SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 27 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic followed here is,

-829 + 5 = -824 (-827 is wrong term)

-824 + 5 = -819

-819 + 5 = -814

-814 + 5 = -809

-809 + 5 = -804

-804 + 5 = -799

-799 + 5 = -794

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic: (Current term × 3) − 3 = Next term

15 × 3 − 3 = 45 − 3 = 42

42 × 3 − 3 = 126 − 3 = 123

123 × 3 − 3 = 369 − 3 = 366

366 × 3 − 3 = 1098 − 3 = 1095

1095 × 3 − 3 = 3285 − 3 = 3282

3282 × 3 − 3 = 9846 − 3 = 9843

9843 × 3 − 3 = 29529 − 3 = 29526

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

For 'JH' related to 'HC':

For 'LZ' related to 'JU':

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Similarly,

Thus, TX is related to RS.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

For the set '(WI, TB, QU)':

For the set '(CT, ZM, WF)':

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Applying the same logic to the options, we find that '(EP, BI, YB)' follows the same pattern:

Thus, the set (EP, BI, YB) follows the same Logic/Rule/Relation.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Determine if the year 1900 is a leap year.

Since 1900 is a century year, we divide it by 400:

1900 ÷ 400 = 4.75

As 1900 is not divisible by 400, it is a common year (non-leap year).

Number of days in December = 31

Number of days in February = 28 (Because 1900 is a common year)

Number of days in March = 31

Number of days in October = 31

Total sum = 31 + 28 + 31 + 31

Total sum = 121

Hence, the sum of the number of days in the months of December, February, March, and October in the year 1900 is 121.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

5 boys P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. Q and R are immediate neighbours.
2. S and R are immediate neighbours.
3. Only P is to the left of Q. 
   

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T is sitting at the right end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given that the prices of 6 pens A, B, C, D, E and F are all different.

From the clues, we can deduce the following relationships:

1. Price of no pen is less than F.

→ F has the lowest price.

2. Price of B is more than E but less than A.

→ A > B > E

3. Price of C is more than D.

→ C > D

4. Price of D is more than A.

→ C > D > A > B > E

Since F is the cheapest pen, placing it at the end gives the final order from highest to lowest price:

→ C > D > A > B > E > F

The pens whose prices are more than F but less than D are:

→ A, B and E

Total number of such pens = 3.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

KLP40 : NOS240 →

 

AWV60 : DZY260 →

Similarly,

BDJ90 → ?

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Dictionary order of given words,

2. Fun
3. Function
4. Fund
5. Fundamental
6. Funeral

Correct order is: 21345

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 44

For the first pair 5940 : 5984

⇒ 5940 + 44 = 5984

For the second pair 9316 : 9360

⇒ 9316 + 44 = 9360

Applying the same logic to the third pair

3498 : ?

⇒ 3498 + 44 = 3542

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 4) + 6

For the first pair 726 : 2910

⇒ (726 × 4) + 6

⇒ 2904 + 6 = 2910.

Applying the same logic to the second pair 283 : 1138

⇒ (283 × 4) + 6

⇒ 1132 + 6 = 1138.

Applying the same logic to the third pair

? : 3458

⇒ (3458 − 6) ÷ 4

⇒ 3452 ÷ 4 = 863.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

'ROSE' is coded as 'UTQA' 

'NOCK' is coded as 'QTAG'.

'WAIT' be coded in the same code language as,

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Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The correct answer is 8.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and officially came into force on 26th January 1950.
• At the time of its original enactment, the Constitution contained a Preamble, 395 Articles categorized into 22 Parts, and exactly 8 Schedules.
• Schedules are additional provisions in the Constitution that categorize and tabulate bureaucratic activity and policy of the Government. They provide detailed information that would otherwise make the main Articles too lengthy.
• The original eight schedules addressed crucial administrative aspects:
• First Schedule: Lists the States and Union Territories of India.
• Second Schedule: Details provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, and privileges of the President, Governors, and Speakers.
• Third Schedule: Contains the forms of Oaths and Affirmations for Union Ministers and Judges.
• Fourth Schedule: Specifies the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to the States and Union Territories.
• Fifth and Sixth Schedules: Deal with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas, Scheduled Tribes, and Tribal Areas in the North-Eastern states.
• Seventh Schedule: Defines the division of powers between the Union and States through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
• Eighth Schedule: Lists the 22 official languages recognized by the Constitution (originally 14 were included).

 Additional Information

• Over time, through various Constitutional Amendments, the number of schedules has increased from 8 to 12:
• 9th Schedule: Added by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951, to protect laws related to land reforms from judicial scrutiny.
• 10th Schedule: Added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, containing provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection, known as the Anti-Defection Law.
• 11th Schedule: Added by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, which lists 29 subjects under the jurisdiction of Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• 12th Schedule: Added by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992, which specifies 18 functional items for Municipalities.

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

• The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in 2003 to include four additional languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• The four languages added through this amendment were Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali.
• Bodo is a language primarily spoken in the Bodoland Territorial Region of Assam and belongs to the Tibeto-Burman language family.
• Maithili is an Indo-Aryan language spoken predominantly in the Mithila region of Bihar and parts of Jharkhand.
• Santhali is the most widely spoken Munda language, used by the Santhal tribal community residing in Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Bihar.
• Following the inclusion of these four languages, the total count of recognized languages in the Eighth Schedule increased from 18 to 22.

 Additional Information

• The Eighth Schedule originally consisted of 14 languages at the time of the Constitution's commencement.
• The 21st Amendment Act, 1967 introduced Sindhi as the 15th language.
• The 71st Amendment Act, 1992 added three more languages: Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali.
• Dogri, the fourth language added in 2003 along with Bodo, Maithili, and Santhali, is spoken primarily in the Jammu and Kashmir region.
• Constitutional provisions related to official languages are found in Part XVII, covering Articles 343 to 351.
• Article 344(1) provides for the constitution of a Commission by the President of India to make recommendations regarding the progressive use of Hindi for official purposes.
• Article 351 provides a directive for the development and promotion of the Hindi language as a medium of expression for the composite culture of India.

The correct answer is Weddings and harvest festivals.

Key Points

• Giddha is a popular and vibrant folk dance originating from the Punjab region of India and Pakistan, specifically performed by women.
• The dance is a hallmark of joyous occasions and is most commonly performed during the harvest season, particularly during the festival of Baisakhi, which marks the Punjabi New Year and the reaping of Rabi crops.
• It is an essential part of Punjabi weddings, where female relatives and friends gather to celebrate the union through rhythmic movements and playful singing.
• The performance is characterized by the singing of Boliyan (short traditional couplets) that express a wide range of emotions, from humor and teasing to domestic life and social commentary.
• Unlike formal classical dances, Giddha is a social activity that takes place during Teeyan (the monsoon festival) and other family celebrations like the birth of a child.

 Additional Information

• Performance Characteristics:
• Style and Form: It is often considered the feminine counterpart to Bhangra. While Bhangra is high-intensity and athletic, Giddha focuses on grace, elegance, and rhythmic clapping (Taali).
• Musical Accompaniment: The primary rhythm is created by the dancers’ hands, but it is often supported by a Dholak (a two-headed hand drum) played by an elder woman or a professional musician.
• Attire: Dancers wear bright-colored Salwar Kameez or Lehengas paired with heavily embroidered Phulkari dupattas. Key traditional ornaments include the Sagghi Phul (hair ornament) and heavy necklaces.
• Cultural Significance: It serves as a medium for women to express their creative energy and share their lived experiences in a patriarchal society through the medium of storytelling and dance.

The correct answer is Henry Cavendish.

Key Points

• The Universal Gravitational Constant, represented by the symbol G, is a fundamental physical constant that appears in Sir Isaac Newton's law of universal gravitation.
• Henry Cavendish, an English physicist and chemist, successfully determined the value of G through a series of experiments conducted between 1797 and 1798, known as the Cavendish experiment.
• The primary objective of his experiment was to measure the density of the Earth, but the results provided the first accurate calculation of the gravitational constant.
• Cavendish utilized a torsion balance, which featured a horizontal wooden rod suspended by a thin wire with small lead spheres at each end; he measured the tiny gravitational attraction between these and larger stationary lead masses.
• By observing the deflection of the rod and the twisting of the suspension wire, he quantified the force of gravity, leading to the derivation of G.

 Additional Information

• Isaac Newton:
• Formulated the Inverse Square Law of gravitation in his work Philosophiae Naturalis Principia Mathematica in 1687.
• While he identified the relationship F = G × m₁m₂ / r², he did not possess the experimental means to measure the value of G.
• Johannes Kepler:
• Famous for his three laws of planetary motion which described the orbits of planets as ellipses.
• His work was purely kinematic and did not include the gravitational constant or the physical cause of planetary motion.
• Albert Einstein:
• Proposed the General Theory of Relativity in 1915, redefining gravity as the curvature of spacetime rather than a standard force.
• The value of G is approximately 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ N m² kg⁻².

The correct answer is The Indian Rebellion of 1857.

Key Points

• The Last Mughal: The Fall of a Dynasty, Delhi, 1857 is a 2006 historical narrative by the acclaimed Scottish historian William Dalrymple.
• The book focuses on the life and reign of Bahadur Shah Zafar II, the last Mughal Emperor, and his role during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
• Dalrymple details the Siege of Delhi, describing how the city was transformed from a sophisticated cultural hub into a battlefield between Indian sepoys and the British East India Company.
• The work is significant for its use of the Mutiny Papers, which consist of approximately 20,000 primary documents in Urdu and Persian that were largely ignored by previous historians.
• It provides a nuanced perspective on the uprising, highlighting the religious motivations and the tragic collapse of the syncretic culture of the Mughal court.
• The narrative concludes with the trial and exile of Bahadur Shah Zafar, marking the definitive end of the Mughal Empire that had ruled India for over three centuries.

 Additional Information

• Bahadur Shah Zafar II:
• He was a renowned Urdu poet and a Sufi practitioner who presided over a cultural renaissance in Delhi before the revolt.
• Following the British victory, he was tried for sedition and exiled to Rangoon (modern-day Yangon), where he died in 1862.
• William Dalrymple:
• A fellow of the Royal Society of Literature, Dalrymple is known for his White Mughals and The Anarchy, focusing on colonial history.
• His work on 1857 emphasizes that the rebellion was not just a nationalist movement but also a clash of civilizations and religions.
• Significance of 1857:
• The event led to the Government of India Act 1858, which transferred power from the East India Company to the British Crown.
• Therefore, the historical event covered in this book is the Indian Rebellion of 1857.

The correct answer is 40 min (two halves of 20 min) with a 5-min break.

Key Points

• According to the official rules set by the Asian Kabaddi Federation (AKF) and the International Kabaddi Federation (IKF), a standard senior-level men's kabaddi match consists of 40 minutes of active play.
• This duration is divided into two equal halves of 20 minutes each, ensuring a balanced competition for both teams.
• A mandatory 5-minute interval is provided between the first and second halves, allowing players to recover and strategize while teams switch sides of the kabaddi court.
• The match clock is strictly managed by the official timekeeper and may be paused during specific events such as injury treatments or official reviews, but the standard playing time remains fixed at 40 minutes.

 Additional Information

• Match Categories and Variations:
• For Senior Women and Junior Boys/Girls, the duration is typically reduced to 30 minutes, split into two halves of 15 minutes each, with a 5-minute break.
• In professional leagues like the Pro Kabaddi League (PKL), the 40-minute format is maintained to align with international standards.
• Time-Outs and Substitutions:
• Each team is permitted two time-outs of 30 seconds each per half.
• Teams are allowed a maximum of five substitutions during the match to manage player fatigue or tactical changes.
• Tie-Breaker Rules:
• If a knockout match ends in a draw, extra time is played, usually consisting of two halves of 5 minutes each.
• If the score remains tied after extra time, the match is decided by a Golden Raid or a series of five raids by each team.

The correct answer is Self-reliance through strengthening heavy industries and reducing foreign aid.

Key Points

• The Fourth Five-Year Plan was implemented during the period 1969 to 1974 under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
• Two primary objectives defined this plan: Growth with Stability and the Progressive Achievement of Self-reliance.
• The focus on Self-reliance was a strategic response to the economic vulnerabilities exposed during the 1965 Indo-Pak War, which led to the suspension of foreign aid from several Western nations.
• Industrially, the plan aimed to consolidate and strengthen the heavy industrial base established in previous plans to ensure the domestic production of capital goods and machinery.
• Reducing foreign aid was prioritized to insulate the Indian economy from external political leverage and to promote a sovereign economic policy.
• The plan also saw the landmark nationalization of 14 major commercial banks in 1969, which aimed to channel financial resources toward priority sectors like agriculture and small-scale industries to support overall industrial self-sufficiency.

 Additional Information

• Growth Strategy and Challenges:
• The plan was based on the Gadgil Strategy, which focused on social justice and the removal of poverty through structured economic growth.
• Significant challenges arose during this period, including the Indo-Pak War of 1971 and the subsequent refugee crisis from Bangladesh, which strained the national exchequer.
• The Oil Shock of 1973 led to high inflation and increased the cost of industrial inputs, making the goal of reducing foreign exchange outgo even more critical.
• Industrial and Scientific Progress:
• While the plan targeted an annual growth rate of 5.7%, the actual growth achieved was approximately 3.3% due to these external shocks.
• The period marked the continuation of the Green Revolution, which complemented industrial efforts by achieving self-sufficiency in food grains, thereby reducing the need for imports under the PL-480 program.
• Technological advancements were highlighted by the Smiling Buddha underground nuclear test in 1974, showcasing India's growing scientific self-reliance.

The correct answer is Flower.

Key Points

• Angiosperms, which constitute over 80 percent of all known living plant species, are characterized by the development of seeds within a specialized reproductive organ called the flower.
• The flower serves as the biological site for sexual reproduction, housing both male and female gametes to ensure the continuation of the species through seed formation.
• The male reproductive structure is the stamen, which consists of the anther (responsible for producing pollen grains containing male gametes) and the supporting filament.
• The female reproductive structure is the carpel (or pistil), comprised of the stigma (the sticky landing site for pollen), the style (the tube through which the pollen tube grows), and the ovary at the base.
• Inside the ovary, ovules are found, which contain the female egg cells; after successful fertilization, these ovules develop into seeds while the ovary itself typically matures into a fruit.
• The presence of flowers is a key evolutionary advancement that facilitates pollination by attracting various biotic agents like insects and birds, or utilizing abiotic factors like wind.

 Additional Information

• Leaves:
• Primarily function as the site for photosynthesis, converting light energy into chemical energy via chlorophyll.
• While they are vital for transpiration and gas exchange, they do not house the primary sexual reproductive organs in angiosperms.
• Roots:
• Responsible for anchoring the plant into the soil and absorbing water and minerals.
• Roots are vegetative organs and do not participate in the sexual reproductive process involving gamete production.
• Stem:
• Provides the main structural support for the plant, elevating leaves and flowers to optimize light capture and pollination.
• It houses the vascular system (xylem and phloem) but is not the anatomical location for gametogenesis.

Therefore, the correct answer is Flower.

The correct answer is The score is tied at 40-40..

Key Points

• In the sport of Tennis, the term Deuce describes a specific situation in a game where both the server and the receiver have won three points each, resulting in a score of 40-40.
• The traditional scoring progression in a tennis game follows the sequence of Love (0 points), 15 (1 point), 30 (2 points), and 40 (3 points). When both sides reach 40, the score is called Deuce rather than 40-all.
• Once a game reaches deuce, a player must win two consecutive points to win the game. The first point won after deuce gives that player the Advantage, and the second consecutive point secures the game.
• If the player with the advantage loses the next point, the score returns to Deuce. This cycle continues until one player wins two points in a row from a deuce state.

 Additional Information

• Scoring Terminology:
• Love: Refers to a score of zero. It is widely believed to have originated from the French word l'oeuf (meaning egg), which symbolizes the shape of a zero.
• Advantage In (Ad-in): This is the score when the Server wins the first point after a deuce.
• Advantage Out (Ad-out): This occurs when the Receiver wins the first point following a deuce.
• Etymology and Rules:
• The word Deuce is derived from the French word deux, meaning two, or the phrase à deux de jeu, signifying that the players are two points away from winning the game.
• In some modern formats, such as Professional Doubles or certain amateur leagues, No-Ad (No Advantage) scoring is used. In this system, a deciding point is played at deuce, and the winner of that single point wins the entire game immediately.

The correct answer is Crossing the bonus line with one foot while another is in the air.

Key Points

• The Bonus Line is a specific marking located in the opponent's territory, exactly 1 meter beyond the Baulk Line toward the end line.
• A raider earns a bonus point by crossing this line with one foot while the other foot remains completely in the air, ensuring no part of the trailing foot is touching the ground behind the line.
• This rule is only applicable when the defending team has at least 6 or 7 players active on the mat; if the number of defenders drops to 5 or fewer, the bonus point rule becomes inactive.
• The point is awarded immediately upon the successful completion of the action, even if the raider is subsequently tackled or caught during the same raid.

 Additional Information

• Baulk Line:
• Every raider must cross this line at least once during a raid to make the raid legal; failing to do so results in the raider being declared out.
• Point System and Revivals:
• A Bonus Point adds 1 point to the team total but, unlike a Touch Point, it does not allow for the revival of a teammate from the sitting block.
• A Touch Point is scored when the raider tags one or more defenders and returns safely to their own half of the court.
• Lona:
• An additional 2 points are awarded as a Lona when a team manages to put the entire opposing team out, necessitating a full-team reset on the mat.

The correct answer is Multipurpose river valley development.

Key Points

• The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) was established on July 7, 1948, as the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India.
• It was created through an Act of the Constituent Assembly of India to manage the Damodar River basin, which was historically known as the Sorrow of Bengal due to devastating floods.
• The project was modeled after the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) of the United States, focusing on the unified development of a river basin spanning West Bengal and Jharkhand (formerly part of Bihar).
• The primary objectives of the corporation include flood control, irrigation, water supply for domestic and industrial use, and soil conservation.
• DVC operates a network of major dams including Tilaiya, Konar, Maithon, and Panchet, which regulate the flow of the Damodar River and its tributaries like the Barakar River.
• The corporation is a major producer of electricity, utilizing both hydro-electric and thermal power stations to fuel the industrial growth of the Chhota Nagpur plateau.

 Additional Information

• Steel Production:
• While the DVC area encompasses the Steel Hub of India (including Bokaro and Durgapur), the corporation itself provides the power and water infrastructure rather than engaging in the manufacturing process of steel.
• Trade Promotion:
• This refers to activities intended to stimulate the exchange of goods. Although DVC supports the economy, it is a resource management agency and not a trade-facilitating body.
• Rural Credit:
• This involves providing financial loans to the agricultural sector, which is the specialized function of institutions like NABARD and Regional Rural Banks, not a river valley corporation.
• Socio-Economic Impact:
• Beyond its engineering goals, DVC is responsible for afforestation, malaria control, and the socio-economic well-being of the inhabitants living within the Damodar Valley.

The correct answer is Unorganized Sector Workers.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) is a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment in February 2019 to provide old-age protection and social security.
• The scheme is specifically designed for Unorganized Sector Workers, a demographic that constitutes nearly 93 percent of India total workforce and often lacks formal pension support.
• To be eligible, an applicant must fall within the entry age of 18 to 40 years, ensuring a consistent contribution period before reaching retirement.
• The scheme targets low-wage earners with a monthly income of 15,000 rupees or less, focusing on those most vulnerable to economic instability in their later years.
• Under this initiative, subscribers receive a minimum assured monthly pension of 3,000 rupees once they attain the age of 60 years.
• The financial structure is based on a 50:50 matching contribution, where the Central Government contributes an amount equal to the monthly premium paid by the beneficiary.

 Additional Information

• Targeted Occupational Groups:
• Beneficiaries include street vendors, mid-day meal workers, head loaders, brick kiln workers, cobblers, rag pickers, domestic workers, and agricultural laborers.
• It also encompasses handloom workers, leather workers, and those engaged in similar informal occupations.
• Exclusion Criteria:
• Workers already covered under organized social security frameworks like the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO), Employee State Insurance Corporation (ESIC), or the National Pension System (NPS) are ineligible.
• Individuals who fall under the income taxpayer bracket are also excluded from the benefits of the PM-SYM scheme.
• Administrative Framework:
• The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) serves as the Pension Fund Manager and is responsible for the disbursement of the monthly pension.
• Enrollment is conducted through Common Service Centres (CSCs) using an Aadhar card and a Savings Bank Account or Jan Dhan account with IFSC.
• In the event of the subscriber death, the spouse is entitled to receive 50 percent of the pension as a family pension, provided the spouse is not already a beneficiary.

The correct answer is Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT).

Key Points

• The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) is an attached office of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry and is headed by the Director General of Foreign Trade.
• It is the apex body entrusted with the formulation and implementation of the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) of India, which serves as the primary legal framework for the country's international trade.
• The organization transitioned from a regulatory regime to a facilitatory one following the economic liberalization of 1991, evolving from the former office of the Chief Controller of Imports and Exports (CCI&E).
• DGFT is responsible for issuing the Importer-Exporter Code (IEC), a 10-digit identification number that is mandatory for any person or entity to engage in import-export business within the Indian territory.
• The institution manages various export incentive schemes, ensures compliance with international trade obligations, and provides a platform for resolving trade-related grievances through its network of Regional Authorities (RAs) across the country.

 Additional Information

• Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2023:
• Transitioned from an incentive-based to a remission-based regime to ensure compatibility with World Trade Organization (WTO) norms.
• Focuses on the Ease of Doing Business through paperless and automated approval systems managed by DGFT.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
• Functions as India's Central Bank, managing monetary policy and the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, rather than trade policy formulation.
• NITI Aayog:
• A policy think tank of the Government of India that provides directional and policy inputs; it does not have the executive mandate to implement trade regulations.
• Ministry of Home Affairs:
• Responsible for internal security, border management, and center-state relations, having no direct role in the commercial aspects of foreign trade.

The correct answer is 64%.

Key Points

• As of November 2024, official records from the Department of Food and Public Distribution (DFPD) indicate that approximately 64% of the 80.6 crore total beneficiaries under the Public Distribution System (PDS) have completed their eKYC verification.
• The eKYC (electronic Know Your Customer) initiative was launched to authenticate the identity of every individual listed on a Ration Card to ensure that the food subsidy is delivered only to legitimate beneficiaries.
• This verification drive is carried out at Fair Price Shops (FPS) across the country using Aadhaar-based biometric authentication on Electronic Point of Sale (ePOS) devices.
• The primary objective of reaching this 64% milestone is to weed out ghost beneficiaries, eliminate duplicate entries, and remove the names of deceased or ineligible individuals from the National Food Security Act (NFSA) database.
• The Union Government has urged States and Union Territories to expedite the remaining eKYC process to improve the transparency and efficiency of the targeted delivery of food grains.

 Additional Information

• National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013:
• The NFSA provides legal entitlement to subsidized food grains for nearly two-thirds of India's population.
• It covers up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population under Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) and Priority Households (PHH) categories.
• One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC):
• The completion of eKYC is critical for the ONORC scheme, which allows beneficiaries to lift their entitled food grains from any Fair Price Shop in India.
• This system relies on Aadhaar-seeded Ration Cards and biometric verification to enable nationwide portability for migrant workers and their families.
• Technological Integration:
• Over 5.33 lakh Fair Price Shops are currently equipped with ePOS devices to facilitate paperless and transparent distribution of food grains.
• The eKYC process is provided free of cost to the beneficiaries at these centers.

The correct answer is Mrichchhkatikam.

Key Points

• Mrichchhkatikam (The Little Clay Cart) is a famous ten-act Sanskrit drama attributed to King Shudraka, believed to have been written between the 2nd century BCE and 5th century CE. It is unique for its social realism, focusing on the romance between a poor Brahmin merchant named Charudatta and a wealthy courtesan named Vasantasena.
• Meghadutam (The Cloud Messenger) is a celebrated lyric poem (Kavya) composed by Kalidasa. It narrates the story of a Yaksha who, after being exiled by his master Lord Kubera, requests a passing cloud to carry a message of love to his wife in the city of Alaka.
• Kumarasambhava is one of the five Mahakavyas (great epic poems) of Sanskrit literature written by Kalidasa. The epic details the union of Lord Shiva and Goddess Parvati and the subsequent birth of their son, the war-god Kartikeya (Kumara).
• Abhijananashakuntalam is considered the masterpiece of Kalidasa. This play narrates the romantic tale of King Dushyanta and Shakuntala, the adopted daughter of sage Kanva, and their eventual reunion after a long separation caused by a curse.

 Additional Information

• Kalidasa:
• Widely regarded as the Shakespeare of India, he was a peerless poet and dramatist of Classical Sanskrit.
• He flourished during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta Dynasty and was one of the Navaratnas (Nine Gems) of the royal court.
• His other prominent works include the plays Mālavikāgnimitram and Vikramōrvaśīyam, and the epics Raghuvaṃśa and Ṛitusaṃhāra.
• King Shudraka:
• He is credited with the authorship of Mrichchhkatikam, which stands out in Sanskrit literature for its depiction of the Prakarana genre, involving characters from various strata of society.
• The play is historically significant for its inclusion of different Prakrit dialects, providing insights into the linguistic diversity of ancient India.

The correct answer is Additional coaching and a re-exam opportunity.

Key Points

• The policy for central government-run schools, including Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVS) and Navodaya Vidyalayas (NVS), is governed by the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Act, 2019, which modified the previous No-Detention Policy.
• Under the revised guidelines, students in Class 5 and Class 8 are required to appear for regular annual examinations at the end of each academic year to assess their learning progress.
• If a student fails to secure the minimum passing marks in these annual exams, the school is legally obligated to provide additional instructions or remedial coaching specifically targeted at the subjects the student failed.
• Following the period of additional coaching, the student must be granted a re-examination opportunity within a period of two months from the date of the original result declaration.
• The primary objective of this provision is to ensure that the student is not immediately detained and is given a fair chance to bridge learning gaps and demonstrate proficiency before a final decision on detention is made.

 Additional Information

• RTE Act 2009 vs. 2019 Amendment:
• The original RTE Act of 2009 mandated that no child shall be held back in any class until the completion of elementary education (up to Class 8).
• The 2019 Amendment was introduced to address concerns regarding falling educational standards and the lack of accountability in the learning process.
• It gives the appropriate government (Central or State) the power to decide whether to continue the no-detention policy or allow schools to detain students who fail the re-examination.
• The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) provides the framework for these assessments to ensure they align with defined Learning Outcomes for each grade level.

The correct answer is 1972.

Key Points

• The Space Commission was established by the Government of India in June 1972 to promote the rapid development and application of space technology for the nation's socio-economic benefits.
• Simultaneously, the Department of Space (DOS) was created to execute the policies formulated by the commission and provide administrative support to the space program.
• In September 1972, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), which was previously part of the Department of Atomic Energy, was brought under the administrative control of the Department of Space.
• The Space Commission serves as the highest policy-making body for space activities in India, overseeing the implementation of major projects like satellite communications and planetary exploration.
• This organizational structure ensures that the Indian Space Program remains directly under the purview of the Prime Minister of India, allowing for strategic decision-making and functional autonomy.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of Space Research in India:
• 1962: The Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR) was set up by the Department of Atomic Energy under the leadership of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai.
• 1969: ISRO was established on August 15, replacing INCOSPAR to better organize space activities under a dedicated research organization.
• Dr. Vikram Sarabhai is globally recognized as the Father of the Indian Space Program for his vision in initiating India's space odyssey.
• The Chairman of ISRO concurrently serves as the Chairman of the Space Commission and the Secretary of the Department of Space, ensuring streamlined management.
• The Department of Space is headquartered in Bengaluru, Karnataka, which functions as the primary nerve center for all major Indian space missions.

The correct answer is 16th August 1946.

Key Points

• The Muslim League Council, led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah, met in Bombay in July 1946 and passed a resolution withdrawing its acceptance of the Cabinet Mission Plan due to disagreements over the grouping of provinces.
• Following the rejection, the Muslim League announced 16th August 1946 as Direct Action Day to assert their demand for a separate sovereign state of Pakistan and to demonstrate the strength of Muslim sentiment to the British Government.
• Muhammad Ali Jinnah proclaimed that the League had 'bid goodbye to constitutional methods' and would resort to self-reliance and direct action to achieve its political goals.
• The declaration led to unprecedented communal violence, most notably the Great Calcutta Killings in the Bengal Province, where thousands lost their lives in large-scale rioting between communities.
• The scale of the violence on this day effectively signaled the impossibility of a united independent India, forcing the British and the Indian National Congress to seriously consider the partition of the subcontinent.

 Additional Information

• Cabinet Mission Plan (1946):
• The mission arrived in India in March 1946, consisting of Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander.
• It proposed a three-tier structure for the Union of India, consisting of a central government with limited powers and provinces grouped into three sections (A, B, and C) based on religious majorities.
• All-India Muslim League:
• Founded in 1906 at Dacca (now Dhaka) under the leadership of Aga Khan, the Nawab of Dacca, and Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk.
• It initially aimed to safeguard the political rights of Muslims in India and later adopted the Lahore Resolution in 1940, formally demanding a separate state.
• Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy:
• He was the Chief Minister of Bengal during the Direct Action Day riots and faced significant criticism for the failure of the administration to contain the violence in Calcutta.

The correct answer is 79.5%.

Key Points

• The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) for the period July 2023 to June 2024 provides comprehensive data on education and employment across different religious groups in India.
• According to the Annual Report 2023-24, the literacy rate among the Muslim population for persons aged 7 years and above is recorded at 79.5%.
• A person is considered literate if they can both read and write with understanding in any language. The survey excludes children aged below 7 years from this calculation.
• The data indicates a progressive increase in the literacy levels of the community when compared to previous rounds, such as the 2022-23 survey where the rate was approximately 77.7%.
• The survey findings are pivotal for the Ministry of Minority Affairs and other government bodies to design targeted educational interventions and welfare schemes for minority communities.
• The literacy rate is further bifurcated into Rural and Urban sectors, where urban areas typically exhibit a higher percentage of literate individuals compared to rural regions due to better access to educational infrastructure.

 Additional Information

• Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
• It was launched by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) in April 2017 to provide more frequent and reliable labor market statistics.
• The survey operates under the aegis of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
• It uses two primary metrics for employment data: Usual Status (ps+ss) and Current Weekly Status (CWS).
• Key Survey Indicators:
• Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): The percentage of the population that is either working or actively seeking work.
• Worker Population Ratio (WPR): The percentage of employed persons within the total population.
• Unemployment Rate (UR): The percentage of persons unemployed among those in the labour force.
• Data Collection Methodology:
• The PLFS employs a Rotational Panel Sampling design in urban areas to capture short-term changes in the labor market every quarter.
• For rural areas, the samples are drawn annually to provide a broad overview of the agrarian and non-farm employment landscape.

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

Key Points

• The Global Gender Gap Index is an annual benchmark published by the World Economic Forum (WEF) that assesses gender parity across four critical dimensions: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment.
• In the Southern Asia region, Bangladesh has consistently maintained its position as the top-ranked country, a trend reflected in the 2025 data where it leads its neighbors in closing the overall gender gap.
• A primary driver for the high ranking of Bangladesh is its significant score in the Political Empowerment sub-index, owing to the long-standing presence of women in Head of State positions and high representation in the National Parliament.
• The country has achieved near-parity in primary and secondary education enrollment, which has been a cornerstone of its social development strategy over the past few decades.
• While the Southern Asia region as a whole faces challenges in Economic Participation, Bangladesh has demonstrated relatively better integration of women into the labor force compared to regional averages.

 Additional Information

• Global Gender Gap Index Framework:
• The index provides scores ranging from 0 to 1, where 1.0 signifies full gender parity and 0 signifies complete imparity.
• It serves as a tool for policymakers to track progress and identify specific areas requiring legislative or socio-economic interventions.
• Regional Comparison:
• Nepal and Bhutan often rank closely behind Bangladesh, showing notable improvements in Health and Survival and literacy rates.
• Maldives performs well in Educational Attainment but faces gaps in Political Empowerment relative to the top performers in the region.
• The Southern Asia region generally requires focused efforts on Economic Participation to reach global parity levels seen in regions like Europe or North America.

Shortcut Trick

Solve using BODMAS priority order.

Bracket part: (16 + 8) × 3 ⇒ 24 × 3 = 72.

Rest of expression: 45 + 84 − 59 + 72 − 27.

Group positive and negative terms: (45 + 84 + 72) − (59 + 27) ⇒ 201 − 86 = 115.

∴ The correct answer is 115.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 45 + 84 − 59 + (16 + 8) × 3 − 27

To solve this, we apply the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):

Step 1: Solve the Bracket (16 + 8).

⇒ 45 + 84 − 59 + 24 × 3 − 27

Step 2: Perform Multiplication (24 × 3).

⇒ 45 + 84 − 59 + 72 − 27

Step 3: Perform Addition from left to right.

⇒ 129 − 59 + 72 − 27

⇒ 70 + 72 − 27

⇒ 142 − 27

Step 4: Perform Subtraction.

⇒ 115

∴ The correct answer is 115.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It stands for Brackets ((), {}, []), Of (or Orders like powers/roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction. This sequence ensures a single correct result for complex arithmetic expressions.

Operation Precedence

When operations have the same precedence (like addition and subtraction, or multiplication and division), they must be performed strictly from left to right to avoid errors.

Negative Terms

Grouping all positive numbers and all negative numbers separately before the final subtraction is a common shortcut to simplify multi-step addition/subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the bracket and multiplication first: (43 + 11) × 2 = 54 × 2 = 108.

Group positive and negative terms: (66 + 74 + 108) − (52 + 89).

248 − 141 = 107.

∴ The correct answer is 107.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 66 + 74 − 52 + (43 + 11) × 2 − 89

Using the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):

⇒ Step 1 (Brackets): 66 + 74 − 52 + (54) × 2 − 89

⇒ Step 2 (Multiplication): 66 + 74 − 52 + 108 − 89

⇒ Step 3 (Addition): (66 + 74 + 108) − 52 − 89

⇒ Step 4 (Simplifying sums): 248 − 52 − 89

⇒ Step 5 (Final Subtractions): 196 − 89 = 107

∴ The correct answer is 107.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It defines the order of operations: Brackets ((), {}, []), Of (powers/roots), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Left-to-Right Rule

Addition and subtraction have the same precedence level and should be performed from left to right as they appear in the expression.

Negative Terms Grouping

To avoid errors in long calculations, add all positive numbers together and all negative numbers together separately before the final subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

First, identify √1849 = 43.

For every two decimal places in the square, the square root has one decimal place.

The sequence becomes: 4.3 + 0.43 + 0.043 + 0.0043.

Adding the terms: 4.3000 + 0.4300 + 0.0430 + 0.0043 = 4.7773.

∴ The correct answer is 4.7773.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: √18.49 + √0.1849 + √0.001849 + √0.00001849

Step-by-step Calculation:

⇒ √18.49 = √(1849/100) = 43/10 = 4.3

⇒ √0.1849 = √(1849/10000) = 43/100 = 0.43

⇒ √0.001849 = √(1849/1000000) = 43/1000 = 0.043

⇒ √0.00001849 = √(1849/100000000) = 43/10000 = 0.0043

⇒ Sum = 4.3 + 0.43 + 0.043 + 0.0043

⇒ Sum = 4.73 + 0.043 + 0.0043

⇒ Sum = 4.773 + 0.0043 = 4.7773

∴ The correct answer is 4.7773.

Additional Information

Square Root Decimal Property

If a number has 2n decimal places, its square root will have exactly n decimal places.

Squares ending in 5

To find the square of a number ending in 5 (e.g., 45), multiply the first digit by its successor and append 25: 4 × 5 = 20 → 2025.

BODMAS Rule

Always solve Brackets, Orders (powers/roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction in this specific sequence.

Shortcut Trick

Since the sum of the number and its square root is an integer (156), the number must be a perfect square.

Check perfect squares near 156: 11² = 121, 12² = 144, 13² = 169.

Testing 144: 144 + √144 = 144 + 12 = 156.

The condition is satisfied perfectly.

∴ The correct answer is 144.

Alternate Method

Given: Sum of a number (x) and its positive square root (√x) is 156.

Formula Used: Quadratic equation form ax² + bx + c = 0.

Calculations:

Let the number be x.

⇒ x + √x = 156

Let √x = y, then x = y²

⇒ y² + y = 156

⇒ y² + y − 156 = 0

⇒ y² + 13y − 12y − 156 = 0

⇒ y(y + 13) − 12(y + 13) = 0

⇒ (y − 12)(y + 13) = 0

⇒ y = 12 or y = −13

Since √x must be positive, y = 12.

⇒ x = y² = 12² = 144.

∴ The correct answer is 144.

Additional Information

Quadratic Formula

For any equation ax² + bx + c = 0, the roots are calculated as x = [−b ± √(b² − 4ac)] / 2a.

Perfect Square Property

A perfect square is an integer that is the square of an integer; its square root is always a rational number.

Successive Integer Product

The equation y(y + 1) = 156 shows that 156 is the product of two consecutive integers, 12 and 13.

Shortcut Trick

The given equation is in the form of a perfect square expansion (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab.

In (3 + 4√7)², the term with √7 comes from 2ab.

K√7 = 2 × 3 × 4√7

K√7 = 24√7 ⇒ K = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24.

Alternate Method

Given: (3 + 4√7)² = 121 + K√7

Formula Used: (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²

Applying the algebraic identity to the LHS:

⇒ (3)² + 2 × (3) × (4√7) + (4√7)² = 121 + K√7

⇒ 9 + 24√7 + (16 × 7) = 121 + K√7

⇒ 9 + 24√7 + 112 = 121 + K√7

⇒ 121 + 24√7 = 121 + K√7

Comparing the coefficients of √7 on both sides:

⇒ 24√7 = K√7

⇒ K = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24.

Additional Information

Standard Algebraic Identities

Square of sum: (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b² and Square of difference: (a − b)² = a² − 2ab + b².

Comparison of Surds

If a + b√x = c + d√x (where a, b, c, d are rational), then the rational parts must be equal (a = c) and the irrational coefficients must be equal (b = d).

Squaring Surds

The square of a term like (x√y) is calculated as x² × (√y)² = x² × y.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of the first number to the second number is 1 : 2.

Sum of the two numbers = Average × 2 = 72 × 2 = 144.

Total ratio parts = 1 + 2 = 3 parts.

3 parts = 144 ⇒ 1 part = 144 ÷ 3 = 48.

The first number (representing 1 part) is 48.

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average of two numbers = 72

First number = 1/2 × Second number

Formula Used:

Average = (Sum of all observations) ÷ (Total number of observations)

Calculations:

Let the second number be 2x.

⇒ The first number = (1 ÷ 2) × 2x = x.

⇒ Average = (x + 2x) ÷ 2

⇒ 72 = 3x ÷ 2

⇒ 144 = 3x

⇒ x = 144 ÷ 3

⇒ x = 48

The first number is x = 48.

∴ The correct answer is 48.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Mean

The average of a set of numbers is the sum of the numbers divided by the count. Formula: Average = Σx ÷ n.

Ratio Distribution

To find a specific part from a total sum given a ratio a : b, use the formula: Part A = [a ÷ (a + b)] × Total Sum.

Relationship between Mean and Sum

The total sum of observations can always be found by multiplying the average by the number of observations (Sum = Average × n).

Shortcut Trick

Average of this Arithmetic series = (First term + Last term) ÷ 2 = (53 + 289) ÷ 2 = 171.

Number of terms (n) = [(Last term − First term) ÷ Difference] + 1 = [(289 − 53) ÷ 2] + 1 = 119.

Total Sum = Average × Number of terms = 171 × 119 = 20349.

∴ The correct answer is 20349.

Alternate Method

Given:

First term (a) = 53

Last term (l) = 289

Common difference (d) = 55 − 53 = 2

Formula Used:

Number of terms (n): l = a + (n − 1)d

Sum of n terms (S_n): S_n = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l)

Calculations:

⇒ 289 = 53 + (n − 1) × 2

⇒ 289 − 53 = (n − 1) × 2

⇒ 236 = (n − 1) × 2

⇒ n − 1 = 236 ÷ 2 = 118

⇒ n = 118 + 1 = 119

⇒ S₁₁₉ = (119 ÷ 2) × (53 + 289)

⇒ S₁₁₉ = (119 ÷ 2) × 342

⇒ S₁₁₉ = 119 × 171

⇒ S₁₁₉ = 20349

∴ The correct answer is 20349.

Additional Information

Sum of first n natural numbers

The sum is calculated using the formula: S = [n × (n + 1)] ÷ 2.

Sum of first n odd numbers

The sum of the first n consecutive odd numbers starting from 1 is always n².

Arithmetic Progression (AP)

A sequence where each term is obtained by adding a fixed common difference (d) to the preceding term.

Shortcut Trick

Product of diagonals d₁ × d₂ = 2 × Area = 2 × 120 = 240.

Given sum d₁ + d₂ = 34. Two numbers with sum 34 and product 240 are 24 and 10.

The half-diagonals of the rhombus are 12 cm and 5 cm (24/2 and 10/2).

Applying the Pythagorean triplet (5, 12, 13), the side of the rhombus is 13 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 13 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of diagonals (d₁ + d₂) = 34 cm

Area of rhombus = 120 cm²

Formula Used:

1. Area = (1/2) × d₁ × d₂
2. Side (a) = √((d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)²) or 4a² = d₁² + d₂²

Calculations:

⇒ (1/2) × d₁ × d₂ = 120

⇒ d₁ × d₂ = 240

⇒ We know that (d₁ + d₂)² = d₁² + d₂² + 2 × d₁d₂

⇒ 34² = d₁² + d₂² + 2 × 240

⇒ 1156 = d₁² + d₂² + 480

⇒ d₁² + d₂² = 1156 − 480 = 676

⇒ Since 4a² = d₁² + d₂²

⇒ 4a² = 676

⇒ a² = 676 ÷ 4 = 169

⇒ a = √169 = 13 cm

∴ The correct answer is 13 cm.

Additional Information

Properties of Rhombus

All four sides are equal and opposite angles are equal. The diagonals bisect each other at 90°.

Side-Diagonal Relation

The side 'a' and diagonals d₁, d₂ are related by 4a² = d₁² + d₂², which is derived from the Pythagoras theorem in one of the four internal triangles.

Perimeter of Rhombus

The perimeter of a rhombus is calculated as 4 × side.

Shortcut Trick

Factor out 4: 4 × (1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 111)

Number of terms (n) = 444 ÷ 4 = 111

Sum of n natural numbers = [n × (n + 1)] ÷ 2

Total Sum = 4 × [111 × 112 ÷ 2] = 2 × 111 × 112 = 24864

∴ The correct answer is 24864.

Alternate Method

Given:

Series: 4, 8, 12, ..., 444

This is an Arithmetic Progression (AP) where:

First term (a) = 4

Common difference (d) = 8 − 4 = 4

Last term (l) = 444

Formula Used:

n^th term of AP (l) = a + (n − 1)d

Sum of n terms (S_n) = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l)

Calculations:

⇒ 444 = 4 + (n − 1) × 4

⇒ 444 − 4 = (n − 1) × 4

⇒ 440 = (n − 1) × 4

⇒ n − 1 = 440 ÷ 4

⇒ n − 1 = 110

⇒ n = 111

Now, calculate the sum:

⇒ S_n = (111 ÷ 2) × (4 + 444)

⇒ S_n = (111 ÷ 2) × 448

⇒ S_n = 111 × 224

⇒ S_n = 24864

∴ The correct answer is 24864.

Additional Information

Sum of First n Natural Numbers

The sum of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula S_n = [n(n + 1)] ÷ 2.

Arithmetic Progression Properties

The average of terms in an AP is always equal to (First term + Last term) ÷ 2. The total sum is then Average × Number of terms.

Number of Terms in AP

The number of terms (n) in an AP can be quickly calculated as n = [(Last Term − First Term) ÷ Common Difference] + 1.

Shortcut Trick

By Alligation Method, the ratio of Blue hats to Red hats is:

(Average of all − Red Average) : (Blue Average − Average of all)

⇒ (44 − 35) : (50 − 44) = 9 : 6 = 3 : 2

Total ratio parts = 3 + 2 = 5 units. Given 5 units = 20 hats, so 1 unit = 4 hats.

Number of Red hats = 2 units × 4 = 8.

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Alternate Method

Given: Total hats = 20, Average cost of Blue hats = Rs. 50, Average cost of Red hats = Rs. 35, Combined average cost = Rs. 44.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the number of Red hats be R.

⇒ Then the number of Blue hats = 20 − R.

⇒ Total Cost = (Number of Blue × Avg Blue) + (Number of Red × Avg Red)

⇒ Total Cost = 20 × 44 = 880.

⇒ 50 × (20 − R) + 35 × R = 880

⇒ 1000 − 50R + 35R = 880

⇒ 1000 − 15R = 880

⇒ 15R = 1000 − 880 = 120

⇒ R = 120 ÷ 15 = 8.

∴ The correct answer is 8.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Formula

The combined average of two groups is calculated as A = (n₁a₁ + n₂a₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂), where n is the quantity and a is the individual average.

Alligation Rule

It states that the ratio of the quantities is inversely proportional to the difference of their averages from the mean average: (Quantity 1) ÷ (Quantity 2) = (Average 2 − Mean Average) ÷ (Mean Average − Average 1).

Ratio Separation

To find a specific component value from a ratio x : y, use the formula: Value = [x ÷ (x + y)] × Total Quantity.

Shortcut Trick

To find the HCF of fractions, use the formula: HCF(Numerators) ÷ LCM(Denominators).

Numerators: 5, 15, 25 ⇒ HCF = 5.

Denominators: 12, 20, 30 ⇒ LCM = 60.

Required HCF = 5/60 = 1/12.

∴ The correct answer is 1/12.

Alternate Method

Given: Fractions 5/12, 15/20, and 25/30.

Formula Used: HCF of Fractions = HCF(Numerators) ÷ LCM(Denominators)

⇒ First, simplify fractions to their lowest terms:

⇒ 5/12 (Already simplified)

⇒ 15/20 = (15 ÷ 5) / (20 ÷ 5) = 3/4

⇒ 25/30 = (25 ÷ 5) / (30 ÷ 5) = 5/6

⇒ New set of fractions: 5/12, 3/4, 5/6

⇒ HCF of Numerators (5, 3, 5) = 1

⇒ LCM of Denominators (12, 4, 6) = 12

⇒ Resulting HCF = 1/12

∴ The correct answer is 1/12.

Additional Information

LCM of Fractions

To find the Least Common Multiple of fractions, use the formula: LCM = LCM(Numerators) ÷ HCF(Denominators).

Simplest Form Requirement

Always convert fractions to their simplest (lowest) form before applying the HCF or LCM formulas to avoid incorrect results.

HCF Definition

The Highest Common Factor is the largest possible number that divides each of the given numbers exactly without leaving any remainder.

Shortcut Trick

Required least number = LCM(8, 14, 15, 20) + Common Remainder

LCM of (8, 14, 15, 20) = 840

Required number = 840 + 5 = 845

∴ The correct answer is 845.

Alternate Method

Given:

Divisors = 8, 14, 15, 20

Common Remainder (r) = 5

Formula Used:

Least number = LCM(Divisors) + r

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of divisors:

⇒ 8 = 2³

⇒ 14 = 2 × 7

⇒ 15 = 3 × 5

⇒ 20 = 2² × 5

⇒ LCM = Highest power of all prime factors = 2³ × 3 × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 8 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 840

⇒ Required number = 840 + 5

⇒ Required number = 845

∴ The correct answer is 845.

Additional Information

LCM and Remainder Concept

When a number leaves the same remainder 'r' when divided by several numbers, it is always in the form: (LCM × k) + r, where k = 1, 2, 3...

Different Remainder Case

If divisors are a, b, c and remainders are x, y, z such that (a−x) = (b−y) = (c−z) = k, then the least number = LCM(a, b, c) − k.

Relationship between HCF and LCM

For any two positive integers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Shortcut Trick

Identify the Base Value and the Tax Amount.

Use the direct percentage formula: (Part ÷ Whole) × 100.

Tax Rate = (18 ÷ 200) × 100 = 18 ÷ 2 = 9%.

∴ The correct answer is 9%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Worth of the Article = ₹200

Tax Paid on the Article = ₹18

Formula Used:

Tax Rate (%) = (Amount of Tax ÷ Worth of Article) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Tax Rate = (18 ÷ 200) × 100

⇒ Tax Rate = 1800 ÷ 200

⇒ Tax Rate = 9%

∴ The correct answer is 9%.

Additional Information

Direct Percentage Formula

The basic formula for percentage is: Percentage = (Value ÷ Total Value) × 100. This is used for tax rates, profit margins, and discount rates.

Reverse Calculation of Worth

If the Tax Rate and Tax Amount are known, the original value can be found using: Worth = (Tax Amount × 100) ÷ Tax Rate.

Effective Tax on Total Price

If multiple taxes (a% and b%) are applied successively, the Effective Tax Rate is calculated as: a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

Loss = 25% = 1/4 (where 1 is Loss and 4 is CP).

Given: Loss (difference) = 1 unit = Rs. 800.

Selling Price (SP) = CP − Loss = 4 − 1 = 3 units.

SP = 3 × 800 = Rs. 2400.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2400.

Alternate Method

Given:

Difference (CP − SP) = Rs. 800

Loss Percentage = 25%

Formula Used:

Loss = Cost Price (CP) − Selling Price (SP)

Loss% = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Loss = 25% of CP

⇒ 800 = (25 ÷ 100) × CP

⇒ CP = 800 × 4

⇒ CP = Rs. 3200

⇒ SP = CP − Loss

⇒ SP = 3200 − 800

⇒ SP = Rs. 2400

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2400.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Relationship

Profit occurs when Selling Price (SP) is greater than Cost Price (CP), while Loss occurs when CP is greater than SP.

Calculation Base

Both profit and loss percentages are always calculated using the Cost Price (CP) as the denominator.

Selling Price Formula

SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100. In this case: SP = 3200 × (100 − 25) ÷ 100 = 3200 × 0.75 = Rs. 2400.

Shortcut Trick

The remaining food after 30 days is sufficient for the initial 100 men for 60 days (90 − 30).

When 100 more men join, the total number of men doubles (from 100 to 200).

In inverse proportion, when the number of men doubles, the time it lasts is halved.

Required days = 60 ÷ 2 = 30 days.

∴ The correct answer is 30 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial men (M₁) = 100

Total duration (D₁) = 90 days

Time passed = 30 days

Men joined = 100

Calculations:

⇒ Total food units available = 100 × 90 = 9000 man-days

⇒ Food consumed in 30 days = 100 × 30 = 3000 man-days

⇒ Remaining food units = 9000 − 3000 = 6000 man-days

⇒ Total men after 30 days = 100 + 100 = 200 men

⇒ Number of days food will last = 6000 ÷ 200

⇒ Number of days = 30 days

∴ The correct answer is 30 days.

Additional Information

Work Equivalence Formula

For food or work problems, the relation M₁ × D₁ = M₂ × D₂ is used when the total quantity of food or work remains constant.

Inverse Variation in Time and Work

The number of days is inversely proportional to the number of people (D ∝ 1/M). If more people join, the food will last for fewer days.

Man-Days Concept

A man-day is the amount of work/consumption done by one person in one day. Total man-days = (Number of Men) × (Number of Days).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of work done by A and B = (Days_A × Efficiency_A) : (Days_B × Efficiency_B)

Ratio A : B = (2 × 5) : (6 × 3) = 10 : 18 = 5 : 9

Sum of ratio parts = 5 + 9 = 14 parts

14 parts = ₹2800 ⇒ 1 part = ₹200

Shares: A = 5 × 200 = ₹1000 | B = 9 × 200 = ₹1800

∴ The correct answer is ₹1000, ₹1800.

Alternate Method

Given:

Days worked by A = 2 days | Days worked by B = 6 days

Work per day (Efficiency) of A = 5 units | B = 3 units

Total wages received = ₹2800

Formula: Wage Share = (Work done by individual ÷ Total work) × Total Wages

⇒ Total work done by A = 2 days × 5 units/day = 10 units

⇒ Total work done by B = 6 days × 3 units/day = 18 units

⇒ Total work done by both = 10 + 18 = 28 units

⇒ Share of A = (10 ÷ 28) × 2800

⇒ Share of A = 10 × 100 = ₹1000

⇒ Share of B = (18 ÷ 28) × 2800

⇒ Share of B = 18 × 100 = ₹1800

∴ The correct answer is ₹1000, ₹1800.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Relationship

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the total work done by each person. If the time worked is the same, wages are distributed in the ratio of their efficiencies.

Total Work Formula

Work Done = Time × Efficiency. In problems where workers join or leave at different times, calculate individual work separately to find the wage ratio.

Efficiency and Time

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. If A is twice as efficient as B, then A takes half the time B takes to do the same work.

Shortcut Trick

Convert Speed of B from m/s to km/hr: 10 × (18 ÷ 5) = 36 km/hr.

Since Time is the same (1 hr), the Ratio of Distances is equal to the Ratio of Speeds.

Required Ratio (A : B) = 25 : 36.

∴ The correct answer is 25 : 36.

Alternate Method

Given: Speed of A = 25 km/hr, Speed of B = 10 m/s, Time = 1 hr.

Formula Used: Distance = Speed × Time; To convert speed from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

⇒ Speed of A = 25 km/hr

⇒ Speed of B (in km/hr) = 10 × (18 ÷ 5) = 2 × 18 = 36 km/hr

⇒ Distance covered by A in 1 hr = 25 × 1 = 25 km

⇒ Distance covered by B in 1 hr = 36 × 1 = 36 km

⇒ Required Ratio = 25 : 36

∴ The correct answer is 25 : 36.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Distance-Speed Relation

When Time is constant, distance is directly proportional to speed: D₁ ÷ D₂ = S₁ ÷ S₂.

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance Covered ÷ Total Time Taken.

Shortcut Trick

Speed in m/s = 90 × (5/18) = 25 m/s.

Time in seconds = 12 × 60 = 720 s.

Total Distance (Train + Platform) = Speed × Time = 25 × 720 = 18000 m.

Since lengths are same, Platform Length = 18000 ÷ 2 = 9000 m.

∴ The correct answer is 9000 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of train = 90 km/hr

Time taken = 12 min

Length of train (L_T) = Length of platform (L_P)

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Total Distance = Length of Train + Length of Platform

Calculations:

⇒ Speed in m/s = 90 × (5/18) = 25 m/s

⇒ Time in seconds = 12 × 60 = 720 s

⇒ Let length of platform = L and length of train = L

⇒ Total Distance = L + L = 2L

⇒ 2L = Speed × Time

⇒ 2L = 25 × 720

⇒ 2L = 18000

⇒ L = 18000 ÷ 2

⇒ L = 9000 m

∴ The correct answer is 9000 m.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Crossing Stationary Objects

When a train crosses a platform/bridge, the total distance covered is the sum of the train’s length and the object’s length. For a pole or person, distance is only the train’s length.

Relative Speed

If two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is the difference (S₁ − S₂). In opposite directions, it is the sum (S₁ + S₂).

Shortcut Trick

CP : SP ratio for a 30% loss = 100 : 70 = 10 : 7

Discount = 5/9 of Selling Price ⇒ MP = SP + (5/9)SP = (14/9)SP

MP : SP ratio = 14 : 9

Combine ratios (make SP equal): CP : SP : MP = (10×9) : (7×9) : (14×7) = 90 : 63 : 98

Required ratio MP : CP = 98 : 90 = 49 : 45

∴ The correct answer is 49 : 45.

Alternate Method

Given:

Loss percentage = 30%

Discount = (5/9) × Selling Price (SP)

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) − Loss

Marked Price (MP) = Selling Price (SP) + Discount

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) be 100 units.

⇒ Loss = 30% of 100 = 30 units.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 100 − 30 = 70 units.

⇒ Discount = (5/9) × 70 = 350/9 units.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount = 70 + 350/9

⇒ MP = (630 + 350) / 9 = 980 / 9 units.

⇒ Ratio of MP to CP = (980 / 9) : 100

⇒ Ratio = 980 : 900

⇒ Ratio = 98 : 90 = 49 : 45

∴ The correct answer is 49 : 45.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP, SP, and MP

The core relation is SP = CP ± Profit/Loss and SP = MP − Discount. This allows for direct ratio comparison between the three components.

Markup Percentage

Markup % is the percentage by which the cost price is increased to reach the marked price: Markup % = [(MP − CP) / CP] × 100.

Discount Percentage

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price: Discount % = (Discount / MP) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Marked Price (MP) = (100 − Discount%) : (100 + Profit%)

CP : 4000 = (100 − 25) : (100 + 20) = 75 : 120 = 5 : 8

8 units = 4000 ⇒ 5 units = 2500

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2500.

Alternate Method

Given: Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 4000, Discount = 25%, Profit = 20%

Formula Used: Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount; Cost Price (CP) = SP ÷ (1 + Profit%/100)

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 4000 − (25% of 4000)

⇒ SP = 4000 − 1000 = Rs. 3000

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = 3000 ÷ (1 + 20 / 100)

⇒ CP = 3000 ÷ 1.2 = Rs. 2500

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2500.

Additional Information

CP and MP Relationship

The direct formula relating Cost Price and Marked Price is CP/MP = (100 − Discount%) / (100 + Profit%).

Markup Percentage

Markup% = [(MP − CP) / CP] × 100. In this case, Markup% = [(4000 − 2500) / 2500] × 100 = 60%.

Selling Price via Discount

Selling Price is always calculated by applying the discount on the Marked Price: SP = MP × (100 − D) / 100.

The correct answer is 'skills'.

Key Points

• The passage describes the job interview process as a critical phase in hiring.
• An interview allows a candidate to present their qualifications and suitability for the role.
• 'Skills' refer to the expertise or talents needed to perform a job effectively.
• In this context, the appropriate noun must represent what a candidate demonstrates to an employer, making 'skills' the most logical choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: A job interview is an important step in the hiring process. It gives candidates a chance to show their 1. skills and learn more about the company. Before going to the interview, it is important to 2. research the company's background and prepare thoughtful answers. Dressing 3. professionally also creates a good first impression. During the interview, candidates should speak clearly, stay calm, and 4. listen to the interviewer's questions carefully. Finally, sending a thank-you email afterward shows 5. interest and professionalism.

Additional Information

• Salary: This refers to the financial compensation for work and is usually discussed later in the process.
• Mistakes: These are errors or faults; candidates generally avoid highlighting these during an initial introduction.
• Office: This refers to a physical workplace or place of business, which is not something a candidate can 'show' as their own qualification.

The correct answer is 'research'.

Key Points

• The passage outlines the essential steps and professional behavior required for a job interview.
• Blank (2) requires a verb that describes what a candidate should do regarding a company's background before attending the interview.
• 'Research' is the most appropriate word because it means to investigate or study a subject in detail to gain knowledge.
• Gathering information about a potential employer helps a candidate prepare thoughtful answers and demonstrate genuine interest.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage: A job interview is an important step in the hiring process. It gives candidates a chance to show their 1. skills and learn more about the company. Before going to the interview, it is important to 2. research the company's background and prepare thoughtful answers. Dressing 3. professionally also creates a good first impression. During the interview, candidates should speak clearly, stay calm, and 4. listen to the interviewer's questions carefully. Finally, sending a thank-you email afterward shows 5. interest and professionalism.

Additional Information

• Clean: This means to remove dirt or marks, which is irrelevant to investigating a company's background.
• Ask: While you may ask questions during the interview, the background is something you investigate independently beforehand.
• Write: Although a candidate might write notes, 'research' more accurately describes the act of gathering information about the organization.

The correct answer is 'professionally'.

Key Points

• The sentence discusses how a candidate should prepare for a job interview to make a positive impact.
• The blank requires an adverb that describes the manner of dressing appropriate for such a formal setting.
• 'Professionally' means in a way that is appropriate for a professional person or context, which aligns with creating a good first impression during an interview.
• Other options like 'poorly', 'casually', and 'quietly' do not fit the context of standard interview etiquette aimed at making a positive impression.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage: A job interview is an important step in the hiring process. It gives candidates a chance to show their 1. skills and learn more about the company. Before going to the interview, it is important to 2. research the company's background and prepare thoughtful answers. Dressing 3. professionally also creates a good first impression. During the interview, candidates should speak clearly, stay calm, and 4. listen to the interviewer's questions carefully. Finally, sending a thank-you email afterward shows 5. interest and professionalism.

Additional Information

• Poorly: In a way that is not good or not satisfactory.
• Casually: In an informal way; not formal.
• Quietly: Making very little noise or without much activity.

The correct answer is 'listen to'.

Key Points

• The passage provides guidance on how to conduct oneself during a job interview.
• Blank (4) requires a verb that logically follows the advice to 'speak clearly' and 'stay calm' while interacting with an interviewer.
• 'Listen to' is the most suitable choice because active listening is a fundamental communication skill. It ensures that the candidate fully understands the interviewer's questions before providing a response.
• The adverb 'carefully' strongly collocates with the verb 'listen', indicating a high degree of attention and focus.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: A job interview is an important step in the hiring process. It gives candidates a chance to show their 1. skills and learn more about the company. Before going to the interview, it is important to 2. research the company's background and prepare thoughtful answers. Dressing 3. professionally also creates a good first impression. During the interview, candidates should speak clearly, stay calm, and 4. listen to the interviewer's questions carefully. Finally, sending a thank-you email afterward shows 5. interest and professionalism.

Additional Information

• Ignore: To pay no attention to someone or something. This would lead to a failure in communication and a negative impression.
• Answer: While a candidate must answer questions, the act of listening 'carefully' is the prerequisite step that ensures the answer is accurate and relevant.
• Guess: To give an answer without being sure of the facts. This is generally discouraged in a professional interview setting as it shows a lack of preparation or honesty.

The correct answer is 'interest'.

Key Points

• The passage describes the standard procedures and etiquette involved in a job interview.
• The sentence indicates that sending a follow-up thank-you email is a positive action that demonstrates a specific quality.
• In the context of recruitment, a follow-up email is used to reaffirm a candidate's interest in the position and the company.
• The other options ('boredom', 'fear', 'silence') represent negative or contradictory states that do not align with the goal of showing professionalism.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: A job interview is an important step in the hiring process. It gives candidates a chance to show their (1) skills and learn more about the company. Before going to the interview, it is important to (2) research the company's background and prepare thoughtful answers. Dressing (3) professionally also creates a good first impression. During the interview, candidates should speak clearly, stay calm, and (4) listen to the interviewer's questions carefully. Finally, sending a thank-you email afterward shows (5) interest and professionalism.

Additional Information

• Boredom: The state of feeling weary and restless through lack of interest; this would be detrimental to a job application.
• Fear: An unpleasant emotion caused by being aware of danger; it is not something a candidate aims to project through a professional email.
• Silence: The absence of any sound or communication; sending an email is an act of communication, so it cannot represent silence.

The correct answer is: Ulterior.

Key Points

• The word 'Ulterior' means existing beyond what is obvious or admitted, usually referring to a hidden motive or reason. (गुप्त)
• Example: She suspected that he had an ulterior motive for being so generous.
• 'Ulterior' is the correctly spelled English word, which is used to describe something that is kept hidden or secret. (परोक्ष)
• Example: They had no ulterior designs on our property when they made the offer.
• Hence, we can infer that the correctly spelt word is 'Ulterior'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Ulterior.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Umberage (गलत वर्तनी): This is an incorrect spelling. The correct spelling is 'Umbrage', which means offense or annoyance. (क्रोध या अपमान)
• Example: He took umbrage at the suggestion that his work was sloppy.
• Undulate (लहराना): To move with a smooth wavelike motion.
• Example: The green fields began to undulate in the gentle breeze.
• Uncouth (गंवार): Lacking good manners, refinement, or grace.
• Example: His uncouth manners made him unpopular at social gatherings.

The correct answer is consensus.

Key Points

• In the given sentence, the word concensus is misspelt. The correct orthographical form is consensus, which features the letter s in both the middle and the final syllables.
• The term consensus refers to a general agreement, a collective opinion, or unanimity reached by a group of individuals or organizations.
• Etymologically, the word is derived from the Latin term consentire, which is a combination of con- (meaning 'together') and sentire (meaning 'to feel' or 'to think').
• Spelling errors for this term frequently involve substituting the second s with a c (as in 'concensus') due to its phonetic similarity, but the correct sequence is c-o-n-s-e-n-s-u-s.
• Within the context of constitutional reforms, reaching a consensus is vital to ensure that all stakeholders agree on the foundational laws and principles of the state.

 Additional Information

• emphasised:
• This is a verb that means to give special importance or prominence to something.
• It follows British English spelling conventions; in American English, the word is spelled as emphasized using the -ize suffix.
• reconciliation:
• This noun refers to the restoration of friendly relations or the process of making one view or belief compatible with another.
• It is a key term in diplomacy and conflict resolution, often involving the settlement of long-standing disputes.
• constitutional:
• An adjective relating to the established set of fundamental principles or precedents according to which a state is governed.
• Constitutional reforms refer to formal amendments or changes made to the Constitution to improve governance or legal frameworks.

The correct answer is: Doubtful.

Key Points

• The word 'certain' refers to being completely sure of something, having no doubts, or something that is known for a fact. (निश्चित)
• Example: Scientists are certain that the earth revolves around the sun.
• 'Doubtful' refers to a state of feeling uncertain, unsure, or having reservations about something; it is the direct antonym of being certain. (संदेहास्पद/अनिश्चित)
• Example: It is doubtful whether the flight will take off on time due to the heavy fog.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'certain' is 'doubtful'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Doubtful.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Definite (निश्चित/स्पष्ट): Something that is clearly stated, decided, or fixed and not subject to change.
• Example: They have not yet given a definite answer to our proposal.
• Positive (सकारात्मक/पक्का): A state of being confident or sure about something, or showing a constructive attitude.
• Example: I am positive that I locked the front door before leaving.
• Sure (पक्का/निश्चित): Feeling confident in what one thinks or knows; having no doubt.
• Example: Please make sure that all the windows are closed.

The correct answer is The renovation project had been finished by them before the grand opening..

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Past Perfect Tense, which follows the active voice structure: Subject + had + Past Participle (V3) + Object.
• When converting a Past Perfect sentence into Passive Voice, the structure shifts to: New Subject (Original Object) + had + been + Past Participle (V3) + by + New Object (Original Subject).
• In the given sentence, They is the subject, had finished is the verb phrase, and the renovation project is the direct object.
• During the transformation, the renovation project moves to the subject position, and the auxiliary had is supplemented with been to indicate the passive state.
• The pronoun They changes to its objective form them following the preposition by, while the temporal phrase before the grand opening remains unchanged at the end of the sentence.

 Additional Information

• Comparison of Tenses in Passive Voice:
• Simple Past Passive: Uses was/were + V3 (e.g., the project was finished). This is used for a single completed action in the past without emphasizing the sequence.
• Present Perfect Passive: Uses has/have + been + V3 (e.g., the project has been finished). This relates a past action to the present moment.
• Past Perfect Passive: Specifically used to denote an action that was completed before another point or action in the past, which is precisely what the phrase before the grand opening signifies.
• The use of had been finishing is grammatically incorrect for a passive construction as it erroneously combines the perfect continuous aspect with a passive intent, which does not fit the completion status of the verb finished.

The correct answer is Was the last train missed by them too?.

Key Points

• The given sentence 'Did they miss the last train too?' is in the Simple Past Tense and follows an interrogative structure.
• In the Active Voice, the construction for a Simple Past question is: Did + Subject + Base Verb (V1) + Object?.
• To transform this into Passive Voice, the structure must be: Was/Were + New Subject (Original Object) + Past Participle (V3) + by + New Object (Original Subject)?.
• The Object of the active sentence is the last train. Since it is a singular noun, the auxiliary verb Was is used to begin the passive sentence.
• The Subject of the active sentence is they, which changes to the objective case pronoun them when placed after the preposition 'by'.
• The Main Verb 'miss' (V1) is converted into its Past Participle form, which is missed (V3).
• The adverb too remains at the end of the sentence to maintain the original meaning.

 Additional Information

• Understanding why other options are incorrect:
• Had the last train missed...: This uses the Past Perfect auxiliary Had, which is used for actions completed before another point in the past. It does not match the Simple Past tense of the original sentence.
• Were the last train missed...: While 'Were' is a past tense auxiliary, it is only used with plural subjects or the pronouns 'You', 'We', and 'They'. Since 'the last train' is singular, this violates Subject-Verb Agreement.
• Is the last train missed...: This uses the Simple Present auxiliary Is, which incorrectly changes the timeline of the sentence from the past to the present.
• Rules for Pronoun Transformation:
• Active Subject to Passive Object: I becomes me, He becomes him, She becomes her, We becomes us, and They becomes them.

The correct answer is 'by'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase 'learn by heart' is a widely used idiomatic expression in English.
• It means to memorize something so thoroughly that it can be repeated or written from memory without looking at the source.
• In the context of the sentence, the teacher is advising the students to memorize a poem, which requires the preposition 'by'.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: 'We were advised by the teacher to learn the poem by heart.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'in' is incorrect because the expression 'learn in heart' is not standard English for memorization.
• Option 3: 'for' is incorrect as it does not form a meaningful idiom with 'learn' and 'heart' in this context.
• Option 4: 'about' is incorrect because 'learn about heart' would mean gaining knowledge about the organ or the symbol of the heart, rather than rote learning a text.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence uses the verb insisted, which belongs to a category of verbs (such as suggest, demand, propose, or recommend) that often require the subjunctive mood when followed by a that-clause.
• In the present subjunctive mood, the base form of the verb (without 'to') is used, regardless of the subject's number or person.
• For the verb to be, the base form is simply be. Since the sentence is in the passive voice (the report receives the action), the correct structure is be + past participle (submitted).
• Therefore, is to be should be replaced by be to maintain grammatical standard in formal English.
• Thus, be submitted by is the correct grammatical choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: 'The manager insisted that the report be submitted by tomorrow.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'to be submitted by' – This is incorrect because the that-clause requires a finite verb or a subjunctive verb, not an infinitive phrase directly following the subject.
• Option 3: 'is submitted on' – This uses the indicative mood ('is'), which is less appropriate than the subjunctive after the verb 'insist'. Additionally, by tomorrow is used for deadlines, whereas on tomorrow is grammatically awkward.
• Option 4: 'No improvement required' – This is incorrect because the original phrase is to be submitted uses the indicative mood which is considered less formal or potentially incorrect in strict grammatical structures involving verbs of insistence.

The correct answer is 'on'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition on is used to indicate a position, location, or place of work that is an open area or a surface.
• In English grammar, it is idiomatic to use on when referring to a farm. For example, one lives on a farm or works on a farm.
• The word farm refers to a piece of land, and the standard preposition for land-based locations of this type is on.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The labourers are working on a farm.'

 

Additional Information

• By: This preposition usually means near, beside, or indicates the agent of an action. It does not fit the context of working at a location like a farm.
• In: While in is used for enclosed spaces (like in a factory or in an office), on is specifically used for agricultural land and estates.
• At: This can be used for general locations (like at the station), but on is more precise for the physical land of a farm.

The correct answer is lucid explanation of the complex theory.

Key Points

• The original sentence contains a logical contradiction because it uses the word obscure, which means not discovered or known about, uncertain, or difficult to understand, to describe an explanation that made a topic comprehensible (easy to understand).
• The term lucid refers to something expressed clearly and easy to understand. Replacing obscure with lucid creates a logically sound sentence where a clear explanation helps unversed students (those lacking experience or knowledge) grasp a difficult subject.
• The word complex is an appropriate adjective for a theory that students typically struggle with, as it indicates a system consisting of many different and connected parts that are often intricate.
• The phrase made it comprehensible acts as the result of the explanation; therefore, the preceding adjective must support the idea of clarity rather than ambiguity or dullness.

 Additional Information

• Stodgy:
• This term describes something that is dull, uninspired, or heavy and slow-moving.
• A stodgy explanation would likely make a theory harder to engage with rather than comprehensible for struggling students.
• Equivocal:
• This refers to using ambiguous language so as to conceal the truth or avoid committing oneself.
• An equivocal explanation is inherently uncertain and would not help unversed students understand a difficult topic.
• Unversed:
• This adjective describes someone who is not practiced or unskilled in a particular area or subject.
• It highlights the necessity for a lucid or transparent teaching method to bridge the knowledge gap.

The correct answer is my colleagues.

 

Key Points

• The phrasal verb looking forward to requires a gerund (verb + -ing) or a noun phrase that functions as the object of the preposition to.
• In the given sentence, the infinitive verb meet is incorrectly placed before the noun phrase my colleagues.
• To make the sentence grammatically correct, the verb meet must be changed to its gerund form meeting, resulting in the correct phrase meeting my colleagues.
• Thus, the error is contained within the segment my colleagues as it requires the preceding verb to be in the gerund form to complete the object of the preposition properly.

Therefore, the correct answer is my colleagues.

 

Correct Sentence: 'I am looking forward to meeting my colleagues tomorrow.'

 

Additional Information

• looking forward – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and represents the continuous aspect of the phrasal verb.
• to meet – Although to is present, it acts as a preposition within the phrasal verb looking forward to, meaning it must be followed by a gerund phrase rather than an infinitive verb.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The error in the sentence lies in the phrase to handle.
• The adjective capable is idiomatically followed by the preposition of and a gerund (the -ing form of a verb).
• Using an infinitive (to + verb) after capable is grammatically incorrect.
• The phrase capable to handle must be replaced with capable of handling to make the sentence correct.
• Thus, the error is identified in Option 3.

Therefore, the correct answer is to handle.

 

Correct Sentence: 'She is capable of handling this difficult task.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1 (is): This is the correct singular form of the verb to be matching the singular subject She.
• Option 2 (capable): This is the correct adjective to describe the subject's ability.
• Option 4 (this difficult task): This is a correctly formed noun phrase acting as the object.
• Gerund vs Infinitive: While some adjectives like able take an infinitive (e.g., able to handle), capable strictly requires of + gerund.

The correct answer is (3) i.e. Fratricide.

Key Points

• The phrase 'the act of killing one's own brother' refers to the murder of a sibling by another. (भाई की हत्या)
• Example: The ancient tragedy was centered around the betrayal and the subsequent fratricide within the royal family.
• 'Fratricide' is the specific legal and social term used for the act of killing one's own brother or sister. (भ्रातृघात)
• Example: The investigation concluded that the prince was guilty of fratricide in his quest for the throne.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct one-word substitute is 'Fratricide'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Fratricide.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Patricide (पितृवध): The act of killing one's own father.
• Example: In Greek mythology, several stories explore the dark theme of patricide.
• Homicide (नरहत्या): The killing of one human being by another.
• Example: The detective specialized in solving complex homicide cases in the city.
• Suicide (आत्महत्या): The act of intentionally taking one's own life.
• Example: Support networks are essential for providing help to those who may be struggling and considering suicide.