SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 26 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic followed here is based on a constant difference between consecutive terms in the number series.

Logic: Each term is obtained by adding 5 to the preceding term.

The missing term is '-393'.

 

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Logic followed here is.

Logic: Each term in the series is determined by multiplying the previous term by 3 and then subtracting a value (n) that follows a repeating sequence of 1, 2, 3.

The missing term is '-76'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Each subsequent letter in the series is obtained by adding 3 to the positional value of the previous letter in alphabetical order.

The missing term is 'I'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is based on the positional values of the letters in the English alphabet.

The series consists of two patterns: one for the first letter and one for the second letter of each term.

The missing term is LR.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Based on the seating arrangement described, we can determine the positions of the 5 boys A, N, M, K, and L facing North by following these steps:

1. K is the immediate neighbour of M and L.

2. N is second to the right of L.

Key Points:

• M is at the extreme left end of the row.
• N is at the extreme right end of the row.
• The boys at the extreme ends are M and N.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given the comparison of the ages of 6 boys: A, B, C, D, E, and F.

1. 'No one is elder than A': This implies that A is the eldest among all 6 boys. So, A is at the first position in the age order.
2. 'C is elder than D but younger than B': This establishes the relationship B > C > D.
3. 'D is elder than E': This gives the relationship D > E.
4. 'F is younger than E': This means E > F.

By combining these logical statements, we can form a descending order of their ages:

From points 2, 3, and 4, we get: B > C > D > E > F.

Since A is the eldest, the complete sequence from the eldest to the youngest is:

A > B > C > D > E > F

From the final chain, it is clear that F is the youngest boy.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Based on the given information, we can determine the ranking of the six boys (A, B, C, D, E, and F) as follows:

1. Marks of C are least: This means C occupies the 6^th (last) position in the marks hierarchy.
2. Marks of A are more than only D and C: The word only is crucial here. It implies that A has higher marks than exactly two people: D and C. Since C is the lowest, D must be the 5^th and A must be the 4^th in descending order. The arrangement at the bottom is A > D > C.
3. Marks of B are more than F but less than E: This gives us the relative sequence E > B > F. Since there are three spots remaining at the top (1^st, 2^nd, and 3^rd), these three boys must fill them in that specific order.

Combining all the points, the final descending order of marks (from 1^st to 6^th) is:

E > B > F > A > D > C

Key positions in the ranking:

• Highest marks: E
• Second highest marks: B
• Third highest marks: F
• Least marks: C

Therefore, the boy with the second highest marks among the six boys is B.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Given:

To find the relationship between the boy and the girl, let us break down the statement made by the girl step by step.

1. My grandfather's only son - A person's grandfather's only son is their father.

2. Wife of my grandfather's only son - The wife of the father is the girl's mother.

3. Only son of the wife of my grandfather's only son - The only son of the girl's mother is the girl's brother.

 

The family structure can be represented as follows:

​Therefore, the boy is the Brother of the girl.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Given Words:

1. Dig
2. Digest
3. Dignify
4. Dight
5. Digit

Dictionary Arrangement:

Correct dictionary order:

Dig → Digest → Dight → Digit → Dignify

Sequence: 1, 2, 4, 5, 3

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given Words:

1. Exert
2. Exercise
3. Exempt
4. Execute
5. Excuse

Dictionary Arrangement:

Correct dictionary order:

Excuse → Execute → Exempt → Exercise → Exert

Sequence: 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

Hence, the correct answer is "Option".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number + 53

For the first pair 8150 : 8203

⇒ 8150 + 53 = 8203.

Applying the same logic to the third pair 5049 : 5102

⇒ 5049 + 53 = 5102.

Now, applying the logic to the second pair

5260 : ?

⇒ 5260 + 53 = 5313.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The logic followed here is that each component of the term (the first letter, the second letter, and the number) follows its own arithmetic pattern.

 

The missing term is FJ300.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Logic followed here is:

Logic: Each term in the series consists of three letters and a number, where each component follows a specific independent sequential pattern.

The correct second term should be OLR400. Thus, QPR500 is the wrong term in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Logic followed here is:

The series is formed by applying a specific alphabetical shift to the letters and a constant subtraction to the numbers in each term. Each component (first letter, second letter, third letter, and number) follows its own pattern.

 

The missing term is YBY344.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Concept:

Hour hand covers 360° in 12 hours.

Angular distance covered in 1 hour = 360/12 = 30°

Angular distance covered in 1 minute = 30/60 = 1/2°

Minute hand covers 360° in 60 minutes.

Angular distance covered in 1 minute = 360/60 = 6°

The relative speed of the minute hand with respect to the hour hand = 6° − 1/2° = 5.5° or 11/2° per minute.

Calculation:

At 2 AM, the angle between the hour and minute hands is 2 × 30° = 60°.

To have an angle of 90 degrees between 2 AM and 3 AM, the minute hand must gain 60° to coincide with the hour hand and then gain an additional 90° to be 90° apart.

Total angular distance to be covered = 60° + 90° = 150°

Time taken = Distance / Relative Speed

Time (M) = 150 / (11/2)

M = 300/11

M ≈ 27.27 minutes

The time is approximately 2:27 AM.

Alternate Method

The angle θ between the hour hand and minute hand is given by the formula:

$\theta = |{11\over2}M - 30H|$

Here, H = 2 and θ = 90°.

90 = |(11/2)M − 30 × 2|

90 = |(11/2)M − 60|

Case 1: 90 = (11/2)M − 60

150 = (11/2)M

M = 300/11 = 27 3/11 ≈ 27.27

Case 2: −90 = (11/2)M − 60

−30 = (11/2)M (Not possible as time cannot be negative)

So, the time is approximately 2:27 AM.

Hence, the correct answer is 2:27.

Concept:

The time interval between 7 AM on 25 May 2025 and 7 AM on 26 May 2025 is exactly 1 day or 24 hours.

The total time lost by the clock is calculated by multiplying the rate of loss per hour by the total number of hours elapsed.

Calculation:

Time loss per hour = 12 seconds

Total duration from 25 May, 7 AM to 26 May, 7 AM = 24 hours

Total time loss = 24 × 12 = 288 seconds

To convert 288 seconds into minutes and seconds:

288 seconds = 240 seconds + 48 seconds

Since 60 seconds = 1 minute, 240 seconds = 240/60 = 4 minutes.

Total time loss = 4 minutes 48 seconds

The clock was set right at 7:00:00 AM. To find the time it will show, we subtract the total loss from the actual time:

Clock Time = 7:00:00 AM − 4 minutes 48 seconds

Subtracting 4 minutes 48 seconds from 7:00:00:

7:00:00 − 0:04:48 = 6:55:12 AM

Hence, the clock will show 6:55:12.

The logic followed here is: The figures inside the box is moving anticlockwise and the grid is also moving like same.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed in this figure series is: All the elements inside the box are moving in a triangular pattern.

 

Hence, the correct image is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is: The number of triangles in each step are increasing by +2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is: All the letters are shifting one place in anti-clockwise direction.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Impeachment.

Key Points

• The removal of a Supreme Court judge is a rigorous process governed by Article 124(4) of the Constitution of India and the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, commonly known as Impeachment.
• A judge can be removed from office only on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
• The process begins with a removal motion signed by at least 100 members in the Lok Sabha or 50 members in the Rajya Sabha, which is then submitted to the Speaker or Chairman.
• If the motion is admitted, a three-member committee is constituted to investigate the charges. This committee includes a Supreme Court judge, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist.
• For the removal to be effective, the motion must be passed by each House of Parliament with a special majority: a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
• Following the passage of the motion in both Houses during the same session, an address is presented to the President, who then issues the formal order for removal.

 Additional Information

• Judicial Review
• This is the power of the Judiciary to examine the validity of laws passed by the Legislature and actions taken by the Executive.
• It ensures that all state actions conform to the Constitution, as supported by Articles 13, 32, 131-136, 143, 226, and 246.
• Recall
• A mechanism of direct democracy where voters can remove an elected official before their term ends; this does not apply to the Indian Judiciary.
• Dismissal by President
• While the President signs the final order, they cannot dismiss a Supreme Court judge unilaterally or at their pleasure. The Independence of the Judiciary is protected by requiring the Parliamentary process first.

The correct answer is Swaran Singh Committee.

Key Points

• The Swaran Singh Committee was appointed by the Indian National Congress government in 1976 during the National Emergency (1975−1977).
• The primary objective of the committee was to make recommendations about Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which was felt to balance the Fundamental Rights of citizens with their obligations to the state.
• The committee suggested the inclusion of a separate chapter on Fundamental Duties in the Constitution, emphasizing that citizens should be aware that they have certain duties to perform while enjoying their rights.
• Accepting these recommendations, the Parliament enacted the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, which added a new Part IV-A and Article 51A to the Constitution of India.
• Initially, the Swaran Singh Committee suggested eight duties, but the 42^nd Amendment actually included ten; later, the 11^th Fundamental Duty was added by the 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

 Additional Information

• Rajamannar Committee:
• Appointed by the Tamil Nadu Government in 1969 under the chairmanship of Dr. P.V. Rajamannar.
• It was tasked with examining the entire gamut of Centre-State relations and suggesting amendments to the Constitution to secure greater autonomy for the states.
• Sarkaria Committee:
• Set up in 1983 by the Central Government of India, headed by Justice R.S. Sarkaria.
• Its mandate was to examine the relationship and balance of power between State and Central governments and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution.
• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee:
• Appointed in January 1957 to examine the working of the Community Development Programme and the National Extension Service.
• It recommended the establishment of the scheme of Democratic Decentralization, which eventually became known as Panchayati Raj.

The correct answer is Chief Justice of India.

Key Points

• According to the President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969, if the offices of both the President and the Vice President fall vacant due to death, resignation, removal, or otherwise, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) shall perform the functions of the President.
• The Constitution of India under Article 65 specifies that the Vice President acts as the President during a vacancy, but it does not explicitly mention the further line of succession; this was addressed by the Parliament through the 1969 Act.
• If the Chief Justice of India is also unavailable, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court of India who is available shall discharge the duties of the President.
• Historically, Justice M. Hidayatullah is the only Chief Justice of India to have served as the Acting President of India from 20^th July 1969 to 24^th August 1969, following the death of President Zakir Hussain and the subsequent resignation of Acting President V.V. Giri.
• The person acting as President is entitled to all the privileges, emoluments, and allowances of the President of India during that tenure.

 Additional Information

• Governor of a State:
• Appointed by the President under Article 155.
• Acts as the Constitutional Head of a State and does not have a role in the Union executive succession.
• Attorney General:
• Appointed under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution.
• The highest legal officer in the country who provides legal advice to the Union Government but holds no executive power in the line of presidential succession.
• Prime Minister:
• The real executive head and leader of the Council of Ministers.
• While the Prime Minister leads the government, the separation of powers prevents the head of the legislature/government from automatically assuming the titular head of state role to maintain checks and balances.

The correct answer is Pt. Lochan.

Key Points

• Pt. Lochan is the esteemed author of the Sanskrit musical treatise titled Raga Tarangini, which is a pivotal work in the history of Hindustani Classical Music.
• Though there is historical debate regarding its exact timeline, the work is widely attributed to the 15^th century (around 1450-1500 AD) and reflects the musical landscape of the Mithila region.
• The primary significance of Raga Tarangini lies in its systematic classification of Ragas. Lochan was among the first to categorize Ragas under parental scales known as Melas or Thaats.
• He established a system consisting of 12 Melas (parental scales), which provided a structural foundation for the organization of countless derivative Ragas (Janya Ragas).
• The 12 Thaats identified by Lochan include Bhairavi, Todi, Gauri, Karnat, Kedar, Yaman, Sarang, Megha, Dhanashri, Purvi, Mukhari, and Deepak.
• The text also discusses the Shuddha and Vikrit notes of that period, describing a scale of 12 notes comprising 7 natural and 5 modified notes.

 Additional Information

• Pt. Ahobal:
• The author of Sangeet Parijat, written in the 17^th century (approximately 1665 AD).
• He is famous for being the first to describe the exact locations of 12 notes on the string of a Veena using mathematical proportions.
• Pt. Sharngadeva:
• The author of Sangeet Ratnakara, composed in the 13^th century.
• Often referred to as the Saptadhyayi, this work is considered the most comprehensive authority on Indian music, bridging ancient (Marga) and medieval (Desi) traditions.
• Pt. Bhatkhande (Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande):
• A modern musicologist who revolutionized Hindustani music by introducing the current 10 Thaat system.
• His major works include Hindustani Sangeet Paddhati and the Kramik Pustak Malika series.

The correct answer is The tides due to the Moon and the Sun.

Key Points

• The Universal Law of Gravitation, formulated by Sir Isaac Newton in 1687, states that every particle in the universe attracts every other particle with a force directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
• This law explains the phenomenon of tides, which are the periodic rise and fall of the Earth's ocean levels. Tides are primarily caused by the gravitational pull exerted by the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun on the Earth's water bodies.
• The Moon, being closer to Earth, creates a gravitational gradient that pulls the water toward it, forming a tidal bulge on the side facing the Moon and a corresponding bulge on the opposite side due to centrifugal effects and differential gravity.
• The Sun also contributes to tidal variations; when the Earth, Moon, and Sun align during Full Moon and New Moon phases, their combined gravitational forces result in exceptionally high tides known as Spring Tides.
• Therefore, the phenomenon of tides is a direct application of the Universal Law of Gravitation, making this the correct option.

 Additional Information

• Nuclear fusion in the Sun:
• This process involves the merging of Hydrogen nuclei to form Helium, releasing vast amounts of energy.
• It is primarily governed by the Strong Nuclear Force, which overcomes the electrostatic repulsion between protons at extreme temperatures and pressures.
• Magnetic attraction between poles:
• This is a manifestation of the Electromagnetic Force, one of the four fundamental forces of nature.
• It involves the interaction between magnetic dipoles (North and South poles) rather than mass-based gravitational attraction.
• Motion of electrons around the nucleus:
• Electrons are held in orbit around the atomic nucleus by the Coulomb force, which is the electrostatic attraction between negatively charged electrons and positively charged protons.
• The Gravitational Constant (G) value is approximately 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ Nm²kg⁻², making gravity far too weak to govern atomic structures compared to electromagnetism.

The correct answer is Its inertia.

Key Points

• Mass is a fundamental property of matter that represents the amount of substance present in an object. It is a scalar quantity, meaning it has magnitude but no direction.
• Inertia is the inherent tendency of any physical object to resist changes in its state of motion or rest. This concept is central to Newton's First Law of Motion, often referred to as the Law of Inertia.
• The mass of an object is the quantitative measure of its inertia. A body with a larger mass requires a greater unbalanced force to change its velocity (acceleration) compared to a body with a smaller mass.
• The SI unit of mass is the kilogram (kg). Unlike weight, the mass of an object remains constant regardless of its location in the universe or the gravitational pull acting upon it.

 Additional Information

• Weight:
• It is the gravitational force exerted on an object by a celestial body like Earth.
• It is calculated as Weight = Mass × acceleration due to gravity (g).
• The SI unit is the Newton (N), and it changes depending on the strength of the local gravitational field.
• Volume:
• This identifies the amount of three-dimensional space that a substance or object occupies.
• For solids, it is typically measured in cubic meters (m³), while for liquids, it is measured in liters (L).
• Density:
• It is defined as the mass per unit volume of a material.
• The formula is Density = Mass / Volume, and its SI unit is kg/m³. It indicates how tightly matter is packed within an object.

The correct answer is Summer Solstice.

Key Points

• The Summer Solstice marks the point in the Earth's orbit where the Northern Hemisphere is tilted at its maximum angle of 23.5 degrees toward the Sun.
• This astronomical event occurs annually on June 20, 21, or 22, with June 21 being the most frequent date.
• During the solstice, the Sun reaches its highest position in the sky at solar noon for observers located at the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N latitude).
• The Northern Hemisphere experiences the longest duration of daylight and the shortest night of the year because a larger portion of the hemisphere is exposed to sunlight due to the axial tilt.
• Geographically, areas within the Arctic Circle experience the Midnight Sun, where the Sun does not set for a full 24-hour period.
• In contrast, the Southern Hemisphere simultaneously experiences its Winter Solstice, resulting in its shortest day and longest night of the year.

 Additional Information

• Winter Solstice:
• Typically occurs on December 21 or 22 in the Northern Hemisphere.
• The North Pole is tilted farthest from the Sun, which is directly over the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S).
• It identifies the shortest day and the official start of astronomical winter.
• Equinoxes:
• Vernal Equinox: Occurs around March 20-21, marking the start of spring when the Sun crosses the Equator moving north.
• Autumnal Equinox: Happens around September 22-23, signaling the beginning of autumn as the Sun moves south across the Equator.
• During an Equinox, day and night are approximately 12 hours each across the entire planet.

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

• China made history by becoming the first nation to successfully achieve a soft landing on the far side of the Moon through its Chang'e 4 mission.
• The spacecraft landed on January 3, 2019, within the Von Kármán crater, which is situated in the South Pole-Aitken (SPA) Basin, the largest and oldest impact crater on the Moon.
• The mission successfully deployed the Yutu-2 (Jade Rabbit-2) rover, which became the first robotic vehicle to traverse the rugged and geologically distinct terrain of the lunar hemisphere that faces away from Earth.
• Since the Moon's bulk blocks direct radio communication with Earth, China launched the Queqiao relay satellite to the Earth-Moon L2 Lagrange point to facilitate data transmission between the rover and ground control.

 Additional Information

• Technological and Scientific Objectives:
• The Yutu-2 rover is equipped with Lunar Penetrating Radar (LPR) to investigate the sub-surface structure and Visible and Near-Infrared Imaging Spectrometers (VNIS) to identify mineral compositions.
• The mission conducts low-frequency radio astronomical observations, taking advantage of the far side's unique radio-quiet environment, shielded from Earth's electromagnetic interference.
• Other Lunar Missions:
• USA: NASA's Apollo missions (1969−1972) achieved the first human landings, but all were located on the lunar near side.
• India: The Chandrayaan-3 mission landed the Pragyan rover near the Lunar South Pole in August 2023, making India the first to reach that specific region, though not the far side.
• Russia: The Soviet Union obtained the first-ever images of the far side in 1959 with Luna 3, but did not deploy a rover there.

The correct answer is Abhinav Bindra.

Key Points

• Abhinav Bindra scripted history by becoming the first Indian athlete to win an individual gold medal at the Olympic Games.
• He achieved this milestone in the Men's 10m Air Rifle shooting event at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
• In the high-pressure final, Bindra shot a total score of 700.5, which included a remarkable 10.8 on his final shot to overtake his competitors.
• Before this achievement, India had only won gold medals in Field Hockey, which is a team sport, making Bindra the pioneer of individual success at the highest level.
• His victory ended a 28-year gold medal drought for India at the Olympics, the previous gold having been won by the hockey team in 1980.

 Additional Information

• Milkha Singh:
• Commonly known as the Flying Sikh, he was a legendary sprinter who represented India in multiple Olympics.
• He famously missed out on a medal by 0.1 seconds, finishing fourth in the 400m race at the 1960 Rome Olympics.
• Leander Paes:
• He is a world-renowned tennis player who won the bronze medal in the Men's Singles event at the 1996 Atlanta Olympics.
• This was the first individual Olympic medal for India in 44 years, following K.D. Jadhav's bronze in 1952.
• Sushil Kumar:
• A highly successful freestyle wrestler who won two consecutive individual Olympic medals.
• He secured a bronze medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympics and a silver medal at the 2012 London Olympics.

The correct answer is Heavy industry.

Key Points

• Before the Economic Reforms of 1991, India operated under a command-and-control framework often referred to as the License-Permit-Quota Raj, where the Heavy industry sector was the primary target of state regulation.
• The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) of 1956 laid the foundation for this regime, categorizing industries into schedules and reserving strategic heavy industries like iron and steel, heavy engineering, and atomic energy for the public sector.
• Private enterprises wishing to operate in the heavy industry space were required to obtain a license under the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951, which controlled their capacity, location, and product mix.
• Quotas were strictly enforced, legally preventing firms from producing more than their authorized limit, while price controls were imposed on essential industrial outputs like cement, steel, and coal to keep costs low for downstream sectors.
• The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act, 1969 further intensified regulations for large industrial houses to prevent the concentration of wealth, requiring additional clearances for expansion or diversification.

 Additional Information

• Agriculture:
• This sector was largely private and managed through land tenure systems and the Green Revolution rather than industrial licensing or production quotas.
• Consumer and Small-scale Industries:
• While many consumer products were reserved for the SSI sector to protect small players, they did not face the extreme capital-intensive licensing barriers typical of heavy industries.
• Banking:
• Regulated via Nationalization in 1969 and 1980, banking was controlled through statutory liquidity ratios and credit directives by the RBI, distinct from the industrial quota system.
• 1991 Reforms:
• The New Economic Policy (NEP) introduced by P.V. Narasimha Rao and Dr. Manmohan Singh initiated Liberalization, effectively dismantling the License Raj for most sectors to encourage competitive growth.

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points

• In Twenty20 (T20) cricket, fielding restrictions are implemented to encourage aggressive batting and balance the game. The innings is divided into a Powerplay phase and a non-Powerplay phase.
• The Powerplay consists of the first 6 overs of a standard 20-over innings. During this period, a maximum of 2 fielders are allowed to be stationed outside the 30-yard (27.43 meters) circle.
• Following the completion of the Powerplay (from the start of the 7^th over until the final delivery of the 20^th over), the restrictions are relaxed. A maximum of 5 fielders are permitted to be placed outside the 30-yard circle.
• These regulations are strictly enforced by the International Cricket Council (ICC) for international matches and are widely adopted by various domestic leagues like the IPL and Big Bash.
• Failure to maintain the required number of fielders inside the circle at the moment of delivery results in the Umpire calling a No Ball, which grants the batting team a Free Hit.

 Additional Information

• On-Side Restrictions:
• Irrespective of the phase of the innings, no more than 5 fielders are allowed on the leg side (on-side) of the batsman at any given time.
• Furthermore, no more than 2 fielders are allowed behind the popping crease on the leg side.
• Slow Over Rate Penalty:
• According to updated ICC Playing Conditions, if a fielding team fails to start their final over by the scheduled cut-off time, they must bring an additional fielder inside the circle.
• In such cases, only 4 fielders are allowed outside the 30-yard circle for the remaining duration of the innings.
• Rain-Curtailed Matches:
• If a match is shortened due to rain, the duration of the Powerplay is adjusted proportionally to the total number of overs assigned to the innings.

The correct answer is ISRO - Indian Space Research Organisation.

Key Points

• ISRO is the premier national space agency of India, headquartered in Bengaluru, and is the primary body responsible for the development and operation of the Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellite constellation.
• The National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC), a vital wing of ISRO located in Hyderabad, is specifically mandated with the acquisition, processing, and dissemination of satellite data for various environmental studies.
• ISRO manages specialized satellites such as the Resourcesat series, Cartosat, and Oceansat, which provide high-resolution imagery for monitoring natural resources, biodiversity, and climate change patterns.
• Data derived from ISRO satellites is utilized for critical environmental applications, including wetland mapping, coastal zone management, and tracking forest cover changes across the Indian subcontinent.
• Established in 1969, ISRO has evolved to support the National Natural Resources Management System (NNRMS), ensuring that space technology directly aids in the sustainable management of India's environment.

 Additional Information

• Forest Survey of India (FSI):
• An organization under the MoEFCC based in Dehradun.
• It uses remote sensing data primarily to prepare the biennial India State of Forest Report (ISFR).
• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):
• A statutory organization established in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act.
• It focuses on monitoring air and water quality and enforcing environmental standards nationwide.
• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC):
• The nodal administrative agency in the Central Government for planning and overseeing India's environmental policies.
• It supervises various departments but does not directly manage satellite infrastructure.

The correct answer is 1953.

Key Points

• The civil aviation sector in India underwent a massive structural change with the enactment of the Air Corporations Act, 1953, which aimed to consolidate the fragmented airline industry.
• Deccan Airways, one of the premier private airlines of that era, was officially nationalized on August 1, 1953, under the provisions of this legislation.
• Following the nationalization process, Deccan Airways was merged along with seven other domestic airlines to form the state-owned Indian Airlines Corporation (IAC).
• The primary objective of this nationalization was to create a unified domestic carrier that could provide standard safety, better operational efficiency, and comprehensive connectivity across Independent India.

 Additional Information

• Deccan Airways Limited:
• It was established in 1945 as a joint venture between the Nizam of Hyderabad and Tata Airlines.
• The airline played a crucial role in the Deccan region, operating key routes connecting Hyderabad to Madras, Bombay, and Delhi.
• The Eight Nationalized Entities:
• The 1953 nationalization involved eight major airlines: Air India, Air Services of India, Airways (India), Bharat Airways, Deccan Airways, Himalayan Aviation, Indian National Airways, and Kalinga Airlines.
• Post-Nationalization Landscape:
• The industry was bifurcated into two specialized corporations: Indian Airlines for all domestic and regional flights and Air India International for long-distance overseas operations.
• J.R.D. Tata was appointed as the chairman of the international wing, ensuring that the expertise of private pioneers was retained within the government framework.

The correct answer is Ravi.

Key Points

• Kartarpur is located in the Shakargarh Tehsil of the Narowal District in the Punjab province of Pakistan.
• The town is situated on the right bank of the Ravi River, one of the primary transboundary rivers of the Indus River System.
• It holds immense religious significance as it was founded by Guru Nanak Dev Ji, the first Guru of Sikhism, in 1522.
• Guru Nanak spent the final 18 years of his life in Kartarpur, where he established a communal kitchen (Langar) and practiced farming on the fertile plains of the Ravi.
• The Gurdwara Darbar Sahib Kartarpur is built at the site where Guru Nanak is believed to have breathed his last.
• The Kartarpur Corridor, inaugurated in November 2019, connects this shrine to the Dera Baba Nanak shrine in Gurdaspur, India, crossing the Ravi River to facilitate visa-free travel for pilgrims.

 Additional Information

• Ravi River:
• Known in ancient India as Purushni or Irawati.
• It originates in the Bara Bhangal area of Kangra district in Himachal Pradesh and flows through the Chamba Valley.
• It serves as a major source of irrigation for the Bari Doab region.
• Sutlej River:
• The longest of the five rivers of Punjab, originating from Lake Rakshastal in Tibet.
• It enters India through the Shipki La pass and is the site of the Bhakra-Nangal Dam.
• Ganga and Yamuna:
• The Ganga flows through the Indo-Gangetic Plain of North and East India, while the Yamuna is its largest tributary originating from the Yamunotri Glacier.
• Neither river flows through the Punjab region where Kartarpur is situated.

The correct answer is Rangeen Machhli.

Key Points

• The ICAR-Central Institute of Freshwater Aquaculture (CIFA), located in Bhubaneswar, officially launched the Rangeen Machhli mobile application in December 2024 to boost the ornamental fisheries sector in India.
• The app is designed as a one-stop digital solution for hobbyists, entrepreneurs, and fish farmers, providing essential information on the breeding, rearing, and management of various ornamental fish species.
• It features a comprehensive database covering over 80 species of colorful fish, detailed modules on water quality maintenance, and scientific protocols for feed management to ensure high survival rates in captive environments.
• The application plays a pivotal role in the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) by promoting innovation and technology infusion in the aquaculture domain.
• One of its core functions is the Find a Shop feature, which helps users locate nearby aquarium stores and suppliers, thereby strengthening the supply chain and market connectivity.

 Additional Information

• ICAR-CIFA:
• Established in 1987, it is a premier research institute under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research focusing on freshwater aquaculture research and development.
• The institute has been instrumental in developing high-yielding varieties like the Jayanti Rohu and various breeding technologies for carps and catfishes.
• Ornamental Fisheries Sector:
• Often described as 'Living Jewels', this sector is a significant foreign exchange earner and provides sustainable livelihood opportunities for rural women and urban youth.
• The Rangeen Machhli app supports the Blue Economy by reducing the knowledge gap and encouraging indigenous production of high-value species like Goldfish, Gourami, and Angel Fish.
• The app is available in multiple languages, including Hindi and English, to ensure wider accessibility across different geographical regions of India.

The correct answer is Tide.

Key Points

• Tides are the periodic and rhythmic rise and fall of the sea level, occurring typically twice in a lunar day (approximately 24 hours and 50 minutes).
• This phenomenon is primarily driven by the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun on the Earth, combined with the centrifugal force generated by the Earth's rotation.
• The Moon has a more significant influence on tides than the Sun because of its proximity to Earth; its pull creates a tidal bulge in the ocean water on the side facing the Moon and the side directly opposite.
• When the water reaches its highest point on the shore, it is termed High Tide, while the lowest point of recession is called Low Tide.
• During Full Moon and New Moon days, the Sun, Moon, and Earth align in a straight line, resulting in the highest tides known as Spring Tides. Conversely, when the Sun and Moon are at right angles, Neap Tides occur, which have a lower range.

 Additional Information

• Tsunami:
• A series of extremely long-wavelength ocean waves caused by massive underwater disturbances such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides.
• Unlike the predictable nature of tides, these are sudden and often catastrophic events not caused by gravitational pulls.
• Cyclone:
• A weather system characterized by low atmospheric pressure at the center and strong winds rotating inwards.
• In the Northern Hemisphere, the rotation is counter-clockwise, and it brings intense rainfall and storm surges.
• Western Disturbance:
• An extratropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region that travels eastward.
• It is responsible for sudden winter rain in the northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent, which is vital for Rabi crops.

The correct answer is Only I.

Key Points

• The history of the modern census in India began under the British administration. The first population census was conducted in a non-synchronous manner in different parts of the country between 1865 and 1872. This effort culminated in 1872 under the viceroyalty of Lord Mayo, though it did not cover the entire territory of India simultaneously. Hence, statement I is correct.
• In India, the census is typically a decennial exercise, meaning it occurs every ten years. The last census was conducted in 2011. While the 2021 Census was delayed indefinitely due to the COVID-19 pandemic, there is no official government notification or statutory mandate stating that the next census will specifically be conducted by 2028. Projections and administrative discussions vary, but it does not represent a fixed official schedule. Hence, statement II is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Historical Evolution:
• The first synchronous census (conducted all at once across the country) took place in 1881 under the guidance of W.C. Plowden, the Census Commissioner, during the tenure of Lord Ripon.
• Since 1881, the census has been conducted uninterruptedly every ten years until the 2021 cycle was disrupted.
• Administrative Framework:
• The responsibility of conducting the census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, which operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
• The exercise is legally backed by the Census Act, 1948, which provides the framework for data collection and ensures the confidentiality of information provided by citizens.
• The 2011 Census was the 15^th census of India and the 7^th since independence.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• Bayalata is a traditional folk theater and dance performance native to the state of Karnataka, specifically popular in its rural and coastal regions.
• The term is derived from the Kannada language, where Bayalu means an open field and Ata means a play or performance, indicating its traditional staging in open-air venues like harvest fields or temple grounds.
• The performance marks the end of the harvest season and serves as a medium for both religious devotion and community entertainment.
• Stories are primarily drawn from Indian epics and mythology, focusing on the Ramayana, the Mahabharata, and the Puranas.
• The dance is known for its two distinct styles: Sannata (small play), which is more refined and lyrical, and Doddata (grand play), which is characterized by loud music, high-pitched singing, and energetic movements.
• Performances are accompanied by traditional instruments such as the Mridangam, Harmonium, and Cymbals (Talam), with actors wearing vibrant costumes and heavy make-up similar to Yakshagana.

 Additional Information

• Bihar
• Folk dances include Jat-Jatin, which depicts the story of a lover's separation, and Bideshiya, a popular folk theater form.
• Other notable forms include Paika, a martial dance, and Jhijhia, performed during the Navaratri festival.
• Chhattisgarh
• Famous for the Panthi dance of the Satnami community and Raut Nacha, a dance performed by the Yaduvanshi community during Deepawali.
• Pandwani is a renowned musical narration of the Mahabharata from this region.
• Haryana
• The state features the Dhamal dance, which is performed by men on moonlit nights, and the Ghoomar dance, traditionally performed by women.
• The Phag dance is a seasonal dance performed by farmers during the month of Phalgun.
• Other Karnataka Arts
• Yakshagana: A complex dance-drama form that combines elements of opera and ballet.
• Dollu Kunitha: A high-energy drum dance associated with the Kuruba community and the worship of Lord Beereshwara.

The correct answer is Ghumura.

Key Points

• Ghumura is a traditional folk dance originating from the Kalahandi district of Odisha, characterized by its vibrant music and rhythmic complexity.
• The dance is named after the Ghumura, a unique pitcher-shaped drum made of clay with a mouth covered by the skin of a Godhi (monitor lizard).
• Historically categorized as a war dance, it was used to motivate soldiers in ancient Kalinga; archaeological evidence of this dance form is found in the carvings of the Konark Sun Temple.
• Literary references to the Ghumura instrument appear in ancient texts such as the Mahabharata and the Chandi Purana, where it is described as being used by deities.
• It is traditionally performed during major festivals like Nuakhai and Dasahara, where dancers move in circular formations wearing colorful turbans and traditional Odishi attire.

 Additional Information

• Kikli:
• This is a lively folk dance of Punjab, primarily performed by young girls.
• It involves two performers crossing their arms and holding hands while whirling rapidly in a circle.
• Luddi:
• A celebratory folk dance from the Punjab region (Sutlej and Chenab river areas), often performed by men.
• It is performed to celebrate victory or agricultural success, involving rhythmic clapping and finger snapping.
• Singhi Chaam:
• A significant mask dance from the state of Sikkim, also known as the Snow Lion Dance.
• Performers dress in white fur costumes to represent the mythical Snow Lion, which is a symbol of purity and a guardian of Mount Khangchendzonga.

The correct answer is 1958.

Key Points

• Milkha Singh, one of India’s greatest track and field athletes, achieved his first major international success at the 1958 Asian Games held in Tokyo, Japan.
• During this edition of the games, he won two gold medals in the 200-meter and 400-meter sprint events, establishing his dominance in Asian athletics.
• In the 200m final, he clocked a time of 21.6 seconds, while in the 400m event, he secured the top spot with a timing of 47.0 seconds, defeating top competitors from across the continent.
• His performance at the 1958 Asian Games served as a precursor to his success at the Commonwealth Games later that same year, where he became a household name.

 Additional Information

• Milkha Singh’s Sporting Career and Legacy:
• Commonwealth Games: In 1958, he won the gold medal in the 440-yard race at the Cardiff Commonwealth Games, making him the first athlete from independent India to win an individual gold at the event.
• 1962 Asian Games: Singh continued his winning streak at the Jakarta Asian Games, securing gold medals in both the 400-meter race and the 4×400-meter relay.
• Rome Olympics 1960: He is famously remembered for his fourth-place finish in the 400m final, where he missed the bronze medal by 0.1 seconds but set a national record of 45.73 seconds that stood for decades.
• The Flying Sikh: This legendary nickname was bestowed upon him by General Ayub Khan of Pakistan in 1960 after he defeated Abdul Khaliq in a highly publicized race in Lahore.
• Honors: For his monumental contributions to Indian sports, he was awarded the Padma Shri, India’s fourth-highest civilian award, in 1959.
• Autobiography: His life journey, including his struggle during the Partition, is detailed in his book titled 'The Race of My Life'.

Shortcut Trick

Solve brackets first: 37 + 19 = 56.

Multiply: 56 × 2 = 112.

Group all positive and negative numbers: (66 + 28 + 112) − (33 + 49).

Combine: 206 − 82 = 124.

∴ The correct answer is 124.

Alternate Method

Given: 66 + 28 − 33 + (37 + 19) × 2 − 49

To solve this expression, we apply the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction) in sequence.

⇒ 66 + 28 − 33 + (56) × 2 − 49

⇒ 66 + 28 − 33 + 112 − 49

⇒ 94 − 33 + 112 − 49

⇒ 61 + 112 − 49

⇒ 173 − 49

⇒ 124

∴ The correct answer is 124.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It is a standard rule to solve mathematical expressions. Operations must follow the order: Brackets (), Orders (powers/roots), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Signs for Operations

When adding or subtracting, always group terms with the same sign together to minimize errors. For example, a − b + c − d can be solved as (a + c) − (b + d).

Shortcut Trick

Follow BODMAS: Solve Bracket (29 ÷ 1 = 29) and Multiplication (24 × 1 = 24).

Expression simplifies to: 73 + 24 + 29 − 17 + 46 − 26.

Group positive and negative terms: (73 + 24 + 29 + 46) − (17 + 26).

Result: 172 − 43 = 129.

∴ The correct answer is 129.

Alternate Method

Given expression: 73 + 24 × 1 + (29 ÷ 1) − 17 + 46 − 26

Step-by-step calculation using BODMAS (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):

⇒ 73 + 24 × 1 + 29 − 17 + 46 − 26 (Solving Bracket)

⇒ 73 + 24 + 29 − 17 + 46 − 26 (Solving Multiplication)

⇒ 97 + 29 − 17 + 46 − 26 (Solving Addition)

⇒ 126 − 17 + 46 − 26

⇒ 109 + 46 − 26

⇒ 155 − 26 (Solving Subtraction)

⇒ 129

∴ The correct answer is 129.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

The rule defines the correct order of operations: Brackets (), Orders (powers/roots), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Identity Property

The Multiplicative Identity states that any number multiplied by 1 remains the same (a × 1 = a). Similarly, any number divided by 1 remains unchanged.

Grouping Terms

For faster calculation, all positive values can be summed together and all negative values can be summed together before performing the final subtraction.

Shortcut Trick

To find the next time bells ring together, calculate the LCM of the given intervals: 18, 24, and 32.

LCM(18, 24, 32) = 288 minutes.

Convert 288 minutes into hours: 288 ÷ 60 = 4 hours 48 minutes.

Add this duration to the starting time: 3:00 PM + 4:48 = 7:48 PM.

∴ The correct answer is 7:48 PM.

Alternate Method

Given:

Start time = 3:00 PM

Intervals = 18 minutes, 24 minutes, and 32 minutes.

Find the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the three intervals using prime factorization:

⇒ 18 = 2 × 3²

⇒ 24 = 2³ × 3

⇒ 32 = 2⁵

⇒ LCM = Highest power of each prime factor = 2⁵ × 3²

⇒ LCM = 32 × 9 = 288 minutes.

Now, convert the total minutes into hours and minutes:

⇒ Hours = 288 ÷ 60 = 4 hours and 48 minutes.

Add this duration to the initial time (3:00 PM):

⇒ 3:00 PM + 4 hours = 7:00 PM

⇒ 7:00 PM + 48 minutes = 7:48 PM.

∴ The correct answer is 7:48 PM.

Additional Information

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The smallest positive integer that is divisible by each of the given numbers. It is used to find recurring meeting points for items with different cycle lengths.

Highest Common Factor (HCF)

The greatest number that divides two or more numbers without a remainder. It is useful for finding the largest possible size of a container or length that fits exactly.

Time Conversion Rules

1 hour = 60 minutes. To convert minutes to hours, divide by 60; the quotient is hours and the remainder is minutes.

Shortcut Trick

To find when both buses meet for the first time, calculate the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of their return intervals.

LCM of 48 and 72 ⇒ 24 × (2, 3) ⇒ 24 × 6 = 144 minutes.

Convert 144 minutes to hours: 144 ÷ 60 = 2 hours and 24 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 2 hr 24 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Return interval of Bus A = 48 minutes

Return interval of Bus B = 72 minutes

Calculation:

⇒ Prime factors of 48 = 2⁴ × 3

⇒ Prime factors of 72 = 2³ × 3²

⇒ LCM (48, 72) = 2⁴ × 3²

⇒ LCM = 16 × 9 = 144 minutes

⇒ Total time in hours = 144 ÷ 60

⇒ Total time = 2 hours + (144 − 120) minutes = 2 hours 24 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 2 hr 24 min.

Additional Information

LCM Concept

The Least Common Multiple (LCM) is the smallest integer that is a multiple of two or more numbers. It is used to find the first instance of coincidence for periodic events.

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two positive integers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Common Applications

LCM is frequently applied in problems involving ringing bells, flashing traffic lights, or runners meeting on a circular track.

Shortcut Trick

For fractions with the same difference between numerator and denominator (gap = 1), the one with larger digits is greater: 11/12 > 7/8 > 5/6.

Compare the largest from this group (11/12) with the remaining fraction (17/20) using cross-multiplication.

11 × 20 = 220 and 12 × 17 = 204.

Since 220 > 204, 11/12 is the largest fraction among all given options.

∴ The correct answer is 11/12.

Alternate Method

Given: Fractions 5/6, 7/8, 11/12, and 17/20.

Method: To compare fractions, convert them to a common denominator using the LCM of (6, 8, 12, 20).

⇒ LCM of 6, 8, 12, and 20 is 120.

⇒ 5/6 = (5 × 20) / (6 × 20) = 100/120

⇒ 7/8 = (7 × 15) / (8 × 15) = 105/120

⇒ 11/12 = (11 × 10) / (12 × 10) = 110/120

⇒ 17/20 = (17 × 6) / (20 × 6) = 102/120

⇒ Comparing the numerators: 110 > 105 > 102 > 100.

⇒ Therefore, 110/120 is the largest value.

∴ The correct answer is 11/12.

Additional Information

Proper Fraction Comparison Rule

If the difference between the numerator and denominator is constant for multiple proper fractions, the fraction with the largest numbers is the largest.

Cross Multiplication Rule

To compare a/b and c/d, check (a × d) and (b × c). If a × d > b × c, then a c/d.

Decimal Conversion

Fractions can also be compared by dividing the numerator by the denominator to get decimal values (e.g., 5/6 ≈ 0.83, 7/8 = 0.875).

Shortcut Trick

Multiply the non-zero numbers: 3 × 4 = 12.

Count the total decimal places: 0.003 has 3 places and 0.04 has 2 places (Total = 5).

Place the decimal point 5 positions from the right of 12 (filling with zeros): 0.00012.

∴ The correct answer is 0.00012.

Alternate Method

Given:

First number = 0.003

Second number = 0.04

Method: Conversion to fractions.

⇒ 0.003 = 3 ÷ 1000

⇒ 0.04 = 4 ÷ 100

⇒ Product = (3 ÷ 1000) × (4 ÷ 100)

⇒ Product = (3 × 4) ÷ (1000 × 100)

⇒ Product = 12 ÷ 100000

⇒ Product = 0.00012

∴ The correct answer is 0.00012.

Additional Information

Multiplication of Decimals

The number of digits after the decimal in the product is equal to the sum of the number of digits after the decimal in each factor.

Powers of Ten

Multiplying a decimal by 10⁻ⁿ shifts the decimal point n places to the left (e.g., 12 × 10⁻⁵ = 0.00012).

Scientific Notation

The value 0.00012 can be expressed as 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ in standard scientific notation.

Shortcut Trick

To simplify a surd of the form √(A + 2√B), identify two numbers whose sum is A and product is B.

Here, A = 8 and B = 15. The numbers are 5 and 3 since 5 + 3 = 8 and 5 × 3 = 15.

The simplified square root is simply √5 + √3.

∴ The correct answer is √3 + √5.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: √(8 + 2√15)

Formula Used: (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab

⇒ 8 + 2√15 = (5 + 3) + 2√(5 × 3)

⇒ 8 + 2√15 = (√5)² + (√3)² + 2 × √5 × √3

⇒ 8 + 2√15 = (√5 + √3)²

⇒ √(8 + 2√15) = √(√5 + √3)²

⇒ √5 + √3

∴ The correct answer is √3 + √5.

Additional Information

Square Root of Surds

For any expression in the form √(x ± 2√y), if x = a + b and y = ab, then the simplified value is √a ± √b.

Perfect Square Identity

This method relies on the algebraic identity (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b², which allows us to convert the radicand into a perfect square.

Conjugate Surds

The conjugate of a surd √a + √b is √a − √b. Their product is always a rational number (a − b).

Shortcut Trick

Use the algebraic identity: (a + b)² − 4ab = (a − b)².

Let a = 42 and b = 31.

The expression simplifies to √((42 − 31)²) = 42 − 31.

Result = 11.

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Alternate Method

Given expression: √((42 + 31)² − 4 × 42 × 31)

Method: Step-by-step simplification using arithmetic operations.

⇒ √((73)² − 4 × 42 × 31)

⇒ √(5329 − 168 × 31)

⇒ √(5329 − 5208)

⇒ √121

⇒ 11

∴ The correct answer is 11.

Additional Information

Important Algebraic Identities

(a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab and (a − b)² = a² + b² − 2ab. The relationship (a + b)² − (a − b)² = 4ab is frequently used in simplification.

Perfect Squares and Square Roots

Memorizing squares up to 30 (e.g., 11² = 121, 12² = 144) significantly reduces calculation time in quantitative aptitude exams.

Shortcut Trick

Direct formula: Perimeter = 4 × √Area

Given Area = 49 cm²

⇒ Perimeter = 4 × √49

⇒ Perimeter = 4 × 7 = 28 cm

∴ The correct answer is 28 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of the square = 49 cm²

Formula Used:

1. Area of a square = (side)²
2. Perimeter of a square = 4 × side

Calculations:

Let the side of the square be 'a' cm.

⇒ a² = 49

⇒ a = √49

⇒ a = 7 cm

Now, calculate the Perimeter:

⇒ Perimeter = 4 × a

⇒ Perimeter = 4 × 7

⇒ Perimeter = 28 cm

∴ The correct answer is 28 cm.

Additional Information

Diagonal of a Square

The length of the diagonal of a square with side 'a' is given by d = a√2.

Area in terms of Diagonal

The Area of a square can also be calculated as Area = (diagonal²) ÷ 2.

Incircle and Circumcircle

Radius of incircle = a/2 and Radius of circumcircle = a/√2.

Shortcut Trick

The side of a square is the square root of its area.

Side = √121 = 11 cm

∴ The correct answer is 11 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of the square = 121 cm²

Formula Used:

Area of a square = (side)²

Calculations:

⇒ 121 = (side)²

⇒ side = √121

⇒ side = 11 cm

∴ The correct answer is 11 cm.

Additional Information

Perimeter of a Square

The total boundary length or perimeter is calculated as 4 × side.

Diagonal of a Square

The diagonal of a square with side 's' is given by the formula s × √2.

Area using Diagonal

If the diagonal 'd' is given, the area can also be found using (d²) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the Pythagorean triple corresponding to a diagonal of 13 cm: (5, 12, 13).

Verify the Area: 12 cm × 5 cm = 60 cm² (Matches the given Area).

Calculate the Perimeter: 2 × (Length + Width) = 2 × (12 + 5) = 2 × 17 = 34 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 34 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Area (l × w) = 60 cm² and Diagonal (√(l² + w²)) = 13 cm.

Formula Used: (l + w)² = l² + w² + 2lw; Perimeter = 2(l + w).

⇒ l² + w² = 13² = 169 (From Diagonal squared)

⇒ 2 × (l × w) = 2 × 60 = 120 (Twice the Area)

⇒ (l + w)² = (l² + w²) + 2lw = 169 + 120 = 289

⇒ l + w = √289 = 17 cm

⇒ Perimeter = 2 × (l + w) = 2 × 17 = 34 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 34 cm.

Additional Information

Pythagorean Triples

Standard sets of integers that satisfy a² + b² = c², such as (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), and (8, 15, 17), are frequent in geometry and rectangle problems.

Relationship between Diagonal and Perimeter

The square of the sum of sides (l + w)² is equal to the square of the diagonal (d²) plus twice the area (2A), which helps find the perimeter directly.

Algebraic Identities in Mensuration

The identities (l + w)² = l² + w² + 2lw and (l − w)² = l² + w² − 2lw are critical for solving problems involving rectangles and their dimensions.

Shortcut Trick

The sum of the cubes of first n natural numbers is given by the formula [n(n+1)/2]².

For n = 25, the sum is [25 × (25 + 1) / 2]².

Sum = [25 × 13]² = 325².

Shortcut for 325²: 32 × 33 = 1056, then suffix 25 → 105625.

∴ The correct answer is 105625.

Alternate Method

Given:

Series = 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ... + 25³

Total number of terms (n) = 25

Formula Used:

Sum of cubes of first n natural numbers (S_n) = [n(n + 1) / 2]²

Calculations:

⇒ S₂₅ = [25 × (25 + 1) / 2]²

⇒ S₂₅ = [25 × 26 / 2]²

⇒ S₂₅ = [25 × 13]²

⇒ S₂₅ = 325²

⇒ S₂₅ = 325 × 325

⇒ S₂₅ = 105625

∴ The correct answer is 105625.

Additional Information

Sum of first n natural numbers

The sum of the first n natural numbers (1 + 2 + ... + n) is given by the formula S_n = n(n + 1) / 2.

Sum of squares of first n natural numbers

The sum of the squares (1² + 2² + ... + n²) is given by the formula S_n = n(n + 1)(2n + 1) / 6.

Relation between sum of numbers and sum of cubes

The sum of the cubes of the first n natural numbers is always the square of the sum of the first n natural numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Initial Total Age = 16 × 22 = 352 years

Net Change in age = 34 (joined) − 20 (left) − 21 (left) = −7 years

New Total Age = 352 − 7 = 345 years

New Total Boys = 16 − 2 + 1 = 15 boys

New Average Age = 345 ÷ 15 = 23 years

∴ The correct answer is 23 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial count = 16, Initial Average = 22 years, Ages of boys leaving = 20 and 21 years, Age of boy joining = 34 years.

Formula: Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Total number of observations

⇒ Total initial age = 16 × 22 = 352 years

⇒ Age of boys who left = 20 + 21 = 41 years

⇒ Remaining total age = 352 − 41 = 311 years

⇒ Final total age = 311 + 34 = 345 years

⇒ Final number of boys = 16 − 2 + 1 = 15

⇒ New average age = 345 ÷ 15 = 23 years

∴ The correct answer is 23 years.

Additional Information

Definition of Average

The average (Arithmetic Mean) is the central value of a set of numbers, calculated as Sum ÷ Count.

Effect of Inclusion/Exclusion

When a person leaves, Sum_new = Sum_old − Age_left. When a person joins, Sum_new = Sum_old + Age_joined.

Net Deviation Method

New Average = Old Average + (Net Change in Sum ÷ New Count). In this case: 22 + (−7 ÷ 15) would apply only if the count stayed the same, but here the count changes to 15.

Shortcut Trick

Assume initial Cost Price (CP) = 100 ⇒ initial Selling Price (SP) = 140.

New CP = 100 + 25% = 125.

New SP at 20% profit = 125 × 1.2 = 150.

The value of y is the percentage increase in SP: [(150 − 140) ÷ 140] × 100 = 7.14.

∴ The correct answer is 7.14.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Profit% = 40%, CP increase = 25%, New Profit% = 20%.

Formula: Selling Price (SP) = CP × (1 + Profit/100).

⇒ Let Initial Cost Price (CP₁) = 100.

⇒ Initial Selling Price (SP₁) = 100 × (1 + 40/100) = 140.

⇒ New Cost Price (CP₂) = 100 × (1 + 25/100) = 125.

⇒ New Selling Price (SP₂) = 125 × (1 + 20/100) = 125 × 1.2 = 150.

⇒ Increase in SP = SP₂ − SP₁ = 150 − 140 = 10.

⇒ y = (Increase / Original SP) × 100 = (10 / 140) × 100.

⇒ y = 100 ÷ 14 ≈ 7.14.

∴ The correct answer is 7.14.

Additional Information

Profit Percentage Formula

Profit% is always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise. Formula: [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Percentage Change in Variables

When multiple variables (CP and Profit%) change, the new Selling Price is found by applying the new profit percentage to the updated base CP.

Successive Percentage

The effective change in SP depends on the base shift of CP and the change in the profit margin. Use the unitary method for faster comparisons.

Shortcut Trick

If Cost Price (CP) of x items = Selling Price (SP) of y items, then the ratio CP/SP = y/x.

Here, x = 35 and y = 40 ⇒ CP/SP = 40/35 = 8/7.

Let CP = 8 units and SP = 7 units.

Loss = CP − SP = 8 − 7 = 1 unit.

Required Ratio = Loss : SP = 1 : 7.

∴ The correct answer is 1:7.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total Cost Price of 35 articles = ₹208

Total Selling Price of 40 articles = ₹208

Formula Used:

Loss = CP − SP

Ratio = (Loss per article) : (SP per article)

Calculations:

⇒ CP of 1 article (CP₁) = 208 ÷ 35

⇒ SP of 1 article (SP₁) = 208 ÷ 40

⇒ Since CP₁ > SP₁, it is a Loss.

⇒ Loss per article = CP₁ − SP₁ = (208 ÷ 35) − (208 ÷ 40)

⇒ Ratio = (CP₁ − SP₁) ÷ SP₁

⇒ Ratio = (CP₁ ÷ SP₁) − 1

⇒ Ratio = [(208 ÷ 35) ÷ (208 ÷ 40)] − 1

⇒ Ratio = (40 ÷ 35) − 1 = (8 ÷ 7) − 1

⇒ Ratio = 1 ÷ 7 = 1 : 7

∴ The correct answer is 1:7.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit occurs when SP > CP (Profit = SP − CP). Loss occurs when CP > SP (Loss = CP − SP).

The CP and SP Relation

When the total value of CP for x items equals the total value of SP for y items, the per-unit price ratio is inversely proportional to the quantities: CP₁/SP₁ = y/x.

Percentage Loss/Profit

Percentage is always calculated on the Cost Price: Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

The ratio of the numbers is the inverse of their percentage coefficients.

Smaller number : Larger number = 10% : 25% = 2 : 5

Total units = 2 + 5 = 7 units

7 units = 2380 ⇒ 1 unit = 340

Larger number = 5 units = 5 × 340 = 1700

∴ The correct answer is 1700.

Alternate Method

Given:

25 percent of the smaller number = 10 percent of the larger number

Sum of both numbers = 2380

Formula Used:

Percentage Calculation: (x/100) × Number₁ = (y/100) × Number₂

Let the smaller number be S and the larger number be L.

⇒ 25% × S = 10% × L

⇒ (25/100) × S = (10/100) × L

⇒ 25S = 10L

⇒ S/L = 10/25

⇒ S/L = 2/5

⇒ S : L = 2 : 5

⇒ Sum of ratio = 2 + 5 = 7 units

⇒ 7 units = 2380

⇒ 1 unit = 2380 ÷ 7 = 340

⇒ Larger number (5 units) = 5 × 340

⇒ Larger number = 1700

∴ The correct answer is 1700.

Additional Information

Inverse Proportion Rule

When a percentage of one number equals a percentage of another (A% of x = B% of y), the numbers are in the ratio of the coefficients in reverse order (x : y = B : A).

Ratio and Summation

To find a specific part from a total sum given a ratio a : b, the formula is: Part = [Ratio value ÷ (a + b)] × Total Sum.

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

Simplifying percentages into fractions (e.g., 25% = 1/4 and 10% = 1/10) can often speed up calculation steps in linear equations.

Shortcut Trick

Combined efficiency of M and N = (1/45) + (1/90) = 3/90 = 1/30 work per day.

Work done in 10 days = 10 × (1/30) = 1/3 of the total work.

Work percentage = (1/3) × 100 = 33.33%.

∴ The correct answer is 33.33%.

Alternate Method

Given that M completes work in 45 days and N completes it in 90 days.

⇒ Total efficiency of (M + N) = 2 + 1 = 3 units/day.

⇒ Work completed in 10 days = 3 units/day × 10 days = 30 units.

⇒ Percent of work completed = (Work Done ÷ Total Work) × 100

⇒ Percent of work completed = (30 ÷ 90) × 100

⇒ Percent of work completed = (1 ÷ 3) × 100 = 33.33%.

∴ The correct answer is 33.33%.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a work. Efficiency = 1 ÷ Time.

Combined Work Formula

If A takes 'x' days and B takes 'y' days, together they take (x × y) ÷ (x + y) days to finish the work.

Remaining Work

Remaining Work = 1 − (Work Completed). In percentage, it is 100% − (Percentage of work completed).

Shortcut Trick

Use the option substitution method in the time equation: 90/(u − 5) + 90/(u + 5) = 24.

Test u = 10 km/hr from the options.

Time = (90/5) + (90/15) ⇒ 18 + 6 = 24 hours.

The total time matches the given 24 hours perfectly.

∴ The correct answer is 10 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of stream (v) = 5 km/hr

Total distance (one way) = 90 km

Total time taken = 24 hr

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Upstream Speed = (u − v) | Downstream Speed = (u + v)

Calculations:

⇒ 90/(u − 5) + 90/(u + 5) = 24

⇒ 15/(u − 5) + 15/(u + 5) = 4 (Dividing by 6)

⇒ 15 × [(u + 5 + u − 5) / (u² − 25)] = 4

⇒ 15 × (2u) = 4(u² − 25)

⇒ 30u = 4u² − 100

⇒ 4u² − 30u − 100 = 0

⇒ 2u² − 15u − 50 = 0

⇒ 2u² − 20u + 5u − 50 = 0

⇒ 2u(u − 10) + 5(u − 10) = 0

⇒ (2u + 5)(u − 10) = 0

⇒ u = 10 (as speed cannot be negative)

∴ The correct answer is 10 km/hr.

Additional Information

Downstream Speed (D)

It is the net speed when a boat travels in the direction of the stream: D = u + v.

Upstream Speed (U)

It is the net speed when a boat travels against the direction of the stream: U = u − v.

Speed in Still Water (u)

The speed of the boat without the stream factor: u = (D + U) ÷ 2.

Speed of Stream (v)

The rate at which the water flows: v = (D − U) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

Let the Marked Price (MP) of the article be 15 units.

Selling Price (SP) = (13/15) × 15 = 13 units.

Given Profit is 30%, it means SP = 130% of Cost Price (CP).

⇒ 130% of CP = 13 units ⇒ 100% of CP = (13 ÷ 130) × 100 = 10 units.

Required Ratio (MP : CP) = 15 : 10 = 3 : 2.

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 2.

Alternate Method

Given: Selling Price (SP) = 13/15 of Marked Price (MP) and Profit = 30%.

Formula Used: SP = CP × (1 + Profit%)

⇒ Let CP be the Cost Price and MP be the Marked Price.

⇒ SP = (13/15) × MP

⇒ SP = CP × (1 + 30/100) = 1.3 × CP

⇒ (13/15) × MP = 1.3 × CP

⇒ (13/15) × MP = (13/10) × CP

⇒ MP ÷ CP = (13/10) × (15/13)

⇒ MP ÷ CP = 15/10 = 3/2

∴ The correct answer is 3 : 2.

Additional Information

Direct Relation between MP and CP

The ratio of Marked Price to Cost Price can be directly found using the formula: MP ÷ CP = (100 + Profit%) ÷ (100 − Discount%).

Markup Percentage

Markup % = [(MP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100. It represents how much the Marked Price is above the Cost Price.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the Equivalent Discount = [a + b − (ab/100)]%.

Shortcut Trick

Use the direct ratio formula: CP/MP = (100 − Discount%)/(100 + Profit%)

CP/2000 = (100 − 10)/(100 + 60)

CP/2000 = 90/160 = 9/16

CP = (9/16) × 2000 = 9 × 125 = 1125

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1125.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 2000

Discount = 10%

Profit = 60%

Calculations:

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount

⇒ SP = 2000 − (10% of 2000)

⇒ SP = 2000 − 200 = Rs. 1800

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = SP × 100/(100 + Profit%)

⇒ CP = 1800 × 100/(100 + 60)

⇒ CP = 1800 × 100/160

⇒ CP = 1800 × 5/8

⇒ CP = 225 × 5 = Rs. 1125

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1125.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP and MP

The ratio of Cost Price to Marked Price is always CP/MP = (100 − D%)/(100 + P%), where D is discount and P is profit.

Markup Percentage

Markup % = (MP − CP)/CP × 100. It represents how much the price is increased above the cost price.

Successive Discounts

Two successive discounts of d₁% and d₂% are equivalent to a single discount of [d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100]%.

The correct answer is 'send'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the impact of social media on human communication.
• The sentence explains how easy it has become to share content with others instantly.
• The word 'send' is the most appropriate verb as it means to transmit messages, photos, or videos to a recipient.
• Other options like 'delete' (to erase), 'hide' (to conceal), and 'move' (to change position) do not fit the context of facilitating instant communication between users.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: Social media has changed the way people communicate. With just a few clicks, users can 1. send messages, photos, and videos instantly. While it has made staying in touch more convenient, it has also raised concerns about 2. privacy and mental health. Many people spend hr scrolling through feeds, sometimes feeling isolated or (3) ___ by others' posts. It's important to use social media (4) ___ and take breaks when needed. Setting limits can help maintain a healthy (5) ___ between online and offline life.

Additional Information

• Delete: To remove or erase data from a device or application.
• Hide: To put or keep out of sight.
• Move: To go in a specified direction or manner; or to change the place of something.

The correct answer is 'privacy'.

Key Points

• The sentence discusses the potential drawbacks or negative aspects of using social media.
• The context connects this blank with mental health as two major areas of concern in the digital age.
• 'Privacy' refers to the protection of personal information and data from unauthorized access or public scrutiny. In the context of social media, privacy concerns are a primary and widely discussed issue alongside mental health.
• Other options like 'safety' are relevant but 'privacy' is the most specific and common partner to 'mental health' when discussing platform-level concerns. 'Distance' and 'addiction' (though relevant) do not fit as perfectly in this specific phrasing.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: Social media has changed the way people communicate. With just a few clicks, users can 1. send messages, photos, and videos instantly. While it has made staying in touch more convenient, it has also raised concerns about 2. privacy and mental health. Many people spend hr scrolling through feeds, sometimes feeling isolated or (3) ___ by others' posts. It's important to use social media (4) ___ and take breaks when needed. Setting limits can help maintain a healthy (5) ___ between online and offline life.

Additional Information

• Privacy: The state of being free from being observed or disturbed by other people.
• Safety: The condition of being protected from or unlikely to cause danger, risk, or injury.
• Distance: An amount of space between two things or people.
• Addiction: The fact or condition of being addicted to a particular substance, thing, or activity.

The correct answer is 'depressed'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the impact of social media on mental health and communication.
• The sentence mentions that users sometimes feel isolated or a negative emotion due to others' posts.
• 'Depressed' is the most appropriate word here as it describes a state of low mood or sadness often linked to social comparison and the feeling of inadequacy when looking at others' lives online.
• It aligns with the negative context of feeling isolated mentioned in the same sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage: Social media has changed the way people communicate. With just a few clicks, users can (1) ___ messages, photos, and videos instantly. While it has made staying in touch more convenient, it has also raised concerns about (2) ___ and mental health. Many people spend hr scrolling through feeds, sometimes feeling isolated or 3. depressed by others' posts. It's important to use social media 4. wisely and take breaks when needed. Setting limits can help maintain a healthy 5. balance between online and offline life.

Additional Information

• Ignored: To be disregarded or not paid attention to; while social media can make one feel ignored, 'depressed' more broadly covers the mental health concern mentioned.
• Inspired: To be filled with the urge or ability to do or feel something; this is a positive emotion and contradicts the negative context of 'isolated'.
• Cheated: To be deceived or tricked; this does not fit the context of emotional response to viewing others' social media feeds.

The correct answer is 'wisely'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the impact of social media on communication and its potential influence on mental health.
• The blank requires an adverb to describe how individuals should manage their use of digital platforms to avoid negative outcomes like isolation.
• 'Wisely' is the most suitable choice as it suggests using social media with judgment, discretion, and purpose, aligning with the recommendation to 'take breaks'.
• Other options such as 'rarely', 'quickly', and 'easily' do not fit the context of promoting a healthy and balanced lifestyle in the digital age.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: Social media has changed the way people communicate. With just a few clicks, users can (1) ___ messages, photos, and videos instantly. While it has made staying in touch more convenient, it has also raised concerns about (2) ___ and mental health. Many people spend hr scrolling through feeds, sometimes feeling isolated or (3) depressed by others' posts. It's important to use social media (4) wisely and take breaks when needed. Setting limits can help maintain a healthy (5) balance between online and offline life.

Additional Information

• Wisely: In a way that shows experience, knowledge, and good judgment.
• Rarely: Not often; seldom.
• Quickly: At a fast speed; rapidly.
• Easily: Without difficulty or effort.

The correct answer is 'balance'.

Key Points

• The sentence discusses the importance of managing the relationship between online and offline life to ensure well-being.
• The term 'balance' refers to a state where different things are occur in the correct proportions or are managed with equal importance.
• In the context of social media usage, maintaining a 'healthy balance' is a common and appropriate expression to describe not letting digital life overshadow real-world interactions.
• Other options like 'routine', 'boundary', and 'contrast' do not specifically denote the equilibrium required between two competing aspects of daily life.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: Social media has changed the way people communicate. With just a few clicks, users can (1)_____ messages, photos, and videos instantly. While it has made staying in touch more convenient, it has also raised concerns about (2)_____ and mental health. Many people spend hr scrolling through feeds, sometimes feeling isolated or 3. depressed by others' posts. It's important to use social media 4. wisely and take breaks when needed. Setting limits can help maintain a healthy 5. balance between online and offline life.

Additional Information

• Routine: A sequence of actions regularly followed; a fixed program.
• Boundary: A line which marks the limits of an area; a dividing line or limit.
• Contrast: The state of being strikingly different from something else in juxtaposition or close association.

The correct answer is 'turned the corner'.

 

Key Points

• The idiom 'turn the corner' means to pass the most critical point in an illness or a difficult situation and begin to improve.
• In the given sentence, the person was suffering from cancer, but the surgery helped him move past the dangerous stage and start recovering.
• The other phrases like 'turned the angle', 'turned the key', and 'turned the wood' do not function as appropriate idioms for recovery from an illness.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: He was suffering from incurable cancer, but finally after surgery, he has finally turned the corner.

Additional Information

• Turned the key: This is a literal phrase meaning to lock or unlock something using a key, or to start an engine.
• The phrases 'turned the angle' and 'turned the wood' are not standard English idioms and do not fit the context of medical recovery.

The correct answer is 'by'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase made famous by is a common construction used to indicate the agent, instrument, or the specific cause that resulted in someone achieving fame.
• In the given sentence, the romantic roles are the means or the source of agency through which Shahrukh became well-known.
• While famous for is often used to describe a quality or characteristic, made famous by highlights the process or the external factor that created the fame.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "Shahrukh was made famous by his romantic roles in films."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'for' is generally used in the phrase famous for (e.g., He is famous for his acting), but made famous by is preferred when emphasizing the roles as the agent of change.
• Option 2: 'in' would indicate the location or field (e.g., famous in the industry), but it does not link the roles as the cause of fame in this structure.
• Option 3: 'about' is grammatically incorrect in this context as it does not express cause or agency.

The correct answer is Refined.

Key Points

• The word 'Sophisticated' refers to having, revealing, or involving a great deal of worldly experience and knowledge of fashion and culture; it also describes something complex or advanced. (परिष्कृत)
• Example: She gave a sophisticated performance that impressed all the critics.
• 'Refined' means showing elegant and cultured manners, appearance, or taste; it is the closest synonym because both words imply a high level of culture and taste. (शिष्ट)
• Example: His refined manners made him stand out in the formal gathering.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym of 'sophisticated' is 'refined'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Refined.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Simple (साधारण): Something that is plain, basic, or uncomplicated in form, nature, or design.
• Example: The simple design of the building was surprisingly beautiful.
• Naive (अनुभवहीन): Showing a lack of experience, wisdom, or judgment; being overly innocent.
• Example: It was naive of her to think the project would be finished in a single day.
• Uncultured (असभ्य): Lacking in education, good taste, or refinement.
• Example: His uncultured remarks at the art gallery offended many guests.

The correct answer is: Grab.

Key Points

• The word 'seize' refers to the act of taking hold of something or someone suddenly and by force. (पकड़ना / जब्त करना)
• Example: The police were able to seize the illegal weapons during the surprise inspection.
• 'Grab' means to grasp or take hold of something roughly, quickly, or suddenly, which is the closest in meaning to 'seize'. (झपट लेना / पकड़ना)
• Example: He had to grab the railing to prevent himself from slipping on the icy stairs.
• Hence, we can infer that the closest synonym of 'seize' is 'grab'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Grab.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Release (मुक्त करना / छोड़ना): To allow someone or something to move, fly, or fall freely.
• Example: The wildlife experts decided to release the eagle once its wing had fully healed.
• Avoid (बचना / टालना): To stay away from someone or something, or to prevent something from happening.
• Example: You should avoid walking alone in the dark to ensure your safety.
• Drop (गिराना / छोड़ना): To let something fall vertically, either accidentally or on purpose.
• Example: Be careful not to drop that box as it contains very fragile items.

The correct answer is prudence.

Key Points

• The word prudance in the sentence is incorrectly spelled. The standard English spelling is prudence, which utilizes the -ence suffix. This suffix is commonly found in nouns derived from Latin roots such as prudentia, meaning foresight or sagacity.
• Prudence is defined as the ability to govern and discipline oneself through the use of reason and caution. In the context of governance and public administration, it signifies exercising discretion and wisdom in managing public resources.
• In the field of macroeconomics, the term fiscal prudence refers to the practice of maintaining a sustainable budget and managing national debt responsibly. In India, the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 was established to enforce such discipline and ensure long-term economic stability.
• The error prudance is a frequent orthographic mistake caused by the unstressed schwa sound in the final syllable, leading to confusion between -ance and -ence. Hence, prudence is the correctly identified misspelt word from the provided sentence.

 Additional Information

• The other underlined terms are central to economic policy and financial communication:
• Stressed: This verb means to give particular emphasis or importance to a point. In monetary policy statements, Central Banks like the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) or the Federal Reserve use such language to signal policy stances to investors.
• Fiscal: Relating to government revenue, particularly taxes and expenditure. While monetary policy controls money supply and interest rates, fiscal policy involves budgetary decisions made by the government.
• Currency: A medium of exchange for goods and services. A stable national currency is a key indicator of a healthy economy, as it prevents hyperinflation and encourages foreign direct investment (FDI).

The correct answer is Option(4) i.e. Exclude.

Key Points

• The word 'include' refers to the act of making something or someone part of a larger group, set, or total. (शामिल करना)
• Example: The membership fee does include access to the gym and the swimming pool.
• 'Exclude' means to deliberately keep someone or something out of a place, group, or privilege; it is the direct opposite of including. (निकाल देना/वर्जित करना)
• Example: It is unfair to exclude certain students from the competition based on their age.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'include' is 'exclude'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Exclude.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Add (जोड़ना): To put something with another thing to increase the total number, amount, size, or quality.
• Example: You need to add more details to your report to make it clear.
• Contain (होना/रखना): To have something within; to hold or be made up of certain components.
• Example: These vegetables contain many essential vitamins and minerals.
• Accept (स्वीकार करना): To agree to receive something or to agree to a proposal or request.
• Example: I am happy to accept your invitation to the wedding.

The correct answer is A huge profit has been reported by the company this year..

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Active Voice and follows the Present Perfect Tense structure: Subject (The company) + has + V3 (reported) + Object (a huge profit).
• To convert a Present Perfect sentence into Passive Voice, the structure must be: New Subject (the original object) + has/have + been + V3 (past participle) + by + New Object (the original subject).
• The Object of the active sentence, 'A huge profit', becomes the Subject in the passive sentence. Because it is singular, the auxiliary verb 'has' is retained.
• The word 'been' is mandatory in the passive form of all Perfect Tenses to indicate the state of completion while shifting the focus to the object.
• The past participle form of the verb 'reported' is used, followed by the preposition 'by' and the agent (the company).
• The temporal adverbial phrase 'this year' remains unchanged as the conversion from active to passive voice does not require a change in time references, unlike Indirect Speech.

 Additional Information

• Distinguishing between incorrect structures:
• Past Perfect Passive: Option 1 uses 'had been', which is the Past Perfect form. This is incorrect because the original sentence is in the present timeline.
• Simple Past Passive: Option 2 uses 'was reported' and changes the time phrase to 'that year'. This incorrectly shifts the tense and follows Narration (Direct/Indirect) rules instead of Voice rules.
• Grammatical Incompleteness: Option 3 omits the word 'been'. Without 'been', the sentence 'has reported' remains in the active voice but lacks a proper logical subject-object relationship.
• Subject-Verb Agreement: In passive voice, the auxiliary verb (has/have) must agree with the new subject. If the object were plural (e.g., profits), the verb would change to 'have been reported'.

The correct answer is The police had recovered the stolen jewellery before the case went to trial..

Key Points

• The original sentence is in the Passive Voice and utilizes the Past Perfect Tense. The passive structure for this tense is: Object + had + been + V3 (Past Participle) + by + Subject.
• To convert a sentence from Passive Voice to Active Voice, the agent (the doer of the action) becomes the grammatical subject, and the receiver of the action becomes the direct object.
• In the provided sentence, the police is the agent, the stolen jewellery is the object being acted upon, and had been recovered is the verb phrase.
• The Active Voice structure for the Past Perfect Tense follows the formula: Subject + had + V3 (Past Participle) + Object. Applying this, had been recovered transforms into had recovered.
• The phrase before the case went to trial is a subordinate clause indicating the sequence of events; it remains unchanged during the voice conversion.
• Combining these elements results in the sentence: The police (Subject) + had recovered (Verb) + the stolen jewellery (Object) + before the case went to trial.

 Additional Information

• Different tenses used in the incorrect options include:
• Present Perfect Tense: Uses has/have + V3. It is used for actions that happened at an unspecified time or have relevance to the present.
• Past Continuous Tense: Uses was/were + V-ing. This tense describes an ongoing action that was happening at a specific point in the past.
• Simple Past Tense: Uses the V2 (second form) of the verb. It denotes an action that was completed in the past at a definite time.
• Voice Consistency: When transforming sentences, the tense must remain the same. Since the original used had been (Past Perfect), the active version must use had (Past Perfect).

The correct answer is 'of'.

 

Key Points

• The verb approve is typically followed by the preposition of when it means to have a favorable opinion or to think that someone or something is good or acceptable.
• In the given sentence, the phrase approve of is used to indicate that wise people do not find careless behaviour morally or logically acceptable.
• The construction approve of something is a fixed prepositional phrase in English grammar.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The wise will never approve of such type of careless behaviour.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: Off is used to indicate separation, disconnection, or moving away from a place.
• Option 2: about is used to mean concerning a particular subject, but it does not collocate with approve in this context.
• Option 4: with is used to indicate accompaniment, possession, or the instrument used for an action, which is incorrect here.

The correct answer is criticised for being excessively verbose.

Key Points

• The verb criticised (or criticized) is a transitive verb that requires the preposition for when followed by the reason or cause for the criticism.
• In English grammar, the standard idiomatic construction is criticise someone/something for doing something. Using the preposition to in this context is grammatically incorrect.
• The word verbose is an adjective used to describe a person or piece of writing that uses more words than are needed. It is the most appropriate term to describe a book that is being criticized for its length or repetitive nature.
• The original sentence contains a prepositional error by using to being instead of the correct gerund phrase for being.

 Additional Information

• Understanding the distinctions between similar-sounding words is crucial for sentence improvement:
• Verbose: This refers to wordiness or prolixity. It carries a negative connotation in literary criticism when a book is unnecessarily long.
• Verbal: This pertains to words in general or spoken rather than written communication. Saying a book is excessively verbal is semantically redundant as all books consist of words.
• Vocal: This describes someone who expresses their opinions freely and loudly. While a person can be vocal, a book itself cannot be described as excessively vocal in the context of being wordy.
• Prepositional Collocations: Certain verbs are strictly paired with specific prepositions. For example, one is accused of, punished for, or charged with. Mastering these collocations is essential for competitive exams.