava) and is known for its high moisture-retention capacity and self-plowing nature.
• Red Soil
• This soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall, such as the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan Plateau.
• Its characteristic red color is due to the wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks; it appears yellow when found in a hydrated form.
• Laterite Soil
• Formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall, this soil is a result of intense leaching caused by tropical rains.
• It is rich in iron oxide and aluminum but poor in organic matter, making it suitable for plantation crops like cashew nuts, tea, and coffee.

The correct answer is Brahmaputra.

Key Points

• Majuli is officially recognized by the Guinness World Records as the largest river island in the world, located in the Brahmaputra River in the state of Assam, India.
• The island was formed due to the Brahmaputra River and its anabranch, the Kherkutia Xuti, joining with the Subansiri River, creating a unique mid-stream landmass.
• It is a significant center for Neo-Vaishnavite culture and philosophy, housing numerous Sattras (monastic institutions) established by the 15^th-16^th century saint-reformer Srimanta Sankardev.
• In September 2016, Majuli became the first island in India to be granted the status of a district, emphasizing its geographical and cultural importance to the nation.
• Despite its ecological richness, the island has faced severe soil erosion, shrinking from an estimated 1,250 square kilometers in the early 20^th century to approximately 352 square kilometers today.

 Additional Information

• Brahmaputra River
• Originates from the Angsi Glacier in the Kailash Range near Mansarovar Lake in Tibet, where it is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo.
• It enters India through Arunachal Pradesh as the Siang or Dihang river before flowing through the plains of Assam.
• Ganga River
• The largest river basin in India, originating from the Gangotri Glacier at Gaumukh in Uttarakhand, where it is known as the Bhagirathi.
• Godavari River
• Often referred to as the Dakshin Ganga or Vriddha Ganga, it is the longest river in Peninsular India, originating from Trimbakeshwar in Maharashtra.
• Yamuna River
• A major tributary of the Ganga, it originates from the Yamunotri Glacier on the Bandarpunch peaks of the Lower Himalayas.

The correct answer is Nitin Gupta.

Key Points

• Nitin Gupta, representing Uttar Pradesh, created a new national record in the boys 5000 m race walk at the 18^th National Youth Athletics Championships.
• He clocked an impressive time of 19:24.48, becoming the first Indian youth athlete to break the 20-minute barrier in this specific category.
• The event was held at the MGM Stadium in Udupi, Karnataka, in March 2023, which served as a selection trial for the Asian Youth Athletics Championships.
• Gupta shattered the previous national youth record of 20:11.84, which was set by Paramjeet Singh Bisht in 2018.

 Additional Information

• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• The AFI is the apex body for athletics in India and is responsible for conducting national championships and selecting athletes for international competitions like the Olympics and Asian Games.
• Other Participants:
• Tushar Panwar: He finished second in the same race with a time of 20:00.89, also performing exceptionally well by nearly breaking the sub-20 minute mark and the previous record.
• Yogita: She is a notable female race walker who competed in the girls 5000 m race walk category during the same championships.
• Race Walking Technique:
• It is a specialized discipline where the athlete must always maintain visible contact with the ground and the leading leg must be straight from the point of contact until the vertical upright position.

The correct answer is Time, cost, and recovery rate in bankruptcy cases.

Key Points

• The Resolving Insolvency indicator is a critical metric used to evaluate the efficiency of a country's bankruptcy framework and the legal infrastructure supporting the recovery of debts.
• It focuses on the Recovery Rate, which is calculated as cents on the dollar recovered by secured creditors through reorganization, liquidation, or debt enforcement proceedings.
• The Time component measures the duration (in calendar years) from the moment of a company's default until the point where creditors receive their final payment.
• The Cost component quantifies the total expenses involved in the insolvency proceedings, expressed as a percentage of the debtor's estate value, including court fees, attorney fees, and liquidator fees.
• The indicator also assesses the Strength of Insolvency Framework Index, which evaluates whether a country's laws follow international good practices for insolvency proceedings.

 Additional Information

• Ease of Doing Business (EoDB):
• This indicator was a fundamental part of the World Bank's Ease of Doing Business report, which ranked economies based on their regulatory environment.
• Effective insolvency laws are vital for a healthy financial system as they allow for the rapid reallocation of resources from failing firms to more productive ones.
• Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016:
• In India, the IBC was introduced to streamline the insolvency process, significantly improving the recovery rate and reducing the time taken for resolution.
• The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is the designated adjudicating authority for handling corporate insolvency cases under this code.
• Before the IBC, insolvency resolution in India was governed by fragmented laws like the SICA and SARFAESI Act, which often led to prolonged delays.

The correct answer is Space tourism and station support.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is India's upcoming sovereign space station, conceptualized by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to establish a permanent human presence in Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
• As part of the expanded space roadmap unveiled by the Union Cabinet and ISRO, the station is designed to support a crew of 3 to 4 astronauts for extended missions, facilitating long-term station support for various orbital operations.
• One of the strategic objectives of the BAS is to foster the commercialization of space, which includes providing infrastructure for space tourism and private sector participation in space-based activities.
• The facility will serve as a primary laboratory for microgravity experiments in fields such as biotechnology, materials science, and pharmaceutical research, providing a unique environment that cannot be replicated on Earth.
• The roadmap targets the launch of the first module, BAS-1, by 2028, with the objective of making the entire multi-module station fully operational by the year 2035.
• The station will utilize advanced docking ports compatible with the Gaganyaan crew module, ensuring seamless logistics and crew rotation.

 Additional Information

• Gaganyaan Program:
• This is the foundational mission for BAS, aimed at demonstrating India's Human Spaceflight Capability by sending a crew to an altitude of 400 km.
• Successful execution of Gaganyaan is a prerequisite for the assembly and maintenance of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station.
• Long-term Vision (Amrit Kaal):
• The Indian Space Vision 2047 includes the establishment of the space station as a stepping stone toward a manned lunar landing by the year 2040.
• It also focuses on the development of the Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV), which will be capable of carrying heavier payloads required for station expansion.
• Technological Features:
• The station will incorporate an indigenous Environmental Control and Life Support System (ECLSS) to sustain human life in the vacuum of space.
• It will act as a gateway for future deep-space exploration, providing a platform for refueling and equipment testing.

The correct answer is CE20 engine ignition in vacuum.

Key Points

• In February 2025, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) achieved a significant milestone by successfully conducting the ignition test of the CE20 cryogenic engine under vacuum conditions.
• The test was carried out at the High Altitude Test (HAT) facility located within the ISRO Propulsion Complex (IPRC) in Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu.
• Vacuum ignition is a critical phase for cryogenic stages, as the engine must reliably start in the near-vacuum environment of space after the lower stages of the rocket have separated.
• The CE20 engine is the indigenous power plant for the C25 cryogenic upper stage of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3), which is India's heaviest satellite launch vehicle.
• This successful test further validates the engine's performance and reliability for upcoming high-profile missions, including the Gaganyaan human spaceflight program and heavy satellite launches.
• The technical parameters monitored during the test included ignition delay, chamber pressure buildup, and propellant flow rates, all of which met the predicted performance indices.

 Additional Information

• CE20 Cryogenic Engine:
• It operates on the Gas Generator cycle, making it the first Indian cryogenic engine to move away from the complex staged combustion cycle used in earlier models.
• It utilizes a combination of Liquid Oxygen (LOX) at −183 degrees Celsius and Liquid Hydrogen (LH2) at −253 degrees Celsius as propellants.
• The engine produces a nominal thrust of 200 kN (kilo-Newtons), providing the necessary velocity to place payloads into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
• LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3):
• Formerly known as GSLV Mk III, it is a three-stage vehicle consisting of two S200 solid rocket boosters, an L110 liquid core stage, and the C25 cryogenic upper stage.
• It has the capacity to lift 4,000 kg of payload to GTO and nearly 8,000 kg to Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
• The CE20 engine is vital for the Gaganyaan mission, as it must meet human-rated safety standards, requiring rigorous testing and higher reliability margins.

The correct answer is 1976.

Key Points

• The Indian women's cricket team played its first-ever Test match in 1976, marking the country's official entry into the longest format of the game for women.
• The historic match was played against the West Indies at the M. Chinnaswamy Stadium in Bangalore (now Bengaluru) starting on October 31, 1976.
• Shantha Rangaswamy led the side as the first captain of the Indian women's Test team during this debut series.
• The match was the opening fixture of a six-match Test series conducted across various venues in India during the 1976-77 season.
• While the inaugural Test ended in a draw, India achieved its first-ever Test victory in the fourth match of the same series, held at Patna in November 1976.
• The Indian squad featured pioneers such as Fowzieh Khalili, Diana Edulji, and Shubhangi Kulkarni, who played significant roles in establishing the foundation of women's cricket in India.

 Additional Information

• Women's Cricket Association of India (WCAI):
• Formed in 1973 by Mahendra Kumar Sharma, it was the primary governing body for women's cricket before merging with the BCCI in 2006.
• The association was responsible for organizing the first Inter-State Championship in 1973 and securing international recognition for the Indian team.
• Shantha Rangaswamy's Contributions:
• She became the first Indian woman to score a Test century, which she achieved during the 1976 series against the West Indies at Dunedin.
• She was the first female cricketer to be honored with the Arjuna Award in 1976 and later received the BCCI Lifetime Achievement Award.
• International Evolution:
• Following their Test debut, India made its One Day International (ODI) debut in 1978 during the Women's Cricket World Cup hosted in India.
• The team's first T20 International (T20I) was played much later, in 2006, against England at Derby.

The correct answer is Verghese Kurien.

Key Points

• Dr. Verghese Kurien is celebrated as the Father of the White Revolution in India due to his pioneering role in Operation Flood, the world's largest dairy development program launched in 1970.
• He transformed India from a milk-deficient nation into the global leader in milk production, overtaking the United States in 1998.
• As the founder-chairman of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB), he implemented the Anand pattern cooperative model, which eliminated middlemen and empowered millions of small-scale farmers.
• He was the driving force behind the Gujarat Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF), which manages the iconic brand Amul.
• For his extraordinary contributions to rural development and food security, he was honored with the Ramon Magsaysay Award, the World Food Prize, and India's second-highest civilian award, the Padma Vibhushan.

 Additional Information

• M.S. Swaminathan:
• Known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India.
• He introduced high-yielding varieties (HYV) of wheat and rice during the 1960s to ensure national food security.
• He served as the Director General of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
• Norman Borlaug:
• Recognized as the Father of the Green Revolution globally.
• He was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970 for developing semi-dwarf, disease-resistant wheat varieties that saved over a billion people from starvation.
• Vikram Sarabhai:
• Regarded as the Father of the Indian Space Program.
• He was the primary architect behind the establishment of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL).

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

• The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) of 1956 was adopted to replace the policy of 1948 and served as the Economic Constitution of India for several decades.
• It classified industries into three distinct categories, known as schedules, to define the respective roles of the State and private enterprise.
• Schedule A included 17 industries which were the exclusive responsibility of the State; this included strategic sectors such as arms and ammunition, atomic energy, iron and steel, heavy plant and machinery, and railways.
• Schedule B consisted of 12 industries that were to be progressively State-owned, but where private enterprise was expected to supplement the efforts of the State in establishing new units. This category included aluminum, mining, machine tools, and fertilizers.
• Schedule C comprised all the remaining industries not mentioned in the first two schedules, which were generally left open to the private sector, although they remained under the regulatory framework of the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951.

 Additional Information

• Context and Framework:
• The IPR 1956 was the foundational pillar of the Second Five-Year Plan, which followed the Mahalanobis Model of development focusing on heavy industries.
• The policy aimed at achieving a socialist pattern of society, emphasizing the expansion of the public sector to reduce disparities in income and wealth.
• It introduced a strict licensing system for the private sector to promote regional equality, ensuring that industries were established in economically backward regions through tax concessions and subsidized power.
• The resolution also highlighted the importance of village and small-scale industries for providing employment and ensuring a decentralized industrial structure.

The correct answer is Vijay Sankar.

Key Points

• Vijay Sankar, the Deputy Chairman of the Sanmar Group, was conferred with the Knight's Cross of the Order of Dannebrog in January 2025.
• He has served as the Honorary Consul General of Denmark in Chennai since 2012, representing Danish interests in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and Puducherry.
• The honor was bestowed by King Frederik X of Denmark in recognition of Sankar's outstanding contribution to strengthening bilateral ties and fostering economic cooperation between India and Denmark.
• The award highlights his role in advancing the Indo-Danish Green Strategic Partnership, particularly in the areas of renewable energy, shipping, and water technology.
• This recognition is part of the Danish Order of Chivalry, which is awarded to individuals for significant service to Denmark's international relations or civil and military merit.

 Additional Information

• Order of Dannebrog:
• Established in 1671 by King Christian V, it is one of the most prestigious honors in the Danish honors system.
• The insignia features the Dannebrog cross, which reflects the national flag of Denmark.
• Sanmar Group:
• A prominent Indian conglomerate based in Chennai with a diversified presence in chemicals, engineering, and shipping.
• The group maintains long-standing industrial collaborations with several European partners, including Danish entities.
• Natarajan Chandrasekaran:
• The Chairman of Tata Sons who was awarded the Chevalier de la Légion d'Honneur (Knight of the Legion of Honour) by France in 2023, but not the Danish honor in 2025.
• Rajnath Singh:
• The current Minister of Defence of India, who oversees strategic defense partnerships but was not the recipient of this specific diplomatic award.

The correct answer is Reduces public expenditure or increases taxes.

Key Points

• Contractionary Fiscal Policy is a macroeconomic tool utilized by the Government to decrease the level of Aggregate Demand within an economy, primarily to control inflation.
• One of the fundamental mechanisms is the reduction of public expenditure, which involves cutting government spending on projects, services, and subsidies, thereby lowering the total amount of money circulating in the economy.
• Another critical component is increasing taxes (such as Income Tax or Corporate Tax), which reduces the disposable income of households and the investment capacity of businesses, leading to lower private consumption.
• This policy is typically implemented when an economy is overheating, where the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is growing too fast, leading to rising prices and an unsustainable fiscal deficit.
• The ultimate objective of these measures is to achieve price stability and prevent the erosion of purchasing power caused by excessive demand-pull inflation.

 Additional Information

• Expansionary Fiscal Policy:
• This is the opposite of contractionary policy, used during recessions to stimulate growth.
• It involves increasing public expenditure and reducing taxes to boost aggregate demand and reduce unemployment.
• Monetary Policy vs. Fiscal Policy:
• Fiscal Policy is managed by the Ministry of Finance through spending and taxation.
• Monetary Policy is managed by the Central Bank (such as the RBI in India or the Federal Reserve in the US) using tools like interest rates and reserve ratios.
• Printing more money is a form of monetary expansion (often called deficit financing), which is generally inflationary and contrary to contractionary goals.

Therefore, the correct option is 1.

The correct answer is Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).

Key Points

• The Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector is widely recognized as the engine of growth for the Indian economy, serving as the largest employer after the agriculture sector.
• According to various government reports, including the Ministry of MSME Annual Report, the sector provides employment to approximately 11.10 crore (111 million) people across 6.33 crore unincorporated non-agriculture enterprises.
• This sector is characterized by its labor-intensive nature, allowing for a much higher employment-to-capital ratio compared to large-scale industrial units.
• MSMEs contribute roughly 30% to India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and account for nearly 45% of the total exports from the country.
• The sector is crucial for inclusive development as it creates employment opportunities in rural and semi-urban areas, helping to reduce the migration of labor to metropolitan cities.

 Additional Information

• Large-scale capital-intensive industrial enterprises:
• These industries require heavy financial investment in machinery and technology. While they produce high value-added goods, their direct employment generation capacity is lower than MSMEs due to automation.
• Information Technology and software services:
• While the IT-BPM sector is a massive foreign exchange earner and employs approximately 5 million professionals, its workforce is specialized and significantly smaller in volume compared to the MSME sector.
• Classification Criteria:
• Under the revised MSME definition (2020), a Micro enterprise has investment ≤ 1 crore and turnover ≤ 5 crore; a Small enterprise has investment ≤ 10 crore and turnover ≤ 50 crore; and a Medium enterprise has investment ≤ 50 crore and turnover ≤ 250 crore.

The correct answer is 32.94.

Key Points

• As of 1 March 2025, the total count of active domestic LPG consumers in India has reached a landmark figure of 32.94 crore.
• This massive consumer base includes 10.33 crore beneficiaries specifically enrolled under the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), a flagship scheme aimed at providing clean energy to economically weaker sections.
• The expansion of LPG coverage is a key component of India's energy policy, overseen by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, to ensure the transition from traditional biomass to Liquefied Petroleum Gas.
• The achievement of 32.94 crore connections signifies an almost universal access to clean cooking fuel across rural and urban households in the country.

 Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY):
• Launched in May 2016 from Ballia, Uttar Pradesh, with the objective of safeguarding the health of women and children by providing clean cooking fuel.
• The subsequent phase, Ujjwala 2.0, was introduced in August 2021 to offer deposit-free LPG connections to migrants and low-income families who could not be covered in the first phase.
• The scheme provides a targeted subsidy of 300 rupees per cylinder to all PMUY beneficiaries to maintain affordability.
• Operational Framework:
• The supply and distribution are managed by Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) such as Indian Oil (IOCL), Bharat Petroleum (BPCL), and Hindustan Petroleum (HPCL).
• The PAHAL (DBTL) scheme ensures that LPG subsidies are transferred directly to the Aadhaar-linked bank accounts of consumers, minimizing diversion and ensuring transparency.

The correct answer is 1855.

 

Key Points

• The Santhal Rebellion, also known as the Santhal Hool, was a major tribal uprising that took place in 1855-56 in the Rajmahal Hills of present-day Jharkhand and West Bengal.
• The revolt was led by four brothers: Sidhu, Kanhu, Chand, and Bhairav Murmu, who organized thousands of Santhals to fight against the British colonial authorities and their local collaborators.
• The primary cause of the rebellion was the oppressive Zamindari system and the Permanent Settlement of 1793, which led to the loss of tribal land and forced the Santhals into debt.
• The rebels targeted moneylenders (locally known as Mahajans or Dikus) and British officials who exploited the tribal population through exorbitant interest rates and land grabbing.
• The rebellion formally commenced on June 30, 1855, when a massive gathering at Bhagnadih declared independence from British rule and the zamindars.

 Additional Information

• Administrative Reforms:
• Following the suppression of the revolt, the British government created the Santhal Parganas district to ensure tribal laws were respected.
• The Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was later enacted to protect the rights of the tribal population over their land and prevent transfers to non-tribals.
• Damin-i-Koh:
• This was a large area in the Rajmahal hills demarcated by the British in 1832 for the Santhals to settle and practice agriculture.
• Encroachment into this region by outsiders was a significant trigger for the 1855 uprising.
• Comparison of Years:
• 1821: This period saw early tribal unrest in Central India but does not coincide with the Santhal Hool.
• 1885: This year is historically significant for the foundation of the Indian National Congress.
• 1903: This era is associated with the aftermath of the Munda Rebellion (Ulgulan) led by Birsa Munda, which ended around 1900.

The correct answer is Hooghly.

Key Points

• Serampore College was founded in 1818 by the Baptist Missionary Society. It is one of the oldest educational institutions in India still in operation.
• The college was established by the Serampore Trio: William Carey, Joshua Marshman, and William Ward, who were pioneering Christian missionaries.
• The institution is located in the town of Serampore in the Hooghly district of West Bengal, situated on the western bank of the Hooghly River.
• At the time of its founding, Serampore was a Danish colony known as Frederiksnagore. This allowed the missionaries to function freely, as the British East India Company was initially hostile to missionary activities in their territories.
• The college was intended to provide education in Arts and Sciences to students of all castes and creeds, while also serving as a seminary for training Christian ministers.

 Additional Information

• Royal Charter of 1827:
• In 1827, King Frederick VI of Denmark granted a Royal Charter to the college, making it the first institution in Asia to have the status of a university.
• This charter empowered the college to confer degrees in any discipline, a right that was later incorporated into Indian Law.
• The Serampore Trio:
• William Carey: Often called the Father of Modern Missions, he was a renowned linguist who translated the Bible into numerous Indian languages, including Bengali and Sanskrit.
• William Ward: A master printer who established the Serampore Mission Press, which played a crucial role in the development of Bengali typography and publishing.
• Joshua Marshman: An educator who focused on the development of local schools and the study of Chinese and Indian languages.
• Geographical Context:
• The Hooghly River is a major distributary of the Ganges and has historically been a hub for colonial settlements, including the French in Chandannagar and the Dutch in Chinsurah.