SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 26 May, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The series follows a pattern where each subsequent term is obtained by adding 4 to the previous term.

Applying the logic to the given series:

Calculation:

−32 + 4 = −28

−28 + 4 = −24

−24 + 4 = −20

−20 + 4 = −16

−16 + 4 = −12

−12 + 4 = −8

−8 + 4 = −4

The missing term in the sequence is −16.

The correct answer is option 1

Logic followed here is:

Logic: (Previous Term × 3) − n, where n follows a repeating sequence of 1, 2, 3...

For the given series:

−2 × 3 − 1 = −7

−7 × 3 − 2 = −23

−23 × 3 − 3 = −72

−72 × 3 − 1 = −217

−217 × 3 − 2 = −653

−653 × 3 − 3 = −1962

−1962 × 3 − 1 = −5887

The pattern observed is that each subsequent term is calculated by multiplying the preceding term by 3 and then subtracting a sequence of numbers (1, 2, 3) that repeats every three steps.

The missing term is −653.

The correct answer is option 2

The logic followed here is:

Logic: The series follows a pattern where each subsequent letter is obtained by subtracting 6 from the positional value of the previous letter.

For the first part of the series:

Pattern observed:

25 − 6 = 19 (S)

19 − 6 = 13 (M)

Similarly, let's find the missing term after M:

13 − 6 = 7

The letter at the 7^th position in the English alphabet is G.

To verify the rest of the series:

7 − 6 = 1 (A)

1 − 6 = −5 (In alphabetical cycle: 26 − 5 = 21, which is U)

21 − 6 = 15 (O)

15 − 6 = 9 (I)

The correct answer is option 1.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: The series consists of two independent patterns where the positional value of the first letter increases by 4 and the positional value of the second letter increases by 6 in each subsequent term.

Pattern for the First Letter:

The difference between consecutive first letters is: 25 − 21 = 4, 3 − 25 = 4 (as 25 + 4 = 29 ≡ 3), etc.

First letter of the missing term = 21 − 4 = 17 (Q).

Pattern for the Second Letter:

The difference between consecutive second letters is: 15 − 9 = 6, 21 − 15 = 6, 1 − 21 = 6 (as 21 + 6 = 27 ≡ 1), etc.

Second letter of the missing term = 9 − 6 = 3 (C).

The pattern observed is: First letter + 4, Second letter + 6.

Similarly, let us find the missing term:

Applying the pattern to find the second term UI:

First Letter: 17 + 4 = 21 (U)

Second Letter: 3 + 6 = 9 (I)

The correct answer is option 2

The logic followed here is based on the linear seating arrangement of five boys facing North.

Step 1: K is the immediate neighbour of M and L. This implies K sits between M and L. The possible sequences are (M, K, L) or (L, K, M).

Step 2: N is second to the right of L. This means there is exactly one person sitting between L and N, with N positioned to the right of L.

Step 3: Combining the constraints:

• If we use the sequence (L, K, M), then N (who is second to the right of L) would have to occupy the same position as M. Since they are different individuals, this is not possible.
• If we use the sequence (M, K, L), and place N second to the right of L, the arrangement becomes: M → K → L → (Empty) → N.

Step 4: The only remaining boy is A, who must occupy the empty 4^th position.

Final Seating Arrangement:

According to the arrangement, only N is sitting to the right of A.

Total number of boys to the right of A = 1

The correct answer is option 1

Given:

There are 6 companies: L, M, N, O, P, and Q.

'Sales of L is less than only O': This implies that O has the highest sales and L has the second highest sales. The order starts as O > L > ...

'Sales of P is more than only Q': This implies that Q has the lowest sales and P has the second lowest sales. The order ends as ... > P > Q.

Combining these positions, we have the ranking sequence: O > L > (Remaining 2) > P > Q.

The remaining companies are N and M. It is given that 'Sales of N is more than M'. Therefore, N must be in the 3^rd position and M must be in the 4^th position.

The final descending order of sales is: O > L > N > M > P > Q.

From this sequence, the companies with sales less than N are M, P, and Q.

There are 3 companies whose sales are less than N.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Given:

O is the tallest boy among the six boys.

The height of M is less than only Q and O. This indicates that only O and Q are taller than M. Since O is the tallest, the sequence for the first three boys is: O > Q > M.

The height of P is more than R but less than N. This relationship is expressed as: N > P > R.

Combining these rankings for all 6 boys, we get the complete arrangement from tallest to shortest: O > Q > M > N > P > R.

From the final arrangement, it is clear that R is the shortest boy among the group.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given:

By analyzing the relations between the individuals, we can determine the family structure step by step.

1. P is the husband of Q - This means P is male and Q is female, and they are married to each other.

2. Q is the sister of R - This establishes that Q and R are siblings belonging to the same generation.

3. R is the son of S - This indicates that S is the parent (father or mother) of R.

​Since Q is the sister of R and R is the son of S, it implies that Q is the daughter of S. As P is the husband of Q, P is the son-in-law of S.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Logic followed here is.

Logic: Words are arranged according to their alphabetical order as they appear in a dictionary by comparing their letters from left to right.

Comparison of words:

1. Mid-day
2. Middle
3. Midwife
4. Midst
5. Mid

Step-by-step arrangement:

1. All words start with the letters M-i-d. We compare the characters following these letters.
2. Mid (5): This word ends after the third letter. A shorter word with the same starting letters always precedes longer words in a dictionary.
3. Mid-day (1) and Middle (2): After the common Mid, we look at the subsequent characters. In Mid-day (m-i-d-d-a-y), the fourth letter is d and the fifth letter is a. In Middle (m-i-d-d-l-e), the fourth letter is d and the fifth letter is l. Since a comes before l, Mid-day appears before Middle.
4. Midst (4): In this word, the letter s follows Mid. Since d (from Middle) comes before s, Middle appears before Midst.
5. Midwife (3): In this word, the letter w follows Mid. Since s comes before w, Midst appears before Midwife.

Final Dictionary Sequence:

Mid (5) → Mid-day (1) → Middle (2) → Midst (4) → Midwife (3)

The resulting numerical sequence is 5, 1, 2, 4, 3.

The correct answer is option 1

Logic followed here is.

Logic: Words are arranged according to the alphabetical order of their letters as they appear in a dictionary. We compare the letters from left to right until a difference is found.

Arranging the given words letter by letter:

Word Comparison Position

2. Lubricate Lubricate 1^st

3. Luck Luck 2^nd

4. Lucrative Lucrative 3^rd

5. Ludicrous Ludicrous 4^th

6. Luggage Luggage 5^th

Detailed Step-by-Step Logic:

1. All the words begin with the same first two letters, 'Lu'. We then compare the third letter of each word.
2. The third letters are b (Lubricate), c (Luck, Lucrative), d (Ludicrous), and g (Luggage). Alphabetically, b < c < d < g. Thus, Lubricate (2) is the first word in the sequence.
3. Next, we compare words starting with 'Luc', which are Luck (1) and Lucrative (3). Comparing their fourth letter, we have k in Luck and r in Lucrative. Since k comes before r in the alphabet, Luck (1) is second and Lucrative (3) is third.
4. Finally, we compare the remaining words Ludicrous (4) and Luggage (5). Comparing their third letter, d comes before g. Therefore, Ludicrous (4) comes fourth and Luggage (5) is the fifth word.

The final dictionary sequence is 2 → 1 → 3 → 4 → 5.

The correct answer is option 4

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 30

For the first pair 2941 : 2971

⇒ 2941 + 30 = 2971

For the third pair 9701 : 9731

⇒ 9701 + 30 = 9731

Applying the same logic to the second pair

8877 : ?

⇒ 8877 + 30 = 8907

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Logic followed here is:

The series consists of three parts: the first letter, the second letter, and the numeric value. Each part follows a specific pattern.

1) Pattern for the first letter:

Logic: There is a constant decrease of 2 in the positional values.

25 − 2 = 23 (W)

23 − 2 = 21 (U)

21 − 2 = 19 (S)

19 − 2 = 17 (Q)

17 − 2 = 15 (O)

The letter T in the third term is wrong; it should be U.

2) Pattern for the second letter:

Logic: There is a constant decrease of 4 in the positional values.

26 − 4 = 22 (V)

22 − 4 = 18 (R)

18 − 4 = 14 (N)

14 − 4 = 10 (J)

10 − 4 = 6 (F)

The letter Q in the third term is wrong; it should be R.

3) Pattern for the numeric part:

Logic: Subtract 119 from the previous number.

820 − 119 = 701

701 − 119 = 582

582 − 119 = 463

463 − 119 = 344

344 − 119 = 225

The correct third term should be UR582. Therefore, TQ582 is the wrong term in the series.

The correct answer is option 1.

Logic followed here is:

Logic: In each term of the series, the first letter increases by 3, the second letter increases by 4, the third letter decreases by 3, and the number is multiplied by 2.

Applying the logic to each part of the terms:

1. First Letter Pattern:

The first letter of the third term should be V, but W is given.

2. Second Letter Pattern:

The second letter of the third term should be K, but L is given.

3. Third Letter Pattern:

The third letter of the third term should be M, but N is given.

4. Number Pattern:

1 × 2 = 2

2 × 2 = 4

4 × 2 = 8

8 × 2 = 16

16 × 2 = 32

The numbers follow the correct pattern throughout the series.

Conclusion:

By combining all the correct patterns, the third term should be VKM4. However, the term given in the series is WLN4.

The correct answer is option 3

The logic followed for the given series is as follows:

The series consists of three letters and a number. Let's analyze the pattern for each part separately.

1) Logic for the Letters:

First Letter: The letters decrease by 1 in alphabetical order.

M − 1 = L

L − 1 = K

K − 1 = J

J − 1 = I

Second Letter: The letters decrease by 2 in alphabetical order.

A − 2 = Y

Y − 2 = W

W − 2 = U

U − 2 = S

Third Letter: The letters decrease by 3 in alphabetical order.

L − 3 = I

I − 3 = F

F − 3 = C

C − 3 = Z

Positional values for the missing term letters (JUC):

2) Logic for the Numbers:

The numbers follow a geometric progression where each number is multiplied by a constant factor of 1.5.

5 × 1.5 = 7.5

7.5 × 1.5 = 11.25

11.25 × 1.5 = 16.875

16.875 × 1.5 = 25.3125

Combining the letters and the number, the missing term is JUC16.875.

The correct answer is option 2

Concept:

The hour hand covers 3600 in 12 hours.

Angular distance covered by the hour hand in 1 hour = 360/12 = 300

Angular distance covered by the hour hand in 1 minute = 30/60 = 1/20

The minute hand covers 3600 in 60 minutes.

Angular distance covered by the minute hand in 1 minute = 360/60 = 60

The relative speed between the hands = 6 − 1/2 = 5.50 per minute (or 11/20 per minute).

Calculation:

At 3 AM, the hour hand is at 3 and the minute hand is at 12.

Angle between the hands at 3:00 = 3 × 30 = 900

For the hands to overlap, the minute hand must gain 900 over the hour hand.

Time taken = Angle / Relative speed

Time = 90 / (11/2) = (90 × 2) / 11 = 180/11 minutes

180/11 ≈ 16.36 minutes

The approximate time is 16 minutes past 3, which is 3:16 AM.

Hence, the hands will overlap at approximately 3:16 AM.

Alternate Method

The angle between the hour hand and minute hand = $|60H - 11M|\over2$

Here, H = hours and M = minutes.

For the hands to overlap, the angle must be 00.

Given H = 3 (since the time is between 3 AM and 4 AM).

0 = $|60 \times 3 - 11 \times M|\over2$

0 = 180 − 11M

11M = 180

M = 180/11 ≈ 16.36 minutes

The time is approximately 3:16 AM.

Therefore, the correct option is 3.

Concept:

To find the time shown by a clock that loses time, we must first determine the total time duration elapsed from the start. Then, calculate the total loss by multiplying the rate of loss by the total hours. Finally, subtract the total loss from the actual correct time.

Calculation:

The clock was set right at 9 PM on 29 June 2025 and we need to find the time at 9 PM on 30 June 2025.

Total time duration from 9 PM one day to 9 PM the next day = 24 hours.

The clock loses 20 seconds every hour.

Total loss in 24 hours = 24 × 20 = 480 seconds.

To convert the loss into minutes:

Loss in minutes = 480 ÷ 60 = 8 minutes.

The actual correct time is 9:00:00 PM.

Time shown by the clock = Actual time − Total loss

Time shown by the clock = 9:00:00 PM − 8 minutes

Time shown by the clock = 8:52:00 PM.

Hence, the correct answer is 8:52:00

The logic followed here is:

In each step of the series, there are two symbols. Their movement and replacement follow a specific pattern:

• Moving Symbol (Orange): The symbol that was "Newly Added" in the previous step rotates 180° across the centre of the figure (moving 4 positions). After this movement, it is removed in the next step.
• New Symbol (Green): A brand new symbol is added at a specific position. The starting position of this new symbol rotates clockwise around the figure:
• Step 1 to 2: The entry point moves from S to W (90° CW).
• Subsequent steps: The entry point moves by 45° clockwise (1 position).   W → NW → N → NE

Applying these rules step-by-step:

1. Figure 1 to 2: The Square (new at S) moves 180° to North (N). A new Triangle is added at West (W).
2. Figure 2 to 3: The Triangle (new at W) moves 180° to East (E). A new Diamond is added at North-West (NW).
3. Figure 3 to 4: The Diamond (new at NW) moves 180° to South-East (SE). A new Circle is added at North (N).
4. Figure 4 to 5 (Answer): The Circle (new at N) moves 180° to South (S). A new symbol Plus (+) is added at North-East (NE) (45° CW from N).

Therefore, the figure in Option 1 correctly completes the series with the Circle moved to the South position and the Plus (+) symbol added at the North-East position.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, 'Option 2' is the correct answer.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed in this series is based on the clockwise rotation of two elements within the grid:

• Arrow (Blue): It rotates by 45° clockwise at each step.   NW → N → NE → E
• Small Dot (Red): It also rotates by 45° clockwise at each step.   NE → E → SE → S

Applying the 45° clockwise rotation to both elements to find the missing figure:

In the final step, the Arrow points towards the East (Right) and the Small Dot is positioned at the South (Bottom).

Therefore, the correct figure matches Option 2.

The correct answer is Mini Constitution.

Key Points

• The 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, is widely referred to as the Mini Constitution because it introduced the most extensive and sweeping changes to the Constitution of India since its adoption in 1950.
• It was enacted during the National Emergency (1975−1977) under the leadership of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, following the recommendations submitted by the Swaran Singh Committee.
• This amendment uniquely modified the Preamble of the Constitution by inserting three new terms: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.
• It added Part IV-A to the Constitution, which established a set of ten Fundamental Duties for Indian citizens under Article 51A.
• The act sought to establish the supremacy of the Parliament by limiting the power of the Judiciary to review constitutional amendments and restricting the High Courts' power to issue writs.

 Additional Information

• Legislative and Executive Changes:
• Five key subjects were transferred from the State List to the Concurrent List: Education, Forests, Weights and Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice.
• The tenure of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies was extended from 5 years to 6 years.
• It made it mandatory for the President to act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• New Directive Principles:
• Three new Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) were added: Article 39A (Equal justice and free legal aid), Article 43A (Participation of workers in management), and Article 48A (Protection and improvement of environment).
• Most of the controversial provisions of this amendment were later repealed or modified by the 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, to restore democratic checks and balances.

The correct answer is Air resistance.

Key Points

• Air resistance, also known as drag, is a type of frictional force exerted by air molecules against the motion of an object moving through the atmosphere.
• When a sheet of paper falls, its broad surface area interacts with a larger number of air molecules, generating a significant upward resistive force that opposes the pull of gravity.
• A stone is more compact and has a much smaller surface area-to-mass ratio compared to a flat sheet of paper, which allows it to cut through the air with minimal interference.
• According to Galileo Galilei's experiments, all objects regardless of their mass fall at the same rate in a vacuum; however, in a real-world fluid medium like air, the shape and area determine the acceleration.
• The net force acting on the paper is the difference between its weight (acting downwards) and the air resistance (acting upwards), which significantly reduces its downward velocity.
• If the same sheet of paper were crumpled into a tight ball, it would fall faster because the reduced cross-sectional area would encounter less air resistance.

 Additional Information

• Terminal Velocity:
• This is the constant speed reached by an object when the upward drag force becomes equal to the downward force of gravity.
• A sheet of paper reaches its terminal velocity very quickly, resulting in a slow and fluttering descent.
• Acceleration Due to Gravity:
• On Earth, the standard value for gravitational acceleration is approximately 9.8 m/s².
• While gravity acts on both the stone and paper, the air resistance prevents the paper from achieving this full acceleration.
• Aerodynamics:
• The study of how gases interact with moving bodies is essential in designing parachutes, which utilize high air resistance to ensure a safe landing.

The correct answer is Potential energy = mgh, Kinetic energy = 0.

Key Points

• At the exact moment an object is about to begin its free fall from a certain height h, it is in a state of rest, meaning its initial velocity (u) is 0.
• Kinetic Energy (KE) is the energy of an object due to its motion, calculated by the formula 1/2mv². Since the velocity is zero at the start, the Kinetic Energy is also 0.
• Gravitational Potential Energy (PE) is the energy stored in an object due to its vertical position or height. It is calculated using the formula PE = mgh, where m is the mass of the object, g is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s²), and h is the height above the reference point.
• At the maximum height h, the object possesses its maximum possible Potential Energy for that specific position, while all of its Mechanical Energy is stored as potential energy.

 Additional Information

• Law of Conservation of Energy:
• This fundamental principle of physics states that the Total Mechanical Energy (the sum of Potential and Kinetic Energy) in a closed system remains constant.
• As the object falls, the height (h) decreases, leading to a decrease in Potential Energy, while the velocity (v) increases due to gravity, leading to an increase in Kinetic Energy.
• Energy Transformation:
• Throughout the free fall, Potential Energy is continuously converted into Kinetic Energy.
• Just before the object hits the ground (where h = 0), its Potential Energy becomes 0, and its Kinetic Energy reaches the maximum value of mgh.
• Acceleration due to Gravity:
• In a vacuum, all objects fall with the same constant acceleration g, regardless of their mass. This ensures that the conversion rate of energy depends solely on the vertical distance traveled.

The correct answer is The Moon rotates once in the same time it takes to revolve around the Earth.

Key Points

• The Moon exhibits a phenomenon known as Synchronous Rotation, which means its rotational period (the time it takes to spin once on its axis) is exactly equal to its orbital period (the time it takes to orbit the Earth).
• It takes approximately 27.3 days for the Moon to complete one full revolution around the Earth, a timeframe known as a sidereal month.
• Simultaneously, the Moon takes exactly 27.3 days to rotate once on its axis; this precise synchronization ensures that as the Moon moves along its orbit, it turns just enough to keep the same side, known as the near side, facing Earth at all times.
• If the Moon did not rotate at all, or if it rotated at a different speed, observers on Earth would eventually see the entire 360-degree surface of the Moon as it traveled through its lunar orbit.
• This mechanical alignment is the direct result of gravitational interactions and energy dissipation between the Earth and its natural satellite over billions of years.

 Additional Information

• Tidal Locking:
• This is the process by which gravitational gradients create tidal bulges in the Moon. Earth's gravity pulled on these bulges, creating torque that slowed the Moon's rotation until it reached a state of equilibrium.
• While the Moon is tidally locked to the Earth, it is not tidally locked to the Sun; therefore, all sides of the Moon experience day and night as it orbits.
• The Far Side of the Moon:
• The side we never see from Earth is often called the far side. It was first photographed by the Soviet Union's Luna 3 mission in 1959.
• It is a common misconception to call it the dark side, as it receives sunlight just like the near side, specifically during the New Moon phase.
• Libration:
• Because the Moon's orbit is elliptical rather than perfectly circular, its orbital speed varies while its rotation rate remains constant. This causes a slight 'wobbling' effect called libration, allowing us to see about 59 percent of the Moon's surface over a full cycle.

The correct answer is Regional navigation.

Key Points

• NavIC, which stands for Navigation with Indian Constellation, is an autonomous regional satellite navigation system developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to provide accurate position information services.
• The system was formerly known as the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) and was designed to provide India with an independent navigation capability, reducing reliance on foreign systems like the American GPS.
• Its primary purpose is to provide Regional navigation covering the Indian mainland and a surrounding region extending up to 1500 km from its borders.
• NavIC provides two types of services: the Standard Positioning Service (SPS), which is open for all users, and the Restricted Service (RS), which is an encrypted service provided only to authorized users, such as the Indian Armed Forces.
• The system operates using a constellation of seven satellites and a network of ground stations operating 24/7 to ensure high availability and precision.

 Additional Information

• Satellite Configuration:
• The NavIC constellation consists of 3 satellites in Geostationary Orbit (GEO) and 4 satellites in Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO).
• It utilizes dual-frequency bands, specifically the L5 band and S band, which helps in improving accuracy by correcting ionospheric delays.
• Other Satellite Purposes:
• Weather forecasting: This is the primary role of the INSAT (Indian National Satellite System) and METSAT (Kalpana-1) series, which carry instruments like Very High Resolution Radiometers (VHRR).
• Earth imaging: Conducted by Remote Sensing satellites such as the Cartosat, Resourcesat, and RISAT series, used for resource mapping and surveillance.
• Space communication: Handled by the GSAT series, which provides transponders for telecommunications, television broadcasting, and VSAT services.

The correct answer is Gulf War and rising oil prices.

Key Points

• The Gulf War (1990-1991), triggered by Iraq's invasion of Kuwait, led to a sharp increase in global crude oil prices, which nearly doubled within a short period.
• As India was heavily dependent on oil imports, this price surge caused a massive increase in the import bill, severely draining the country's foreign exchange reserves.
• The conflict resulted in a significant loss of remittances from Indian workers living in the Gulf region, as many were forced to evacuate, further worsening the Current Account Deficit (CAD).
• By June 1991, India’s foreign exchange reserves had plummeted to approximately 1.2 billion dollars, an amount barely sufficient to sustain essential imports for just two weeks.
• The crisis was further intensified by a high fiscal deficit, which stood at about 8.4 percent of the GDP in 1990-91, and an annual inflation rate exceeding 13 percent.
• This external shock acted as the final catalyst that pushed the Indian economy toward a near-default situation, necessitating immediate intervention from the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

 Additional Information

• Economic Reforms of 1991:
• To address the crisis, the Indian government introduced the New Economic Policy (NEP), focusing on Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG).
• The Rupee was devalued by nearly 18 to 20 percent against major currencies to boost exports and stabilize the balance of payments.
• India pledged 67 tonnes of gold to the Bank of England and the Union Bank of Switzerland to secure an emergency loan of 600 million dollars.
• Other External Factors:
• Asian Financial Crisis: This occurred in 1997, starting in Thailand and spreading across East Asia; it did not contribute to India's 1991 crisis.
• Collapse of the Soviet Union: While the USSR was a major trading partner (Rupee-Rouble trade), its dissolution in late 1991 happened just after the peak of the BoP crisis, though it did create long-term export challenges.

The correct answer is 15 min per half.

Key Points

• The standard duration of a women's kabaddi match is strictly governed by the International Kabaddi Federation (IKF) and the Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI), consisting of two halves of 15 minutes each.
• There is a designated 5-minute interval between the two halves, allowing players to rest and teams to switch their respective sides of the court.
• This 30-minute total play time (excluding the break) is also applied to matches for junior girls, sub-junior girls, and sub-junior boys to account for physical endurance requirements.
• Each raid during the match is restricted to a maximum of 30 seconds, a rule enforced by the technical officials to maintain the high-paced nature of the sport.
• In the event of a tie during knockout stages, extra time may be played, typically consisting of two halves of 7 minutes each with a 3-minute break.

 Additional Information

• Comparison with Men's Kabaddi:
• In the senior men and junior boys categories, the match duration is longer, totaling 40 minutes of play divided into two halves of 20 minutes each.
• Court Dimensions and Weight Limits:
• The playing court for women measures 12 meters × 8 meters, which is smaller than the men's court of 13 meters × 10 meters.
• For official national and international championships, senior women participants must typically adhere to a maximum weight limit of 75 kg.
• Team Composition:
• Each team consists of 12 players, but only 7 players take the field at any given time, with 5 substitutes held in reserve.
• A team earns 2 bonus points (known as Lona) when they successfully declare the entire opposing team out.

The correct answer is Betwa.

Key Points

• The Son river originates in the Amarkantak Plateau of Madhya Pradesh and flows north through Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand to join the Ganga river near Patna as a major right-bank tributary. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Gandak river is a major left-bank tributary that rises in the Nepal Himalayas between the Dhaulagiri and Mount Everest ranges and joins the Ganga at Sonpur near Patna in Bihar. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Ghaghara river originates in the glaciers of Mapchachungo on the Tibetan Plateau and is a perennial river that joins the Ganga at Chhapra after traveling through Nepal and India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The Betwa river rises in the Vindhya Range north of Hoshangabad in Madhya Pradesh and flows north-east to join the Yamuna river at Hamirpur in Uttar Pradesh, making it a tributary of the Yamuna rather than a direct tributary of the Ganga. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• The Ganga River System:
• The Ganga is formed by the confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi at Devprayag in Uttarakhand.
• Its major left-bank tributaries include the Ramganga, Gomti, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi, and Mahananda.
• Its primary right-bank tributaries are the Yamuna and the Son.
• The Yamuna River:
• It is the longest tributary of the Ganga, originating from the Yamunotri Glacier.
• The Chambal, Sind, Betwa, and Ken are the major rivers that drain into the Yamuna from the Peninsular Plateau.

The correct answer is a large increase in the production of food grains.

Key Points

• The Green Revolution in India refers to a period of transformational change in agriculture that began in the mid-1960s, aimed at achieving food self-sufficiency.
• It primarily focused on the introduction of High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, particularly for Wheat and Rice, which were developed by scientists like Norman Borlaug.
• The revolution was spearheaded in India by M.S. Swaminathan, who is widely known as the Father of the Green Revolution in India.
• The success of this movement relied heavily on the synergistic use of modern irrigation systems, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and mechanized farming tools.
• Regionally, the impact was most visible in Punjab, Haryana, and Western Uttar Pradesh, where wheat production saw an exponential rise, doubling within a few years of implementation.
• Statistically, the production of food grains increased from approximately 82 million tonnes in 1960-61 to over 108 million tonnes by 1970-71, significantly reducing India's dependence on foreign food aid under the PL-480 program.

 Additional Information

• Horticulture Production:
• The massive increase in the production of Fruits, Vegetables, and Honey is known as the Golden Revolution (1991–2003).
• Nirpakh Tutej is considered the father of this specific movement in India.
• Shrimp and Fish Farming:
• The rapid growth and management of the aquaculture sector is termed the Blue Revolution.
• It aims to increase marine and freshwater productivity to enhance the socio-economic condition of fishermen.
• White Revolution:
• Often associated with Operation Flood, it refers to the massive increase in Milk production led by Verghese Kurien.
• Silver Revolution:
• This term is specifically used for the significant jump in the production of Eggs and Poultry in India.

The correct answer is 1699.

Key Points

• The Khalsa, which refers to the community of initiated Sikhs, was established by Guru Gobind Singh Ji, the tenth and final human Guru of Sikhism.
• This historic event took place on the day of Vaisakhi, specifically on April 13, 1699 (or April 14 in some calendars), at Anandpur Sahib in Punjab.
• During this assembly, the Guru called for five volunteers who were willing to give their heads for the faith, leading to the creation of the Panj Pyare (Five Beloved Ones).
• The formation of the Khalsa was a transformative moment that shifted the Sikh community into a disciplined order of Saint-Soldiers to fight against the religious persecution of the Mughal Empire.
• The Guru introduced the Amrit Sanchar (initiation ceremony) where sugar crystals were stirred in water with a Khanda (double-edged sword) to create Amrit (nectar).

 Additional Information

• Guru Gobind Singh:
• He was born in Patna in 1666 and became the Guru at the age of nine after the martyrdom of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur.
• He codified the Sikh way of life and eventually declared the Guru Granth Sahib as the eternal living Guru for all Sikhs.
• The Five Ks (Panj Kakar):
• Members of the Khalsa are required to wear five articles of faith: Kesh (uncut hair), Kangha (wooden comb), Kara (iron bracelet), Kachera (cotton undergarments), and Kirpan (steel sword).
• These symbols were intended to give Sikhs a distinct identity and a constant reminder of their spiritual and social duties.
• Significance of the Name:
• The term Khalsa is derived from the Arabic word khalis, meaning 'pure' or 'free from impurities'.
• Upon initiation, men were given the title Singh (Lion) and women were given the title Kaur (Princess), symbolizing the abolition of caste hierarchies and gender inequality.

The correct answer is Andhra Pradesh.

Key Points

• In July 2025, the state government of Andhra Pradesh launched the Digi-Lakshmi scheme as a dedicated effort toward the digital empowerment of urban poor women.
• The initiative primarily targets women organized under Self-Help Groups (SHGs) within urban local bodies to enhance their technological proficiency.
• The scheme provides beneficiaries with smartphones and subsidized data plans, ensuring they have the necessary hardware to participate in the digital economy.
• A core objective of Digi-Lakshmi is to facilitate financial inclusion by training women in digital banking, UPI transactions, and the use of government service portals.
• The program aims to foster entrepreneurship among women, allowing them to access online marketplaces and expand the reach of their small-scale businesses beyond local physical markets.

 Additional Information

• Nodal Agency and Framework:
• The Mission for Elimination of Poverty in Municipal Areas (MEPMA) serves as the lead agency for identifying beneficiaries and monitoring the implementation of the Digi-Lakshmi project.
• This scheme complements Andhra Pradesh's existing welfare architecture, which includes the Navaratnalu programs aimed at poverty alleviation and women's welfare.
• Digital Literacy Training:
• Beneficiaries receive hands-on training in cyber security and safe digital practices to protect them from financial fraud and online exploitation.
• The training includes modules on e-commerce logistics and digital marketing via social media platforms to help women-led micro-enterprises scale effectively.
• Wider Policy Alignment:
• The scheme aligns with the national Digital India mission, specifically addressing the gender digital divide that often limits women's economic opportunities in developing urban clusters.
• It streamlines the delivery of Direct Benefit Transfers (DBT), ensuring that government subsidies reach the bank accounts of women without the need for middlemen.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• Ocean currents significantly influence the temperature and moisture levels of coastal regions. Any coastal area with warm or cold currents flowing past it will be warmed or cooled if the winds are onshore. For example, the North Atlantic Drift keeps Western European ports ice-free in winter, while cold currents can lead to the formation of coastal deserts like the Atacama. Hence, statement I is correct.
• Relief features refer to the physical layout of the land, such as mountains, plateaus, and plains, which act as major climate controls. High mountains function as barriers for cold or hot winds and force moist air to rise, leading to orographic precipitation. The windward side of a mountain range receives heavy rainfall, whereas the leeward side remains dry, creating a rain shadow region. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• There are six major controls of the climate of any place:
• Latitude: The amount of solar energy received varies according to the distance from the Equator, causing temperatures to generally decrease from the equator toward the poles.
• Altitude: As one moves to higher elevations, the atmosphere becomes less dense and the temperature decreases, which is why mountains are cooler than plains during summer.
• Pressure and Wind System: This depends on the latitude and altitude of a place and influences the temperature and rainfall patterns.
• Distance from the Sea: The sea exerts a moderating influence on climate. As the distance from the sea increases, this influence decreases, leading to extreme weather conditions known as continentality.

The correct answer is Both I and II.

Key Points

• The SHRESHTA scheme, or the Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas, was initiated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to uplift students from the Scheduled Caste (SC) communities.
• The scheme is implemented through two distinct modes: Mode 1 facilitates admission into reputed private Residential Schools via a national entrance test, and Mode 2 provides financial grants to Voluntary Organizations (VOs) or NGOs.
• Under the Grant-in-Aid component for NGOs, the government specifically funds the operation of Residential Schools (up to class 12) to provide holistic educational environments for SC students. Hence, statement I is correct.
• The same component also covers and provides financial support for the maintenance of Non-Residential Schools and Hostels, ensuring that quality education reaches students even in non-boarding setups. Hence, statement II is correct.

 Additional Information

• The scheme targets meritorious SC students whose parental annual income is up to Rs. 2.5 lakh.
• Key features of the implementation include:
• Selection through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS), which is conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
• Focus on classes 9^th and 11^th for direct admission into private schools affiliated with the CBSE or State Boards.
• Provision of a Bridge Course within the schools to help students adapt to the new academic environment for the first three months.
• The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment bears the total expenditure, including school fees, hostel fees, and other academic costs.

The correct answer is Article 343.

Key Points

• Article 343(1) of the Indian Constitution explicitly declares that the Official Language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script.
• The article specifies that the form of numerals to be used for the official purposes of the Union shall be the international form of Indian numerals, rather than the Devanagari form.
• According to Article 343(2), for a period of fifteen years from the commencement of the Constitution (until 1965), the English language was permitted to continue being used for all official purposes of the Union for which it was being used before.
• Article 343(3) empowers the Parliament to provide by law for the continued use of the English language or the Devanagari form of numerals for specified purposes even after the initial fifteen-year period.

 Additional Information

• Article 341:
• This article pertains to Scheduled Castes. It authorizes the President to specify the castes, races, or tribes which shall be deemed as Scheduled Castes in relation to a State or Union Territory.
• Article 344:
• It provides for the constitution of a Commission and a Committee of Parliament on Official Language to make recommendations to the President regarding the progressive use of the Hindi language.
• Article 339:
• This article deals with the Union Government’s control over the administration of Scheduled Areas and the welfare of Scheduled Tribes.
• Part XVII:
• The provisions related to the Official Language are contained in Part XVII of the Constitution, covering Articles 343 to 351. This includes Regional Languages, Language of the Supreme Court, and Special Directives for language development.

The correct answer is Article 213.

Key Points

• Article 213 of the Constitution of India provides the Governor of a state with the legislative power to promulgate ordinances when the State Legislature is not in session.
• The Governor can exercise this power only when they are satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for them to take immediate action.
• An ordinance issued under this article has the same force and effect as an Act of the State Legislature, but it is a temporary measure.
• Every such ordinance must be laid before the Legislative Assembly (and the Legislative Council where it exists) and will cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature.
• The Governor can withdraw the ordinance at any time, and its validity is subject to the same constitutional limitations as an ordinary state law.

 Additional Information

• Article 211:
• This article deals with the restriction on discussion in the State Legislature.
• It prohibits any discussion in the Legislature of a State regarding the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.
• Article 210:
• This article specifies the language to be used in the State Legislature.
• It states that business shall be transacted in the official language or languages of the State, or in Hindi or English.
• Article 208:
• This article empowers a House of the Legislature of a State to make rules for regulating its procedure and the conduct of its business.
• Comparison:
• While the Governor acts under Article 213, the President of India is empowered to promulgate ordinances at the Union level under Article 123 during the recess of Parliament.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Kathakali is one of the eight major classical dances of India, originating from the southwestern state of Kerala during the 17^th century.
• The dance form is a unique combination of literature, music, painting, acting, and dance, often referred to as 'total theater'.
• It is traditionally performed by male actors who depict stories from Indian epics like the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and the Puranas.
• The performance is renowned for its elaborate makeup, heavy costumes, and grand headgear, where facial colors signify character traits: Green (Pacha) for noble characters and Red/Black for evil or demonic ones.
• A crucial element of Kathakali is the use of 24 basic Mudras (hand gestures) and 9 Navarasas (facial expressions) to convey emotions and narrative without speech.
• Musical accompaniment includes the Chenda, Maddalam, and Elathalam, while the singing follows the Sopanam tradition of Kerala.

 Additional Information

• Sikkim:
• Known for folk dances such as the Singhi Chaam (Snow Lion Dance) and Yak Chaam, which are deeply rooted in Tibetan Buddhist traditions.
• Maharashtra:
• The state is famous for Lavani, a vibrant folk dance performed to the rhythmic beats of the Dholki, and Koli, the traditional dance of the fishing community.
• Gujarat:
• Renowned for Garba and Dandiya Raas, which are celebratory folk dances performed primarily during the Navratri festival.
• Bhavai is a popular folk theater form native to this state.

Therefore, the correct answer is Kerala.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• Krishnanattam is a traditional votive dance-drama performance native to the state of Kerala, specifically associated with the Guruvayur Sri Krishna Temple.
• It was created by Manaveda Raja, the Zamorin of Calicut, in 1654 AD, and is based on his own Sanskrit work titled Krishnagiti.
• The art form consists of a cycle of eight plays performed over eight consecutive nights, depicting the entire life of Lord Krishna: Avatharam, Kaliyamardanam, Rasakrida, Kamsavadham, Swayamvaram, Banayuddham, Vividavadham, and Swargarohanam.
• It is considered a significant precursor to Kathakali, influencing its costumes, makeup, and facial acting techniques.
• Performances are traditionally offered as a vazhipadu (offering) by devotees at the temple for various spiritual benefits, such as the birth of a child or the removal of obstacles.

 Additional Information

• Classical and Folk Arts of Kerala:
• Kathakali: A highly stylized classical dance-drama characterized by vivid makeup and giant headgears.
• Mohiniyattam: A feminine solo dance form known for its lasya (graceful) style and Kasavu sarees.
• Koodiyattam: An ancient form of Sanskrit theatre recognized by UNESCO as a Masterpiece of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity.
• Arts from Other Options:
• Tamil Nadu: Home to Bharatanatyam, one of the oldest classical dances, and folk arts like Therukoothu.
• Telangana: Notable for Perini Shivatandavam, a powerful dance form dating back to the Kakatiya dynasty.
• Haryana: Famous for Saang, a musical folk theatre, and the Dhamal dance.

The correct answer is Turhi.

Key Points

• The Turhi is a traditional Rajasthani aerophone (wind instrument) primarily used in folk music, processions, and religious ceremonies.
• It is a long, straight trumpet-like instrument traditionally crafted from metals such as bronze or brass to ensure high sound resonance and environmental durability.
• A distinctive structural feature of the Turhi is its construction in two separate parts or segments that are fitted together, which facilitates easier transport and maintenance.
• The instrument terminates in a wide, funnel-shaped opening or bell, which helps in projecting a loud, clear, and commanding sound suitable for open-air performances.
• Historically, the Turhi was played by professional folk musicians to herald the arrival of Maharajas, lead martial processions, and announce the start of major festivals like Gangaur and Teej.
• In the classification of Indian musical instruments, it falls under the Sushira Vadya category, which produces sound through the vibration of a column of air.

 Additional Information

• Timki:
• This is a small percussion instrument or kettle drum (Avanaddha Vadya) commonly played by the Bhil and Garasia tribes of Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.
• It is often played with wooden sticks to provide a rhythmic base for community folk dances and tribal songs.
• Sarod:
• A prominent stringed instrument (Tata Vadya) of the Hindustani classical tradition, recognized for its deep and resonant timbre.
• It features a fretless metal fingerboard, allowing musicians to perform smooth glides between notes, a technique essential to Indian ragas.
• Santoor:
• A traditional hammered dulcimer with ancient roots, specifically associated with the Kashmir Valley and its Sufiana Mausiqi.
• It consists of a trapezoidal wooden box with over 72 strings that are struck with delicate wooden mallets called Kalam.

The correct answer is Western.

Key Points

• Kabaddi is a highly popular indigenous contact sport in India that requires both physical strength and tactical skills, played between two teams of seven players each.
• In Western India, particularly in the state of Maharashtra, the game has been traditionally and primarily known as Hu-Tu-Tu.
• The term Hu-Tu-Tu refers to the continuous rhythmic chant or cant maintained by the raider to demonstrate they are holding their breath while in the opponent's territory.
• The formalization of the Western style of the game began in the early 20^th century, with clubs like the Deccan Gymkhana in Pune drafting the first set of standardized rules in 1918.
• The All India Kabaddi Federation was established in 1950, which helped merge various regional styles like Hu-Tu-Tu into a unified national competitive format.

 Additional Information

• Regional Nomenclature of Kabaddi:
• Southern India: In states like Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh, the game is commonly referred to as Chedugudu or Gudu-gudu.
• Eastern India: In West Bengal and the neighboring country of Bangladesh, it is famously known as Ha-du-du.
• Northern India: The sport is predominantly known by its standard name, Kabaddi, or sometimes as Kaun-bada.
• Major Milestones and Governance:
• The Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI) was founded in 1972 and is the primary governing body for the sport in the country.
• The Hanuman Vyayam Prasarak Mandal from Amaravati, Maharashtra, showcased the sport at the 1936 Berlin Olympics as a demonstration event.
• Kabaddi was officially included as a medal sport in the Asian Games for the first time during the 11^th Asian Games held in Beijing in 1990.
• It is recognized as the National Sport of Bangladesh and the state sport of several Indian states, including Maharashtra, Punjab, and Tamil Nadu.

The correct answer is Weightlifting.

Key Points

• Weightlifting has seen Indian athletes achieve major success at the Olympics and Commonwealth Games, but the sport has not yet yielded a Gold medal for India at the Asian Games. Since the inaugural games in 1951, India has won several silver and bronze medals, but the top podium finish remains elusive. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Shooting has been a highly successful discipline for India, with the first individual gold medal won by Randhir Singh in 1978 at the Bangkok Asian Games. Since then, shooters like Jaspal Rana and Saurabh Chaudhary have added numerous gold medals to India's tally. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Golf gave India its first set of gold medals during the 1982 Asian Games held in New Delhi. Laxman Singh won the individual gold, and the Indian Men's team also secured the gold medal in the team event. Shiv Kapur further added a gold medal in 2002. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Athletics is the most prolific sport for India at the Asian Games, contributing the highest number of gold medals. Legends such as Milkha Singh, P.T. Usha, and more recently, Neeraj Chopra in the javelin throw, have consistently won gold for the country. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Weightlifting Performance:
• Karnam Malleswari won silver medals in the 1994 Hiroshima and 1998 Bangkok editions.
• N. Kunjarani Devi secured bronze medals in 1990 and 1994, while Mirabai Chanu has yet to win a gold at this specific event.
• Historical Context:
• In the 1951 Asian Games, India's first-ever gold medal was won by Sachin Nag in Swimming, but the track and field events (Athletics) quickly became India's strongest domain.
• The 2022 Hangzhou Asian Games (held in 2023) saw India crossing the 100-medal mark for the first time, with Shooting and Athletics being the primary contributors to the gold medal count.

Shortcut Trick

Solve using BODMAS: Bracket → Multiplication → Addition/Subtraction.

Step 1: (91 + 6) = 97

Step 2: 67 × 45 = 3015

Step 3: 32 + 97 − 18 + 3015 = 111 + 3015 = 3126.

∴ The correct answer is 3126.

Alternate Method

Given: 32 + (91 + 6) − 18 + 67 × 45

Follow the BODMAS order of operations:

⇒ 32 + 97 − 18 + 67 × 45 (Solving the bracket)

⇒ 32 + 97 − 18 + 3015 (Performing multiplication: 67 × 45 = 3015)

⇒ 129 − 18 + 3015 (Performing addition: 32 + 97 = 129)

⇒ 111 + 3015 (Performing subtraction: 129 − 18 = 111)

⇒ 3126 (Final addition)

∴ The correct answer is 3126.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It is a standard mnemonic to remember the order of operations: Brackets, Orders (indices/roots), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

Same Priority Level

Addition and subtraction share the same priority. When they appear together, they should be solved from left to right.

Multiplication Shortcut

Complex multiplications like 67 × 45 can be broken down using the distributive property: (67 × 40) + (67 × 5) = 2680 + 335 = 3015.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the BODMAS rule directly by solving the bracket and multiplication terms first.

(26 ÷ 2) = 13 and (28 × 1) = 28.

Simplify the expression: 97 + 33 − 13 + 44 − 19 + 28.

Perform addition and subtraction from left to right: 130 − 13 + 44 − 19 + 28 = 170.

∴ The correct answer is 170.

Alternate Method

Given:

97 + 33 − (26 ÷ 2) + 44 − 19 + 28 × 1

Formula Used:

The BODMAS rule determines the order of operations: Brackets, Orders, Division/Multiplication, and Addition/Subtraction.

Calculations:

⇒ 97 + 33 − 13 + 44 − 19 + 28 × 1 (Solving the bracket: 26 ÷ 2 = 13)

⇒ 97 + 33 − 13 + 44 − 19 + 28 (Solving the multiplication: 28 × 1 = 28)

⇒ 130 − 13 + 44 − 19 + 28 (Adding 97 and 33)

⇒ 117 + 44 − 19 + 28 (Subtracting 13 from 130)

⇒ 161 − 19 + 28 (Adding 117 and 44)

⇒ 142 + 28 (Subtracting 19 from 161)

⇒ 170

∴ The correct answer is 170.

Additional Information

BODMAS Hierarchy

The rule stands for Brackets (), Of (orders like roots/powers), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Left-to-Right Precedence

When operations of the same priority (like addition and subtraction) are present, the expression should be solved strictly from left to right.

Grouping Terms

Alternatively, you can group all positive numbers and negative numbers separately: (97 + 33 + 44 + 28) − (13 + 19) = 202 − 32 = 170.

Shortcut Trick

Product of co-prime factors = LCM ÷ HCF = 420 ÷ 14 = 30.

Difference between co-prime factors = Difference ÷ HCF = 98 ÷ 14 = 7.

Find two numbers whose product is 30 and difference is 7 → 10 and 3.

Required numbers = 14 × 10 and 14 × 3 = 140 and 42.

∴ The correct answer is 140 and 42.

Alternate Method

Given: HCF = 14, LCM = 420, Difference = 98.

Formula: Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

⇒ Let the numbers be 14x and 14y.

⇒ LCM = 14 × x × y = 420

⇒ xy = 420 ÷ 14 = 30

⇒ Difference = 14x − 14y = 98

⇒ 14(x − y) = 98

⇒ x − y = 7

⇒ We need two numbers such that xy = 30 and x − y = 7. Factors of 30 are (1,30), (2,15), (3,10), (5,6).

⇒ The pair (10, 3) satisfies the condition 10 − 3 = 7.

⇒ First number = 14 × 10 = 140

⇒ Second number = 14 × 3 = 42

∴ The correct answer is 140 and 42.

Additional Information

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two numbers a and b, HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b) = a × b.

Divisibility Property

The HCF of two or more numbers is always a factor of their LCM, their sum, and their difference.

Co-prime Property

If two numbers are expressed as Hx and Hy (where H is HCF), then x and y must be co-prime (their HCF is 1).

Shortcut Trick

Add whole numbers and fractions separately.

Sum of whole numbers: 5 + 55 + 555 = 615.

Sum of fractions: 1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4 = 3/4.

∴ The correct answer is 615(3/4).

Alternate Method

Given: 5(1/4) + 55(1/4) + 555(1/4)

Formula Used: a(b/c) = a + b/c

⇒ (5 + 1/4) + (55 + 1/4) + (555 + 1/4)

⇒ (5 + 55 + 555) + (1/4 + 1/4 + 1/4)

⇒ 615 + (1 + 1 + 1)/4

⇒ 615 + 3/4

⇒ 615(3/4)

∴ The correct answer is 615(3/4).

Additional Information

Mixed Fraction Logic

A mixed fraction is the sum of a whole number and a proper fraction. To simplify, group integers and fractions for faster calculation.

Like Fractions

Fractions with the same denominator are called like fractions. Their sum is calculated by keeping the denominator constant and adding the numerators: a/d + b/d + c/d = (a + b + c)/d.

Shortcut Trick

Separate the whole numbers and the fractional parts of the mixed fractions.

Sum of whole numbers = 7 + 77 + 777 + 7777 = 8638.

Sum of fractions = 1/(1×2) + 1/(2×3) + 1/(3×4) + 1/(4×5) = 1 − 1/5 = 4/5.

Combining both parts: 8638 + 4/5 = 8638(4/5).

∴ The correct answer is 8638(4/5).

Alternate Method

Given:

7(1/2) + 77(1/6) + 777(1/12) + 7777(1/20)

Formula used:

Mixed fraction property: a(b/c) = a + b/c

Telescoping series: 1/[n × (n + 1)] = 1/n − 1/(n + 1)

Calculations:

⇒ (7 + 1/2) + (77 + 1/6) + (777 + 1/12) + (7777 + 1/20)

⇒ (7 + 77 + 777 + 7777) + (1/2 + 1/6 + 1/12 + 1/20)

⇒ 8638 + [1/(1×2) + 1/(2×3) + 1/(3×4) + 1/(4×5)]

⇒ 8638 + [(1 − 1/2) + (1/2 − 1/3) + (1/3 − 1/4) + (1/4 − 1/5)]

⇒ 8638 + [1 − 1/5]

⇒ 8638 + 4/5

⇒ 8638(4/5)

∴ The correct answer is 8638(4/5).

Additional Information

Mixed Fraction Addition

Always add the integer parts and fractional parts separately to simplify complex calculations in competitive exams.

Telescoping Sum Rule

In a series where terms are of the form 1/[n(n+k)], the sum cancels out intermediate terms, leaving only the difference of the first and last fragments.

Repetitive Digit Summation

To sum x + xx + xxx + ..., use the logic of place values (units, tens, hundreds) to quickly find the total without manual addition.

Shortcut Trick

Apply the divisibility rule of 11: (Sum of digits at odd places) − (Sum of digits at even places).

For 3827: (7 + 8) − (2 + 3) = 15 − 5 = 10.

The remainder obtained is the least number that must be subtracted from the original value.

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Alternate Method

Given: Number = 3827, Divisor = 11

Method: Perform long division to find the remainder.

⇒ 3827 ÷ 11

⇒ 38 ÷ 11 = 3 (Remainder 5; bring down 2 → 52)

⇒ 52 ÷ 11 = 4 (Remainder 8; bring down 7 → 87)

⇒ 87 ÷ 11 = 7 (Remainder 10)

⇒ 3827 = (11 × 347) + 10

⇒ The least number to be subtracted = 10.

∴ The correct answer is 10.

Additional Information

Divisibility by 11

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits at odd places and the sum of digits at even places is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Divisibility by 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is completely divisible by 9.

Subtraction vs Addition Rule

To make a number divisible, subtract the remainder or add (divisor − remainder).

Shortcut Trick

Count the decimal places: Numerator has 6 (3+3) and Denominator has 12 (6+6).

Net shift: 12 − 6 = 6 places to the right (multiply by 10⁶).

Simplify the numbers: (456 × 456) ÷ (456 × 114) = 456 ÷ 114 = 4.

The expression becomes: √(4 × 10⁶) = 2 × 10³ = 2000.

∴ The correct answer is 2000.

Alternate Method

Given: √((0.456 × 0.456) / (0.000456 × 0.000114))

Formula Used: a^m ÷ aⁿ = a^m−n and √(x × 10²ⁿ) = √x × 10ⁿ

Calculations:

⇒ √((456 × 10⁻³ × 456 × 10⁻³) / (456 × 10⁻⁶ × 114 × 10⁻⁶))

⇒ √((456² × 10⁻⁶) / (456 × 114 × 10⁻¹²))

⇒ √((456 / 114) × 10^{−6 − (−12)})

⇒ √(4 × 10⁶)

⇒ 2 × 10³

⇒ 2000

∴ The correct answer is 2000.

Additional Information

Laws of Exponents

When dividing terms with the same base, subtract the exponents: a^m / aⁿ = a^m−n. For decimals, 10^−x / 10^−y = 10^y−x.

Square Root of Powers of 10

To find the square root of a power of 10, simply divide the exponent by 2: √(10ⁿ) = 10^n/2, where n is even.

Scientific Notation

Moving the decimal point to the right by n places is equivalent to multiplying by 10⁻ⁿ (e.g., 0.00456 = 456 × 10⁻⁵).

Shortcut Trick

Side of the square = Perimeter ÷ 4

Side = 80 ÷ 4 = 20 cm

Diagonal of a square = Side × √2

Diagonal = 20 × √2 = 20√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 20√2 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Perimeter of the square = 80 cm

Formula Used:

1. Perimeter = 4 × Side (a)
2. Diagonal (d) = √(a² + a²) = a√2

⇒ 4 × Side = 80 cm

⇒ Side (a) = 80 ÷ 4

⇒ Side (a) = 20 cm

⇒ Diagonal = Side × √2

⇒ Diagonal = 20 × √2 = 20√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 20√2 cm.

Additional Information

Area of a Square

The Area can be calculated using the side as (a²) or using the diagonal as (d² ÷ 2).

Pythagoras Theorem in Square

Since all angles are 90°, the diagonal forms a right-angled triangle where d² = a² + a².

Inradius and Circumradius

The Inradius (r) is a ÷ 2 and the Circumradius (R) is d ÷ 2 or (a × √2) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Direct formula: Diagonal of a square = (Perimeter ÷ 4) × √2

Given Perimeter = 100 cm

⇒ Diagonal = (100 ÷ 4) × √2

⇒ Diagonal = 25 × √2 = 25√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 25√2 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Perimeter of the square = 100 cm

Formula Used:

1. Perimeter of square = 4 × side (a)
2. Diagonal of square (d) = a√2

Calculations:

⇒ 4 × Side = 100

⇒ Side (a) = 100 ÷ 4

⇒ Side (a) = 25 cm

⇒ Diagonal (d) = Side × √2

⇒ Diagonal = 25 × √2 = 25√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 25√2 cm.

Additional Information

Area of a Square

The Area can be calculated using the side as a² or using the diagonal as (d²) ÷ 2.

Pythagorean Theorem in Squares

A diagonal divides the square into two isosceles right-angled triangles where d² = a² + a².

Ratio of Side to Diagonal

For any square, the ratio of the side to its diagonal is always 1 : √2.

Shortcut Trick

Side of the square = Perimeter ÷ 4 = 160 ÷ 4 = 40 cm.

The relationship between side (a) and diagonal (d) of a square is d = a × √2.

Diagonal = 40 × √2 = 40√2 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 40√2 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Perimeter of the square = 160 cm

Formula Used:

1. Perimeter of a square = 4 × side (a)
2. Diagonal of a square (d) = a × √2

Calculations:

⇒ 4 × a = 160

⇒ a = 160 ÷ 4

⇒ a = 40 cm

⇒ Diagonal (d) = a × √2

⇒ d = 40 × √2

⇒ d = 40√2 cm

∴ The correct answer is 40√2 cm.

Additional Information

Area of a Square

The Area of a square can be calculated using the side: Area = a², or using the diagonal: Area = d² ÷ 2.

Pythagoras Theorem Relationship

The diagonal of a square acts as the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle where the legs are the sides. Hence, d = √(a² + a²) = a√2.

Inradius and Circumradius

For a square of side a, the Inradius (r) = a ÷ 2 and the Circumradius (R) = Diagonal ÷ 2 = (a√2) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

The given series is the sum of consecutive odd numbers starting from 1.

Shortcut formula: Sum = n², where n is the count of terms.

Find n using the last term: n = (Last Term + 1) ÷ 2 ⇒ (399 + 1) ÷ 2 = 200.

Required Sum = 200² = 40000.

∴ The correct answer is 40000.

Alternate Method

The sequence 1, 3, 5, ..., 399 is an Arithmetic Progression (AP).

Given: First term (a) = 1, Common difference (d) = 2, Last term (l) = 399.

Formula Used: n = [(l − a) ÷ d] + 1 and S_n = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l)

⇒ n = [(399 − 1) ÷ 2] + 1

⇒ n = [398 ÷ 2] + 1 = 199 + 1 = 200

⇒ S₂₀₀ = (200 ÷ 2) × (1 + 399)

⇒ S₂₀₀ = 100 × 400

⇒ S₂₀₀ = 40000

∴ The correct answer is 40000.

Additional Information

Sum of first n natural numbers

The sum of the first n positive integers is calculated as n(n + 1) ÷ 2.

Sum of first n even numbers

The sum of the first n consecutive even numbers starting from 2 is n(n + 1).

Sum of squares of first n natural numbers

The sum of 1² + 2² + ... + n² is given by the formula n(n + 1)(2n + 1) ÷ 6.

Shortcut Trick

Sum of Highest (H) and Lowest (L) marks = (Number of removed items × Original Average) + (Remaining items × Decrease in Average)

Sum of (H + L) = (2 × 56) + (16 × 3)

⇒ Sum = 112 + 48 = 160

Average of (H + L) = 160 ÷ 2 = 80

∴ The correct answer is 80.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of boys = 18

Initial Average = 56

New number of boys (after removing 2) = 16

New Average = 56 − 3 = 53

Formula: Total Sum = Average × Number of items

⇒ Total marks of 18 boys = 18 × 56 = 1008

⇒ Total marks of 16 boys = 16 × 53 = 848

⇒ Sum of (Highest + Lowest) marks = 1008 − 848 = 160

⇒ Average of (Highest + Lowest) marks = 160 ÷ 2 = 80

∴ The correct answer is 80.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When two groups are combined, the new average is A_avg = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Net Deviation Principle

The sum of deviations of all observations from their Arithmetic Mean is always zero.

Exclusion Rule

If excluding a value decreases the average, the excluded value is greater than the original average.

Shortcut Trick

The smallest number exactly divisible by 18, 12, 15, and 20 is their LCM.

Since the required number must be increased by 29 to be divisible, subtract 29 from the LCM.

LCM of (18, 12, 15, 20) = 180

Required number = 180 − 29 = 151

∴ The correct answer is 151.

Alternate Method

Given:

Divisors = 18, 12, 15, and 20

Increment value = 29

Formula Used:

Required Number = LCM(Divisors) − Increment Value

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of 18 = 2 × 3²

⇒ Prime factorization of 12 = 2² × 3

⇒ Prime factorization of 15 = 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 20 = 2² × 5

⇒ LCM = 2² × 3² × 5 = 4 × 9 × 5 = 180

⇒ Required Number = 180 − 29

⇒ Required Number = 151

∴ The correct answer is 151.

Additional Information

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The LCM of two or more numbers is the smallest number that is a multiple of each of them. It is used to solve problems involving simultaneous occurrences or divisibility.

Relationship between LCM and HCF

For any two numbers a and b: LCM(a, b) × HCF(a, b) = a × b.

Divisibility Property

If a number is divisible by x, y, and z, it must also be divisible by the LCM of x, y, and z.

Shortcut Trick

Assume initial Cost Price (CP) is 100. Then initial Selling Price (SP) = 150 (as profit = 50%).

New CP = 100 + 40 = 140.

New SP = 140 + 75% of 140 = 140 + 105 = 245.

Percentage increase in SP (y) = [(245 − 150) ÷ 150] × 100 = (95 ÷ 150) × 100 = 63.33.

∴ The correct answer is 63.33.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial profit = 50%, increase in CP = 40%, new profit = 75%, and SP increase = y%.

Formula Used: Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100

⇒ Let the initial Cost Price (CP₁) = ₹100

⇒ Initial Selling Price (SP₁) = 100 + (50% of 100) = ₹150

⇒ New Cost Price (CP₂) = 100 + (40% of 100) = ₹140

⇒ New Selling Price (SP₂) = 140 × (1 + 75/100) = 140 × 1.75 = ₹245

⇒ Value of y = [(SP₂ − SP₁) ÷ SP₁] × 100

⇒ y = [(245 − 150) ÷ 150] × 100

⇒ y = (95 ÷ 150) × 100 = 190 ÷ 3 = 63.33

∴ The correct answer is 63.33.

Additional Information

Profit Percentage Formula

Profit % is always calculated on the Cost Price: Profit % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Selling Price Relation

When Profit % is given, SP = CP × [(100 + P%) ÷ 100]. If Loss % is given, SP = CP × [(100 − L%) ÷ 100].

Percentage Change

To find the percentage increase/decrease between two values: Change % = [(New Value − Old Value) ÷ Old Value] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

Let initial Cost Price (CP₁) = 100. Then Selling Price (SP₁) = 80 (since loss = 20%).

New CP₂ = 130 (increased by 30%).

New loss = 10% ⇒ New SP₂ = 90% of 130 = 117.

Increase in Selling Price = 117 − 80 = 37.

Value of y (percentage increase in SP) = (37 ÷ 80) × 100 = 46.25.

∴ The correct answer is 46.25.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial loss = 20%, Cost Price increase = 30%, New loss = 10%, Selling Price increase = y%.

Formula: SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100

⇒ Let the initial Cost Price (CP₁) be 100 units.

⇒ SP₁ = CP₁ − 20% of CP₁ = 100 − 20 = 80 units.

⇒ New Cost Price (CP₂) = 100 + 30% of 100 = 130 units.

⇒ New Loss = 10% of CP₂ = 0.10 × 130 = 13 units.

⇒ New Selling Price (SP₂) = CP₂ − New Loss = 130 − 13 = 117 units.

⇒ Increase in Selling Price = SP₂ − SP₁ = 117 − 80 = 37 units.

⇒ y = (Increase in SP ÷ Original SP) × 100

⇒ y = (37 ÷ 80) × 100 = 46.25.

∴ The correct answer is 46.25.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage Formula

Loss% is always calculated on the Cost Price unless stated otherwise: Loss% = [(CP − SP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Percentage Change

To find the percentage increase or decrease between two values: % Change = [(New Value − Old Value) ÷ Old Value] × 100.

Relationship between CP and SP

If there is a loss of L%, then SP = CP × (100 − L) ÷ 100; if there is a profit of P%, then SP = CP × (100 + P) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

Value 1 = 50% of 400 = 200

Value 2 = 80% of 500 = 400

Required addition = 400 − 200 = 200

∴ The correct answer is 200.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial number = 50% of 400

Target number = 80% of 500

Formula Used:

Required number = Target number − Initial number

Calculations:

⇒ Initial number = (50/100) × 400

⇒ Initial number = 200

⇒ Target number = (80/100) × 500

⇒ Target number = 400

⇒ Let x be the number to be added.

⇒ 200 + x = 400

⇒ x = 400 − 200 = 200

∴ The correct answer is 200.

Additional Information

Percentage Calculation

To find x% of a number N, the formula is (x ÷ 100) × N.

Fractional Conversions

Converting percentages to fractions simplifies calculations: 50% = 1/2, 80% = 4/5, and 25% = 1/4.

Percentage Change

Percentage increase or decrease is calculated as (Difference ÷ Original Value) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

The efficiency ratio is the inverse of the time ratio when work is constant.

M : S (Time) = 18 : 27 = 2 : 3 ⇒ M : S (Efficiency) = 3 : 2.

Total units for wages = 3 + 2 = 5 units.

5 units = ₹3600 → 1 unit = ₹720.

M's share (3 units) = 3 × 720 = ₹2160.

∴ The correct answer is ₹2160.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by M = 18 days, Time taken by S = 27 days, Total payment = ₹3600.

Since both worked together for the same duration, the wages are distributed according to their efficiencies.

⇒ Ratio of Efficiency (M : S) = 3 : 2

⇒ Sum of efficiency ratios = 3 + 2 = 5

⇒ M's share = (Efficiency of M / Total Efficiency) × Total Payment

⇒ M's share = (3 / 5) × 3600

⇒ M's share = 3 × 720

⇒ M's share = 2160

∴ The correct answer is ₹2160.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Concept

Wages are directly proportional to the work done. If workers work for the same number of days, the wage ratio equals the efficiency ratio.

Efficiency-Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to Time. If time ratio is a : b, then efficiency ratio is b : a. Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time.

Combined Work Formula

If A and B can do a work in x and y days respectively, working together they finish in (x × y) / (x + y) days.

Shortcut Trick

Total Relative Speed = Distance ÷ Time = 420 ÷ 6 = 70 km/hr.

In opposite directions, Relative Speed = Speed of G + Speed of H.

Speed of H = 70 − 50 = 20 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 20 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Distance between P and Q = 420 km

Time taken to meet at S = 6 hr

Speed of G (S_G) = 50 km/hr

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (Opposite Direction) = S₁ + S₂ = Total Distance ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Speed of H be S_H km/hr.

⇒ S_G + S_H = 420 ÷ 6

⇒ 50 + S_H = 70

⇒ S_H = 70 − 50

⇒ S_H = 20 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 20 km/hr.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concept

When two bodies move in opposite directions, their Relative Speed is S₁ + S₂. When they move in the same direction, it is |S₁ − S₂|.

Meeting Point Time

The time taken to meet is calculated as (Initial Distance between bodies) ÷ (Relative Speed).

Speed-Distance-Time Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP) at 25% loss = 100 : 75 = 4 : 3.

Ratio of Marked Price (MP) to Selling Price (SP) with 1/3 discount = 3 : 2.

To equate SP, multiply the first ratio by 2 and the second by 3.

New ratios: CP : SP = 8 : 6 and MP : SP = 9 : 6.

Comparing MP and CP: MP/CP = 9/8.

∴ The correct answer is (9/8) of cost price.

Alternate Method

Given:

Loss percentage = 25%

Discount = (1/3) × Marked Price (MP)

Let the Cost Price be CP.

Since the article is sold at 25% loss:

⇒ SP = CP − 25% of CP

⇒ SP = 0.75 × CP = (3/4)CP

Now, according to the Discount condition:

⇒ Discount = (1/3) × MP

⇒ SP = MP − Discount = MP − (1/3)MP

⇒ SP = (2/3)MP

Equating both expressions for Selling Price (SP):

⇒ (2/3)MP = (3/4)CP

⇒ MP = (3/4) × (3/2)CP

⇒ MP = (9/8)CP

∴ The correct answer is (9/8) of cost price.

Additional Information

Marked Price and Selling Price Relation

Selling Price is always equal to Marked Price − Discount. The discount is usually calculated on the Marked Price: SP = MP × (100 − Discount%)/100.

Markup Percentage

Markup percentage is the percentage by which the cost price is increased to reach the marked price: Markup% = [(MP − CP) / CP] × 100.

Successive Discounts

When two successive discounts d₁ and d₂ are given, the effective discount is d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100.

Shortcut Trick

To avoid loss, the Selling Price (SP) must be at least equal to the Cost Price (CP).

Maximum Discount % = (Markup % ÷ (100 + Markup %)) × 100

Given Markup % = 60%

Maximum Discount % = (60 ÷ 160) × 100 = 3/8 × 100 = 37.5%

∴ The correct answer is 37.5%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) is 60% more than Cost Price (CP).

For no loss, Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP).

Let Cost Price (CP) = 100

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = 100 + 60% of 100 = 160

For no loss, Selling Price (SP) = 100

⇒ Maximum Discount = Marked Price − Selling Price

⇒ Maximum Discount = 160 − 100 = 60

⇒ Discount Percentage = (Discount ÷ Marked Price) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = (60 ÷ 160) × 100

⇒ Discount Percentage = (3 ÷ 8) × 100 = 37.5%

∴ The correct answer is 37.5%.

Additional Information

Markup Percentage

It is the percentage by which the cost price is increased to set the marked price: Markup % = ((MP − CP) ÷ CP) × 100.

Discount Percentage

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP): Discount % = ((MP − SP) ÷ MP) × 100.

Effective Profit Percentage

The relation between Markup, Discount, and Profit is given by: 1 + (Profit%/100) = (1 + Markup%/100) × (1 − Discount%/100).

The correct answer is 'concern'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the global response and increasing focus on environmental issues over the recent decades.
• The appropriate noun should describe the rising level of interest, worry, or attention directed towards these issues.
• 'Concern' fits well as it refers to a feeling of worry or importance, indicating that environmental problems are increasingly becoming a priority for people worldwide.
• Other options like 'understanding', 'problem', or 'damage' do not fit as naturally when describing the sentiment that drives campaigns and public action in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: In recent decades, there has been a growing 1. concern of environmental issues across the globe. Governments and organizations have launched several campaigns to raise public 2. awareness about the importance of protecting nature. Individuals are encouraged to reduce waste, conserve water, and adopt 3. renewable energy sources. These steps, though small, can have a significant 4. effect when adopted by large populations. It is crucial that we all 5. take responsibility for preserving our planet for future generations.

Additional Information

• Understanding: It refers to the knowledge or comprehension of a subject or situation.
• Problem: It refers to a matter or situation regarded as unwelcome or harmful that needs to be overcome.
• Damage: It refers to physical harm caused to something which impairs its value or usefulness.

The correct answer is 'awareness'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the increasing importance of environmental issues and the actions taken by Governments and organizations to address them.
• The sentence focuses on the purpose of campaigns, which is to educate and inform the general public.
• 'Awareness' refers to the knowledge or perception of a situation or fact. It is the most appropriate word here as campaigns are specifically designed to 'raise public awareness' regarding the protection of nature.
• Other options like 'panic' (uncontrollable fear), 'curiosity' (desire to know), or 'interest' (engagement) do not fit the formal objective of educational campaigns in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: In recent decades, there has been a growing 1. concern of environmental issues across the globe. Governments and organizations have launched several campaigns to raise public 2. awareness about the importance of protecting nature. Individuals are encouraged to reduce waste, conserve water, and adopt 3. renewable energy sources. These steps, though small, can have a significant 4. effect when adopted by large populations. It is crucial that we all 5. take responsibility for preserving our planet for future generations.

Additional Information

• Panic: A sudden feeling of fear and anxiety that prevents reasonable thought or action.
• Curiosity: A strong desire to know or learn something new.
• Interest: The feeling of wanting to give your attention to something or learn more about it.

The correct answer is 'renewable'.

Key Points

• The passage focuses on environmental protection and the actions individuals can take to preserve nature.
• The blank requires an adjective to describe energy sources that are beneficial for the environment.
• 'Renewable' refers to energy from sources that are not depleted when used, such as wind or solar power, making it the most appropriate choice in a discussion about sustainability.
• Other options like 'toxic' (poisonous) and 'expensive' (high cost) carry negative connotations that do not fit the context of conservation efforts.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: In recent decades, there has been a growing (1) ___ of environmental issues across the globe. Governments and organizations have launched several campaigns to raise public (2) ___ about the importance of protecting nature. Individuals are encouraged to reduce waste, conserve water, and adopt 3. renewable energy sources. These steps, though small, can have a significant (4) ___ when adopted by large populations. It is crucial that we all (5) ___ responsibility for preserving our planet for future generations.

Additional Information

• Clean: Refers to energy that does not produce greenhouse gases or pollutants. While similar to renewable, 'renewable' is the more standard term for sources that are naturally replenished.
• Toxic: Something that is harmful or poisonous to living organisms.
• Expensive: Requiring a large amount of money to purchase or maintain.

The correct answer is 'effect'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the impact of collective environmental actions taken by individuals and organizations.
• The sentence requires a noun to describe the result or impact of these small steps when performed by a large population.
• 'Effect' is a noun that refers to a change which is a result or consequence of an action. The phrase 'have a significant effect' is a common and appropriate collocation in this context.
• Other options like 'reaction', 'OSS', and 'waste' do not logically describe the positive environmental outcome intended by the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: In recent decades, there has been a growing 1. concern of environmental issues across the globe. Governments and organizations have launched several campaigns to raise public 2. awareness about the importance of protecting nature. Individuals are encouraged to reduce waste, conserve water, and adopt 3. renewable energy sources. These steps, though small, can have a significant 4. effect when adopted by large populations. It is crucial that we all 5. take responsibility for preserving our planet for future generations.

Additional Information

• 'Reaction' refers to a response to an event, which is less suited than 'effect' for describing an intended environmental impact.
• 'OSS' is typically an acronym (like Open Source Software) and has no relevance to environmental conservation in this context.
• 'Waste' refers to unwanted materials, which contradicts the theme of environmental protection discussed in the text.

The correct answer is 'take'.

Key Points

• The sentence indicates a need for collective action and accountability towards the environment.
• The phrase 'take responsibility' is a standard English collocation meaning to accept a duty or to be the person who deals with something.
• In the context of preserving the planet for future generations, it is logically necessary for everyone to accept and perform their duty.
• Therefore, 'take' is the most appropriate verb to complete the blank.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: In recent decades, there has been a growing (1) concern of environmental issues across the globe. Governments and organizations have launched several campaigns to raise public (2) awareness about the importance of protecting nature. Individuals are encouraged to reduce waste, conserve water, and adopt (3) renewable energy sources. These steps, though small, can have a significant (4) effect when adopted by large populations. It is crucial that we all (5) take responsibility for preserving our planet for future generations.

Additional Information

• Avoid: To stay away from or prevent someone or something from happening, which would be the opposite of what is needed for environmental preservation.
• Blame: To assign responsibility for a fault or wrong; we do not 'blame responsibility', we 'place blame'.
• Shift: To move or transfer something to a different place or person; 'shifting responsibility' usually implies avoiding it yourself, which contradicts the phrase 'we all'.

The correct answer is 'veg out'.

Key Points

• The idiom 'veg out' means to spend time idly or relax completely, typically by doing something that requires very little mental or physical effort (like watching television or sitting around).
• In the context of the sentence, after a 'hectic month of work', it is natural for someone to want to relax or decompress during a vacation.
• The term is a shortened version of the word 'vegetate', which refers to living in an inactive or passive way.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: After a hectic month of work, Sohan wanted to veg out during the long vacation.

Additional Information

• Log out: To perform the actions necessary to finish using a computer system or a website.
• Try out: To test something or someone to see if they are suitable or effective.
• Meat out: This is not a standard idiom. The correct phrasal verb is 'Mete out', which means to dispense or allot justice, punishment, or harsh treatment.

The correct answer is: irritate.

Key Points

• The word 'annoy' means to make someone feel slightly angry, impatient, or bothered; it refers to a state of being disturbed by something repetitive or unpleasant. (परेशान करना)
• Example: The constant clicking of the pen began to annoy the students during the exam.
• 'Irritate' is a synonym that refers to the act of making someone annoyed or slightly angry, often through persistent or repeated actions. (चिढ़ाना/उत्तेजित करना)
• Example: The loud music from the neighboring house started to irritate him while he was trying to sleep.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'annoy' is 'irritate'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: irritate.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Please (प्रसन्न करना): To cause someone to feel happy or satisfied.
• Example: He tried his best to please his manager with high-quality work.
• Comfort (आराम): A state of physical ease and freedom from pain or constraint.
• Example: After the long hike, sitting by the fireplace provided great comfort.
• Soothe (शांत करना): To gently calm a person, their feelings, or to reduce pain.
• Example: The nurse applied an ointment to soothe the burn on his hand.

pThe correct answer is: lcy.

Key Points

• The word 'frigid' refers to something that is extremely cold in temperature or lacking in emotional warmth and friendliness. (बहुत ठंडा)
• Example: They had to survive the frigid temperatures of the Antarctic winter.
• 'lcy' describes a state of being very cold, covered with ice, or having the characteristics of ice. (बर्फ़ीला)
• Example: The lcy roads made driving very dangerous after the snowstorm.
• Hence, the word 'lcy' is the closest synonym for 'frigid' as both represent extreme cold.

Therefore, the correct answer is- lcy.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Warm (गर्म): Having or producing a comfortably high temperature.
• Example: It is nice and warm by the fireplace.
• Spicy (मसालेदार): Food that is flavored with spices, often creating a burning sensation.
• Example: She enjoys eating spicy food like chili and curry.
• Milo (एक प्रकार का अनाज या पेय पदार्थ): This word usually refers to a type of sorghum or a popular chocolate-malt drink.
• Example: He often has a cup of Milo for breakfast.