SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 26 May, 2026 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The series follows an addition pattern where each consecutive term is obtained by adding a constant value to the previous term.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is that each subsequent term is obtained by multiplying the previous term by 3 and then subtracting 2.

Logic: (Previous Term × 3) − 2 = Next Term

<br>

 

The term completing the series= −40094

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The letters in the series follow a pattern where their positional values increase alternately by 4 and 5.

The missing term is 'Z'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed in this series involves an incremental pattern for both the first and second letters of each term.

The next term in the series is NZ.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed in this pattern is a combination of alphabetical shifts and opposite letter pairs.

For 'XY' related to 'DB':

For 'UE' related to 'AV':

Applying the same logic to find the cluster related to 'WS':

Thus, QH is related to WS.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: In each set, the first letters of the clusters follow a −4 pattern, and the second letters follow a −6 pattern.

For the set (RQ, NK, JE)

For the set (QX, MR, IL)

 

Similarly, for the group (PJ, LD, HX) in option 4:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

• February 1 of a leap year is Sunday.
• February has 29 days.
• March has 31 days.

<br>

Calculation:

Since February has 29 days,

29 = 28 + 1

So, the day on March 1 will be Monday.

Now arrange the days of March (31 days):

<br>

Total Fridays and Saturdays = 4 + 4 = 8.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Based on the information provided, 5 boys (A, B, C, D, and E) are sitting in a row facing North. Let us determine their positions step-by-step:

1. A is third to the left of B

2. B is the immediate neighbour of E and C

3. D is to the immediate left of C

The final sitting arrangement is:

According to the arrangement, the boys sitting at the ends of the row are A (left end) and E (right end).

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given that there are 6 persons: J, K, L, M, N, and O.

According to the information provided:

1. Height of K is more than only 3 persons:

This means K is taller than exactly 3 people. In a ranking from 1 (tallest) to 6 (shortest), K must be in the 3rd position.

Order: _ > _ > K > _ > _ > _

2. Height of J is more than M, N, and O:

This implies J is taller than at least 3 individuals (M, N, and O).

3. Height of J is not maximum:

Since J is taller than at least 3 people but is not the tallest, J must occupy the 2nd position in the ranking (because the 3rd position is already occupied by K).

4. Determining the Maximum Height:

From the above points, we can determine the top of the order:

Position 1: L (The only remaining person)

Position 2: J

Position 3: K

Positions 4, 5, and 6: M, N, and O (in some order)

The final descending order of height is: L > J > K > (M/N/O).

Therefore, L is the person with the maximum height.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The number of elements in the left side box is equal to total line of shape.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is: The right side figure lines are 2 more than the left side figure. 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given:

ART14 : EVX196 →

LPT17 : PTX289 →

Similarly,

NQT20 : RUX400 →

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Given Words:

1. Incorrect
2. Incorporate
3. Incoordination
4. Incorrupt
5. Incorruption

<br>

Dictionary Arrangement:

<br>

Correct dictionary order:

Incoordination → Incorporate → Incorrect → Incorrupt → Incorruption

Sequence: 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3 ".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 47

For the first pair 5497 : 5544

⇒ 5497 + 47 = 5544

For the second pair 6934 : 6981

⇒ 6934 + 47 = 6981

Applying the same logic to the third pair

6377 : ?

⇒ 6377 + 47 = 6424

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number ÷ 2) + 3

For the first pair 614 : 310

⇒ (614 ÷ 2) + 3

⇒ 307 + 3 = 310.

Applying the same logic to the second pair 308 : 157

⇒ (308 ÷ 2) + 3

⇒ 154 + 3 = 157.

Applying the same logic to the third pair 890 : ?

⇒ (890 ÷ 2) + 3

⇒ 445 + 3 = 448.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: (Sum of positional values of letters) × 4.

For

LINE is coded as 160 →

Sum of positional values = 12 + 9 + 14 + 5 = 40

Code = 40 × 4 = 160

 

BOOK is coded as 172 →

Sum of positional values = 2 + 15 + 15 + 11 = 43

Code = 43 × 4 = 172

 

Similarly, let us find the code for CORE:

Sum of positional values = 3 + 15 + 18 + 5 = 41

Code = 41 × 4 = 164

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The alphabetical part of the series follows a pattern of subtracting 3 from the positional values of the previous term's letters, while the numerical part follows a pattern of multiplying the previous term's number by 1.5.

The missing term is 'JLR112.5'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is to determine each component (letters and numbers) of the series based on a specific positional pattern.

 

The missing term is GKD311.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed in the image is: 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct image is "Option 2".

The correct answer is First.

Key Points

• The First Schedule of the Constitution of India contains the list of all States and Union Territories that comprise the Indian Union.
• It specifies the territorial jurisdiction of each state and the extent of each union territory, providing the legal foundation for India's federal structure.
• This schedule is directly linked to Article 1, which declares that India shall be a Union of States, and Article 4, which allows for changes in the schedule following the creation or alteration of states.
• Currently, this schedule accounts for 28 States and 8 Union Territories, reflecting historical reorganizations such as the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 and recent changes like the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.
• Whenever a state is bifurcated, merged, or its name is changed, the First Schedule must be formally amended to reflect the new political map of the country.

 Additional Information

• Second Schedule:
• Contains provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, and privileges of high-ranking constitutional authorities.
• This includes the President of India, Governors, Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, and Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
• Third Schedule:
• Enshrines the various forms of Oaths or Affirmations for candidates, ministers, and judicial officers.
• It ensures that Members of Parliament and the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) swear to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of the nation.
• Fourth Schedule:
• Deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to the states and union territories.
• The allocation is primarily based on the population of each state to ensure proportional representation in the Upper House.

The correct answer is Part XVII.

Key Points

• Part XVII of the Constitution of India deals with the Official Language of the country, encompassing Articles 343 to 351.
• According to Article 343, the official language of the Union is Hindi written in the Devanagari script, although the use of English was permitted for official purposes for an initial period of 15 years from the commencement of the Constitution.
• The provisions are categorized into four distinct chapters: Language of the Union (Articles 343-344), Regional Languages (Articles 345-347), Language of the Supreme Court and High Courts (Articles 348-349), and Special Directives (Articles 350-351).
• Article 351 specifically directs the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.
• The Official Languages Act of 1963 was subsequently enacted to provide for the continued use of English for official purposes of the Union and for use in Parliament even after the 15-year period.

 Additional Information

• Part XV:
• This part pertains to Elections and includes Articles 324 to 329.
• It establishes the Election Commission of India, which is responsible for the direction and control of Parliamentary and State Legislative elections.
• Part XVI:
• It contains Special Provisions relating to certain classes, covering Articles 330 to 342.
• These provisions ensure the representation and protection of interests for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other backward classes.
• Part XVIII:
• This section covers Emergency Provisions under Articles 352 to 360.
• It empowers the President of India to declare a National Emergency, State Emergency (President’s Rule), or Financial Emergency.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Nati is the most celebrated traditional folk dance of Himachal Pradesh, predominantly performed in the Kullu, Shimla, Sirmaur, Chamba, and Kinnaur districts.
• The dance is characterized by its slow, rhythmic, and graceful movements, where performers typically form a circular chain or a semi-circle by holding each other's hands or waists.
• It is performed during significant cultural events such as the Kullu Dussehra, local fairs (Melas), and wedding ceremonies, symbolizing community harmony and celebration.
• In January 2016, the Kullu Nati entered the Guinness World Records as the largest folk dance in the world, with a participation of 9,892 women performing simultaneously.
• The dance is accompanied by traditional Pahari musical instruments, including the Dhol, Nagara, Shehnai, Karnal, and Ranasingha.
• The performers wear traditional Himachali attire, such as the Himachali Topi (cap), Chola, and Ghagra, reflecting the ethnic identity of the Himalayan region.
• Therefore, Himachal Pradesh is the correct state associated with the Nati folk dance.

 Additional Information

• Maharashtra:
• Known for Lavani, a traditional song and dance performed to the powerful beats of the Dholki.
• Other notable folk dances include Lezim, Dhangari Gaja, and the Koli dance associated with the fishing community.
• West Bengal:
• Famous for Chhau dance, a masked martial folk tradition that is recognized as a UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage.
• Other prominent forms include Gambhira, Brita, and Tusu dance.
• Rajasthan:
• Renowned for Ghoomar, where women in colorful ghagras perform graceful pirouettes.
• The Kalbelia dance, associated with the snake-charmer tribe, is also a UNESCO-recognized heritage art form from this state.

The correct answer is Mass.

Key Points

• Mass is defined as the fundamental measure of the total amount of matter contained within a physical body or object.
• It is an intrinsic property of an object, which means it remains constant regardless of the object's location in the universe, whether it is on Earth, the Moon, or in a state of weightlessness in outer space.
• The SI unit of mass is the kilogram (kg), and it is measured using a beam balance, which compares an unknown mass with a known standard mass.
• According to Newton's laws of motion, mass is a quantitative measure of inertia, representing the resistance offered by an object to any change in its state of rest or uniform motion.
• Since the quantity of atoms and molecules within a solid body does not change when moved from one gravitational field to another, the mass remains identical on both the Earth and the Moon.

 Additional Information

• Weight:
• Unlike mass, weight is a vector quantity representing the gravitational force acting on an object.
• It is calculated by the formula W = m × g, where 'm' is mass and 'g' is the acceleration due to gravity.
• Because the Moon's gravity is roughly 1/6th (approximately 16.6%) of Earth's gravity, an object will weigh much less on the Moon than on Earth.
• Gravitational Acceleration:
• This refers to the acceleration of an object caused by the force of gravitation.
• On Earth, the standard value of 'g' is approximately 9.8 m/s², while on the Moon, it is only 1.62 m/s² due to the Moon having a smaller mass and radius.
• Pressure:
• Pressure is defined as the force exerted per unit area (P = F/A).
• Since the weight (force) of an object changes depending on the local gravity, the pressure it exerts on a surface will also differ between the Earth and the Moon.

The correct answer is Samuel Taylor Coleridge.

Key Points

• Lyrical Ballads, with a Few Other Poems, is a seminal collection first published in 1798, marking the official beginning of the Romantic Movement in English Literature.
• The work was a landmark collaboration between William Wordsworth and Samuel Taylor Coleridge, who sought to break away from the rigid, formal structures of 18th-century Neoclassical poetry.
• The poets established a unique division of labor: Wordsworth aimed to provide a fresh perspective on ordinary life and common incidents, while Coleridge focused on supernatural elements and making them appear psychologically credible.
• Coleridge's primary contribution to the 1798 edition was the lengthy and iconic poem The Rime of the Ancient Mariner, which stands as a masterpiece of imagination and symbolism.
• In the second edition published in 1800, Wordsworth added a famous Preface that outlined their poetic manifesto, advocating for the use of the language of men rather than elevated poetic diction.
• The collection also featured Wordsworth's Lines Composed a Few Miles above Tintern Abbey, which serves as a foundational text for Pantheism and nature-oriented philosophy.

 Additional Information

• Samuel Taylor Coleridge:
• A founder of the Romantic Movement and a member of the Lake Poets, he is well known for his prose work Biographia Literaria.
• His unfinished poems Kubla Khan and Christabel are celebrated for their Gothic atmosphere and exploration of the subconscious.
• Robert Southey:
• The third major member of the Lake Poets along with Wordsworth and Coleridge, he served as the Poet Laureate from 1813 to 1843.
• Percy Bysshe Shelley:
• A Second-Generation Romantic poet, he was known for his radical politics and lyrical masterpieces like Prometheus Unbound and Ode to the West Wind.
• Lord Byron:
• Another Second-Generation Romantic, famous for creating the Byronic Hero and writing the epic satire Don Juan.

The correct answer is Eclipses would last longer.

Key Points

• A lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth moves between the Sun and the Moon, obstructing the sunlight that usually reflects off the lunar surface. This event can only take place during a Full Moon phase when the three celestial bodies are in a near-perfect alignment.
• The shadow projected by the Earth into space consists of two distinct parts: the Umbra (the innermost and darkest part) and the Penumbra (the outer, lighter region). Hence, the physical dimensions of these shadow regions are directly proportional to the Earth's radius.
• If the Earth were twice its current size, the diameter of the Umbral shadow at the distance of the Moon's orbit would increase significantly. A larger terrestrial diameter creates a much wider geometric cone of darkness.
• The duration of a lunar eclipse is determined by the time it takes for the Moon to traverse the width of the Earth's shadow. With a larger shadow, the Moon would have to travel a longer arc length through the darkness while maintaining its orbital velocity.
• Consequently, the totality phase and the partial phases of the eclipse would be extended because the Moon remains obscured for a longer period due to the increased cross-sectional area of the shadow. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Shadow Types and Visual Effects:
• Total Lunar Eclipse: This occurs when the entire Moon enters the Earth's Umbra, often appearing reddish due to Rayleigh scattering in Earth's atmosphere.
• Partial Lunar Eclipse: Only a portion of the Moon enters the Umbra, while the rest remains in the Penumbra.
• Penumbral Eclipse: The Moon passes only through the Penumbra, causing a subtle dimming that is often difficult to observe with the naked eye.
• Celestial Mechanics:
• Syzygy: The technical term for the linear configuration of the Sun, Earth, and Moon during an eclipse.
• Orbital Nodes: Eclipses do not occur every month because the Moon's orbit is tilted at about 5 degrees relative to the Ecliptic plane; they only happen when the Moon crosses the orbital nodes.
• Atmospheric Refraction: Even during a total eclipse, the Moon is not completely black because Earth's atmosphere refracts sunlight around the edges of the planet toward the Moon.

The correct answer is 1920 Summer Olympics.

Key Points

• The Olympic flag was designed and created by Baron Pierre de Coubertin, the founder of the International Olympic Committee (IOC), in 1913.
• The flag made its official debut and was first hoisted during the 1920 Summer Olympics, also known as the Games of the VII Olympiad, held in Antwerp, Belgium.
• Although the flag was presented at the Olympic Congress in Paris in 1914 to mark the 20th anniversary of the Olympic Movement, the outbreak of World War I prevented its use in the cancelled 1916 Games.
• The Antwerp Games represented a symbolic moment of global peace and unity following the devastation of the Great War, making the introduction of the flag highly significant.
• The original flag hoisted in Antwerp remained the official flag for the Summer Games for 68 years until it was replaced by a new flag at the 1988 Seoul Olympics.

 Additional Information

• Symbolism of the Olympic Flag:
• It features five interlaced rings of blue, yellow, black, green, and red on a white background, representing the five inhabited continents: Africa, the Americas, Asia, Europe, and Oceania.
• Pierre de Coubertin chose these colors because every national flag in the world at that time contained at least one of these six colors (including the white base).
• 1924 Summer Olympics (Paris):
• These Games were notable for introducing the Olympic motto: Citius, Altius, Fortius (Faster, Higher, Stronger).
• They also established the tradition of raising three flags at the closing ceremony: the IOC flag, the host country flag, and the next host country flag.
• 1924 Winter Olympics (Chamonix):
• This was the inaugural Winter Olympic Games, originally called International Winter Sports Week.
• Prior to 1924, winter sports like Figure Skating and Ice Hockey were occasionally included in the Summer Olympics schedule.
• Other Antwerp Firsts:
• The Olympic Oath was first taken by athletes in 1920, and the release of doves as a symbol of peace was also introduced during the opening ceremony.

The correct answer is Strong rise in foreign exchange reserves over time.

Key Points

• Prior to the 1991 Economic Reforms, India faced a critical Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis, where foreign exchange reserves had depleted to a level sufficient to cover only about two weeks of essential imports.
• The New Economic Policy (NEP) launched in July 1991 introduced Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG), which fundamentally shifted the external sector strategy toward openness and market-driven growth.
• A primary indicator of the success of these reforms was the Strong rise in foreign exchange reserves over time, which grew from nearly 1.2 billion USD in 1991 to hundreds of billions in the subsequent decades.
• The reforms included the Devaluation of the Rupee and the transition to a Market-determined Exchange Rate system, which made Indian exports more competitive and attracted significant capital inflows.
• The stability provided by these reserves allowed India to manage external shocks, such as the 1997 Asian Financial Crisis and the 2008 Global Financial Crisis, without facing a liquidity crunch.

 Additional Information

• Foreign Exchange Reserves Components:
• These reserves are managed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and include Foreign Currency Assets (FCA), Gold, Special Drawing Rights (SDR), and the Reserve Tranche Position in the IMF.
• Foreign Investment Inflows:
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): The reforms opened various sectors to automatic routes for investment, leading to long-term capital growth and technology transfer.
• Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI): The opening of the Indian Stock Market to Foreign Institutional Investors increased liquidity and global integration.
• External Debt Management:
• Post-1991, India focused on reducing short-term debt and improving the Debt Service Ratio, ensuring that external debt remained at sustainable levels relative to GDP.

The correct answer is Abscisic acid.

Key Points

• Abscisic acid (ABA) is a specialized plant growth inhibitor that regulates various physiological processes, primarily acting as a stress hormone.
• It inhibits plant growth and metabolism, serving as an antagonist to growth-promoting hormones like Auxins and Gibberellins.
• One of its most significant effects is inducing the closure of stomata in the leaf epidermis during water stress; this reduces transpiration but also results in the wilting of leaves.
• ABA is responsible for the abscission of leaves, fruits, and flowers by promoting the development of the abscission layer at the base of the plant organs.
• It plays a vital role in seed development and maturation by inducing seed dormancy, ensuring that seeds do not germinate until environmental conditions are favorable.

 Additional Information

• Auxin:
• Primarily synthesized at the shoot and root tips, it promotes cell elongation and apical dominance.
• It is involved in phototropism, causing the plant to grow toward light sources.
• Gibberellins:
• These hormones promote stem elongation, bolting (sudden stalk growth), and the breaking of seed dormancy.
• They are widely used in agriculture to increase the size of fruits like grapes and to speed up the malting process in the brewing industry.
• Cytokinin:
• Essential for cell division (cytokinesis), these hormones are found in high concentrations in regions of rapid growth such as root apices and developing shoots.
• They help delay leaf senescence and promote the formation of chloroplasts.

The correct answer is 2014.

Key Points

• The International Hockey Federation (FIH) officially transitioned international hockey matches from two halves of 35 minutes each to a four-quarter format on September 1, 2014.
• Under this regulation, a standard match duration was reduced from 70 minutes to 60 minutes, comprising four periods of 15 minutes each.
• The implementation of this format was designed to improve the flow and intensity of the game while providing more opportunities for analysis and commercial breaks.
• A significant feature introduced alongside this format was the mandatory 40-second time-out following the award of a penalty corner and the scoring of a goal, ensuring the clock is stopped during these set-piece situations.

 Additional Information

• Structure of Intervals:
• A two-minute break is provided between the first and second quarters, as well as between the third and fourth quarters.
• The halftime interval between the second and third quarters is maintained at ten minutes.
• Purpose and Impact:
• The FIH aimed to make the sport more television-friendly and appealing to global audiences by aligning it with the formats of other high-paced professional sports.
• The format allows teams to maintain higher physical intensity throughout the match due to the frequent short breaks, which facilitates better player recovery and strategic rotations.
• Major tournaments like the Champions Trophy held in late 2014 were among the first elite competitions to showcase this updated timing structure.

The correct answer is Swim, Cycle, Run.

Key Points

• A Triathlon is an endurance multisport race consisting of three distinct disciplines performed sequentially without a significant break between them.
• The standard and internationally recognized sequence for a triathlon is Swimming, followed by Cycling, and concluding with Running. This order is strictly maintained by governing bodies like World Triathlon.
• The Swim leg is placed first primarily for safety reasons; athletes are at their freshest at the start, reducing the risk of exhaustion-related accidents or drowning in open water.
• The Cycling leg follows the swim, allowing athletes to utilize a different set of muscle groups while the heart rate settles into a steady rhythm after the horizontal position of swimming.
• The Run leg serves as the final segment because it is the most physically taxing on the joints due to high-impact movements, and finishing with a run ensures that athletes can safely cross the finish line even if they are heavily fatigued.
• Efficiency in these events is often determined by Transitions, which are the timed intervals spent changing gear between the sports.

 Additional Information

• Transition Phases:
• T1 (Transition 1): Occurs between the Swim and the Cycle, where athletes remove wetsuits and put on helmets and cycling shoes.
• T2 (Transition 2): Occurs between the Cycle and the Run, where athletes switch from cycling shoes to running shoes.
• Standard Race Distances:
• Olympic/Standard Distance: Comprises a 1.5 km swim, a 40 km bike ride, and a 10 km run.
• Sprint Distance: Usually half the Olympic distance, involving a 750 m swim, 20 km bike, and 5 km run.
• Ironman Triathlon: One of the most difficult one-day sporting events, consisting of a 3.8 km swim, a 180 km bike, and a full marathon of 42.2 km.
• Historical Context: The modern version of the sport is widely attributed to the San Diego Track Club, which held the first official triathlon in 1974 at Mission Bay, California.

The correct answer is 1982.

Key Points

• The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on July 12, 1982, to promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural development.
• It was created through the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act 1981, following the specific recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee, also known as the CRAFICARD (Committee to Review Arrangements For Institutional Credit for Agriculture and Rural Development).
• NABARD replaced three major entities: the Agricultural Credit Department (ACD), the Rural Planning and Credit Cell (RPCC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and the Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC).
• The institution was formally dedicated to the nation by the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi on November 5, 1982, with an initial paid-up capital of 100 crore.
• It acts as the apex regulatory body for the overall regulation and licensing of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and apex cooperative banks in India.

 Additional Information

• Organizational Structure and Governance:
• Headquarters: The bank is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and operates through several regional offices across the country.
• Ownership: While it was initially a joint venture between the RBI and the Government of India, the government now holds 100 percent equity in the bank.
• Primary Functions and Initiatives:
• Refinance: Provides long-term and short-term refinance to various financial institutions to promote investment in rural areas.
• Financial Inclusion: Instrumental in the development of the Self-Help Group (SHG) Bank Linkage Project and the design of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme in 1998.
• Funds: Manages the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF), which assists state governments in completing ongoing rural infrastructure projects.

The correct answer is Issuing digital life certificates for pensioners.

Key Points

• Jeevan Pramaan is a biometric-enabled Digital Life Certificate (DLC) for pensioners, designed to streamline the process of proving one is alive to continue receiving pension benefits.
• The initiative addresses the requirement for pensioners to submit a Life Certificate (Pramaan Patra) every year in November to their Pension Disbursing Agency.
• It utilizes Aadhaar-based biometric authentication, allowing pensioners to verify their identity through fingerprints or iris recognition without physical visits to banks or post offices.
• The digital certificate is stored in a centralized Life Certificate Repository, making it instantly accessible to Pension Disbursing Agencies (PDAs) like Banks and Treasuries.
• This system promotes Ease of Living for senior citizens, especially those who are physically infirm or reside far from their disbursing branches.

 Additional Information

• Launch and Administration:
• Launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on November 10, 2014, as part of the Digital India vision.
• The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• Eligibility and Usage:
• Applicable to retired employees of the Central Government, State Governments, Railway, Defense, and other government bodies.
• Pensioners can generate the certificate using the Jeevan Pramaan mobile app, Common Service Centres (CSCs), or specialized biometric devices at home.
• Technological Impact:
• As of recent data, over 1 crore digital life certificates have been successfully processed, significantly reducing identity fraud and administrative delays.
• A unique Jeevan Pramaan ID is generated for each transaction, serving as a permanent reference for the pensioner.

The correct answer is People's Republic of China.

Key Points

• According to the data from the Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI) and the Ministry of Commerce, the People's Republic of China emerged as India's largest trading partner in the fiscal year 2023-24.
• The total bilateral trade between India and China reached $118.4 billion, marginally exceeding the trade volume with the United States.
• India's exports to China saw a growth of 8.7%, amounting to $16.67 billion, driven by sectors like iron ore, cotton yarn, and handloom products.
• India's imports from China increased by 3.24% to reach $101.7 billion, resulting in a trade deficit of $85 billion.
• Major items imported from China include telecom instruments, computer hardware, electronic components, and pharmaceutical intermediates.

 Additional Information

• United States of America:
• The USA was India's top trading partner in 2021-22 and 2022-23.
• In 2023-24, bilateral trade with the USA stood at $118.3 billion, dropping from $128.55 billion in the previous fiscal year.
• United Arab Emirates (UAE):
• The UAE remains India's third-largest trading partner with a trade volume of $83.6 billion in 2023-24.
• Trade is supported by the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) signed in 2022.
• Japan:
• Japan is a crucial strategic and economic partner, though its total trade volume ranks lower than China, the USA, and the UAE.
• Economic ties are governed by the India-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (IJCEPA).

The correct answer is Tribal welfare.

Key Points

• DAJGUA stands for Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan, a massive mission launched by the Government of India to achieve the saturation of critical services in tribal-majority villages.
• The scheme was formally announced in the Union Budget 2024-25 and saw significant implementation activity in July 2025 to improve the socio-economic conditions of tribal communities.
• The mission aims to cover around 63,000 villages across 549 districts and 30 States/UTs, directly benefiting approximately 5 crore tribal people.
• It adopts a whole-of-government approach involving 17 Ministries to implement 25 interventions focused on infrastructure, education, healthcare, and sustainable livelihood.
• The Abhiyan is named after Birsa Munda, the legendary tribal freedom fighter known as Dharti Aaba (Father of the Earth), to honor his legacy of tribal empowerment.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Tribal Affairs:
• Acts as the nodal ministry for the coordination and monitoring of the DAJGUA mission.
• Manages other critical initiatives like the Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) to provide quality middle and high-level education to ST students.
• PM-JANMAN:
• Short for Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan, it specifically focuses on Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
• It addresses 11 critical interventions including safe housing, clean drinking water, and road connectivity in remote tribal settlements.
• Food Fortification:
• Refers to the process of adding micronutrients like Iron, Folic Acid, and Vitamin B12 to rice distributed through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
• It is a strategic tool to combat anemia and malnutrition, which are prevalent in tribal and rural belts.
• Swachh Bharat Mission:
• A nationwide campaign aimed at eliminating open defecation and improving solid waste management.
• It is categorized into Gramin (Rural) and Urban components, managed by the Ministry of Jal Shakti and Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs respectively.

The correct answer is Kumaradevi.

Key Points

• Chandragupta I, who ruled from approximately 319 to 335 CE, was the first powerful sovereign of the Gupta Dynasty and adopted the title of Maharajadhiraja.
• He strengthened his political position and expanded his kingdom's prestige by marrying Kumaradevi, a princess belonging to the ancient and influential Lichchhavi clan of Vaishali.
• This matrimonial alliance was so significant that it provided the Guptas with the necessary political legitimacy and territorial advantage in the Magadha region.
• To commemorate this union, Chandragupta I issued a unique series of gold coins, commonly referred to as the King-and-Queen type or Chandragupta-Kumaradevi coins.
• These coins depict the figures of both the King and the Queen on the obverse, with the name of the Lichchhavis (Lichchhavayah) inscribed on the reverse, acknowledging their contribution to the rise of the empire.

 Additional Information

• Samudragupta:
• He was the son of Chandragupta I and Kumaradevi.
• In the Prayag Prashasti (Allahabad Pillar Inscription), he is famously described as Lichchhavi-dauhitra, meaning the grandson of the Lichchhavis.
• Prabhavati:
• Prabhavati Gupta was the daughter of Chandragupta II and Kuberanaga.
• She was married into the Vakataka Dynasty to King Rudrasena II and served as a powerful regent.
• Nayanika:
• Also known as Naganika, she was a prominent queen of the Satavahana Dynasty.
• She was the wife of Satakarni I and is noted for the Naneghat Inscription.
• Gupta Era:
• The accession of Chandragupta I in 319-320 CE is generally considered the beginning of the Gupta Era.

The correct answer is 290.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), which replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), has introduced a specific time limit for filing plea bargaining applications to ensure efficiency in the judicial process.
• Under Section 290(1) of the BNSS, an accused person is permitted to file an application for plea bargaining only within a period of thirty days from the date of framing of charges by the court.
• The application must be filed in the court where the offence is pending trial and must include a description of the case and an affidavit affirming that the accused has voluntarily opted for this process without any coercion.
• This time-bound provision is a significant departure from the previous CrPC framework, where no such specific restrictive deadline was explicitly mentioned for the submission of the application after charges were framed.
• By imposing a 30-day limit, the legislature aims to prevent the use of plea bargaining as a delaying tactic during the later stages of a criminal trial, thereby upholding the principle of speedy justice.

 Additional Information

• Plea Bargaining (Chapter XXII)
• Applicability: It applies to offences that do not carry a punishment of death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment exceeding seven years.
• Specific Exclusions: Plea bargaining is strictly prohibited for offences that affect the socio-economic conditions of the country or offences committed against a woman or a child below fourteen years of age.
• Mutually Satisfactory Disposition: Under Section 291, the court provides time for the prosecution, the victim, and the accused to work out a satisfactory disposition of the case, which may include compensation to the victim.
• Finality of Judgment: The judgment delivered by the court under this chapter is final and no appeal lies in any court except via a Special Leave Petition under Article 136 or a Writ Petition under Articles 226 and 227 of the Constitution of India.

The correct answer is E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker.

Key Points

• The Self-Respect Movement was a significant socio-political movement launched in 1925 by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, who is popularly and respectfully referred to as Periyar.
• It originated in the state of Tamil Nadu with the primary goal of achieving a society where backward castes enjoyed equal human rights and self-respect.
• Periyar initiated this movement after resigning from the Indian National Congress, as he believed the party was dominated by Brahminical interests and did not sufficiently address caste-based discrimination.
• The movement strongly advocated for the abolition of untouchability, the empowerment of women, and the rejection of the caste hierarchy and religious superstitions.
• A hallmark of the movement was the Self-Respect Marriage (Swayam Mariyathai Kalyanam), which encouraged unions without Brahmin priests or religious rituals to simplify social customs and promote equality.
• The ideology of the movement later formed the foundational basis for the Dravidar Kazhagam and subsequently influenced the Dravidian politics that shaped Tamil Nadu.

 Additional Information

• Jyotirao Phule:
• A 19th-century social reformer from Maharashtra who founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873.
• He worked extensively for the education of women and the upliftment of the oppressed classes, authored Gulamgiri, and challenged Brahminical supremacy.
• Shri Narayana Guru:
• A spiritual leader and social reformer from Kerala who led a reform movement against casteism.
• He established the Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana (SNDP) Yogam and gave the famous universal message: One Caste, One Religion, One God for Mankind.
• Ghasidas:
• Guru Ghasidas was the founder of the Satnami community in Chhattisgarh during the 18th and 19th centuries.
• He preached the philosophy of social equality and monotheism, focusing on the worship of Satnam (The True Name) to unite marginalized sections.

The correct answer is 64.4%.

Key Points

• The report titled Women in Agribusiness: Opportunities and Challenges, jointly prepared by FICCI and PwC India, highlights the critical demographic shift in the Indian primary sector.
• According to the findings, women are projected to constitute 64.4% of the total agricultural workforce in India by the year 2025.
• This significant figure is a result of the feminization of agriculture, a process where female members of the household take over farming responsibilities as men migrate to urban areas for non-farm employment.
• The report emphasizes that women are the backbone of the rural economy, contributing heavily to labor-intensive activities such as sowing, weeding, transplanting, and livestock management.
• Despite their dominance in numbers, the report identifies that women often lack legal recognition as farmers, which hinders their access to government subsidies and support schemes.

 Additional Information

• Agribusiness Landscape:
• The report notes that while women participation is high in production, it remains significantly lower in value-added segments like processing, logistics, and agri-tech leadership.
• Closing the gender gap in agriculture could potentially increase farm yields by 20% to 30%, fostering greater food security.
• Socio-Economic Barriers:
• Key challenges cited include a lack of land titles, limited access to institutional credit, and the digital divide in rural connectivity.
• Societal norms frequently restrict women from participating in agricultural markets (Mandis), limiting their income potential.
• Policy Focus:
• To empower women farmers, the report suggests strengthening Women Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and providing gender-friendly machinery to reduce physical drudgery.
• Encouraging financial literacy and entrepreneurial training is essential for transitioning women from laborers to agri-entrepreneurs.

The correct answer is 111.

Key Points

• Anna University, a premier technical institution located in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, has achieved a significant milestone by securing the 111th position in the Times Higher Education (THE) Asia University Rankings.
• This ranking represents a major leap for the university, which was previously positioned in the 201–250 band in the preceding evaluation cycle, reflecting rapid improvements in its academic and research output.
• The THE Asia University Rankings utilize 18 rigorous performance indicators to assess institutions across five main pillars: Teaching, Research Environment, Research Quality, International Outlook, and Industry connections.
• The university's elevation to rank 111 is largely attributed to its high scores in Research Quality, which measures citation impact and research excellence, as well as its strong Industry Income, indicating successful knowledge transfer.

 Additional Information

• Times Higher Education (THE) Rankings
• The THE Asia University Rankings focus specifically on the performance of universities across the Asian continent, providing a benchmark for educational excellence in the region.
• The 2024-2025 ranking cycle saw India emerge as the second-most represented nation with over 90 institutions making the list, trailing only China.
• Leading Indian Institutions
• The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) Bangalore continues to lead the Indian contingent, maintaining its status in the top tier of Asian universities.
• Other notable performers alongside Anna University include various Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) and private research universities, showcasing a diversified growth in the Indian Higher Education sector.
• Methodology and Impact
• The Research Quality pillar, accounting for 30% of the total weightage, is a critical factor where Indian technical universities like Anna University have shown substantial growth.
• Global rankings like these influence International Student recruitment, Faculty Collaboration, and government funding under schemes like the Institution of Eminence (IoE).

Shortcut Trick

Solve using the BODMAS rule by handling the bracket first: (36 + 12) = 48.

Multiply 78 by 2 to get 156.

Group the positive and negative terms: (156 + 64) − (59 + 48).

Calculate the final difference: 220 − 107 = 113.

∴ The correct answer is 113.

Alternate Method

Given: 78 × 2 − 59 + 64 − (36 + 12)

Formula Used: BODMAS (Bracket, Order, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction)

⇒ 78 × 2 − 59 + 64 − 48

⇒ 156 − 59 + 64 − 48

⇒ (156 + 64) − (59 + 48)

⇒ 220 − 107

⇒ 113

∴ The correct answer is 113.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

Standard order of operations where Brackets (B) are solved first, followed by Orders/Exponents (O), Division (D), Multiplication (M), Addition (A), and Subtraction (S).

Arithmetic Priority

Operations like multiplication and division have higher precedence than addition and subtraction, which are solved from left to right after higher-level operations.

Grouping Terms

To simplify large expressions, group all positive integers together and all negative integers together before performing the final subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

Apply BODMAS: Solve Bracket → Multiplication → Addition/Subtraction.

Value = 74 + 88 − 66 + 90 − 91

Value = (74 + 88 + 90) − (66 + 91) = 252 − 157

Value = 95

∴ The correct answer is 95.

Alternate Method

Given:

74 + 88 − (39 + 27) + 45 × 2 − 91

Formula Used:

Use BODMAS rule: Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.

⇒ 74 + 88 − 66 + 45 × 2 − 91 (Solving Brackets: 39 + 27 = 66)

⇒ 74 + 88 − 66 + 90 − 91 (Solving Multiplication: 45 × 2 = 90)

⇒ 162 − 66 + 90 − 91 (Solving Addition from left: 74 + 88 = 162)

⇒ 96 + 90 − 91

⇒ 186 − 91 = 95 (Solving Subtraction: 186 − 91 = 95)

∴ The correct answer is 95.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule Order

The rule defines the order as Brackets (), Of/Orders (xⁿ, √), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Priority of Multi-level Brackets

When multiple types of brackets are present, solve in the sequence: Parentheses (), then Braces {}, and finally Square Brackets [].

Left-to-Right Rule

For operations with the same priority (like Addition and Subtraction), always calculate from left to right to avoid errors.

Shortcut Trick

First, find the square root of the base number: √3025 = 55.

For every two decimal places in the number, there is one decimal place in the square root.

Rewrite the terms: 5.5 + 0.55 + 0.055 + 0.0055.

Summing the values: 5.5 + 0.55 + 0.055 + 0.0055 = 6.1105.

∴ The correct answer is 6.1105.

Alternate Method

Given: √30.25 + √0.3025 + √0.003025 + √0.00003025

Formula Used: √(x/10²ⁿ) = (√x) / 10ⁿ

⇒ √30.25 = √(3025/100) = 55/10 = 5.5

⇒ √0.3025 = √(3025/10000) = 55/100 = 0.55

⇒ √0.003025 = √(3025/1000000) = 55/1000 = 0.055

⇒ √0.00003025 = √(3025/100000000) = 55/10000 = 0.0055

⇒ Total Sum = 5.5 + 0.55 + 0.055 + 0.0055

⇒ Total Sum = 6.1105

∴ The correct answer is 6.1105.

Additional Information

Square Root of Decimals

When calculating the square root of a decimal, the resulting value contains half the number of decimal places as the original. For example, √0.0001 (4 places) = 0.01 (2 places).

Squaring Numbers ending in 5

To square a number ending in 5 (n5), multiply n × (n + 1) and append 25. Thus, 55² = (5×6) followed by 25 = 3025.

Decimal Addition

When adding decimals, align the decimal points vertically and fill in trailing zeros to ensure all numbers have the same number of decimal places before summing.

Shortcut Trick

Since the sum is an integer (30), the number must be a perfect square.

Check Option (1): If the number is 25, its positive square root is √25 = 5.

The sum = 25 + 5 = 30, which matches the given condition.

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Alternate Method

Given: Number + √(Number) = 30

Let the required number be x.

According to the problem: x + √x = 30

Let √x = y, then x = y².

⇒ y² + y = 30

⇒ y² + y − 30 = 0

Applying middle-term splitting:

⇒ y² + 6y − 5y − 30 = 0

⇒ y(y + 6) − 5(y + 6) = 0

⇒ (y − 5)(y + 6) = 0

⇒ y = 5 or y = −6

Since √x represents a positive square root, we take y = 5.

⇒ x = y² = 5² = 25

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Additional Information

Quadratic Formula

For any quadratic equation ax² + bx + c = 0, the roots are calculated as x = [−b ± √(b² − 4ac)] ÷ 2a.

Nature of Roots

The discriminant (D = b² − 4ac) determines the nature of the roots. If D > 0, the roots are real and distinct.

Perfect Square Identification

A perfect square is an integer that is the square of another integer. Common examples include 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, etc.

Shortcut Trick

Determine √18.49: Since 4² = 16 and 4.3² = 18.49, the value is 4.3.

Isolate the radical: √(29 + x²) = 19.3 − 4.3 = 15.

Square both sides: 29 + x² = 15² ⇒ 29 + x² = 225.

Solve for x²: x² = 225 − 29 = 196.

Find x: x = √196 = 14.

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Alternate Method

Given:

√18.49 + √(29 + x²) = 19.3

Calculation:

⇒ First, simplify the decimal square root: √18.49 = √(1849/100) = 43/10 = 4.3

⇒ Substitute the value back into the equation: 4.3 + √(29 + x²) = 19.3

⇒ Subtract 4.3 from both sides: √(29 + x²) = 19.3 − 4.3

⇒ √(29 + x²) = 15.0

⇒ Squaring both sides to eliminate the radical:

⇒ (√(29 + x²))² = 15²

⇒ 29 + x² = 225

⇒ x² = 225 − 29

⇒ x² = 196

⇒ x = √196

⇒ x = 14

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Additional Information

Square Root of Decimals

To find √x where x is a decimal, convert it to a fraction (e.g., √0.25 = √(25/100) = 5/10 = 0.5) to simplify the calculation.

Perfect Squares and Estimation

Memorizing perfect squares up to 30 helps in identifying roots quickly. For example, knowing 14² = 196 and 15² = 225 allows for rapid solving of algebraic equations.

Isolating Radicals

When an equation contains a square root, always isolate the radical on one side before squaring to avoid creating complex middle terms (2ab).

Shortcut Trick

Required Sum = [Sum of 1³ to 40³] − [Sum of 1³ to 10³]

Using the property ∑n³ = [n(n+1)/2]²

Sum = [40 × 41 / 2]² − [10 × 11 / 2]²

Sum = 820² − 55² = 672400 − 3025 = 669375

∴ The correct answer is 669375.

Alternate Method

Given: The series is 11³ + 12³ + 13³ + ...... + 40³.

Formula Used: Sum of the cubes of first n natural numbers is given by S_n = [n(n + 1) / 2]².

⇒ Total Sum = (1³ + 2³ + ... + 40³) − (1³ + 2³ + ... + 10³)

⇒ For the first part, n = 40:

⇒ S₄₀ = [40 × (40 + 1) / 2]²

⇒ S₄₀ = [20 × 41]² = 820² = 672400

⇒ For the second part, n = 10:

⇒ S₁₀ = [10 × (10 + 1) / 2]²

⇒ S₁₀ = [5 × 11]² = 55² = 3025

⇒ Required Value = S₄₀ − S₁₀

⇒ Required Value = 672400 − 3025 = 669375

∴ The correct answer is 669375.

Additional Information

Sum of first n natural numbers

The sum of the first n natural numbers is calculated as S = n(n + 1) / 2.

Sum of squares of first n natural numbers

The sum of the squares of the first n natural numbers is S = n(n + 1)(2n + 1) / 6.

Sum of first n even numbers

The sum of the first n even numbers is given by the formula S = n(n + 1).

Sum of first n odd numbers

The sum of the first n odd natural numbers is S = n².

Shortcut Trick

Factor out the common multiple 4: 4 × (1 + 2 + 3 + ... + 82).

The number of terms n = 328 ÷ 4 = 82.

Apply the sum of first n natural numbers formula: 4 × [n(n + 1) ÷ 2].

Sum = 2 × 82 × 83 = 164 × 83 = 13612.

∴ The correct answer is 13612.

Alternate Method

Given:

The given series is an Arithmetic Progression (AP): 4, 8, 12, 16, ..., 328.

First term (a) = 4

Common difference (d) = 8 − 4 = 4

Last term (l) = 328

Formula Used:

n = [(l − a) ÷ d] + 1

Sum (S_n) = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l)

Calculations:

⇒ n = [(328 − 4) ÷ 4] + 1

⇒ n = [324 ÷ 4] + 1

⇒ n = 81 + 1 = 82

⇒ S₈₂ = (82 ÷ 2) × (4 + 328)

⇒ S₈₂ = 41 × 332

⇒ S₈₂ = 13612

∴ The correct answer is 13612.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Progression (AP)

A sequence where each term is obtained by adding a constant common difference (d) to the previous term. The n-th term is a_n = a + (n − 1)d.

Sum of n terms

The sum can be calculated using S_n = (n ÷ 2)[2a + (n − 1)d] or when the last term is known, S_n = (n ÷ 2)(a + l).

Sum of first n natural numbers

The sum of numbers 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n is given by the formula: Σn = n(n + 1) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

If each number in a given set is multiplied by a constant value k, the average of that set is also multiplied by k.

Given Original Average = 12 and Multiplier = 5.

⇒ New Average = 12 × 5 = 60.

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total numbers (n) = 11

Original Average = 12

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of observations ÷ Total number of observations

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of 11 numbers = 12 × 11 = 132

⇒ Since each number is multiplied by 5, the new sum also becomes 5 times the old sum.

⇒ New Sum = 132 × 5 = 660

⇒ New Average = 660 ÷ 11

⇒ New Average = 60

∴ The correct answer is 60.

Additional Information

Addition/Subtraction Rule

If a constant x is added to or subtracted from every number in a set, the new average will be (Old Average + x) or (Old Average − x).

Division Rule

If every number in a set is divided by a non-zero constant k, the new average will be (Old Average ÷ k).

Weighted Average

When combining two groups with averages A₁ and A₂ and sizes n₁ and n₂, the Combined Average = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Shortcut Trick

In a parallelogram, any two adjacent angles are supplementary, meaning their sum is always 180°.

Adjacent angle = 180° − 95° = 85°

∴ The correct answer is 85°.

Alternate Method

Given: One angle of the parallelogram = 95°

Formula Used: Sum of adjacent angles of a parallelogram = 180°

⇒ Let the given angle be ∠A = 95°.

⇒ Let the adjacent angle be ∠B.

⇒ ∠A + ∠B = 180°

⇒ 95° + ∠B = 180°

⇒ ∠B = 180° − 95°

⇒ ∠B = 85°

∴ The correct answer is 85°.

Additional Information

Opposite Angles

In a parallelogram, the opposite angles are always equal in measure (∠A = ∠C and ∠B = ∠D).

Interior Angle Sum

The sum of all four interior angles of any quadrilateral, including a parallelogram, is exactly 360°.

Diagonals Property

The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other, although they are not necessarily equal in length unless the figure is a rectangle.

Shortcut Trick

The odd natural numbers between 4 and 24 are 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, and 23.

This sequence forms an Arithmetic Progression (AP) where the common difference is 2.

For any AP, the Average is calculated as: (First Term + Last Term) ÷ 2.

Average = (5 + 23) ÷ 2 = 28 ÷ 2 = 14.

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Alternate Method

Given: Odd natural numbers in the range (4, 24).

Formula: Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Total number of observations

⇒ Sum of odd numbers = 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19 + 21 + 23 = 140

⇒ Total count of numbers (n) = 10

⇒ Average = 140 ÷ 10 = 14

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Progression (AP) Properties

In an AP with first term a and last term l, the average is always (a + l) ÷ 2. This applies to any set of consecutive even or odd numbers.

Sum of First n Odd Numbers

The sum of the first n odd natural numbers is given by the formula n², and their average is simply n.

Number of Terms Formula

The number of terms in an AP can be found using: n = [(Last Term − First Term) ÷ Common Difference] + 1.

Shortcut Trick

Simplify all fractions first: 24/81 = 8/27.

Given set: 8/9, 16/27, and 8/27.

Rule: HCF of fractions = HCF(Numerators) ÷ LCM(Denominators).

Calculation: HCF(8, 16, 8) ÷ LCM(9, 27, 27) = 8 / 27.

∴ The correct answer is 8/27.

Alternate Method

Given: Fractions are 8/9, 16/27, and 24/81.

Formula Used:

HCF of Fractions = [HCF of Numerators] / [LCM of Denominators]

⇒ Step 1: Reduce 24/81 to its simplest form.

⇒ 24/81 = (24 ÷ 3) / (81 ÷ 3) = 8/27.

⇒ Step 2: Identify the set of numerators and denominators from the simplified fractions: (8/9, 16/27, 8/27).

⇒ Numerators = 8, 16, 8 | Denominators = 9, 27, 27.

⇒ Step 3: Find HCF of Numerators (8, 16, 8).

⇒ 8 = 2³; 16 = 2⁴; 8 = 2³. ∴ HCF = 2³ = 8.

⇒ Step 4: Find LCM of Denominators (9, 27, 27).

⇒ 9 = 3²; 27 = 3³. ∴ LCM = 3³ = 27.

⇒ Step 5: Apply formula → HCF = 8 / 27.

∴ The correct answer is 8/27.

Additional Information

LCM of Fractions

To find the Least Common Multiple of fractions, use the formula: LCM = [LCM of Numerators] ÷ [HCF of Denominators].

Simplest Form Rule

Always convert fractions to their lowest terms (simplest form) before calculating HCF or LCM to ensure the result is mathematically accurate.

HCF and LCM Relationship

For any two numbers x and y, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM (x × y = HCF × LCM).

Shortcut Trick

The Sum of the numbers is calculated as: (Sum of Ratio Parts) × HCF.

Given Ratio = 5 : 6 and HCF = 4.

Sum of ratio parts = 5 + 6 = 11.

Total Sum = 11 × 4 = 44.

∴ The correct answer is 44.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of two numbers = 5 : 6

Highest Common Factor (HCF) = 4

Calculations:

⇒ Let the two numbers be 5x and 6x, where x is the HCF.

⇒ Since the HCF is given as 4, ∴ x = 4.

⇒ First Number = 5 × 4 = 20.

⇒ Second Number = 6 × 4 = 24.

⇒ Sum of the numbers = 20 + 24 = 44.

∴ The correct answer is 44.

Additional Information

Definition of HCF

The Highest Common Factor (HCF) is the largest number that divides two or more numbers without leaving a remainder.

LCM and HCF Relationship

For any two numbers, Product of Numbers = LCM × HCF.

Ratio Multiplier Property

If the ratio of two numbers is a : b and their HCF is x, then the numbers are ax and bx, and their LCM is abx.

Shortcut Trick

Loss = 30% = 3/10 (where 10 is CP and 3 is Loss)

SP = CP − Loss = 10 − 3 = 7 units

7 units = Rs. 336

1 unit = 336 ÷ 7 = 48

CP = 10 units = 48 × 10 = Rs. 480

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 480.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = Rs. 336

Loss percentage = 30%

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = (SP × 100) ÷ (100 − Loss%)

Calculations:

⇒ CP = (336 × 100) ÷ (100 − 30)

⇒ CP = (336 × 100) ÷ 70

⇒ CP = 33600 ÷ 70

⇒ CP = 3360 ÷ 7

⇒ CP = Rs. 480

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 480.

Additional Information

Profit Percentage Formula

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100, where Profit = SP − CP.

SP when Profit% is given

SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100.

Marked Price and Discount

SP = Marked Price − Discount. Discount % is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP).

Shortcut Trick

Failed students % = 100% − 60% = 40%

Ratio of Passed : Failed = 60 : 40 = 3 : 2

Given 2 units = 30000 ⇒ 1 unit = 15000

Passed students (3 units) = 3 × 15000 = 45000

∴ The correct answer is 45000 students.

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage of passed students = 60%

Number of failed students = 30000

⇒ Let the total number of appeared students be x.

⇒ Percentage of failed students = 100% − 60% = 40%

⇒ 40% of x = 30000

⇒ (40/100) × x = 30000

⇒ x = (30000 × 100) ÷ 40

⇒ x = 75000

⇒ Number of passed students = 60% of total students

⇒ Number of passed students = (60/100) × 75000

⇒ Number of passed students = 60 × 750 = 45000

∴ The correct answer is 45000 students.

Additional Information

Basic Percentage Formula

The value of a percentage is calculated as: Value = (Percentage ÷ 100) × Total Base.

Complementary Percentages

In a system with only two outcomes (like Pass/Fail), the sum of their percentages always equals 100%.

Unitary Method

If p% represents a value V, then 1% represents V/p. Any other percentage q% can be found by multiplying (V/p) × q.

Shortcut Trick

Let the Total Work be 24 units (LCM of 8 and 3).

First Day work = 5/8 × 24 = 15 units; Remaining = 24 − 15 = 9 units.

Second Day work = 1/3 × 9 = 3 units.

Final Remaining = 9 − 3 = 6 units.

Ratio 6 units = 10 actual units ⇒ 1 unit = 10/6.

Total Work = 24 × (10 ÷ 6) = 40 units.

∴ The correct answer is 40 units.

Alternate Method

Given:

Work done on First Day = 5/8 of total.

Work done on Second Day = 1/3 of the remaining work.

Final Remaining Work = 10 units.

Formula Used:

Remaining Work = Total Work − Total Work Done

⇒ Let the Total Work be W.

⇒ Work done on Day 1 = 5/8 × W.

⇒ Remaining work after Day 1 = W − (5/8)W = 3/8 × W.

⇒ Work done on Day 2 = 1/3 × (3/8 × W) = 1/8 × W.

⇒ Total work done in two days = 5/8 × W + 1/8 × W = 6/8 × W = 3/4 × W.

⇒ Final Remaining work = W − 3/4 × W = 1/4 × W.

⇒ 1/4 × W = 10 units.

⇒ W = 10 × 4 = 40 units.

∴ The correct answer is 40 units.

Additional Information

LCM Method for Fractions

To simplify fraction-based work problems, assume the total work is the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the denominators involved (e.g., 8 and 3 in this case).

Successive Remainder Concept

If a person does 1/x of the remaining work, the new remaining portion is (1 − 1/x) of the previous remainder. The final remainder fraction is (1 − f₁) × (1 − f₂) × ... × Total.

Unitary Method

Once the fraction of the remaining work is equated to the given value (1/4 = 10), the total value (1 unit or 100%) is found by multiplying the value by the reciprocal of the fraction.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of work done by A and B = (Efficiency × Time)_A : (Efficiency × Time)_B

Work ratio = (3 × 4) : (2 × 6) = 12 : 12 = 1 : 1

Since the work ratio is 1 : 1, the total wages are divided equally.

Share of each = 5400 ÷ 2 = ₹2700

∴ The correct answer is ₹2700, ₹2700.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time worked by A = 4 days | Efficiency of A = 3 units/day

Time worked by B = 6 days | Efficiency of B = 2 units/day

Total wages received = ₹5400

Formula Used:

Total Work Done = Efficiency × Time

Wage of a person = (Work done by the person ÷ Total work) × Total wages

Calculations:

⇒ Work done by A = 4 days × 3 units/day = 12 units

⇒ Work done by B = 6 days × 2 units/day = 12 units

⇒ Total work done = 12 + 12 = 24 units

⇒ Share of A = (12 ÷ 24) × 5400 = 1/2 × 5400 = ₹2700

⇒ Share of B = (12 ÷ 24) × 5400 = 1/2 × 5400 = ₹2700

∴ The correct answer is ₹2700, ₹2700.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Relationship

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the actual work done by the individuals, not necessarily their efficiencies alone.

Constant Time Case

If all persons work for the same number of days, the wages are divided strictly in the ratio of their per-day efficiencies.

Constant Efficiency Case

If all workers have the same efficiency, the wages are divided in the ratio of the number of days they worked.

Total Work Calculation

Total work can be calculated as the LCM of individual days when only the time to complete the full task is given.

Shortcut Trick

When time is constant (1 hour for both), the ratio of distance covered is equal to the ratio of their speeds.

Speed of A = 40 km/hr

Speed of B = 18 × (18/5) = 64.8 km/hr

Distance Ratio = Speed Ratio = 40 : 64.8 = 400 : 648 = 50 : 81

∴ The correct answer is 50 : 81.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of A = 40 km/hr

Speed of B = 18 m/s

Time = 1 hour

Conversion of Speed B into km/hr:

⇒ Speed of B = 18 × (18 / 5) km/hr

⇒ Speed of B = 324 / 5 = 64.8 km/hr

Calculation of Distance:

⇒ Distance = Speed × Time

⇒ Distance covered by A = 40 × 1 = 40 km

⇒ Distance covered by B = 64.8 × 1 = 64.8 km

Respective Ratio:

⇒ Ratio = Distance of A : Distance of B

⇒ Ratio = 40 : 64.8

⇒ Ratio = 400 : 648

⇒ Dividing both by 8: 50 : 81

∴ The correct answer is 50 : 81.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion Factor

To convert speed from m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5. To convert from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18.

Direct Proportionality

If time (t) is constant, distance (D) is directly proportional to speed (s) (D ∝ s). If distance (D) is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time (s ∝ 1/t).

Average Speed Formula

Average Speed = Total Distance covered ÷ Total Time taken.

Shortcut Trick

Extra time taken to cross the platform = 15 − 8 = 7 seconds.

This time is spent covering the platform length of 490 m.

Speed = Distance ÷ Time = 490 ÷ 7 = 70 m/s.

Length of train = Speed × Time taken to cross the pole = 70 × 8 = 560 m.

∴ The correct answer is 560 m, 70 m/s.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time to cross pole (T₁) = 8 sec

Length of platform (P) = 490 m

Time to cross platform (T₂) = 15 sec

Formula Used:

Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Let the length of the train be L and its speed be S.

⇒ Case 1 (Pole): S = L ÷ 8

⇒ Case 2 (Platform): S = (L + 490) ÷ 15

⇒ Equating the speeds: L ÷ 8 = (L + 490) ÷ 15

⇒ 15 × L = 8 × (L + 490)

⇒ 15L = 8L + 3920

⇒ 15L − 8L = 3920

⇒ 7L = 3920

⇒ L = 560 m

⇒ S = 560 ÷ 8 = 70 m/s

∴ The correct answer is 560 m, 70 m/s.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, Relative Speed = S₁ − S₂. When they move in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂.

Crossing Objects

When a train crosses a stationary object of negligible length (pole, man), distance = Length of Train. When it crosses an object of certain length (platform, bridge, tunnel), distance = Length of Train + Length of Object.

Shortcut Trick

Loss = 25% = 1/4 ⇒ CP : SP = 4 : 3

Discount = 5/11 of SP ⇒ Discount : SP = 5 : 11

To equate SP, multiply (4 : 3) by 11 and (5 : 11) by 3.

CP = 44, SP = 33, Discount = 15

MP = SP + Discount = 33 + 15 = 48

MP : CP = 48 : 44 = 12 : 11

∴ The correct answer is 12 : 11.

Alternate Method

Given:

Loss percentage = 25%

Discount = (5/11) × Selling Price (SP)

Calculations:

Let the Cost Price (CP) = 100

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 100 − (25% of 100) = 75

⇒ Discount = (5/11) × 75 = 375/11

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount

⇒ MP = 75 + 375/11

⇒ MP = (75 × 11 + 375) / 11

⇒ MP = (825 + 375) / 11 = 1200/11

⇒ Ratio MP : CP = (1200/11) : 100

⇒ Ratio MP : CP = 1200 : (100 × 11)

⇒ Ratio MP : CP = 1200 : 1100 = 12 : 11

∴ The correct answer is 12 : 11.

Additional Information

Basic Profit and Loss Relations

Selling Price (SP) = CP × (100 − Loss%)/100 and Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount.

Discount Percentage

Discount% = (Discount / Marked Price) × 100. It is always calculated on the MP.

MP and CP Relation

The general relation is MP/CP = (100 + Profit%) / (100 − Discount%) or (100 − Loss%) / (100 − Discount%).

Shortcut Trick

Use the direct ratio formula: Cost Price (CP) : Marked Price (MP) = (100 − Discount%) : (100 + Profit%).

Ratio CP : MP = (100 − 30) : (100 + 25) = 70 : 125.

If no discount is given, the new Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) = 125 units.

New Profit Percentage = ((125 − 70) ÷ 70) × 100 = (55 ÷ 70) × 100.

New Profit % = 550 ÷ 7 = 78.57%.

∴ The correct answer is 78.57 percent.

Alternate Method

Given: Selling Price (SP) of one article = ₹50, Discount = 30%, Profit = 25%.

Formula Used: Marked Price (MP) = SP ÷ (1 − Discount%); Cost Price (CP) = SP ÷ (1 + Profit%).

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = ₹50

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = 50 ÷ (1 + 0.25) = 50 ÷ 1.25 = ₹40

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = 50 ÷ (1 − 0.30) = 50 ÷ 0.70 = ₹500/7 ≈ ₹71.43

⇒ If no discount is given, New SP = MP = ₹500/7

⇒ New Profit = (500/7) − 40 = (500 − 280) ÷ 7 = ₹220/7

⇒ New Profit Percentage = [(220/7) ÷ 40] × 100

⇒ New Profit % = [220 ÷ (7 × 40)] × 100 = (220 ÷ 280) × 100 = (11 ÷ 14) × 100 = 78.57%

∴ The correct answer is 78.57 percent.

Additional Information

CP and MP Relationship

The ratio of Cost Price to Marked Price is given by CP/MP = (100 − D%) ÷ (100 + P%), where D is discount and P is profit.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts x% and y% are given, the single equivalent discount is (x + y − (xy ÷ 100))%.

Markup Percentage

Markup% = [(MP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100. This is the profit percentage when no discount is offered on the Marked Price.

The correct answer is 'successful'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the importance and benefits of time management in daily life.
• The sentence indicates that time management is a skill that improves two key aspects: efficiency and an overall positive outcome for the person.
• The word 'successful' is the most appropriate adjective here because being efficient (doing things well) naturally leads to being successful (achieving desired goals or results).
• Other options like 'lazy' or 'worried' are negative traits that contradict the benefits of time management, while 'patient' does not directly correlate with the concept of efficiency in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage: Time management is a skill that helps people become more efficient and 1. successful. When people plan their tasks and set goals, they are more likely to use their time 2. wisely. One useful technique is to create a daily 3. ist of tasks and stick to it. This helps in reducing stress and 4. meeting deadlines. People who manage their time well often find that they have more time for leisure and 5. fun activities.

Additional Information

• 'Patient' means the ability to wait or endure something without complaining or getting annoyed.
• 'Lazy' refers to being unwilling to work or exert effort.
• 'Worried' means feeling anxious or concerned about a problem or situation.

The correct answer is 'wisely'.

Key Points

• The passage emphasizes the benefits of time management and how it leads to efficiency.
• The sentence describes the outcome of planning tasks and setting goals.
• 'Wisely' is an adverb that means in a sensible or smart way. It perfectly describes how time is used when one follows a structured plan.
• The other options do not align with the positive and productive context of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: Time management is a skill that helps people become more efficient and 1. successful. When people plan their tasks and set goals, they are more likely to use their time 2. wisely. One useful technique is to create a daily 3. ist of tasks and stick to it. This helps in reducing stress and 4. meeting deadlines. People who manage their time well often find that they have more time for leisure and 5. fun activities.

Additional Information

• Sadly: In a way that shows or causes sorrow; it has no logical connection to planning tasks.
• Slowly: At a low speed; while one can work slowly, the context of efficiency usually implies optimal speed, not just being slow.
• Randomly: Without a definite aim, purpose, or method; this is the opposite of planning and goal-setting.

The correct answer is 'ist'.

Key Points

• The passage emphasizes techniques for effective time management and personal productivity.
• The context describes a specific technique: creating a record or catalog of daily duties to improve organization.
• In this context, the word 'list' (represented here as 'ist') is the most appropriate noun to describe a collection of tasks that one intends to complete.
• Creating a daily list is a fundamental strategy for reducing stress and ensuring that deadlines are met.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: Time management is a skill that helps people become more efficient and 1. successful. When people plan their tasks and set goals, they are more likely to use their time 2. wisely. One useful technique is to create a daily 3. ist of tasks and stick to it. This helps in reducing stress and 4. meeting deadlines. People who manage their time well often find that they have more time for leisure and 5. fun activities.

Additional Information

• Game: Refers to an activity for amusement or competition, which does not fit the context of a task-tracking tool.
• Hr: An abbreviation for 'hour'; while relevant to time, one does not create a 'daily hour of tasks' in this grammatical structure.
• Friend: Refers to a person with whom one has a bond of mutual affection, which is irrelevant to a list of tasks.

The correct answer is 'meeting'.

Key Points

• The passage focuses on the benefits and techniques of effective Time management.
• The blank (4) requires a verb that describes a positive action taken regarding deadlines as a result of planning.
• In English, the standard phrase for completing a task on or before its due date is 'meeting a deadline'.
• Using a daily task list helps reduce stress because it ensures that the individual is meeting their obligations on time.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: Time management is a skill that helps people become more efficient and 1. successful. When people plan their tasks and set goals, they are more likely to use their time 2. wisely. One useful technique is to create a daily 3. ist of tasks and stick to it. This helps in reducing stress and 4. meeting deadlines. People who manage their time well often find that they have more time for leisure and 5. fun activities.

Additional Information

• Missing: This means failing to do something or not being present; effective time management helps avoid missing deadlines, but the structure here implies the positive act of achieving them.
• Making: While one can 'make' a schedule, the specific colocation for deadlines in the sense of fulfillment is 'meeting'.
• Drawing: This typically refers to producing a picture or pulling something, which is irrelevant to the context of time management and deadlines.

The correct answer is 'fun'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the benefits of time management and how it leads to more efficient work and increased leisure time.
• The sentence indicates that having better control over one's schedule allows for more time to engage in enjoyable activities.
• 'Fun' is the most suitable adjective here because it describes activities that provide amusement or enjoyment, which directly complements the concept of leisure.
• Other options like 'stressful' (listed as 'stressfu'), 'risky', or 'expensive' do not align with the positive outcomes of effective time management mentioned in the text.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: Time management is a skill that helps people become more efficient and (1) ___. When people plan their tasks and set goals, they are more likely to use their time (2) ___. One useful technique is to create a daily (3) ___ of tasks and stick to it. This helps in reducing stress and (4) ___ deadlines. People who manage their time well often find that they have more time for leisure and 5. fun activities.

Additional Information

• Stressful (stressfu): Refers to something that causes mental or emotional tension or anxiety.
• Risky: Refers to an activity that involves a possibility of danger or a negative outcome.
• Expensive: Refers to something that costs a large amount of money.

The correct answer is 'Option (1)' i.e. 'Taciturn'.

Key Points

• The word 'Taciturn' is an adjective used to describe a person who is naturally reserved or uncommunicative in speech, often saying very little. (अल्पभाषी)
• Example: Although his brother is very talkative, John is quite taciturn and prefers to observe rather than speak.
• Among the provided options, 'Taciturn' is the only word that is correctly spelt and adheres to standard English vocabulary. (सही वर्तनी)
• Example: The taciturn nature of the witness made it difficult for the lawyer to extract much information.
• Hence, we can conclude that the spelling in Option (1) is accurate.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Taciturn.

Additional Information

Here are the correct spellings and meanings for the other misspelled options:

• Truncate (काट-छाँट करना): The word 'Trencate' is incorrect; the right spelling is 'Truncate'. it means to shorten something by cutting off the top or the end.
• Example: Because the event was running late, the speaker had to truncate his presentation.
• Temerity (धृष्टता): The word 'Temirity' is incorrect; the right spelling is 'Temerity'. it refers to excessive confidence or boldness; audacity.
• Example: He had the temerity to argue with the judge during the hearing.
• Tirade (कड़ी निंदा): The word 'Tireade' is incorrect; the right spelling is 'Tirade'. it is a long, angry speech of criticism or accusation.
• Example: The manager launched into a tirade against the staff for their poor performance.

The correct answer is: overruns.

Key Points

• The word 'overuns' is misspelt in the sentence. It is used to refer to exceeding a budget or time limit. (सीमा से अधिक होना)
• Example: The development project was halted due to unexpected budget overuns.
• 'Overruns' is the correct spelling, which refers to an instance of something exceeding an expected or allowed cost or time limit. (लागत या समय सीमा से अधिक होना)
• Example: The construction of the highway was delayed by severe cost overruns.
• Hence, we can infer that the correct word is 'overruns'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: overruns.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Infrastructure (बुनियादी ढांचा): The basic physical and organizational structures and facilities needed for the operation of a society or enterprise.
• Example: The local government plans to invest in upgrading the public transport infrastructure.
• Stipulated (निर्धारित): Demanded or specified as a requirement, typically as part of an agreement.
• Example: The agreement stipulated that the renovation must be completed within six months.
• Opposition (विरोध): Resistance or dissent, expressed in action or argument.
• Example: The proposed tax reform met with fierce opposition from the public.

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. Refuse.

Key Points

• The word 'accept' means to consent to receive something that is offered or to agree to a proposal or request. (स्वीकार करना)
• Example: She was very happy to accept the invitation to the wedding.
• 'Refuse' refers to the act of indicating or showing that one is not willing to do something, or not willing to accept something that is offered. (अस्वीकार करना)
• Example: He had to refuse the job offer because he decided to stay in his current city.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite or antonym of 'accept' is 'refuse'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Refuse.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Agree (सहमत होना): To have the same opinion as someone else or to say that you will do something that someone has suggested.
• Example: I totally agree with your decision to start a new business.
• Approve (मंजूरी देना): To officially agree to or accept something as being satisfactory or correct.
• Example: The committee will likely approve the new budget by the end of the week.
• Welcome (स्वागत करना): To greet someone in a polite or friendly way when they arrive at a place.
• Example: The staff at the resort will welcome you with a traditional drink.

The correct answer is: Unattractive.

Key Points

• The word 'Stylish' means someone or something that is fashionable, elegant, and follows a sophisticated trend or aesthetic. (शानदार)
• Example: She always wears stylish clothes that reflect the latest fashion trends.
• 'Unattractive' refers to something that is not pleasing or appealing to look at; it lacks beauty, grace, or style. (भद्दा/आकर्षक न होना)
• Example: The old, rusted fence looked unattractive against the backdrop of the beautiful garden.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'stylish' is 'unattractive'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Unattractive.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Elegant (सुंदर/शिष्ट): This refers to being graceful and stylish in appearance or manner.
• Example: The ballroom was filled with people in elegant evening wear.
• Fashionable (प्रचलित/फैशनेबल): Something that represents a popular style or is currently in vogue.
• Example: It is very fashionable to use eco-friendly products these days.
• Trendy (आधुनिक): Very fashionable or up-to-date with the current styles.
• Example: That new restaurant is a trendy spot for young professionals.

The correct answer is A cutting-edge software for data analysis has been developed by the team..

Key Points

• The active voice sentence follows the structure of the Present Perfect Tense: Subject + has/have + V3 (Past Participle) + Object. Here, The team is the subject, has developed is the verb, and a cutting-edge software for data analysis is the object.
• To transform a Present Perfect sentence into Passive Voice, the standard grammatical formula is: New Subject (Object) + has/have + been + V3 + by + New Object (Subject).
• In the passive construction, the object a cutting-edge software for data analysis becomes the new subject. Since this subject is singular, it is paired with the auxiliary verb has.
• The word been is mandatory in perfect tense passive conversions to indicate the completed state of the action relative to the subject.
• The original subject The team is shifted to the end of the sentence as the agent, preceded by the preposition by.
• Combining these elements results in: A cutting-edge software for data analysis has been developed by the team.

 Additional Information

• Voice Conversion Rules based on Tense:
• Simple Present: The passive form uses is/am/are + V3. (e.g., is developed). This is used for habitual actions or general truths.
• Simple Past: The passive form uses was/were + V3. (e.g., was developed). This indicates an action completed at a specific time in the past.
• Past Perfect: The passive form uses had + been + V3. (e.g., had been developed). This is used for an action completed before another point in the past.
• Future Perfect: The passive form uses will have + been + V3. This indicates an action that will be completed by a certain future time.
• Conceptual Importance:
• Active Voice: Used when the doer (The team) is the primary focus of the sentence.
• Passive Voice: Used when the action or the result (The software) is more significant than who performed it, or when the performer is unknown.

The correct answer is The crops will have been harvested by the farmers by next month..

Key Points

• The original sentence 'By next month, the farmers will have harvested the crops' is in the Active Voice and follows the Future Perfect Tense structure (Subject + will have + V3 + Object).
• When converting to Passive Voice, the object of the active sentence, 'the crops', becomes the new subject of the passive sentence.
• The Future Perfect verb form 'will have harvested' must be changed to its passive equivalent, which is 'will have been harvested' (will have + been + V3).
• The original subject, 'the farmers', is introduced as the agent using the preposition 'by', resulting in 'by the farmers'.
• The time indicator 'By next month' remains consistent in the sentence to denote that the action will be completed by a specific future point.
• Therefore, the resulting sentence maintains the exact meaning and tense of the original while shifting focus to the entity being acted upon (the crops).

 Additional Information

• Future Perfect Passive Construction:
• The general formula for Future Perfect Passive is: Subject (Receiver) + will + have + been + Past Participle (V3) + by + Agent (Doer).
• It is used specifically for actions that will have been completed before another point in the future.
• The addition of 'been' is the critical identifier for the passive transformation in perfect tenses.
• Comparison with other Tense Forms:
• Future Simple Passive: Uses 'will be + V3' (e.g., 'The crops will be harvested'). This indicates a general future action rather than a completed one.
• Present Perfect Passive: Uses 'has/have been + V3' (e.g., 'The crops have been harvested'), which refers to a completed action in the past with current relevance.
• Future Continuous: Generally does not have a commonly used passive form in standard English (avoiding 'will be being').

The correct answer is 'on'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition 'on' is used when referring to electronic media and broadcasting platforms such as television, radio, or the internet.
• The phrase 'appearing on television' is a standard expression used to describe someone being shown during a broadcast.
• The sentence indicates a scheduled broadcast featuring the Prime Minister at 8:30 p.m., making 'on' the grammatically correct choice.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The Prime Minister of Malaysia is appearing on television today at 8:30 p.m.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 2: 'in' is generally used for print media such as newspapers, magazines, or books (e.g., 'in the newspaper').
• Option 3: 'to' is used to indicate direction, motion, or the recipient of an action.
• Option 4: 'with' is used to indicate accompaniment or the instrument used to perform an action.

The correct answer is got their fingers burnt.

Key Points

• The sentence requires the correct usage of the English idiom 'to burn one's fingers' or 'to get one's fingers burnt'. This expression means to suffer financial loss or unpleasant consequences as a result of meddling in something or taking a risk.
• The context of the sentence is the stock market crash of 2008, which is a specific historical event in the past. Therefore, the verb must be in the simple past tense (got).
• The grammatical structure for this causative expression is subject + got + object (their fingers) + past participle (burnt). The original phrase 'got burns on their fingers' is a literal and incorrect phrasing of the intended figurative meaning.
• In this context, burnt acts as the past participle modifying the state of the object (fingers) after the action of the market crash.

 Additional Information

• Grammatical Analysis of Incorrect Options:
• Verb Tense: The option get their fingers burnt is grammatically correct in structure but uses the present tense. This is incompatible with the year 2008, which necessitates a past tense marker.
• Idiomatic Precision: The phrase got burning fingers is not a recognized idiom and implies a physical sensation rather than the metaphorical economic loss associated with the crash.
• Contextual Background:
• The 2008 Financial Crisis was characterized by a massive devaluation of securities and equities, causing widespread losses for retail investors (small investors).
• The idiom get one's fingers burnt is standard in financial journalism to describe the risks of speculative trading or market volatility.

The correct answer is 'on'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective 'bent' when followed by the preposition 'on' forms an idiomatic expression 'bent on'.
• 'Bent on' means to be determined, resolved, or insistently focused on doing something.
• This idiom is typically followed by a gerund (a verb ending in -ing) or a noun phrase. In this sentence, it is followed by the gerund 'buying'.
• The sentence indicates that the child is very determined to get the toy helicopter.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The child is bent on buying the toy helicopter.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'in' is incorrect because 'bent in' usually refers to a physical shape or position (e.g., bent in half).
• Option 2: 'for' is not the standard idiomatic preposition used with 'bent' to express determination.
• Option 4: 'about' is grammatically incorrect in this specific context of intent or resolution.

The correct answer is Yes, my dear, your sister's latest novel.

Key Points

• The sentence requires proper punctuation for an interjection and a vocative expression. The word Yes is an introductory interjection and must be followed by a comma to separate it from the main clause. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The phrase my dear is a term of direct address (vocative case). According to standard English grammar rules, a person or group being addressed directly must be set off from the rest of the sentence using commas. Since it follows an interjection, it needs a comma both before and after it. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The use of sister's is the correct singular possessive form, indicating that the novel belongs to one sister. The apostrophe is placed before the 's' to show ownership by a single entity. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The term latest is the superlative adjective used to denote the most recent occurrence in a series. In the context of a novel, it implies the most recently published work, which fits the intended meaning of the sentence. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Word Usage and Nuance:
• Latest vs. Last: While last can mean the most recent, it often implies the final item in a sequence where no more will follow. Latest specifically highlights the most current work in an ongoing career.
• Late: Using late would imply the sister is deceased or that the novel was overdue, which changes the semantic meaning of the original sentence.
• Sisters': This is the plural possessive form. It would only be used if the novel was co-written by multiple sisters, which is not suggested by the singular context of the sentence.
• Punctuation Importance:
• Omitting the comma after Yes or around the vocative phrase my dear leads to a run-on effect that obscures the structure of direct speech in narrative writing.