SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 27 May, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic followed here is,

193 + 4 = 197

197 + 4 = 201

201 + 4 = 205

205 + 4 = 209

209 + 4 = 213

213 + 4 = 217

217 + 4 = 221

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

The logic followed here is,

(−76 × 3) − 1 = −228 − 1 = −229

(−229 × 3) − 2 = −687 − 2 = −689

(−689 × 3) − 1 = −2067 − 1 = −2068

(−2068 × 3) − 2 = −6204 − 2 = −6206

(−6206 × 3) − 1 = −18618 − 1 = −18619

(−18619 × 3) − 2 = −55857 − 2 = −55859

Thus, the missing term in the series is −55859.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2';

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

​Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Given that there are 5 trapeziums A, B, C, D and E with different heights.

From the clues, we can deduce the following relationships:

1. Height of E is maximum.

→ E > _ > _ > _ > _

2. Height of C is less than D but more than B.

→ D > C > B

3. Height of A is not more than B.

→ B > A

Combining all these facts gives the final order from tallest to shortest:

→ E > D > C > B > A

Trapezium B is shorter than E, D, and C.

Therefore, the height of B is less than 3 trapeziums.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

There are 6 bags – B, C, D, E, F and G – and all have different prices.

From the clues, we can deduce the following:

1. Price of E is the third lowest.

→ _ < _ < E < _ < _ < _

2. Number of bags having price less than B = X - 2.

Number of bags having price more than D = X.

Since there are 6 bags, the only possible arrangement satisfying both conditions is:

→ B is the lowest priced bag and D is the 4^th lowest.

3. Price of C is less than F but more than G.

→ G < C < F

The remaining positions are 2^nd, 5^th and 6^th lowest.

So,

→ G = 2^nd lowest, C = 5^th lowest, F = Highest.

Final order (Lowest → Highest):

B < G < E < D < C < F

Thus, the bag with the highest price is F.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given that the prices of 6 pens A, B, C, D, E and F are all different.

From the clues, we can deduce the following relationships:

1. Price of no pen is less than F.

→ F is the cheapest pen.

2. Price of B is more than E but less than A.

→ A > B > E

3. Price of C is more than D.

→ C > D

4. Price of D is more than A.

→ C > D > A > B > E

Since F is the cheapest, placing it at the end gives the complete order from highest price to lowest price:

→ C > D > A > B > E > F

Now check the statements:

I. Price of pen A is more than the price of 3 pens.

A is costlier than B, E and F (3 pens). Hence, Statement I is true.

II. Price of pen D is less than the price of 2 pens.

D is less expensive than only C. So it is less than 1 pen, not 2 pens. Hence, Statement II is false.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Family chart,

 

Family tree,

 

Therefore, A is the Grandmother of C.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Dictionary order of Given words,

5. Chill
6. Chime
7. Chin
8. Chink
9. Chip

Correct order is: 54123

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Dictionary order of given words,

4. Irradiant 
5. Irrational
6. Irrecoverable
7. Irrelevant
8. Irreligious

Correct order is: 43215

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number − 52

For the first pair 1725 : 1673

⇒ 1725 − 52 = 1673

For the third pair 384 : 332

⇒ 384 − 52 = 332

Applying the same logic to the second pair

8233 : ?

⇒ 8233 − 52 = 8181

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Pattern followed here is,

​Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

​Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The formula for the angle between the hands is: Angle = $|30H - {11 \over 2}M|$

Where H = hours and M = minutes.

Since the time is between 7 AM and 8 AM, we take H = 7.

For the hands to overlap, we set Angle = 0°:

0 = |30 × 7 − 5.5 × M|

0 = |210 − 5.5M|

5.5M = 210

M = 210 ÷ 5.5

M = 420 ÷ 11

M = 38 2/11 ≈ 38.18 minutes

So, the time is approximately 7:38 AM.

Therefore, the correct answer is 7:38.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

 

Alternate Method

The angle between the hour hand and minute hand = $|60H - 11M| \over 2$

For an overlap, the angle is 0°.

Given H = 7 (as the time is between 7 AM and 8 AM).

0 = $|60 \times 7 - 11 \times M| \over 2$

0 = |420 − 11M|

11M = 420

M = 420 ÷ 11 = 38 2/11

M ≈ 38.18

The time at which the hands overlap is approximately 7:38 AM.

Hence, the correct answer is 7:38.

The time interval from 12 PM to 8 PM on the same day is:

Total Duration = 8 hours

Since 1 hour = 60 minutes,

Total minutes = 8 × 60 = 480 minutes

The clock gains 5 seconds every 10 minutes.

Number of 10-minute intervals in 480 minutes = 480 / 10 = 48 intervals

Total gain in seconds = 48 × 5 = 240 seconds

Now, convert the gained seconds into minutes:

Gain in minutes = 240 / 60 = 4 minutes

The actual time is 8 PM. Since the clock gained 4 minutes, the time shown by the clock will be:

Clock Time = 8:00 PM + 4 minutes = 8:04 PM

Hence, the clock will show 8:04.

Therefore, the correct answer is 8:04.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is 42^nd Amendment.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution of India adopted in 1950. They were incorporated in 1976 during the Internal Emergency period.
• The 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, added a new part, Part IV-A, and a new article, Article 51A, to the Constitution to enumerate these duties.
• The amendment was based on the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, which suggested that citizens should have certain obligations to perform while enjoying their Fundamental Rights.
• Initially, ten Fundamental Duties were introduced, which were heavily inspired by the constitution of the erstwhile USSR.
• These duties are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by any court of law through writs, though they serve as a guide for interpreting constitutional laws and can be enforced by Parliament via specific legislation.
• In 2002, the 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act added the eleventh Fundamental Duty, which mandates parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities to children aged 6 to 14 years.

 Additional Information

• 44^th Amendment Act, 1978
• Enacted by the Janata Party government to undo several changes made by the 42^nd Amendment and restore democratic safeguards.
• It is most notable for deleting the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights (Article 31) and making it a legal right under Article 300A.
• 52^nd Amendment Act, 1985
• Commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law, it was introduced to prevent political defections that cause government instability.
• It added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, providing criteria for the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
• 61^st Amendment Act, 1989
• This amendment changed Article 326 to lower the voting age in India.
• The age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years for both Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly elections to increase youth engagement in the political process.

The correct answer is Dolphins, bats, and porpoises.

Key Points

• Ultrasound is defined as sound waves with frequencies higher than the upper limit of human audibility, which is typically above 20,000 Hz (20 kHz).
• Bats are well-known for producing ultrasonic squeaks. They use these high-frequency waves for echolocation, allowing them to navigate and hunt insects in total darkness by interpreting the echoes that bounce back from objects.
• Dolphins and porpoises produce ultrasonic clicks and whistles for underwater communication and sonar. These high-frequency sounds travel efficiently through water, helping them detect prey and obstacles with extreme precision.
• Certain other animals, such as shrews and some species of moths, also interact with ultrasound for survival, either by producing it for navigation or sensing it to avoid predators.

 Additional Information

• Classification of Sound Frequencies:
• Infrasound: Sound waves with frequencies lower than 20 Hz. These are produced by large animals like elephants, rhinoceroses, and whales (specifically baleen whales) to communicate over vast distances.
• Audible Sound: The frequency range that the human ear can perceive, spanning from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
• Ultrasound Applications: In the medical field, ultrasonography uses high-frequency waves to visualize internal organs or fetal development. In industries, it is used for ultrasonic cleaning and detecting cracks in metal blocks.
• Biological Variations:
• While dogs can hear frequencies higher than humans (up to 45,000 Hz), they primarily communicate within the audible range and do not use ultrasound for navigation like bats or dolphins.
• Moths have developed the ability to hear the ultrasonic pulses of bats, which serves as an evolutionary defense mechanism to escape predation.

The correct answer is Refraction.

Key Points

• Refraction is the scientific phenomenon where light changes direction and speed as it passes from one transparent medium to another of different optical density.
• When a pencil is partially submerged in water, light rays reflecting from the underwater portion travel from water (an optically denser medium) into the air (an optically rarer medium).
• As these light rays cross the interface between water and air, they speed up and bend away from the normal.
• The human eye and brain trace these refracted rays back as straight lines, creating a virtual image of the pencil that appears at a shallower depth than its actual position.
• This displacement of the submerged part relative to the part in the air causes the pencil to appear bent or broken at the water surface.
• The degree of bending is determined by the Refractive Index of the materials, which for water is approximately 1.33 and for air is nearly 1.00.

 Additional Information

• Reflection
• Involves the bouncing back of light waves when they encounter a surface that does not absorb the energy.
• It follows the Laws of Reflection, where the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection.
• Diffraction
• Refers to the bending of light waves around the edges of an obstacle or through a narrow opening.
• It is most prominent when the size of the obstacle is comparable to the wavelength of the light.
• Interference
• Occurs when two or more light waves superimpose to form a resultant wave of greater, lower, or the same amplitude.
• This principle is responsible for the iridescent colors seen in thin films like soap bubbles or oil slicks.

The correct answer is Simplifying indirect taxes through MODVAT.

Key Points

• Following the 1991 Economic Reforms, India focused on fiscal consolidation to stabilize the economy and address the balance of payments crisis.
• The Tax Reforms Committee (1991), chaired by Dr. Raja J. Chelliah, recommended structural changes to the tax system to improve efficiency and revenue collection.
• A major component of these reforms was the simplification of indirect taxes through the expansion of MODVAT (Modified Value Added Tax), which aimed to reduce the cascading effect of taxes (tax on tax).
• MODVAT allowed manufacturers to claim input tax credit for duties paid on raw materials and components, ensuring that tax was levied only on the value added at each stage of production.
• By streamlining the excise duty structure and reducing the multiplicity of rates, the government encouraged tax compliance and widened the tax base, leading to more robust revenue growth.
• Therefore, simplifying indirect taxes through MODVAT was a critical fiscal strategy introduced and expanded in the post-1991 era to strengthen the national treasury.

 Additional Information

• Goods and Services Tax (GST):
• While it is a landmark reform, it was officially implemented much later on July 1, 2017, under the 101^st Constitutional Amendment Act.
• It integrated various indirect taxes like Central Excise Duty, Service Tax, and State VAT into a single unified tax.
• Fiscal Management Post-1991:
• The government aimed to reduce the fiscal deficit, which had reached 8.4% of GDP in 1990-91.
• Reforms focused on expenditure control, meaning the policy was to rationalise or reduce unproductive subsidies rather than increase them.
• Direct Tax Reforms involved lowering marginal tax rates for individuals and corporations to discourage evasion and promote investment, rather than removing income tax entirely.

The correct answer is A hard shot taken with a stick that is swung back and then quickly forward.

Key Points

• A slap shot is a high-velocity technique in ice hockey designed to maximize power and speed, often reaching velocities over 100 miles per hour (160 km/h).
• The execution involves three distinct phases: a backswing where the stick is raised above the waist or shoulder, a rapid downswing, and a follow-through.
• Scientifically, the player does not aim directly for the puck but strikes the ice surface roughly 1-2 inches behind it, causing the stick to flex significantly.
• This mechanical flexing stores elastic potential energy within the stick shaft, which is then released like a spring as the blade makes contact with the puck, propelling it forward with extreme force.
• The slap shot is statistically the most powerful shot in hockey but is generally considered less accurate than other shooting techniques due to the long delivery time and high force involved.

 Additional Information

• Comparison with other technical shots:
• Wrist Shot: Unlike the slap shot, this technique involves the puck staying in contact with the blade throughout the motion. It relies on a quick snap of the wrists to generate accuracy and a deceptive release, making it the most common shot in NHL gameplay.
• Snap Shot: Often described as a hybrid, it uses a shorter backswing than a slap shot but still utilizes stick flex for power. It is prized for its ability to be released while the player is in full stride.
• Historical Background: Bernard 'Boom Boom' Geoffrion of the Montreal Canadiens is widely credited with innovating and popularizing the slap shot in the 1950s, while Bobby Hull later became famous for its terrifying speed.
• Equipment Evolution: The transition from wooden sticks to carbon fiber composites has allowed players to customize the flex rating of their equipment, further enhancing the power generated during a slap shot.

The correct answer is The Persian ruler Shah Tahmasp.

Key Points

• Following his decisive defeats against the Afghan ruler Sher Shah Suri at the Battle of Chausa (1539) and the Battle of Kannauj (1540), Humayun was forced to flee India.
• After years of wandering in Sindh and Marwar, Humayun sought political asylum in Persia at the court of the Safavid monarch, Shah Tahmasp I.
• Shah Tahmasp provided Humayun with a robust military force of approximately 12,000 cavalry and artillery support to regain his lost territories.
• As a condition for this support, Humayun was required to adopt Shia Islam and agreed to cede the strategic territory of Kandahar to the Persian empire upon its conquest.
• With the backing of the Safavid army, Humayun first captured Kandahar and Kabul from his brother Kamran Mirza in 1545, which eventually paved the way for his return to Delhi in 1555.

 Additional Information

• Sher Shah Suri
• He was the founder of the Suri Empire and was responsible for ousting the Mughals from India for 15 years.
• He is renowned for his administrative genius, including the introduction of the Rupiya and the restoration of the Grand Trunk Road.
• Bahadur Shah of Gujarat
• A powerful Sultan who expanded his kingdom into Malwa and Rajasthan.
• He was a constant threat to Humayun during the early 1530s until his defeat and subsequent death in a conflict with the Portuguese.
• Rana Sanga
• The fierce Rajput ruler of Mewar who led a confederacy against Humayun’s father, Babur.
• He fought in the Battle of Khanwa in 1527 and died shortly thereafter in 1528, well before Humayun’s exile.

The correct answer is Kandla.

Key Points

• India was a pioneer in Asia by recognizing the effectiveness of the Export Processing Zone (EPZ) model, leading to the establishment of the continent's first EPZ in Kandla in 1965.
• The Kandla Export Processing Zone (KASEZ) was set up in the state of Gujarat near the Gulf of Kutch to leverage its strategic coastal location for international trade.
• The primary objectives of establishing the EPZ were to boost industrialization, promote export-oriented production, earn foreign exchange, and generate employment opportunities.
• Following the success of the Kandla model, several other EPZs were established across India, including Santacruz (Maharashtra), Cochin (Kerala), Chennai (Tamil Nadu), and Noida (Uttar Pradesh).
• In 2000, the Indian government introduced the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Policy to address the shortcomings of the EPZ framework, such as bureaucratic hurdles and lack of world-class infrastructure.
• By 2005, the SEZ Act was enacted, and all existing EPZs, including Kandla, were converted into Special Economic Zones to provide a more competitive and investor-friendly environment.

 Additional Information

• Mundra:
• Located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, it is home to India's largest private port and a massive multi-product SEZ operated by the Adani Group.
• While it is a major economic hub today, it was developed much later than the Kandla EPZ.
• Paradip:
• Situated at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in Odisha, it is one of India's major natural deep-water ports.
• It primarily handles the export of iron ore and coal but was not the site of the first EPZ.
• Haldia:
• Located at the mouth of the Hooghly River in West Bengal, Haldia Port was developed as a satellite port to the Kolkata Port.
• It serves as a major petrochemical and industrial hub for Eastern India.

The correct answer is Ministry of Law and Justice.

Key Points

• In July 2025, the Ministry of Law and Justice spearheaded the inauguration of the Mahila Aarogyam Kaksh, a dedicated health and wellness facility established specifically for women within the Judicial ecosystem.
• The primary objective of this facility is to provide gender-sensitive infrastructure, offering emergency medical care, primary health screenings, and first-aid services to women advocates, litigants, and court employees.
• This initiative is part of a broader effort to modernize judicial infrastructure across India, ensuring that court complexes are inclusive and accommodate the specific health and hygiene needs of women.
• The Mahila Aarogyam Kaksh often functions in coordination with the Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) or AIIMS to ensure professional medical assistance is available during court working hours.
• By addressing the long-standing demand for medical rooms in court premises, the Ministry of Law and Justice aims to improve the working conditions for the increasing number of women entering the legal profession.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Law and Justice:
• It is the oldest limb of the Government of India and is responsible for the management of the legal system, legislative drafting, and administration of justice.
• The Department of Justice under this ministry focuses on the e-Courts Mission Mode Project and the Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs).
• Ministry of Health and Family Welfare:
• Responsible for implementation of national health programs and oversees the National Health Policy.
• Ministry of Women and Child Development:
• Formulates policies and programs for the empowerment of women and the protection of children, such as Mission Shakti.

The correct answer is Deposit of loess is not found in China.

Key Points

• Wind is the most active agent of erosion and deposition in arid and semi-arid regions due to the lack of vegetation and moisture, which allows loose particles to be easily transported by saltation, suspension, and surface creep. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Mushroom rocks, also known as pedestal rocks, are formed by wind abrasion; since wind carries more erosive sand particles near the ground, the lower part of the rock is eroded more than the top, resulting in a narrower base and wider top. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Loess refers to extensive wind-deposited accumulations of fine-grained silt; the most famous and largest loess deposits in the world are actually located in the Loess Plateau of North-Central China, which covers approximately 640,000 square kilometers. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Sand dunes are mounds or ridges of deposited sand that form when the wind encounters an obstacle or loses its velocity, causing it to drop its load; they are classic examples of depositional landforms in desert ecosystems. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Loess Characteristics:
• It is typically unstratified, geologically recent, and calcareous in nature.
• In China, the silt is blown from the Gobi Desert and accumulated over thousands of years, creating fertile but highly erodible soil.
• Other significant deposits are found in the Mississippi Valley of the USA and parts of Central Europe.
• Aeolian Landforms:
• Erosional features include deflation hollows, yardangs, zeugens, and inselbergs.
• Depositional features include Barchans (crescent-shaped dunes) and Seifs (longitudinal dunes).

The correct answer is 64.4%.

Key Points

• The Global Gender Gap Index is an annual benchmark published by the World Economic Forum (WEF) that measures gender parity across four key dimensions.
• As per the 2025 Global Gender Gap Report, India's performative score increased to 64.4%, showing a marginal yet significant rise from its 2024 score of 64.1%.
• The score represents the percentage of the gender gap that has been closed; a score of 100% would indicate full gender parity, while 0% would indicate full disparity.
• India's progress to 64.4% reflects improvements in specific indicators such as Educational Attainment and certain aspects of Political Empowerment.
• The index benchmarks the progress of 146 countries (as of recent cycles), providing a comprehensive overview of the status of women globally.

 Additional Information

• Structure of the Global Gender Gap Index:
• Economic Participation and Opportunity: This sub-index includes indicators like labor-force participation rate, wage equality for similar work, and the ratio of women in senior positions.
• Educational Attainment: Measures the gap between women’s and men’s access to primary, secondary, and tertiary education, as well as literacy rates.
• Health and Survival: Focuses on the sex ratio at birth and the gap between women’s and men’s healthy life expectancy.
• Political Empowerment: Evaluates the ratio of women to men in ministerial positions, parliamentary seats, and the number of years with a female head of state.
• World Economic Forum (WEF):
• An international non-governmental organization based in Cologny, Switzerland, founded in 1971 by Klaus Schwab.
• It is well-known for its annual meeting in Davos and for publishing high-impact reports like the Global Risks Report and the Global Competitiveness Report.

The correct answer is Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by this Part..

Key Points

• Article 32 of the Indian Constitution provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, which allows citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described this article as the 'Heart and Soul of the Constitution' because it makes the fundamental rights functional and enforceable.
• Under this article, the Supreme Court acts as the guarantor and defender of fundamental rights and has the power to issue directions or orders.
• The court can issue five types of Prerogative Writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo-Warranto.
• This right cannot be suspended except as otherwise provided for by the Constitution (such as during a National Emergency under Article 359).
• The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a Basic Structure of the Constitution, implying it cannot be removed even via a constitutional amendment.

 Additional Information

• Validation of certain Acts and Regulations:
• This relates to Article 31B, which was added by the 1^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951, to protect laws included in the Ninth Schedule from judicial review.
• Freedom to manage religious affairs:
• This is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 26, allowing religious denominations to manage their own affairs in matters of religion and own property.
• Protection of interests of minorities:
• This is covered under Article 29, which grants any section of citizens residing in India the right to conserve their distinct language, script, or culture.
• Comparison with Article 226:
• While Article 32 gives powers to the Supreme Court, Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose.

The correct answer is Article 212.

Key Points

• Article 212 of the Indian Constitution specifically restricts the Judiciary from inquiring into the internal proceedings of the State Legislature.
• According to Article 212(1), the validity of any proceedings in the Legislature of a State cannot be called into question in any court on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure.
• Article 212(2) provides that no officer or member of the Legislature in whom powers are vested for regulating procedure, conducting business, or maintaining order shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court regarding the exercise of those powers.
• This article is a cornerstone of the Separation of Powers doctrine in India, designed to protect the independence and sovereignty of the legislative branch from judicial overreach.
• It ensures that the House remains the sole master of its own internal proceedings, facilitating the smooth functioning of democracy without constant legal interruptions.

 Additional Information

• Article 213:
• Relates to the Legislative power of the Governor, specifically the authority to promulgate Ordinances when the State Legislature is not in session and urgent action is required.
• Article 211:
• Imposes a restriction on discussion within the State Legislature, prohibiting members from discussing the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court while they are discharging their duties.
• Article 208:
• Deals with the Rules of Procedure, granting each House of the State Legislature the power to frame rules for regulating its procedure and the conduct of its business.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

• Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest and most widely recognized classical dance forms of India, having originated in the southern state of Tamil Nadu.
• The dance form traces its roots back to the Sadir Natyam, a solo dance performed by temple dancers known as Devadasis in ancient South Indian temples.
• It is theoretically grounded in the Natya Shastra, an exhaustive ancient Sanskrit treatise on performing arts attributed to Sage Bharata, dating between 200 BCE and 200 CE.
• The performance is characterized by distinct movements like the Aramandi (half-squat position), intricate footwork, and a complex system of Mudras (hand gestures) used for storytelling.
• A traditional performance follows a specific sequence: Alarippu (invocation), Jatiswaram (pure dance), Shabdam (short compositions), Varnam (the centerpiece), Padam (expressive lyrics), and Tillana (concluding rhythmic piece).
• The dance is accompanied by Carnatic music, typically featuring instruments like the Mridangam, Nadeswaram, Flute, and Cymbals handled by the Nattuvanar.

 Additional Information

• Thiruvathirakali:
• This is a popular folk dance performed by women in the state of Kerala during the festival of Onam and Thiruvathira.
• It is performed in a circular motion around a Nilavilakku (ceremonial lamp) to signify unity and devotion.
• Bagurumba:
• This is a traditional folk dance of the Bodo tribe in the state of Assam, often referred to as the butterfly dance.
• The dancers wear colorful traditional attire like the Dokhona and Aronai, mimicking the movements of nature.
• Veeranatyam:
• Also known as the Dance of the Brave, it is a ritualistic folk dance from Andhra Pradesh associated with the Veerabhadra cult.
• The performance is highly energetic and is usually conducted in Shiva temples using huge percussion instruments.

The correct answer is Nagaland.

Key Points

• Seecha and Kukui Kucho are indigenous traditional folk dances performed by the Angami Naga tribe, which is one of the major ethnic groups in the state of Nagaland.
• These dance forms are primarily showcased during the Sekrenyi festival, a ten-day celebration observed in February that signifies purification and the sanctification of the community.
• The Seecha dance is characterized by synchronized movements and rhythmic chanting, traditionally performed by men in full warrior attire to depict bravery and historical triumphs.
• Kukui Kucho is a communal dance that reflects the agricultural lifestyle and social bond of the Angami people, often accompanied by the melodious tunes of indigenous instruments like the Tati.

 Additional Information

• Nagaland:
• Commonly referred to as the Land of Festivals, it is home to 16 major tribes, each possessing distinct customs, languages, and traditional dances.
• The Hornbill Festival, held in the first week of December at Kisama Heritage Village, is a major cultural event where all tribes perform their traditional dances, including the War Dance and the Zeliang bamboo dance.
• Other notable folk dances from the state include Monyu Asho (Phom tribe), Melo Phita (Angami tribe), and Aaluyattu (Konyak tribe).
• The Sekrenyi festival, where Seecha is performed, involves rituals like Phousanyi (cleansing) and the Thekra Hie (folk singing by the youth).

The correct answer is Ministry of Earth Sciences.

Key Points

• NCMRWF stands for the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting, which is a premier scientific institution specializing in Numerical Weather Prediction (NWP) and computational atmospheric science.
• It functions as a subordinate office under the administrative control of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India.
• Originally established in 1988 under the Department of Science and Technology, it was later integrated into the newly created Ministry of Earth Sciences in July 2006.
• Located in Noida, Uttar Pradesh, the center is mandated to develop and provide high-resolution Global and Regional forecast models to improve the prediction accuracy of the Indian Summer Monsoon.
• It utilizes state-of-the-art High-Performance Computing (HPC) infrastructure, such as the Mihir supercomputer, to generate medium-range forecasts that cover a period of 3 to 10 days.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES):
• It was formed in 2006 to provide a holistic approach to oceanography, meteorology, hydrology, and seismology.
• Other key bodies under this ministry include the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), and INCOIS.
• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC):
• Responsible for planning and coordinating environmental and forestry policies, including wildlife conservation and the National Action Plan on Climate Change.
• Ministry of Cooperation:
• Created in July 2021, this ministry focuses on strengthening the cooperative movement in India under the vision of 'Sahakar se Samriddhi'.
• Ministry of Education:
• Formerly known as the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), it oversees School Education, Higher Education, and the implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.

The correct answer is Cymbals.

Key Points

• Silnyen and Bubjal (often spelled Bugjal or Bup-chal) are traditional percussion instruments essential to the cultural and religious fabric of Ladakh and the broader Trans-Himalayan region.
• Both instruments are classified as idiophones, specifically types of cymbals made from brass, bronze, or other metallic alloys to produce resonant sounds.
• Silnyen is a flat, rimless cymbal typically used in Tibetan Buddhist monastic rituals to accompany melodic chants and provide a subtle rhythmic pulse.
• Bubjal is characterized by a large, prominent central boss or dome; these cymbals are struck together horizontally to produce a loud, clashing sound used to drive the rhythm of Cham dances (sacred masked dances).
• These instruments are rarely played in isolation and are usually part of a monastic ensemble that includes drums and long horns to facilitate meditation and tantric ceremonies.

 Additional Information

• Ladakhi Musical Instruments:
• Surna: A double-reed wind instrument, similar to the Shehnai, which provides the melody in traditional Ladakhi folk and festival music.
• Daman: A set of two kettle drums made of copper and covered with leather, traditionally played by the Mon community.
• Lingbu: A traditional flute used by shepherds and in folk songs across the high-altitude plateaus.
• Dhyangro: A frame drum used primarily by shamans and in specific ritualistic contexts in the Himalayan belt.
• Monastic Context:
• In Gompas (monasteries), musical instruments represent sensory offerings to deities, where the Silnyen represents peaceful sound and the Bubjal represents wrathful or powerful sound.
• The Dungchen (long copper horn) and Gyaling (oboe-like instrument) are often paired with these cymbals during major festivals like Hemis Tsechu.

The correct answer is Europa Clipper.

Key Points

• The Europa Clipper is a major NASA interplanetary mission specifically designed to study Europa, one of Jupiter's most intriguing Galilean moons.
• Launched on October 14, 2024, aboard a SpaceX Falcon Heavy rocket, the spacecraft aims to determine if there are places below the moon's icy surface that could support life.
• The mission does not orbit the moon itself but instead orbits Jupiter, performing 49 close flybys of Europa to protect the sensitive electronics from the planet's intense radiation belts.
• Key scientific goals include measuring the thickness of the ice shell, investigating the interaction between the subsurface ocean and the surface, and characterizing the geological features of the moon.
• The spacecraft is the largest ever built by NASA for a planetary mission, featuring massive solar arrays to harvest sunlight in the dim environment of the outer solar system.

 Additional Information

• JUICE (Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer):
• This is a mission led by the European Space Agency (ESA), launched in April 2023.
• While it will fly past Europa and Callisto, its primary objective is to eventually enter orbit around Ganymede, making it the first spacecraft to orbit a moon other than Earth's moon.
• Europa's Habitability:
• Europa is considered a primary target for astrobiology because it likely harbors a salty liquid water ocean containing more water than all of Earth's oceans combined.
• The mission carries nine science instruments, including ice-penetrating radar (REASON) and a magnetometer, to confirm the ocean's depth and salinity.
• Legacy Missions:
• The Galileo spacecraft (1989–2003) provided the initial data suggesting the existence of Europa's ocean, which inspired the development of the Europa Clipper mission.

The correct answer is Tyndall effect.

Key Points

• The Tyndall effect is defined as the phenomenon where a beam of light is scattered by colloidal particles or particles in a very fine suspension, making the path of the light visible to the observer.
• When a fine beam of light enters a dark room through a small hole, it is intercepted by dust and smoke particles suspended in the air. These particles scatter the incident light in various directions, which allows the trajectory of the beam to be clearly seen.
• The intensity of the scattered light depends on the density of the particles and the frequency of the incident light. Generally, shorter wavelengths (blue light) are scattered more strongly than longer wavelengths (red light).
• This effect can also be observed in nature when sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest. In this scenario, the mist contains tiny droplets of water that act as colloidal particles dispersed in the air, causing the light to scatter.
• The Tyndall effect is used to distinguish between a true solution and a colloidal solution, as true solutions do not scatter light because their particles are too small (usually less than 1 nanometer).

 Additional Information

• Brownian movement
• It describes the continuous, random zig-zag motion of microscopic particles suspended in a fluid (liquid or gas).
• This motion results from the constant bombardment of the particles by the fast-moving molecules of the surrounding medium.
• Diffraction
• It refers to the bending of light waves as they pass around the edge of an object or through a narrow aperture.
• This phenomenon is most prominent when the size of the obstacle or opening is comparable to the wavelength of the light.
• Dispersion
• It is the process where white light splits into its seven constituent colors (VIBGYOR) when it passes through a transparent medium like a glass prism.
• This occurs because different colors of light travel at different speeds through the medium, resulting in different degrees of refraction.

The correct answer is Free kick.

Key Points

• A Field Goal is a goal scored during open play in Field Hockey. It is only considered valid if an attacking player touches the ball with their stick within the striking circle (also known as the 'D') before it enters the goal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• A Penalty Corner is a set-piece awarded when a defending team commits a foul inside the striking circle or an intentional foul within the 23-meter area. The ball is injected from the back-line, and a goal can be scored after the ball has been controlled outside the circle line. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• A Penalty Stroke is the most severe penalty in hockey, awarded for fouls that prevent a certain goal or for intentional fouls in the circle. It involves a one-on-one situation between an attacker and the goalkeeper from the penalty spot located 6.4 meters from the goal. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• A Free kick (properly called a Free Hit in hockey) is a method to restart play after a foul is committed outside the circle. According to International Hockey Federation (FIH) rules, a goal cannot be scored directly from a free hit; the ball must be touched by another player or travel at least 5 meters before a goal can be legally attempted. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• The Striking Circle (The 'D'):
• This area is a semi-circle with a radius of 14.63 meters (16 yards).
• No goal can be scored from outside this area unless the ball is touched by an attacker within the circle.
• Governing Body:
• The International Hockey Federation (FIH) is the world governing body for Field Hockey and Indoor Field Hockey.
• It was founded in 1924 and is headquartered in Lausanne, Switzerland.
• Game Basics:
• A standard match consists of 11 players per side and lasts for 60 minutes, divided into four 15-minute quarters.
• If a ball is hit from outside the circle and enters the goal without being touched by an attacker, a 15-meter free hit is awarded to the defending team.

The correct answer is 4^th.

Key Points

• The Khelo India Winter Games 2024 represented the fourth edition of the prestigious national-level multi-sport event specifically dedicated to winter sports in India.
• The 2024 event was divided into two legs; the first leg was hosted in Leh, Ladakh from February 2 to 6, and the second leg took place in Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir from February 21 to 25.
• A total of six major sports disciplines were featured in this edition, including Ice Hockey, Ice Skating, Ski Mountaineering, Alpine Skiing, Snowboarding, and Nordic Skiing.
• The Indian Army emerged as the overall champion of the 4^th edition, securing the top spot in the medal tally with a total of 21 medals, including 10 gold medals.
• The event serves as a critical component of the broader Khelo India program, aimed at identifying grass-root level talent and preparing athletes for the Winter Olympics and other international arenas.

 Additional Information

• Mascot and Cultural Significance:
• The official mascot for the 2024 games was Sheen-e She, a Snow Leopard. This choice was made to highlight the ecological importance of the Himalayan region and the conservation of the endangered snow leopard species.
• Evolution of the Games:
• The 1^st edition was inaugurated in 2020 with venues in both Leh and Gulmarg, marking the beginning of organized national winter sports competitions.
• The 2^nd edition followed in 2021, primarily hosted in Gulmarg, showcasing increased participation from various states and union territories.
• The 3^rd edition was held in 2023 in Gulmarg, where the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir topped the medal table.
• Governance:
• The games are organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports in coordination with the Sports Authority of India (SAI) and the Winter Games Association of the respective host regions.

Shortcut Trick

Apply BODMAS: Solve Brackets, then Multiplication, then Addition/Subtraction.

Step 1: (41 + 22) = 63

Step 2: 63 × 2 = 126

Step 3: 84 + 45 − 39 + 126 − 91 = 129 − 39 + 126 − 91 = 125

∴ The correct answer is 125.

Alternate Method

Given: 84 + 45 − 39 + (41 + 22) × 2 − 91

According to the BODMAS rule, we solve the expression in the following order: Brackets, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

⇒ 84 + 45 − 39 + (63) × 2 − 91

⇒ 84 + 45 − 39 + 126 − 91

⇒ (84 + 45 + 126) − (39 + 91)

⇒ 255 − 130

⇒ 125

∴ The correct answer is 125.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It is a standard rule to simplify arithmetic expressions. B-Brackets (), O-Of/Orders (roots/indices), D-Division (÷), M-Multiplication (×), A-Addition (+), S-Subtraction (−).

Associative Property

Addition and Subtraction are on the same priority level. When both are present, they are generally solved from left to right.

Grouping Method

To minimize errors, group all positive terms together and all negative terms together before performing the final subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Solve using the BODMAS priority: Brackets → Division → Multiplication → Addition → Subtraction.

Calculate multiplication and division parts: 16 × 2 = 32 and 39 ÷ 3 = 13.

Expression: 84 + 27 − 32 + 13 + 21 − 13.

Notice +13 and −13 cancel out, leaving: 84 + 27 − 32 + 21 = 111 − 32 + 21 = 79 + 21 = 100.

∴ The correct answer is 100.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 84 + 27 − (16 × 2) + 39 ÷ 3 + 21 − 13

Formula Used: BODMAS Rule

⇒ 84 + 27 − 32 + 39 ÷ 3 + 21 − 13 (Solving Bracket: 16 × 2 = 32)

⇒ 84 + 27 − 32 + 13 + 21 − 13 (Solving Division: 39 ÷ 3 = 13)

⇒ (84 + 27 + 13 + 21) − 32 − 13 (Grouping Addition terms)

⇒ 145 − 32 − 13

⇒ 145 − 45 (Solving Subtraction)

⇒ 100

∴ The correct answer is 100.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It defines the order of operations: Brackets (), Of (orders/powers), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Priority of Brackets

When multiple brackets are present, the order of solving is Small Brackets ( ), then Curly Brackets { }, and finally Square Brackets [ ].

Commutative Property

In simplification, Addition and Multiplication can be performed in any order, but Subtraction and Division must follow the left-to-right sequence after higher priority operations.

Shortcut Trick

Compare the integer parts of the mixed fractions first.

For 1 3/5, the integer part is 1.

For 2 1/9 and 2 1/4, the integer part is 2.

For 13/6, converting to a mixed fraction gives 2 1/6, which has an integer part of 2.

Since 1 is less than 2, the fraction with the smallest integer part is the smallest.

∴ The correct answer is 1 3/5.

Alternate Method

Given values: 1 3/5, 2 1/9, 2 1/4, 13/6

Convert all mixed fractions and improper fractions into decimal form for direct comparison:

⇒ 1 3/5 = 1 + (3 ÷ 5) = 1 + 0.6 = 1.6

⇒ 2 1/9 = 2 + (1 ÷ 9) = 2 + 0.111... ≈ 2.11

⇒ 2 1/4 = 2 + (1 ÷ 4) = 2 + 0.25 = 2.25

⇒ 13/6 = 13 ÷ 6 = 2.166...

Comparing the decimals: 1.6 < 2.11 < 2.166 < 2.25

⇒ 1.6 is the minimum value.

∴ The correct answer is 1 3/5.

Additional Information

Comparing Mixed Fractions

If the whole number parts are different, the fraction with the smaller whole number is smaller. If they are equal, compare the fractional parts by cross-multiplication.

Conversion to Decimals

To convert a fraction a/b to a decimal, divide the numerator a by the denominator b. This is often the most reliable method for multi-value comparisons.

Common Denominator Method

To compare fractions without decimals, find the LCM of all denominators and convert all fractions to have this common base; the one with the smallest numerator is the smallest.

Shortcut Trick

Separate the integer parts and the decimal parts for a faster addition.

Sum of integers: 600 + 60 + 6 + 0 = 666

Sum of decimals: 0.60 + 0.006 + 0.0606 = 0.6666

Total sum: 666 + 0.6666 = 666.6666

∴ The correct answer is 666.6666.

Alternate Method

Given values:

Term 1 = 600

Term 2 = 60.60

Term 3 = 6.006

Term 4 = 0.0606

To add these decimals accurately, align the decimal points and fill empty places with placeholder zeros:

⇒ 600.0000

⇒ + 060.6000

⇒ + 006.0060

⇒ + 000.0606

Now, add column by column from right to left:

⇒ Ten-thousandths place: 0 + 0 + 0 + 6 = 6

⇒ Thousandths place: 0 + 0 + 6 + 0 = 6

⇒ Hundredths place: 0 + 0 + 0 + 6 = 6

⇒ Tenths place: 0 + 6 + 0 + 0 = 6

⇒ Units place: 0 + 0 + 6 + 0 = 6

⇒ Tens place: 0 + 6 + 0 + 0 = 6

⇒ Hundreds place: 6 + 0 + 0 + 0 = 6

⇒ Total Sum = 666.6666

∴ The correct answer is 666.6666.

Additional Information

Decimal Alignment

When adding or subtracting decimals, the most crucial step is to align the decimal points vertically to ensure digits of the same place value are added together.

Placeholder Zeros

Adding trailing zeros to the right of the last digit in a decimal does not change its value but helps in maintaining column symmetry during calculation.

BODMAS Rule

In complex simplifications, always follow the order: Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the algebraic identity: (a + b)² + (a − b)² = 2(a² + b²).

Here, a = 3 and b = √2.

Simplified value = 2(3² + (√2)²) − 10

⇒ 2(9 + 2) − 10 = 2(11) − 10 = 22 − 10 = 12.

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Alternate Method

Given: (3 + √2)² + (3 − √2)² − 10

Formula Used: Expansion of (a ± b)² = a² + b² ± 2ab

⇒ (3² + (√2)² + 2 × 3 × √2) + (3² + (√2)² − 2 × 3 × √2) − 10

⇒ (9 + 2 + 6√2) + (9 + 2 − 6√2) − 10

⇒ 11 + 6√2 + 11 − 6√2 − 10

⇒ 22 − 10

⇒ 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Additional Information

Algebraic Identity - Sum of Squares

The identity (a + b)² + (a − b)² = 2(a² + b²) is used to simplify the sum of squares of binomials with opposite signs.

Algebraic Identity - Difference of Squares of Binomials

The identity (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab is useful when subtracting the square of a difference from the square of a sum.

Standard Difference of Squares

The product of a sum and a difference is given by (a + b)(a − b) = a² − b².

Shortcut Trick

Rule: A number is divisible by 8 if its last three digits are divisible by 8.

1224 → 224 ÷ 8 = 28 (Divisible)

4312 → 312 ÷ 8 = 39 (Divisible)

5678 → 678 ÷ 8 = 84.75 (Not Divisible)

7024 → 024 ÷ 8 = 3 (Divisible)

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numbers to be checked are 1224, 4312, 5678, and 7024.

Formula Used:

Divisibility rule of 8: If the number formed by the last 3 digits of a given number is divisible by 8, then the whole number is divisible by 8.

⇒ For 1224: The last three digits are 224. Dividing 224 by 8: 224 ÷ 8 = 28. Since the remainder is 0, 1224 is divisible by 8.

⇒ For 4312: The last three digits are 312. Dividing 312 by 8: 312 ÷ 8 = 39. Since the remainder is 0, 4312 is divisible by 8.

⇒ For 5678: The last three digits are 678. Dividing 678 by 8: 678 ÷ 8 = 84 with a remainder of 6. Therefore, 5678 is not divisible by 8.

⇒ For 7024: The last three digits are 024. Dividing 24 by 8: 24 ÷ 8 = 3. Since the remainder is 0, 7024 is divisible by 8.

⇒ Total count of numbers divisible by 8 = 3 (which are 1224, 4312, and 7024).

∴ The correct answer is 3.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 4

A number is divisible by 4 if its last two digits are divisible by 4 or are both zeros (00).

Divisibility by 2ⁿ

A number is divisible by 2ⁿ if the number formed by its last n digits is divisible by 2ⁿ (e.g., last 1 digit for 2, last 2 for 4, last 3 for 8).

Divisibility by 3 and 9

A number is divisible by 3 (or 9) if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3 (or 9).

Shortcut Trick

The Side of a Square is always the square root of its Area.

Side = √Area

Side = √64 = 8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Area of a square = 64 cm²

Formula used: Area = (Side)²

⇒ Side² = 64

⇒ Side = √64

⇒ Side = 8 cm

∴ The correct answer is 8 cm.

Additional Information

Perimeter of a Square

The total boundary length of a square, calculated as 4 × Side.

Diagonal of a Square

The distance between opposite corners, given by Side × √2.

Area using Diagonal

Area can also be calculated if the diagonal (d) is known: Area = d² ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

The side of a square is the square root of its area.

Side = √Area = √81

Side = 9 cm

∴ The correct answer is 9 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of the square = 81 cm²

Formula Used:

Area of a square = (side)²

Calculations:

⇒ (side)² = 81

⇒ side = √81

⇒ side = 9 cm

∴ The correct answer is 9 cm.

Additional Information

Perimeter of a Square

The perimeter is the total length of all four sides: Perimeter = 4 × side.

Diagonal of a Square

The diagonal (d) of a square with side 'a' is given by the formula d = a√2.

Area in terms of Diagonal

The area can also be expressed using the diagonal: Area = (Diagonal)² ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Sum of length and breadth = Perimeter ÷ 2 = 24 ÷ 2 = 12 cm.

Given Length = 5 cm, so Breadth = 12 − 5 = 7 cm.

Area = Length × Breadth = 5 × 7 = 35 cm².

∴ The correct answer is 35 cm².

Alternate Method

Given:

Perimeter of the Rectangle = 24 cm

Length of the Rectangle (l) = 5 cm

Formula Used:

Perimeter (P) = 2 × (Length + Breadth)

Area (A) = Length × Breadth

Calculations:

⇒ 2 × (5 + Breadth) = 24

⇒ 5 + Breadth = 24 ÷ 2

⇒ 5 + Breadth = 12

⇒ Breadth = 12 − 5 = 7 cm

⇒ Area = 5 × 7

⇒ Area = 35 cm²

∴ The correct answer is 35 cm².

Additional Information

Properties of a Rectangle

A rectangle is a quadrilateral with four right angles (90°). Opposite sides are equal and parallel.

Diagonal of a Rectangle

The diagonal (d) can be calculated using the Pythagorean theorem: d = √(l² + b²).

Relationship between Area and Perimeter

For a fixed perimeter, a square has the maximum possible area among all rectangles.

Shortcut Trick

A number is divisible by 88 if it is divisible by both 8 and 11.

Check the largest option 9988: Divisible by 11 but not by 8 (988 ÷ 8 = 123.5).

Check the next largest option 9944: Divisible by 8 (944 ÷ 8 = 118) and 11 ((9+4) − (9+4) = 0).

∴ The correct answer is 9944.

Alternate Method

Given: Largest 4-digit number = 9999; Divisor = 88.

⇒ Divide the largest 4-digit number 9999 by 88 to find the remainder.

⇒ 9999 ÷ 88 = 113.625

⇒ Quotient = 113

⇒ 88 × 113 = 9944

⇒ Remainder = 9999 − 9944 = 55

⇒ Largest 4-digit number divisible by 88 = 9999 − 55 = 9944

∴ The correct answer is 9944.

Additional Information

Divisibility Rule of 8

A number is divisible by 8 if its last three digits are divisible by 8 (e.g., in 9944, 944 ÷ 8 = 118).

Divisibility Rule of 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the absolute difference between the sum of digits at odd places and even places is 0 or a multiple of 11.

Composite Divisibility

For any number to be divisible by a composite number like 88, it must be divisible by its co-prime factors (8 and 11 in this case).

Shortcut Trick

Total sum of the three values = 90 × 3 = 270.

Let the first value be x, then the third value = 3x, and the second value = 3x − 10.

Combined sum: x + (3x − 10) + 3x = 7x − 10.

7x − 10 = 270 ⇒ 7x = 280 ⇒ x = 40.

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Alternate Method

Given: Average of 3 values = 90, First value = 1/3 of Third value, Third value = Second value + 10.

Formula Used: Sum = Average × Number of terms

⇒ Total sum = 90 × 3 = 270

⇒ Let the first value be A, the second be B, and the third be C.

⇒ According to the question, A = C/3 ⇒ C = 3A

⇒ Also, C = B + 10 ⇒ B = C − 10 = 3A − 10

⇒ A + B + C = 270

⇒ A + (3A − 10) + 3A = 270

⇒ 7A − 10 = 270

⇒ 7A = 280

⇒ A = 280 ÷ 7 = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Additional Information

Basic Average Concept

The average or arithmetic mean is calculated as the sum of all observations divided by the total number of observations: Average = Σx ÷ n.

Total Sum Property

The total sum of a data set can be found by multiplying the average by the number of terms: Sum = Average × n.

Linear Equations in Averages

When relationships between values are given as ratios or differences, substitute all variables in terms of a single variable to solve for the unknown first value.

Shortcut Trick

Break the numbers into their prime factors: 11, 13, (2 × 11), and (2 × 13).

To find the LCM, take the highest power of each prime factor present: 2, 11, and 13.

Multiply them together: 2 × 11 × 13 = 286.

∴ The correct answer is 286.

Alternate Method

Given: The numbers are 11, 13, 22, and 26.

Formula Used: Least Common Multiple (LCM) is the smallest number that is a multiple of all the given numbers.

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of 11 = 11¹

⇒ Prime factorization of 13 = 13¹

⇒ Prime factorization of 22 = 2¹ × 11¹

⇒ Prime factorization of 26 = 2¹ × 13¹

⇒ LCM = (Highest power of 2) × (Highest power of 11) × (Highest power of 13)

⇒ LCM = 2¹ × 11¹ × 13¹

⇒ LCM = 2 × 143

⇒ LCM = 286

∴ The correct answer is 286.

Additional Information

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The LCM of two or more numbers is the smallest number (not zero) that is a multiple of all the numbers in the set.

Prime Factorization Method

This method involves expressing each number as a product of prime numbers and then taking the highest power of each prime factor present across all numbers.

Relationship with HCF

For any two positive integers 'a' and 'b', the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Shortcut Trick

To find when they meet at the starting point, calculate the LCM of their individual times.

Times given are 120, 180, and 240 seconds.

LCM(120, 180, 240) = 720 seconds.

Convert seconds to minutes: 720 ÷ 60 = 12 min.

∴ The correct answer is 12 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 120 seconds

Time taken by B = 180 seconds

Time taken by C = 240 seconds

Formula Used:

Meeting time at starting point = LCM of (Time_A, Time_B, Time_C)

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of 120 = 2³ × 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 180 = 2² × 3² × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 240 = 2⁴ × 3 × 5

⇒ LCM = Highest power of each prime factor = 2⁴ × 3² × 5¹

⇒ LCM = 16 × 9 × 5 = 720 seconds

⇒ Time in minutes = 720 ÷ 60

⇒ Time = 12 min

∴ The correct answer is 12 min.

Additional Information

Meeting at the Starting Point

The time when multiple objects meeting again at the starting point is always the LCM of the time taken by each to complete one full revolution.

Meeting for the First Time (Anywhere)

To find when they meet for the first time anywhere on the track, use Relative Speed. Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed (Difference in speeds for same direction, sum for opposite).

LCM Applications

Commonly used in problems involving traffic lights changing simultaneously, bells tolling together, or periodic events overlapping.

Shortcut Trick

Convert Profit Percentage to fraction: 25% = 1/4

In the fraction, the denominator represents Cost Price (CP) and the numerator represents Profit.

⇒ CP = 4 units and Profit = 1 unit

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit = 4 + 1 = 5 units

⇒ Required Ratio (SP : CP) = 5 : 4

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 4.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit percentage = 25%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (100 + Profit %)/100

Calculations:

Let the Cost Price (CP) be 100 units.

⇒ Profit = 25% of 100 = 25 units

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit

⇒ SP = 100 + 25 = 125 units

⇒ Ratio of Selling Price to Cost Price = SP/CP

⇒ Ratio = 125/100

⇒ Ratio = (125 ÷ 25) / (100 ÷ 25)

⇒ Ratio = 5/4

∴ The correct answer is 5 : 4.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Relation

Profit occurs when SP > CP. Profit = SP − CP. Loss occurs when CP > SP. Loss = CP − SP.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount.

Effective Profit with Discount

Profit % = [(100 + Markup %) × (100 − Discount %) / 100] − 100.

Shortcut Trick

Profit = 30% = 3/10

This means if the Cost Price (CP) is 10 units, the Profit is 3 units.

Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit = 10 + 3 = 13 units.

Required ratio of SP : CP = 13 : 10.

∴ The correct answer is 13 : 10.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit percentage = 30%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (100 + Profit%)/100

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) be 100.

⇒ Profit = 30% of 100 = (30/100) × 100 = 30.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit = 100 + 30 = 130.

⇒ Ratio = SP/CP = 130/100

⇒ Ratio = 13/10

⇒ Ratio = 13 : 10

∴ The correct answer is 13 : 10.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when SP > CP. Loss occurs when CP > SP. Both percentages are standardly calculated as (Difference/CP) × 100.

Successive Percentage Change

If an article is sold at a profit of x% and then again at a profit of y%, the net profit percentage is given by [x + y + (x × y)/100]%.

Marked Price and Discount

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount. The relation between CP and MP is MP/CP = (100 + Profit%)/(100 − Discount%).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Smaller number to Larger number = 15% : 20% = 3 : 4.

Total units = 3 + 4 = 7 units.

7 units = 1610 ⇒ 1 unit = 1610 ÷ 7 = 230.

Larger number = 4 units = 4 × 230 = 920.

∴ The correct answer is 920.

Alternate Method

Given: Sum of numbers = 1610, and 20% of the smaller number = 15% of the larger number.

Formula: Ratio of values is the inverse of the ratio of their percentage coefficients.

Let the smaller number be x and the larger number be y.

⇒ 20% of x = 15% of y

⇒ 0.20 × x = 0.15 × y

⇒ x/y = 0.15 / 0.20

⇒ x/y = 15 / 20 = 3 / 4

⇒ x : y = 3 : 4

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 3 + 4 = 7 units

⇒ 7 units = 1610

⇒ 1 unit = 1610 ÷ 7 = 230

⇒ Larger number (y) = 4 units = 4 × 230

⇒ Larger number (y) = 920

∴ The correct answer is 920.

Additional Information

Percentage Inverse Relation

If a% of A = b% of B, then A : B = b : a. This property is widely used in Mixtures and Alligations and Ratio problems.

Proportional Distribution

A value can be divided into a ratio x : y by calculating (x / (x+y)) × Total and (y / (x+y)) × Total respectively.

Sum and Difference from Ratios

Once the common multiplier (1 unit) is found, any property like the difference (4−3=1 unit) or sum can be calculated instantly.

Shortcut Trick

Remaining food lasts 600 men for (90 − 6) = 84 days.

Since the number of men is halved (from 600 to 300), the time will double.

Required days = 84 × 2 = 168 days.

∴ The correct answer is 168 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial group size (M₁) = 600 men

Initial duration (D₁) = 90 days

Time passed = 6 days

Men remaining (M₂) = 600 − 300 = 300 men

Formula Used:

Remaining Food = M₁ × (D₁ − days passed) = M₂ × D₂

⇒ Remaining days for the original group = 90 − 6 = 84 days

⇒ Total man-days of food left = 600 × 84

⇒ This food is now consumed by 300 men for D₂ days

⇒ 600 × 84 = 300 × D₂

⇒ D₂ = (600 × 84) ÷ 300

⇒ D₂ = 2 × 84 = 168 days

∴ The correct answer is 168 days.

Additional Information

Inverse Variation in Provisions

When the total amount of food is constant, the number of men and days vary inversely. If the number of men is reduced to half, the food will last twice as long.

General Chain Rule Formula

The core formula for such problems is M₁D₁H₁/W₁ = M₂D₂H₂/W₂. In provision cases, the work (W) is the food stock consumed.

Man-Days Concept

One man-day is the amount of food one man eats in one day. Total food = Total men × Total days.

Shortcut Trick

Assume Total Distance = 30 units (LCM of 10 and 15, multiplied by the fraction denominator 3).

First Part (1/3 of 30) = 10 units at 10 km/hr → Time₁ = 10 ÷ 10 = 1 hour.

Second Part (Remaining 20 units) = 20 units at 15 km/hr → Time₂ = 20 ÷ 15 = 4/3 hours.

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time = 30 ÷ (1 + 4/3) = 30 ÷ (7/3) = 90/7 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 90/7 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed 1 (v₁) = 10 km/hr for 1/3 of the distance.

Speed 2 (v₂) = 15 km/hr for the remaining 2/3 of the distance.

Formula Used:

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Calculations:

Let the total distance be D km.

⇒ Time taken for the first part (t₁) = (D/3) ÷ 10 = D/30 hours.

⇒ Time taken for the second part (t₂) = (2D/3) ÷ 15 = 2D/45 hours.

⇒ Total Time (T) = t₁ + t₂ = D/30 + 2D/45

⇒ T = (3D + 4D) ÷ 90 = 7D/90 hours.

⇒ Average Speed = D ÷ (7D/90)

⇒ Average Speed = 90/7 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 90/7 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed (Equal Distances)

If a body covers two equal distances at speeds x and y, then Average Speed = 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Average Speed (Equal Time Intervals)

If a body travels for equal time intervals at speeds v₁ and v₂, then Average Speed = (v₁ + v₂) ÷ 2.

Relative Speed

For two objects moving in the same direction at speeds u and v, relative speed = |u − v|. For opposite directions, relative speed = u + v.

Shortcut Trick

Use the ratio method: CP : MP = (100 − Discount%) : (100 + Profit%)

CP : MP = (100 − 25) : (100 + 60) = 75 : 160 = 15 : 32

Given, 32 units = Rs. 800 ⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 25

Cost Price = 15 units = 15 × 25 = Rs. 375

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 375.

Alternate Method

Given: Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 800, Discount = 25%, Profit = 60%

Formula: Selling Price (SP) = MP × (100 − D%)/100 | CP = SP × 100 / (100 + P%)

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 800 × (100 − 25)/100

⇒ SP = 800 × 75/100 = Rs. 600

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = 600 × 100 / (100 + 60)

⇒ CP = 600 × 100/160 = 600 × 5/8

⇒ CP = 75 × 5 = Rs. 375

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 375.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP and MP

The direct formula linking Cost Price and Marked Price is: CP/MP = (100 − Discount%) / (100 + Profit%).

Markup Percentage

Markup is the amount added to CP to reach MP. Markup % = [(MP − CP) / CP] × 100.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts a% and b% are given, the equivalent single discount is [a + b − (ab/100)]%.

Shortcut Trick

Total Marked Price for 15,000 articles = 400 × (15,000 ÷ 500) = 400 × 30 = ₹12,000.

Discount = 25% ⇒ Ratio of Marked Price to Selling Price = 100 : 75 = 4 : 3.

Since 4 units = ₹12,000, then 1 unit = ₹3,000.

Selling Price (3 units) = 3 × 3,000 = ₹9,000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹9000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) of 500 articles = ₹400

Discount percentage = 25%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Marked Price of 1 article = 400 ÷ 500 = ₹0.80

⇒ Total Marked Price for 15,000 articles = 15,000 × 0.80 = ₹12,000

⇒ Selling Price of 15,000 articles = 12,000 × (100 − 25) ÷ 100

⇒ Selling Price = 12,000 × 75 ÷ 100

⇒ Selling Price = 12,000 × 0.75 = ₹9,000

∴ The correct answer is ₹9000.

Additional Information

Relationship between MP and SP

The Selling Price is derived by subtracting the Discount from the Marked Price: SP = MP − Discount.

Discount Percentage

Discount % = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100. It is always calculated on the Marked Price unless stated otherwise.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁ and d₂ are given, the effective discount is d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂) ÷ 100.

The correct answer is 'prefer'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the shift from printed books to e-books and digital reading habits.
• In the sentence, the phrase 'rather than' is a major clue, as it is used to express a choice or a preference between two things.
• 'Prefer' means to like one thing or person better than another or others, which perfectly fits the context of choosing screens over paper.
• The other options ('decide', 'manage', 'ignore') do not align as naturally with the comparison being made in the sentence regarding general habits.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: E-books have become increasingly popular in recent years. With the rise of digital devices, many people now 1. prefer to read books on screens rather than on paper. This shift has 2. forced the publishing industry to evolve rapidly. Traditional publishers now offer digital versions of books to keep up with consumer demand. One of the main 3. advantages of e-books is their convenience; thousands of titles can be stored on a single device. However, some readers still prefer the 4. physical experience of holding a printed book. Despite this, the growth of digital reading is unlikely to 5. slow anytime soon.

Additional Information

• Decide: To make a choice or come to a resolution.
• Manage: To be in charge of or to succeed in doing something difficult.
• Ignore: To refuse to take notice of or acknowledge.

The correct answer is 'forced'.

Key Points

• The sentence explains the impact of the shift from traditional paper books to digital screens on the publishing industry.
• The context suggests that because consumer behavior changed, the industry had no choice but to adapt and change its methods quickly to remain relevant and profitable.
• 'Forced' is the most suitable verb as it indicates that an external circumstance (the rise of digital devices) compelled the industry to take action (evolve rapidly).
• In business and economics, market shifts often force companies to modernize their strategies to keep up with consumer demand.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: E-books have become increasingly popular in recent years. With the rise of digital devices, many people now (1) prefer to read books on screens rather than on paper. This shift has (2) forced the publishing industry to evolve rapidly. Traditional publishers now offer digital versions of books to keep up with consumer demand. One of the main (3) advantages of e-books is their convenience; thousands of titles can be stored on a single device. However, some readers still prefer the (4) physical experience of holding a printed book. Despite this, the growth of digital reading is unlikely to (5) slow anytime soon.

Additional Information

• Caused: Means to make something happen, but it does not carry the same weight of compulsion or market pressure as 'forced' in this context.
• Expected: Means to look forward to something or consider it likely to happen; it does not describe the actual driver of the change.
• Allowed: Means to give permission; however, the evolution of an industry is usually a reaction to competition rather than something requiring permission.

The correct answer is 'advantages'.

Key Points

• The sentence discusses the benefits and positive features of e-books, specifically citing their convenience and massive storage capacity.
• The appropriate noun must denote a favorable feature or benefit that makes the product desirable.
• 'Advantages' fits perfectly as it refers to a condition or circumstance that puts one in a favorable position or a beneficial feature of something.
• Other options such as 'problems' and 'drawbacks' refer to negative qualities or disadvantages, which would contradict the positive context of convenience.
• 'Solutions' refers to a means of solving a problem, which does not fit the description of e-book features in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: E-books have become increasingly popular in recent years. With the rise of digital devices, many people now (1) prefer to read books on screens rather than on paper. This shift has (2) forced the publishing industry to evolve rapidly. Traditional publishers now offer digital versions of books to keep up with consumer demand. One of the main (3) advantages of e-books is their convenience; thousands of titles can be stored on a single device. However, some readers still prefer the (4) physical experience of holding a printed book. Despite this, the growth of digital reading is unlikely to (5) slow anytime soon.

Additional Information

• Problems: Refers to matters or situations that are unwelcome or harmful and need to be dealt with.
• Solutions: Refers to the ways of solving a problem or dealing with a difficult situation.
• Drawbacks: Refers to features that render something less acceptable; a disadvantage or downside.

The correct answer is 'physical'.

Key Points

• The sentence compares the modern shift towards digital reading with the traditional experience of reading printed books.
• The phrase 'holding a printed book' refers to the tangible or tactile quality of paper media.
• 'Physical' is the most suitable adjective here because it relates to things that can be sensed, touched, or held, distinguishing it from virtual or digital formats.
• Other options like 'digital' describe the opposite of a printed book, while 'boring' and 'fast' do not logically fit the description of the sensory experience mentioned.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: E-books have become increasingly popular in recent years. With the rise of digital devices, many people now (1) prefer to read books on screens rather than on paper. This shift has (2) forced the publishing industry to evolve rapidly. Traditional publishers now offer digital versions of books to keep up with consumer demand. One of the main (3) advantages of e-books is their convenience; thousands of titles can be stored on a single device. However, some readers still prefer the (4) physical experience of holding a printed book. Despite this, the growth of digital reading is unlikely to (5) slow anytime soon.

Additional Information

• Digital (डिजिटल): Related to computer technology and electronic signals.
• Boring (नीरस): Not interesting or exciting.
• Fast (तेज़): Moving or happening at high speed.

The correct answer is 'slow'.

Key Points

• The sentence discusses the future trajectory of the growth of digital reading.
• The word 'slow' (often used as 'slow down' in this context) means to reduce in speed, rate, or intensity.
• The phrase 'unlikely to slow anytime soon' suggests that the momentum and increasing popularity of e-books will continue at a steady or increasing pace.
• In the context of market trends and digital transformation, 'slow' is the most appropriate term to describe a change in the rate of growth.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: E-books have become increasingly popular in recent years. With the rise of digital devices, many people now (1) prefer to read books on screens rather than on paper. This shift has (2) forced the publishing industry to evolve rapidly. Traditional publishers now offer digital versions of books to keep up with consumer demand. One of the main (3) advantages of e-books is their convenience; thousands of titles can be stored on a single device. However, some readers still prefer the (4) physical experience of holding a printed book. Despite this, the growth of digital reading is unlikely to (5) slow anytime soon.

Additional Information

• Stop: Means to come to an end or cease. While possible, 'slow' is a more common way to describe the tempering of a growth trend.
• Fade: Means to lose brightness, loudness, or strength gradually. It is usually used for colors, light, or memories rather than a statistical growth rate.
• Grow: Means to increase. Saying the growth is 'unlikely to grow' is logically redundant and contradicts the context of the e-book boom.

The correct answer is: What's sauce for the goose is sauce for the gander..

Key Points

• The idiom 'What's sauce for the goose is sauce for the gander' means that what is acceptable or appropriate for one person should be equally acceptable for another. (जो एक के लिए ठीक है, वही दूसरे के लिए भी ठीक है)
• Example: If the manager can take a long lunch break, the employees should be allowed to as well; what's sauce for the goose is sauce for the gander.
• This idiom relies on the pairing of a goose (female) and a gander (male) to illustrate the concept of fairness and equality in treatment.

Therefore, the correct answer is: What's sauce for the goose is sauce for the gander.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained:

• What's sauce for the goose is sauce for the geese (गलत मुहावरा): This is incorrect because the idiom traditionally compares two individuals (male and female) to show that a rule for one applies to the other.
• What's sauce for the goose is sauce for the ewe (गलत मुहावरा): This is incorrect as an ewe is a female sheep, which breaks the consistency of the bird-related metaphor used in the original idiom.
• What's sauce for the colt is sauce for the gander (गलत मुहावरा): This is incorrect as a colt is a young male horse, making the comparison nonsensical within the context of the established proverb.

The correct answer is: Especially.

Key Points

• The word 'Particularly' means to a higher degree than is usual or average; it is used to single out a specific thing or person. (विशेष रूप से)
• Example: I enjoyed the entire meal, particularly the chocolate dessert.
• 'Especially' is a synonym that refers to something being done to a great extent or for a specific purpose or person. (खासकर)
• Example: This book is especially useful for students preparing for competitive exams.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym of 'Particularly' is 'Especially'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Especially.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Generally (आम तौर पर): In most cases; usually or in a general way.
• Example: The weather here is generally warm during the summer months.
• Roughly (लगभग): In a manner that lacks precision; approximately.
• Example: There were roughly two hundred people at the conference.
• Rarely (शायद ही कभी): Not often; seldom or infrequently.
• Example: She rarely goes out late at night.

The correct answer is Option (4) i.e. copy.

Key Points

• The word 'imitate' means to follow as a pattern, model, or example; to copy someone's behavior or appearance. (नकल करना या अनुसरण करना)
• Example: Young children often imitate the gestures and speech patterns of their parents.
• 'copy' refers to the act of doing or making something exactly like someone or something else; it is a direct synonym for imitate. (नकल करना या प्रतिलिपि बनाना)
• Example: Students are instructed not to copy each other's answers during the examination.
• In the given context, when children repeat the behavior of their parents, they are essentially copying them.

Therefore, the correct answer is- copy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Create (रचना करना या बनाना): To bring something into existence through imagination or skill.
• Example: The architect worked hard to create a unique design for the new library.
• lead (नेतृत्व करना या आगे बढ़ना): To guide or direct a group of people or to be in charge.
• Example: The captain will lead the team onto the field for the final match.
• Ignore (नज़रअंदाज़ करना या उपेक्षा करना): To intentionally refuse to notice or pay attention to something.
• Example: It is often best to ignore negative comments and stay positive.

The correct answer is: mplementation.

Key Points

• The word 'mplementation' is incorrectly spelled in the given option (appearing as 'implimentation' in the sentence). The correct spelling is 'implementation', which means the process of putting a decision or plan into effect. (कार्यान्वयन )
• Example: The successful implementation of the new education policy will take some time.
• 'Implementation' is the act of carrying out, execution, or practice of a plan, a method, or any design, idea, model, or policy. (अमल में लाना )
• Example: They are responsible for the implementation of the health program.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word is 'mplementation'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: mplementation.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• guidelines (दिशानिर्देश ): A general rule, principle, or piece of advice.
• Example: The health ministry has issued new guidelines for quarantine.
• infectious (संक्रामक ): (Of a disease) likely to be transmitted to people or organisms through the environment.
• Example: The flu is a highly infectious disease that spreads quickly in winter.
• diseases (रोगों ): A disorder of structure or function in a human, animal, or plant.
• Example: Proper hygiene and vaccination can prevent many infectious diseases.

The correct answer is: Modern.

Key Points

• The word 'ancient' refers to something belonging to the very distant past and no longer in existence or occurring in the present time. (प्राचीन)
• Example: The city is famous for its ancient monuments that date back thousands of years.
• 'Modern' refers to something that relates to the present or recent times as opposed to the remote past; it describes contemporary styles or developments. (आधुनिक)
• Example: The new museum features a mix of modern art and historical artifacts.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'ancient' is 'modern'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Modern.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Old (पुराना): Having lived or existed for only a long time; it is a general term for something not new.
• Example: He decided to sell his old car and buy a more fuel-efficient one.
• Historic (ऐतिहासिक): Something that is famous or important in history.
• Example: The moon landing was a historic event that changed humanity forever.
• Traditional (पारंपरिक): Existing in or as part of a long-established custom or belief.
• Example: The festival was celebrated with traditional music and dance.

The correct answer is The train is expected to arrive on time..

Key Points

• The provided sentence is in the Active Voice and follows the standard syntax: Subject (People) + Verb (expect) + Object (the train) + Infinitive Phrase (to arrive on time).
• In the transition to Passive Voice, the Object of the active sentence (the train) must function as the New Subject of the passive sentence.
• The main verb expect is in the Simple Present Tense. According to English transformational grammar, the passive form for the simple present is is/am/are + Past Participle (V3). Since the train is a singular noun, the auxiliary verb is is paired with the past participle expected.
• The to-infinitive (to arrive) remains in its active infinitive form because the expectation concerns the future action of the train itself. This is a common structure for verbs of perception, calculation, or expectation.
• The original subject People is a General Agent. In passive constructions, indefinite or general agents like people, someone, or they are typically omitted as the focus is placed entirely on the action or the recipient.

 Additional Information

• Passive Voice:
• The Passive Voice is used to emphasize the action (the expectation) and the object (the train) rather than the subject performing the action.
• It is widely utilized in formal reporting, scientific writing, and news headlines to maintain an objective tone.
• Verbs of Opinion and Expectation:
• Verbs such as expect, believe, report, claim, and think can be converted using two passive structures:
• Personal Passive: [Subject] + [Passive Verb] + [to-infinitive] (e.g., The train is expected to arrive...).
• Impersonal Passive: It + [Passive Verb] + [that-clause] (e.g., It is expected that the train will arrive...).
• Tense Maintenance:
• A fundamental rule of voice conversion is that the tense must remain constant. If the active verb is Present Tense (expect), the passive auxiliary must also be Present (is expected). Converting it to was expected (Past) or will be expected (Future) would fundamentally change the meaning of the original statement.

The correct answer is Was the gallery displaying the rare paintings during the summer exhibition?.

Key Points

• The provided sentence 'Were the rare paintings being displayed by the gallery during the summer exhibition?' is in the Passive Voice of the Past Continuous Tense in an interrogative form.
• The structure for Past Continuous (Passive Interrogative) is: Was/Were + Object + being + V3 (Past Participle) + by + Subject?
• To convert this into the Active Voice, the structure must follow: Was/Were + Subject + Verb-ing + Object?
• In the passive sentence, the rare paintings is the object, and the gallery is the agent (subject). Hence, the gallery becomes the grammatical subject in the active voice.
• Since the gallery is a singular collective noun in this context, it requires the auxiliary verb Was rather than 'Were' to maintain subject-verb agreement.
• The passive construction being displayed is converted back to the active present participle form displaying.
• Combining these elements, the correct active construction is 'Was the gallery displaying the rare paintings during the summer exhibition?'.

 Additional Information

• Tense Conversion Rules:
• Simple Past: Active (Did + Subject + V1) vs. Passive (Was/Were + Object + V3). Option 1 uses 'Did', which changes the continuous aspect of the original sentence.
• Past Continuous: Active (Was/Were + Subject + V1-ing) vs. Passive (Was/Were + Object + being + V3). This is the specific rule applicable here.
• Present Perfect: Active (Has/Have + Subject + V3) vs. Passive (Has/Have + Object + been + V3). Option 4 uses 'Have', which incorrectly changes the tense from past to present.
• Subject-Verb Agreement:
• In Option 2, the use of Were with the gallery is a grammatical error because a singular subject must be paired with a singular verb in standard English grammar.

The correct answer is 'of'.

 

Key Points

• The verb smell is typically followed by the preposition of when describing that something has a particular or characteristic scent.
• The construction smell of something is used to indicate the source or the nature of the odor being emitted by the subject (The house).
• In this context, the sentence indicates that the house emits the scent associated with lichens.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 do not form the correct idiomatic or grammatical structure required to describe a specific scent in this sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The house smells of lichens.'

 

Additional Information

• Smell of: Used when something has a specific odor (e.g., smells of garlic, smells of fresh rain).
• Off: In the context of smell, off is usually used as an adjective to mean food has gone bad (e.g., the meat smells off), but it is not used with an object like lichens.
• Smell like: While smell like is also a common way to describe scents, of is the specific preposition provided in the correct grammatical context here.

The correct answer is No improvement required.

Key Points

• The original sentence utilizes the adjective phrase devoid of, which is the standard idiomatic expression in the English language to signify that something is entirely lacking or free from a particular quality.
• Linguistically, the word devoid is derived from the Old French desvuidier (to empty), and in modern English syntax, it is exclusively paired with the preposition of to function as a post-modifier or within a complementary phrase.
• The verb presented is the most contextually appropriate past participle for a courtroom setting, as legal arguments are formally introduced, submitted, or presented by a lawyer to a judge for consideration.
• The subject-verb agreement is correctly maintained in the original sentence, where the plural noun arguments corresponds with the plural verb were.
• As the underlined portion presented by the lawyer were devoid of logic adheres to all rules of syntax, collocation, and formal register, no grammatical improvement is necessary.

 Additional Information

• Prepositional Errors:
• The use of devoid in, devoid at, or devoid to are common grammatical errors. In English, specific adjectives are bound to specific prepositions (fixed prepositions).
• Examples of correct fixed prepositions include interested in, good at, and similar to. Using any preposition other than of with devoid results in an ungrammatical construction.
• Contextual Vocabulary:
• Logic and Substance: In legal discourse, these terms refer to the rational consistency and the factual weight of an argument, respectively.
• Legal Collocations: While told or given are synonyms for communication, they lack the professional nuance required for litigation, where arguments are strictly advanced or presented.

The correct answer is 'to'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective committed is typically followed by the preposition to when expressing dedication or a pledge to a cause or action.
• In the phrase committed to, the word to functions as a preposition, not as an infinitive marker. Therefore, it must be followed by a noun or a gerund (the -ing form of a verb).
• In this sentence, bringing is the gerund form of the verb bring, which correctly follows the preposition to.
• The other prepositions provided (by, for, on) do not idiomatically follow committed in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The executive committee is committed to bringing about a drastic change in the administration policy.'

 

Additional Information

• There are several other English expressions where to is a preposition and must be followed by a gerund rather than a base verb, such as:
• Look forward to (e.g., I look forward to meeting you).
• Accustomed to (e.g., She is accustomed to waking up early).
• Object to (e.g., They object to changing the plan).
• Dedicated to (e.g., He is dedicated to improving his skills).