SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 30 May, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is,

200 − 3 = 197

197 − 3 = 194

194 − 3 = 191

191 − 3 = 188

188 − 3 = 185

185 − 3 = 182

182 − 3 = 179

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Logic followed here is,

(−3 × 3) + 1 = −9 + 1 = −8

(−8 × 4) + 1 = −32 + 1 = −31

(−31 × 3) + 1 = −93 + 1 = −92

(−92 × 4) + 1 = −368 + 1 = −367

(−367 × 3) + 1 = −1101 + 1 = −1100

(−1100 × 4) + 1 = −4400 + 1 = −4399

(−4399 × 3) + 1 = −13197 + 1 = −13196

Missing term is -3.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

For 'LT' related to 'OG':

For 'ON' related to 'RM':

Applying the same logic to 'JZ':

Thus, JZ is related to MA.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

For the set '(VR, XW, ZB)':

For the set '(BW, DB, FG)':

Applying the same logic to the clusters in Option 1:

Thus, the set (UL, WQ, YV) follows the same logic as the given sets.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The given duration is from 8 July 2022 to 5 March 2023.

July 2022: Total days are 31. Days from 8 to 31 (inclusive) = 31 − 8 + 1 = 24 days

August 2022: Full month = 31 days

September 2022: Full month = 30 days

October 2022: Full month = 31 days

November 2022: Full month = 30 days

December 2022: Full month = 31 days

January 2023: Full month = 31 days

February 2023: 2023 is not a leap year, so February has 28 days

March 2023: Up to the 5^th (inclusive) = 5 days

Total number of days = 24 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 28 + 5

Total = (24 + 31) + (30 + 31) + (30 + 31) + (31 + 28) + 5

Total = 55 + 61 + 61 + 59 + 5

Total = 241 days

Hence, there are 241 days from 8 July 2022 to 5 March 2023.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given that there are 5 players B, C, D, E and F with different runs scored.

From the clues, we can deduce the following relationships:

1. D scored the minimum runs.

→ D is the lowest scorer.

2. B and C both scored more runs than F but less than E.

→ E > B > F and E > C > F

3. Combining the above with D being the minimum scorer, the final order from highest to lowest is:

→ E > B > C > F > D

(B and C can interchange their positions, but both remain between E and F.)

4. Players who scored less than E but more than F are:

→ B and C

Therefore, the number of players is 2.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

7 friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. F is the immediate neighbour of A, but is not to the immediate left of A.
2. G is not the immediate neighbour of F or C.
3. E is the immediate neighbour of A and D.

I. A and B are immediate neighbours of each other → Incorrect

II. D is sitting second to the right of B → Correct

Therefore, Only II statement is correct.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

DJP64 : GFU4 →

ASU125 : DOZ5 →

Similarly,

BKL216 : ? →

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Dictionary order of given words:

2. Disclaim
3. Disclose 
4. Discolour
5. Discomfit
6. Discomfort

Correct order is : 21345

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number − 53

For the first pair 2564 : 2511

⇒ 2564 − 53 = 2511.

For the second pair 72 : 19

⇒ 72 − 53 = 19.

Applying the same logic to the third pair

8941 : ?

⇒ 8941 − 53 = 8888.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: First Number = (Second Number × 3) − 9

For the first pair 2646 : 885

⇒ (885 × 3) − 9

⇒ 2655 − 9 = 2646.

Similarly, for the third pair 1578 : 529

⇒ (529 × 3) − 9

⇒ 1587 − 9 = 1578.

Applying the same logic to the second pair

? : 330

⇒ (330 × 3) − 9

⇒ 990 − 9 = 981.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

The pattern observed is: (Sum of positional values of letters) − 3.

TWO is coded as 55 →

Sum of positional values = 20 + 23 + 15 = 58

Code = 58 − 3 = 55

FIVE is coded as 39 →

Sum of positional values = 6 + 9 + 22 + 5 = 42

Code = 42 − 3 = 39

Similarly, let's find the code for GATE:

Sum of positional values = 7 + 1 + 20 + 5 = 33

Code = 33 − 3 = 30

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

The correct answer is Supreme Court.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India is recognized as the custodian and final interpreter of the Constitution. It possesses the ultimate authority to interpret constitutional provisions and ensure their sanctity is maintained.
• Under the power of Judicial Review, the court can examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders. If any law is found to be in violation of the Constitution, the Court has the power to declare it null and void under Article 13.
• The Supreme Court acts as the Guardian of Fundamental Rights. According to Article 32, citizens have the right to move the apex court directly for the enforcement of their rights through various writs such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, and Quo-Warranto.
• It preserves the federal equilibrium by resolving legal disputes between the Union Government and the States, or between two or more States, ensuring that each entity operates within its constitutional limits.
• Through the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court established the Basic Structure Doctrine, preventing the Parliament from amending the essential features that form the foundation of the Indian Constitution.

 Additional Information

• President:
• The President of India is the nominal head of the state. While the President takes an oath under Article 60 to protect and defend the Constitution, they do not have the judicial authority to interpret it or strike down laws.
• Parliament:
• The Parliament is the supreme legislative body. Under Article 368, it has the power to amend the Constitution, but these amendments are subject to the Supreme Court’s oversight to ensure they do not violate the basic structure.
• Prime Minister:
• The Prime Minister is the real executive head and leads the Council of Ministers. The PM is responsible for governance and policy implementation but lacks the constitutional role of being a 'custodian' or 'guardian' of the legal document.

The correct answer is 6 years or till 65 years of age.

Key Points

• The Election Commission of India (ECI) is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India at both the Union and State levels.
• Under the provisions of the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners hold office for a term of six years.
• There is an upper age limit of 65 years; if the individual reaches this age before completing the six-year term, they must vacate the office.
• The CEC is appointed by the President of India and occupies a position of significant constitutional importance to ensure free and fair elections.
• The Constitution of India, specifically Article 324, provides the framework for the appointment and powers of the commission to maintain its independence from executive interference.
• The CEC can only be removed from office through a process of impeachment by Parliament, which is identical to the removal process of a Judge of the Supreme Court.

 Additional Information

• Structure and Composition:
• The Election Commission originally functioned as a single-member body but was converted into a multi-member body consisting of one CEC and two Election Commissioners since October 1993.
• All commissioners have equal decision-making powers and receive salaries and allowances equivalent to those of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• Mandate:
• The commission manages elections for the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, Legislative Councils, and the offices of the President and Vice President.
• It does not handle Panchayat and Municipality elections, which are conducted by State Election Commissions.

The correct answer is Newton (N).

Key Points

• Weight is defined as the measure of the gravitational force acting on an object. Because weight is a type of force, it follows the same International System of Units (SI) as force.
• The mathematical relationship for weight is expressed by the formula $W = m \times g$, where m represents the mass of the object and g represents the acceleration due to gravity.
• The standard value of g on Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s², meaning weight varies depending on the gravitational field strength of a location (e.g., weight on the Moon is roughly 1/6^th of that on Earth).
• The Newton (N) is the derived unit of force in the SI system, named after the scientist Sir Isaac Newton to honor his contributions to classical mechanics.
• One Newton is defined as the amount of force required to accelerate a mass of 1 kilogram at a rate of 1 meter per second squared (1 N = 1 kg·m/s²).

 Additional Information

• Kilogram (kg):
• It is the SI base unit for mass, which measures the quantity of matter in an object.
• Unlike weight, mass is an intrinsic property and remains constant regardless of the object's location in the universe.
• Joule (J):
• It is the SI unit for energy, work, and heat.
• One Joule is defined as the work done when a force of one Newton moves an object through a distance of one meter in the direction of the force.
• Pascal (Pa):
• It is the SI unit of pressure and stress.
• One Pascal is equivalent to one Newton per square meter (1 N/m²), used to quantify internal mechanical stress or atmospheric pressure.

The correct answer is The Room on the Roof.

Key Points

• The Room on the Roof is the celebrated debut novel written by the prolific Indian author Ruskin Bond when he was merely 17 years old.
• The novel was first published in 1956 by Andre Deutsch and gained international recognition shortly after its release.
• In 1957, Ruskin Bond was awarded the John Llewellyn Rhys Prize, a prestigious British literary award given to a writer from the Commonwealth under the age of 30, making him one of its youngest recipients.
• The semi-autobiographical story is set in the scenic town of Dehra Dun and follows the life of Rusty, an orphaned Anglo-Indian boy struggling to find his identity and belonging.
• The book is celebrated for its evocative descriptions of the Himalayan foothills and its sensitive exploration of adolescent rebellion, friendship, and the transition into adulthood.

 Additional Information

• The Blue Umbrella:
• A popular novella published in 1980, centered on a young girl named Binya in a small village in Garhwal.
• It was adapted into a National Award-winning film by director Vishal Bhardwaj in 2005.
• A Flight of Pigeons:
• A historical novella published in 1978, set during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
• The story depicts the experiences of an English family in Shahjahanpur and was adapted into the film Junoon by Shyam Benegal.
• Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra:
• This is a collection of semi-autobiographical short stories published in 1991.
• For this work, Ruskin Bond was honored with the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1992, one of India's highest literary honors.

The correct answer is Lord's, London.

Key Points

• The final of the 1983 ICC Cricket World Cup, also known as the Prudential Cup, was held on June 25, 1983, at the historic Lord's Cricket Ground in London.
• India, under the captaincy of Kapil Dev, faced the West Indies, who were the dominant force in world cricket and the winners of the previous two editions in 1975 and 1979.
• Batting first, the Indian team was bowled out for a modest total of 183 runs in 54.4 overs of the then-standard 60-over format, with Kris Srikkanth top-scoring with 38 runs.
• In a stunning defensive bowling display, India dismissed the legendary West Indies lineup for just 140 runs in 52 overs, securing a historic 43-run victory.
• This victory marked India's first-ever World Cup title and is credited with fundamentally changing the landscape of cricket in the Indian subcontinent.

 Additional Information

• Mohinder Amarnath:
• He was awarded the Man of the Match in the final for his crucial contribution of 26 runs and a bowling spell of 3 wickets for 12 runs.
• Lord's Cricket Ground:
• Established in 1814 and named after its founder Thomas Lord, it is internationally recognized as the Home of Cricket.
• It houses the MCC Museum, the oldest sports museum in the world, containing the famous Ashes Urn.
• Other Noted Venues:
• Old Trafford: Based in Manchester, this venue hosted the first semi-final of the 1983 World Cup, where India defeated England.
• The Oval: Located in Kennington, South London, it hosted the very first Test match in England in 1880.
• Headingley: Situated in Leeds, it is the home of Yorkshire County Cricket Club and hosted several group matches during the 1983 tournament.

The correct answer is Replace imports of manufactured products with domestic production through protectionist policies.

Key Points

• Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI) was a trade and economic policy adopted by India during the Planning Era to achieve the goal of economic self-reliance.
• The primary objective of this strategy was to replace foreign imports with domestically produced goods, thereby reducing the country's dependence on developed nations for essential industrial products.
• This strategy was deeply rooted in the Mahalanobis Model, which steered the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961) toward the development of heavy and basic industries.
• The government utilized protectionist policies, including high import tariffs and quantitative restrictions (quotas), to shield infant domestic industries from the competitive pressure of foreign manufacturers.
• The logic behind ISI was to conserve foreign exchange reserves and stimulate domestic manufacturing growth by ensuring a captive market for local producers.

 Additional Information

• Core Protectionist Mechanisms:
• Tariffs: These are taxes imposed on imported commodities, making foreign goods more expensive and less attractive to local consumers.
• Quotas: These specify the maximum quantity of a good that can be imported, providing a physical barrier to entry for foreign products regardless of price.
• Strategic Focus:
• Unlike Export-Oriented Industrialization (EOI), which focuses on producing for international markets, ISI is an inward-looking trade strategy focused on the domestic market.
• The policy aimed to create a diversified industrial structure ranging from consumer electronics to capital goods like steel and heavy machinery.
• Evolution of Policy:
• While ISI helped build a massive industrial base, it eventually led to inefficiencies and a lack of innovation due to lack of competition, necessitating the 1991 Economic Reforms.
• The 1991 reforms shifted India from protectionism toward Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG).

The correct answer is Virender Sehwag.

Key Points

• Virender Sehwag etched his name in history as the first Indian batsman to score a triple century in Test cricket on March 29, 2004.
• He achieved this monumental feat against Pakistan at the Multan Cricket Stadium, scoring 309 runs off 375 balls.
• This extraordinary performance earned him the iconic title of 'Multan ka Sultan' and helped India secure its first-ever Test victory on Pakistani soil.
• His innings included 39 boundaries and 6 sixes, famously reaching the 300-run mark with a six off the bowling of Saqlain Mushtaq.
• Before this, the record for the highest individual Test score by an Indian was held by VVS Laxman, who scored 281 against Australia at Eden Gardens in 2001.

 Additional Information

• Virender Sehwag:
• He is one of only four batsmen globally to have scored two triple centuries in Test cricket, joining the ranks of Don Bradman, Brian Lara, and Chris Gayle.
• His second triple century, a blistering 319 runs against South Africa in 2008 at M.A. Chidambaram Stadium, remains the highest individual score by an Indian in Test matches.
• Karun Nair:
• He became the second Indian to score a triple century, hitting 303 not out against England at Chennai in December 2016.
• Sachin Tendulkar and Rahul Dravid:
• Despite being the leading run-scorers for India, neither achieved a triple century. Tendulkar's highest Test score is 248 not out against Bangladesh (2004), while Dravid's highest is 270 against Pakistan (2004).

The correct answer is 1991.

Key Points

• The year 1991 marked a paradigm shift in India's economic history with the introduction of the New Economic Policy (NEP), aimed at overcoming a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis.
• The Statement on Industrial Policy, announced on July 24, 1991, formally initiated the liberalization of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) by moving away from the restrictive License Raj.
• For the first time, the government allowed automatic approval for foreign equity investments up to 51% in 34 high-priority industries, including sectors like transportation, food processing, and chemicals.
• This reform was a core component of the LPG (Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization) model championed by the then Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
• Prior to 1991, the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1973 strictly controlled foreign investment, generally capping it at 40% and requiring tedious case-by-case government approvals.
• The liberalization of FDI was intended to attract foreign capital, facilitate technology transfer, and enhance the global competitiveness of Indian industries.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of Foreign Investment Framework:
• FERA to FEMA: The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) was eventually replaced by the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) in 1999, reflecting a shift from 'regulation' to 'management' of foreign exchange.
• FIPB: The Foreign Investment Promotion Board was established as a single-window clearance agency for proposals falling outside the automatic route. It was later abolished in 2017 to further ease the investment process.
• Investment Routes: Currently, FDI in India enters through two primary channels: the Automatic Route (no prior government approval) and the Government Route (requires approval from respective ministries).
• Sectors with 100% FDI: Over the decades, liberalization has expanded to allow 100% FDI in sectors like Telecommunications, Asset Reconstruction Companies, and Single Brand Retail Trading.

The correct answer is Collateral-free guarantee support.

Key Points

• The primary objective of the Credit Guarantee Fund is to facilitate the flow of institutional credit to the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector and recognized Startups by providing a guarantee cover for credit facilities.
• This fund allows borrowers to access loans without the requirement of collateral security or third-party guarantees, which are traditionally the biggest barriers for new entrepreneurs and small businesses in securing bank finance.
• The Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) was established by the Ministry of MSME, Government of India, and the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) to implement the scheme.
• For startups, the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS) provides credit guarantee cover up to a specified limit, often reaching Rs. 10 crore per borrower, to encourage innovation and entrepreneurship across the country.
• Under these schemes, the trust settles a significant portion of the outstanding amount (ranging from 75% to 85%) in the event of a default by the borrower, thereby reducing the risk perception of lending institutions.

 Additional Information

• Credit Guarantee Scheme for Startups (CGSS):
• It is operated by the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC) under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
• The scheme covers credit extended by Scheduled Commercial Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), and SEBI-registered Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs).
• Eligibility is restricted to startups that are recognized by the DPIIT and have reached a certain stage of revenue generation or funding.
• The CGTMSE scheme was formally launched in August 2000 and has since undergone several enhancements to include a wider range of Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) and increased credit limits.

The correct answer is Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly.

Key Points

• The Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system is officially designated as National Waterway 1 (NW-1), which is the most significant and longest inland waterway in India.
• Spanning a total length of approximately 1,620 kilometers, it passes through the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
• The waterway connects the major cities of Prayagraj (formerly Allahabad) and Haldia, serving as a vital corridor for the transport of bulk cargo like coal, fertilizers, and food grains.
• It was the first waterway to be declared a National Waterway by the Government of India on October 27, 1986, to promote environment-friendly and cost-effective logistics.
• The development and maintenance of this route are managed by the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), supported by the Jal Marg Vikas Project with assistance from the World Bank.

 Additional Information

• Other Major National Waterways:
• National Waterway 2: This stretch is located on the Brahmaputra River in Assam, connecting Sadiya and Dhubri over a length of 891 km.
• National Waterway 3: Known as the West Coast Canal in Kerala, it runs between Kottapuram and Kollam.
• National Waterway 4: Encompasses specific stretches of the Godavari and Krishna rivers, along with the Kakinada-Puducherry canals.
• National Waterway 5: Includes parts of the Brahmani River, the Mahanadi Delta rivers, and the East Coast Canal.
• Indus River: While it is a major transboundary river, the Indus is not categorized as a National Waterway under India's primary domestic navigation network, as its major navigable sections lie outside Indian territory.
• Legislative Framework: The National Waterways Act, 2016, integrated 106 additional waterways into the network, bringing the total number of declared National Waterways in India to 111.

The correct answer is Neither I nor II.

Key Points

• Statement I suggests that Anaerobic respiration occurs in the presence of oxygen; however, by definition, anaerobic processes take place strictly in the absence of oxygen. In this metabolic pathway, glucose is only partially oxidized, leading to the formation of by-products such as ethanol or lactic acid rather than complete breakdown. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
• Statement II characterizes Aerobic respiration as occurring in the absence of oxygen, but this process essentially requires molecular oxygen to function as the terminal electron acceptor in the electron transport chain. This pathway allows for the total oxidation of glucose into carbon dioxide and water, releasing a significantly higher amount of cellular energy. Hence, statement II is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Aerobic Respiration:
• This process occurs in both the cytoplasm (glycolysis) and the mitochondria (Krebs cycle and ETC) of eukaryotic cells.
• It is highly efficient, producing an estimated net gain of 36 to 38 ATP molecules per molecule of glucose.
• It is the primary mode of respiration for most higher organisms, including humans, animals, and plants.
• Anaerobic Respiration:
• This process occurs entirely within the cytoplasm and does not require mitochondrial involvement.
• It yields a much lower energy output, typically only 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule.
• In yeast, this is known as alcoholic fermentation, while in human muscle cells during intense exercise, it results in lactic acid fermentation, which can cause muscle cramps and fatigue.
• Organisms that can only survive in environments lacking oxygen are known as obligate anaerobes.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• The Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) 2024 campaign, themed Swabhav Swachhata Sanskaar Swachhata, was organized from 17^th September to 2^nd October 2024 as a massive precursor to Gandhi Jayanti.
• The campaign is structured around three key pillars designed to accelerate the vision of a Garbage-Free India and celebrate the 10^th anniversary of the Swachh Bharat Mission.
• Pillar 1: Swachhata Ki Bhaagidari (Public Participation, Awareness, and Advocacy) focuses on large-scale Jan Bhagidari to mobilize citizens through cleanliness pledges, workshops, and community-led initiatives to foster sustainable behavioral change.
• Pillar 2: Swachhata Lakshit Ekayi (Cleanliness Target Units - CTUs) involves the identification and time-bound transformation of black spots or neglected areas that are difficult to clean, ensuring targeted intervention in high-traffic or high-waste zones.
• Pillar 3: Safai Mitra Suraksha Shivirs is dedicated to the welfare of sanitation workers, providing preventive health screenings, distribution of safety equipment, and facilitating access to social security schemes such as PM-JAY and PM-SVANidhi.

 Additional Information

• Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM):
• Launched on 2^nd October 2014, the mission aimed to eliminate open defecation and improve solid waste management across India.
• It consists of two sub-missions: SBM-Urban, managed by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, and SBM-Gramin, managed by the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• The mission is currently in its Phase II, focusing on ODF Plus status and 100 percent processing of municipal solid waste.
• The Swachhata Hi Seva initiative is a recurring annual event that serves as a call to action for every citizen to contribute to cleanliness through Shramdaan.

The correct answer is Samudragupta.

Key Points

• Samudragupta was the son and chosen successor of Chandragupta I and the Lichchhavi princess Kumaradevi, ascending the throne around 335 CE.
• The Prayag Prashasti (Allahabad Pillar Inscription), composed in Sanskrit by his court poet Harisena, provides a detailed account of his succession, stating that Chandragupta I publicly declared him the most worthy heir.
• He is often referred to as the 'Napoleon of India' by historian V.A. Smith due to his extensive military conquests across the Indian subcontinent.
• During his reign, he adopted a policy of Digvijaya, defeating nine kings in Aryavarta (Northern India) and twelve kings in Dakshinapatha (Southern India).
• He performed the Ashvamedha (horse sacrifice) to proclaim his imperial sovereignty and issued diverse gold coinage, including types depicting him as a musician playing the Veena.

 Additional Information

• Chandragupta II
• Also known as Vikramaditya, he was the son of Samudragupta and is famous for defeating the Shaka rulers of Western India.
• His court was adorned by the Navaratnas (nine gems), including the legendary poet Kalidasa.
• Kumaragupta II
• A later ruler of the Gupta Dynasty who reigned during the late 5^th century (around 473–476 CE) as the empire began to weaken.
• Budhagupta
• He was one of the last major emperors of the Gupta Empire, ruling from approximately 476 CE to 495 CE, maintaining control over a large territory before the final decline caused by Huna invasions.

The correct answer is 802.

Key Points

• The One-Stop Centre (OSC) scheme is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD), formulated to provide integrated support to women affected by violence.
• As of 12^th March 2025, the total number of operational One-Stop Centres across India has reached 802, ensuring widespread access to emergency services for women in distress.
• Known popularly as Sakhi Centres, these facilities act as a single-window system where women can access medical aid, police assistance, and legal counseling without navigating multiple government departments.
• The centres are designed to support women facing various forms of violence, including domestic abuse, sexual assault, acid attacks, and human trafficking.
• Operational OSCs provide temporary shelter for up to five days, offering a safe haven for women and their children during immediate crisis situations.
• The scheme is a critical pillar of the safety and security framework for women, targeting both rural and urban districts to minimize the gap in social protection.

 Additional Information

• Mission Shakti:
• The OSC scheme is now integrated under the Sambal sub-scheme of Mission Shakti, which focuses on the safety, security, and empowerment of women.
• Nirbhaya Fund:
• The initiative is 100% funded by the Central Government through the Nirbhaya Fund, with financial resources allocated directly to District Collectors or District Magistrates.
• Universal Helpline Integration:
• These centres are technologically linked with the Women Helpline (WHL) via the toll-free number 181, providing 24x7 emergency response and rescue services.
• Implementation Strategy:
• The Government of India aims for universal coverage by establishing at least one OSC in every district, with additional centres approved for larger districts or those with high crime rates against women.

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

• Deodhani is a traditional folk dance from the Indian state of Assam, specifically prevalent in the Lower Brahmaputra Valley, including regions like Kamrup, Darrang, and Mangaldoi.
• The dance is deeply rooted in religious mythology and is performed to propitiate the snake goddess Manasa (also known as Maroi) during the Manasa Puja or Maroi Puja festival.
• It is considered a shamanistic dance where the performer, known as a Deodhani (female) or Deodha (male), is believed to enter a state of trance and become possessed by the deity.
• The performance is characterized by high-energy, semi-classical movements, featuring intense head-shaking, swirling of unbraided hair, and the mimicry of a cobra's movements.
• Accompanying music is provided by traditional instruments such as the Khol (a terracotta drum), Tal (cymbals), and the Ciphung (flute), which create a rhythmic environment conducive to the spiritual ritual.
• Historically, the dance often involves the use of ritualistic props like swords and shields, showcasing ancient martial influences combined with folk spirituality.

 Additional Information

• Assam's Diverse Dance Forms:
• Bihu Dance: A world-renowned folk dance performed during the Rongali Bihu to celebrate the harvest and the Assamese New Year.
• Sattriya: One of the eight Classical Dances of India, introduced by the 15^th-century saint Srimanta Sankardev in the Sattras (monastic institutions).
• Bagurumba: A rhythmic folk dance of the Bodo community, often called the Butterfly Dance due to its light and graceful movements.
• Bhortal Dance: Developed by Narhari Burha Bhakat, it is known for the use of large cymbals and fast beats.
• Other States Mentioned:
• Bihar: Famous for folk dances like Jat-Jatin, Bideshiya, and the Paika dance, which is a martial art form.
• Tamil Nadu: Known for the classical dance Bharatanatyam and folk forms like Karakattam and Kavadi Aattam.
• Himachal Pradesh: Renowned for the Nati dance, which holds the record for the largest folk dance in terms of participation during festivals like Kullu Dussehra.

The correct answer is 4000.

Key Points

• The GSLV Mk-III, recently renamed as LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3), is the heaviest and most powerful launch vehicle in the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) fleet.
• It is specifically designed to deliver heavy communication satellites, weighing up to 4,000 kg, into the Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
• The vehicle utilizes a three-stage propulsion system, which includes two S200 solid rocket boosters, an L110 liquid core stage, and a high-thrust C25 cryogenic upper stage.
• The C25 stage is powered by the CE-20, India's largest indigenous cryogenic engine, which provides the necessary impulse to reach high-altitude orbits.
• By achieving a 4-tonne lift capacity to GTO, India has gained the ability to launch its INSAT and GSAT series satellites without relying on expensive foreign commercial launch services.

 Additional Information

• Low Earth Orbit (LEO) Capacity:
• While its GTO capacity is 4,000 kg, the LVM3 can carry much heavier payloads, approximately 8,000 kg to 10,000 kg, into Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
• Major Mission Successes:
• The GSLV Mk-III was the launch vehicle for the Chandrayaan-2 mission in July 2019 and the successful Chandrayaan-3 mission in July 2023.
• It has been designated as the carrier for the Gaganyaan mission, which is India's first manned spaceflight program.
• Dimensions and Fuel:
• The vehicle stands 43.5 meters tall and has a lift-off mass of 640 tonnes.
• The S200 boosters are among the largest solid propellant boosters in the world, containing 205 tonnes of propellant each.

The correct answer is The Government of India Act of 1935.

Key Points

• The Government of India Act of 1935 was a monumental piece of legislation that introduced Provincial Autonomy, marking a transition from a unitary to a federal structure.
• Under this Act, the system of Dyarchy, which had been introduced in the provinces by the 1919 Act, was abolished, and it was instead proposed for the Central level.
• The provinces were recognized as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres, allowing them to act independently of the Governor-General and the Secretary of State for India in provincial matters.
• It established a responsible government in provinces, where the Governor was required to act on the advice of ministers who were responsible to the elected Provincial Legislature.
• The Act bifurcated the legislative powers between the Centre and the provinces through three distinct lists: the Federal List (59 items), the Provincial List (54 items), and the Concurrent List (36 items).

 Additional Information

• Government of India Act of 1919:
• Popularly known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
• Introduced the Dyarchy system in the provinces, dividing subjects into Reserved and Transferred categories.
• Introduced bicameralism and direct elections in the country for the first time.
• Government of India Act of 1909:
• Commonly referred to as the Morley-Minto Reforms.
• Infamously introduced communal representation by providing separate electorates for Muslims.
• Increased the size of the Legislative Councils at both Central and Provincial levels.
• Government of India Act of 1861:
• Laid the foundation for the Portfolio system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859.
• Initiated the decentralization process by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies.
• Empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances during emergencies without the concurrence of the Legislative Council.

The correct answer is 59%.

Key Points

• The National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5), conducted between 2019 and 2021, provides a comprehensive overview of household amenities and health indicators in India.
• According to the survey, the proportion of households using clean cooking fuel increased from 43.8% in NFHS-4 (2015-16) to 58.6% in NFHS-5, which is rounded to 59%.
• Clean cooking fuel as defined by the survey includes Electricity, LPG/Natural Gas, and Biogas.
• The increase of nearly 15 percentage points over five years highlights the significant progress made in providing safe energy sources to Indian households.
• The data reflects the narrowing gap in energy access, although a considerable difference still exists between the urban and rural demographics.

 Additional Information

• Detailed NFHS-5 Insights:
• Urban-Rural Disparity: While 89.7% of urban households used clean cooking fuel in NFHS-5, only 43.2% of rural households had access, despite rural areas showing higher growth rates compared to previous years.
• Government Schemes: The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), launched in May 2016, has been a major driver in increasing LPG penetration among Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.
• Health and Environment: Transitioning to clean fuel is crucial for achieving Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 7 and reducing Indoor Air Pollution, which causes serious respiratory diseases among women and children.
• Solid Fuel Usage: Despite the rise in clean fuel, many rural households still rely on wood, crop residue, or dung cakes as primary or secondary energy sources due to cost factors.

The correct answer is 2.

Key Points

• The standard scoring system in tennis progresses through a sequence of 0 (Love), 15, 30, and 40 points. A player wins a game after scoring four points, provided they have a lead of at least two points.
• A Deuce occurs when both players or teams reach a score of 40-40. This indicates a tie at the threshold of winning, triggering a requirement for a two-point advantage to conclude the game.
• To win the game from a deuce, a player or team must win 2 consecutive points. The first point won after a deuce is known as the Advantage point.
• If the player holding the advantage wins the following point, they win the game. However, if they lose that point, the score reverts to Deuce, and the cycle continues until one side achieves the necessary 2 back-to-back points.
• This mechanism ensures that the winner of a game demonstrates a clear margin of superiority at the final stage of the game.

 Additional Information

• Advantage Nomenclature:
• Advantage In (Ad-In): Used when the server wins the point following a deuce.
• Advantage Out (Ad-Out): Used when the receiver wins the point following a deuce.
• Historical Background:
• The term Deuce is thought to originate from the French phrase 'à deux de jeu', which means 'two points away from the game'.
• The International Tennis Federation (ITF) sets the rules for professional matches, ensuring consistency across global tournaments like the Grand Slams.
• Alternative Scoring:
• Some formats, particularly in doubles or junior matches, use No-Ad scoring (No-Advantage). In this system, a single deciding point is played at deuce, and the winner of that point immediately wins the game.
• Set and Match Rules:
• Just as games require a two-point margin from deuce, a set typically requires a two-game lead (e.g., 6-4). If a set reaches 6-6, a Tie-break is usually played where the first to 7 points with a two-point margin wins.

Therefore, the correct option is 2.

The correct answer is 121.

Key Points

• The North Eastern Region (NER) District SDG Index and Dashboard 2023-24 is a collaborative initiative between NITI Aayog and the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER), with technical support from the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• This second edition of the index evaluates the progress of 121 districts across the eight North Eastern states of India towards achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• The coverage expanded to 121 districts in the 2023-24 report, up from 103 districts in the inaugural 2021-22 edition, accounting for the creation of new administrative units in states such as Manipur, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh.
• The index serves as a tool to monitor socio-economic development, identify geographical gaps, and foster competitive federalism among districts in the region.

 Additional Information

• Participating States:
• The index covers Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura.
• Framework and Methodology:
• The 2023-24 index tracks performance across 15 SDGs (excluding Goal 14 and Goal 17) using 84 specific indicators tailored to the region's unique challenges.
• Performance is measured on a scale of 0 to 100, where a score of 100 signifies that the district has achieved the 2030 targets.
• Classification Tiers:
• Achiever: Score of 100.
• Front Runner: Score between 65 and 99.
• Performer: Score between 50 and 64.
• Aspirant: Score below 50.
• Key Findings:
• Districts like East Sikkim have historically been top performers, showing excellence in parameters like poverty reduction and clean water.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the bracket (55 + 12 = 67) and multiplication (27 × 2 = 54) first.

The simplified expression: 88 − 43 + 67 − 54 + 96

Group positive and negative terms: (88 + 67 + 96) − (43 + 54)

251 − 97 = 154

∴ The correct answer is 154.

Alternate Method

Given: 88 − 43 + (55 + 12) − 27 × 2 + 96

Method: Apply the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

⇒ 88 − 43 + 67 − 27 × 2 + 96

⇒ 88 − 43 + 67 − 54 + 96

⇒ (88 + 67 + 96) − 43 − 54

⇒ 251 − 43 − 54

⇒ 208 − 54

⇒ 154

∴ The correct answer is 154.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

This rule defines the order of operations: Brackets (), Of (orders like powers or square roots), Division (÷), Multiplication (×), Addition (+), and Subtraction (−).

Addition and Subtraction Priority

Addition and subtraction have the same level of precedence and should be solved from left to right, or by grouping all positive and negative terms separately.

Sign Rules

When multiplying signs: (+ × + = +), (− × − = +), and (+ × − = −).

Shortcut Trick

Solve the bracket first: (38 + 26) = 64.

Perform multiplication: 64 × 2 = 128.

Group all positive numbers: 63 + 89 + 51 + 17 = 220.

Final calculation: 220 − 128 = 92.

∴ The correct answer is 92.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 63 + 89 − (38 + 26) × 2 + 51 + 17

We use the BODMAS rule to solve the expression in order: Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction.

⇒ 63 + 89 − 64 × 2 + 51 + 17

⇒ 63 + 89 − 128 + 51 + 17

⇒ 152 − 128 + 51 + 17

⇒ 24 + 51 + 17

⇒ 75 + 17

⇒ 92

∴ The correct answer is 92.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

It is an acronym to help remember the order of mathematical operations. B-Brackets, O-Orders (powers/roots), D-Division, M-Multiplication, A-Addition, and S-Subtraction.

Left-to-Right Rule

When operations of the same priority (like Addition and Subtraction) appear together, they are solved sequentially from left to right.

Bracket Priority

Operations inside parentheses or brackets must always be evaluated first before any operations outside of them.

Shortcut Trick

The given expression is in the standard form (a⁴ − b⁴) ÷ (a² + b²).

Using algebraic identities, this simplifies directly to a² − b².

Here, a = 0.8 and b = 0.5.

Result = (0.8)² − (0.5)² = 0.64 − 0.25 = 0.39.

∴ The correct answer is 0.39.

Alternate Method

Given:

Expression: ((0.8)⁴ − (0.5)⁴) ÷ ((0.8)² + (0.5)²)

Formula Used:

a² − b² = (a − b)(a + b)

Calculations:

⇒ Let (0.8)² = x and (0.5)² = y

⇒ The expression becomes (x² − y²) ÷ (x + y)

⇒ Applying identity: [(x − y)(x + y)] ÷ (x + y)

⇒ x − y

⇒ (0.8)² − (0.5)²

⇒ 0.64 − 0.25

⇒ 0.39

∴ The correct answer is 0.39.

Additional Information

Difference of Squares

The identity a² − b² = (a − b)(a + b) is fundamental in simplification of higher powers like a⁴ − b⁴ = (a² − b²)(a² + b²).

Decimal Squaring Rule

When squaring a decimal number, the number of decimal places in the result is twice the number of decimal places in the original number (e.g., 0.8² = 0.64).

BODMAS Rule

Always solve expressions inside brackets first, followed by exponents, and then division or multiplication from left to right.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the perfect cube closest to 130.

We know that 4³ = 64 and 5³ = 125.

For the number 5: 5³ + 5 = 125 + 5 = 130.

Since the condition is satisfied, the required number is 5.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Alternate Method

Given:

The sum of a positive number and its cube is 130.

Formula/Equation used:

Let the positive number be x.

Equation: x³ + x = 130

Calculations:

⇒ x³ + x − 130 = 0

⇒ To solve this cubic equation, we test small positive integers.

⇒ For x = 4: 4³ + 4 = 64 + 4 = 68 (Not equal to 130)

⇒ For x = 5: 5³ + 5 = 125 + 5 = 130 (Satisfied)

⇒ Factorizing the equation: (x − 5)(x² + 5x + 26) = 0

⇒ For the quadratic part x² + 5x + 26 = 0, the discriminant D = 5² − 4(1)(26) = 25 − 104 = −79.

⇒ Since D < 0, there are no other real roots.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Additional Information

Cubic Equation Roots

A cubic equation ax³ + bx² + cx + d = 0 always has at least one real root.

Sum of Cubes Property

The expression x³ + x is an increasing function for all positive values of x, meaning there is only one unique positive solution for any sum.

Testing Integers

In competitive exams, if the answer is an integer, check the closest perfect cubes (1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216...) to quickly narrow down the value of x.

Shortcut Trick

Solve each square root term independently: √625 = 25.

Apply the decimal rule (halve the decimal places): √0.25 = 0.5 and √0.0004 = 0.02.

Add all the calculated values: 25 + 0.5 + 0.02 = 25.52.

∴ The correct answer is 25.52.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: √625 + √0.25 + √0.0004

⇒ First term: √625 = 25

⇒ Second term: √0.25 = √(25/100) = 5/10 = 0.5

⇒ Third term: √0.0004 = √(4/10000) = 2/100 = 0.02

⇒ Sum = 25 + 0.5 + 0.02

⇒ Sum = 25.52

∴ The correct answer is 25.52.

Additional Information

Square Root of Decimal Numbers

When finding the square root of a decimal, the number of digits after the decimal point in the result is exactly half of the number of digits in the original number (e.g., 4 decimal places become 2).

Perfect Square Identification

A perfect square cannot end with the digits 2, 3, 7, or 8 at the unit place. If a decimal is a perfect square, it must have an even number of decimal places.

BODMAS Rule

In simplification, always follow the BODMAS (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction) priority; square roots are considered as Orders.

Shortcut Trick

Area of Rhombus = (1 ÷ 2) × d₁ × d₂ ⇒ 384 = 12 × d₂ ⇒ d₂ = 32 cm.

Half of the diagonals are 12 cm and 16 cm.

Using the Pythagorean triplet (3, 4, 5) scaled by 4 → (12, 16, 20).

Side of the rhombus = 20 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 20 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Area = 384 cm², Diagonal (d₁) = 24 cm.

Formula Used: Area = (1 ÷ 2) × d₁ × d₂ | Side (a) = √[(d₁÷2)² + (d₂÷2)²]

⇒ 384 = (1 ÷ 2) × 24 × d₂

⇒ 384 = 12 × d₂

⇒ d₂ = 384 ÷ 12 = 32 cm

⇒ Side (a) = √[(24 ÷ 2)² + (32 ÷ 2)²]

⇒ Side (a) = √[12² + 16²]

⇒ Side (a) = √[144 + 256] = √400

⇒ Side (a) = 20 cm

∴ The correct answer is 20 cm.

Additional Information

Properties of Rhombus

All four sides of a rhombus are equal in length, and diagonals bisect each other at right angles (90°).

Relation between Side and Diagonals

The side a and diagonals d₁ and d₂ are related as 4a² = d₁² + d₂².

Perimeter and Area

Perimeter = 4 × side | Area = base × height = (1 ÷ 2) × product of diagonals.

Shortcut Trick

The sum of cubes of first n natural numbers is given by S_n = [n(n + 1) ÷ 2]².

Required sum = (Sum from 1 to 25) − (Sum from 1 to 10).

S₂₅ = [25 × 26 ÷ 2]² = 325² = 105625.

S₁₀ = [10 × 11 ÷ 2]² = 55² = 3025.

Difference = 105625 − 3025 = 102600.

∴ The correct answer is 102600.

Alternate Method

Given: The series is 11³ + 12³ + 13³ + ... + 25³.

Formula Used: Sum of cubes of first n natural numbers = [n(n + 1) ÷ 2]²

⇒ Total sum = (1³ + 2³ + ... + 25³) − (1³ + 2³ + ... + 10³)

⇒ Sum (1 to 25) = [25 × (25 + 1) ÷ 2]² = [25 × 26 ÷ 2]²

⇒ Sum (1 to 25) = (25 × 13)² = 325² = 105625

⇒ Sum (1 to 10) = [10 × (10 + 1) ÷ 2]² = [10 × 11 ÷ 2]²

⇒ Sum (1 to 10) = (5 × 11)² = 55² = 3025

⇒ Required Value = 105625 − 3025 = 102600

∴ The correct answer is 102600.

Additional Information

Sum of first n natural numbers

The sum of the first n natural numbers is calculated using the formula S_n = n(n + 1) ÷ 2.

Sum of squares of first n natural numbers

The sum of the squares of the first n natural numbers is calculated as S_n = n(n + 1)(2n + 1) ÷ 6.

Sum of cubes vs Sum of natural numbers

The sum of the cubes of the first n natural numbers is exactly equal to the square of the sum of the first n natural numbers.

Shortcut Trick

The given series is the sum of the first n consecutive even numbers starting from 2.

Number of terms (n) = 390 ÷ 2 = 195.

Shortcut formula for sum of first n even numbers = n × (n + 1).

Sum = 195 × (195 + 1) = 195 × 196 = 38220.

∴ The correct answer is 38220.

Alternate Method

Given:

First term (a) = 2

Common difference (d) = 4 − 2 = 2

Last term (l) = 390

Formula Used:

Number of terms (n) = [(l − a) ÷ d] + 1

Sum of terms (S_n) = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l)

Calculations:

⇒ n = [(390 − 2) ÷ 2] + 1

⇒ n = [388 ÷ 2] + 1

⇒ n = 194 + 1 = 195

⇒ S_n = (195 ÷ 2) × (2 + 390)

⇒ S_n = (195 ÷ 2) × 392

⇒ S_n = 195 × 196

⇒ S_n = 38220

∴ The correct answer is 38220.

Additional Information

Sum of First n Natural Numbers

The sum of numbers starting from 1 to n is given by the formula: S_n = n × (n + 1) ÷ 2.

Sum of First n Odd Numbers

The sum of the first n consecutive odd numbers (1, 3, 5, ...) is always a perfect square: S_n = n².

General Term of an Arithmetic Progression (AP)

Any term in an AP can be calculated using: a_n = a + (n − 1) × d, where a is the first term and d is the common difference.

Shortcut Trick

In averages of two pairs sharing a common term (m), the difference between the averages is always exactly half of the difference between the unique terms (l and n).

Difference between l and n = 2 × (Difference between averages)

⇒ Difference = 2 × 32 = 64.

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average of l and m = (l + m) ÷ 2

Average of m and n = (m + n) ÷ 2

The difference between these averages is 32.

Formula Used:

Difference = |Average₁ − Average₂|

Calculations:

⇒ |(l + m) ÷ 2 − (m + n) ÷ 2| = 32

⇒ |(l + m − m − n) ÷ 2| = 32

⇒ |(l − n) ÷ 2| = 32

⇒ l − n = 32 × 2

⇒ l − n = 64

∴ The correct answer is 64.

Additional Information

Average of n numbers

The average or mean is the sum of all observations divided by the total number of observations. Formula: Average = (Sum of terms) ÷ (Number of terms).

Effect of constant change

If each term in a set is increased or decreased by a constant k, the average also increases or decreases by k.

Weighted Average

When two groups with averages A₁ and A₂ and sizes n₁ and n₂ are combined, the combined average is (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Shortcut Trick

Use the Net Deviation method for overlapping observations:

Total average for 25 observations = 48

Deviation for first 10 = 10 × (50 − 48) = +20

Deviation for last 16 = 16 × (45 − 48) = −48

10^th observation = Average + Total Deviation = 48 + (20 − 48) = 48 − 28 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Alternate Method

Given: Average of 25 observations is 48, first 10 is 50, and last 16 is 45.

Formula Used: Sum of observations = Average × Number of observations.

⇒ Total Sum of 25 observations = 25 × 48 = 1200

⇒ Sum of first 10 observations = 10 × 50 = 500

⇒ Sum of last 16 observations = 16 × 45 = 720

⇒ 10^th observation = (Sum of first 10 + Sum of last 16) − Total Sum

⇒ 10^th observation = (500 + 720) − 1200

⇒ 10^th observation = 1220 − 1200 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Additional Information

Overlapping Case in Averages

When (n₁ + n₂) > Total observations (N), the common value is found by: Common Value = [Sum of n₁ + Sum of n₂] − Total Sum.

Excluded/Missing Case in Averages

When (n₁ + n₂) < N, the missing value is found by: Missing Value = Total Sum − [Sum of n₁ + Sum of n₂].

Arithmetic Mean Formula

Average (A) = Sum of observations (Σx) ÷ Number of observations (n).

Shortcut Trick

Find the minimum difference between the given numbers.

Difference between 25 and 15 = 10; Difference between 35 and 25 = 10.

The HCF must be a factor of the difference (10).

Factors of 10 are 1, 2, 5, and 10. The highest factor that divides 15, 25, and 35 is 5.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Alternate Method

Given: Numbers are 15, 25, and 35.

Method: Prime Factorization method.

Find prime factors of each number:

⇒ 15 = 3 × 5

⇒ 25 = 5 × 5

⇒ 35 = 5 × 7

Identify the highest common factor present in all expansions:

⇒ Common Factor = 5

⇒ HCF = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Additional Information

Highest Common Factor (HCF)

Also known as Greatest Common Divisor (GCD), it is the largest number that divides two or more integers without leaving a remainder.

HCF and LCM Relationship

For any two numbers 'a' and 'b', the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a,b) × LCM(a,b).

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are called co-prime if their Highest Common Factor is exactly 1.

Shortcut Trick

A rectangular floor tiled with 6 square tiles (100 cm each) must have a total area of 6 × 100 × 100 = 60,000 cm².

The 6 tiles can be arranged as a 1 × 6 or 2 × 3 grid.

Case 1 (1 × 6): Dimensions = (1 × 100) by (6 × 100) = 100 cm × 600 cm.

Case 2 (2 × 3): Dimensions = (2 × 100) by (3 × 100) = 200 cm × 300 cm.

Only the 100 cm × 600 cm dimension is present in the options.

∴ The correct answer is 100 cm × 600 cm.

Alternate Method

Given: Number of tiles = 6, Side of each square tile = 100 cm.

Formula: Total Area = Number of tiles × (Side)²

⇒ Area of one square tile = 100 cm × 100 cm = 10,000 cm².

⇒ Total area of 6 tiles = 6 × 10,000 = 60,000 cm².

⇒ Area of the floor = Length × Breadth.

⇒ For Option 1: 100 cm × 600 cm = 60,000 cm². (Correct)

⇒ For Option 2: 150 cm × 450 cm = 67,500 cm². (Incorrect)

⇒ For Option 3: 200 cm × 400 cm = 80,000 cm². (Incorrect)

⇒ For Option 4: 250 cm × 200 cm = 50,000 cm². (Incorrect)

∴ The correct answer is 100 cm × 600 cm.

Additional Information

Tiling Principle

For a floor to be completely tiled without any gaps or overlapping, the dimensions of the floor must be integer multiples of the dimensions of the tile.

Area Comparison

The total area of the floor is always equal to the number of tiles × area of each tile (Area = n × s² for square tiles).

Grid Configurations

The factors of the total number of tiles (6 in this case: 1×6, 2×3) determine the possible rectangular arrangements of the tiles.

Shortcut Trick

3/7 × 70% of Number = 900

Convert 70% to fraction: 70/100 = 7/10

(3/7) × (7/10) × Number = 900

3/10 × Number = 900

Number = (900 × 10) ÷ 3 = 3000

∴ The correct answer is 3000.

Alternate Method

Given:

The fraction of the percentage of a number is 900.

Fraction = 3/7

Percentage = 70%

Calculations:

⇒ Let the unknown number be x.

⇒ According to the question, 3/7 × 70% × x = 900

⇒ (3/7) × (70/100) × x = 900

⇒ (3/7) × (7/10) × x = 900

⇒ (3/10) × x = 900

⇒ 3x = 900 × 10

⇒ 3x = 9000

⇒ x = 9000 ÷ 3

⇒ x = 3000

∴ The correct answer is 3000.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

To convert any percentage to a fraction, divide it by 100. For example, 70% = 70/100 = 7/10 and 30% = 3/10.

The 'Of' Operator

In mathematics, the word 'of' serves as a direct instruction to perform multiplication between the given quantities.

Reciprocal Property

When solving for a variable multiplied by a fraction a/b, multiply the other side of the equation by its reciprocal b/a to isolate the variable.

Shortcut Trick

Loss percentage is 25%, which means the Selling Price (SP) is 100% − 25% = 75% of the Cost Price (CP).

Ratio of Selling Price to Loss = 75% : 25% = 3 : 1.

Given 3 units = ₹150.

1 unit (Loss) = 150 ÷ 3 = ₹50.

∴ The correct answer is ₹50.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹150

Loss percentage = 25%

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = [SP × 100] ÷ [100 − Loss%]

Loss Value = CP − SP

Calculations:

⇒ CP = [150 × 100] ÷ [100 − 25]

⇒ CP = [150 × 100] ÷ 75

⇒ CP = 2 × 100 = ₹200

⇒ Loss Value = CP − SP

⇒ Loss Value = 200 − 150

⇒ Loss Value = ₹50

∴ The correct answer is ₹50.

Additional Information

Loss and Profit Calculation

Profit occurs when SP > CP (Profit = SP − CP). Loss occurs when CP > SP (Loss = CP − SP).

Base for Percentage

Both Profit Percentage and Loss Percentage are always calculated on the Cost Price (CP) unless mentioned otherwise in the question.

Fractional Conversion

25% loss can be written as 1/4. Here, 4 represents CP and 1 represents Loss. Thus, SP = 4 − 1 = 3 units.

Shortcut Trick

Using the Chain Rule formula: M₁ × D₁ × W₂ = M₂ × D₂ × W₁

Here, M₁ = 8, D₁ = 48, W₁ = 1, D₂ = 16, and W₂ = 0.5.

M₂ = (8 × 48 × 0.5) / (16 × 1)

M₂ = 192 / 16 = 12

**∴ The correct answer is 12.**18

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial men (M₁) = 8 men

Initial days (D₁) = 48 days

Initial work (W₁) = 1 unit

New days (D₂) = 16 days

New work (W₂) = 1/2 unit = 0.5 unit

Formula Used:

(M₁ × D₁) / W₁ = (M₂ × D₂) / W₂

Calculations:

⇒ (8 × 48) / 1 = (M₂ × 16) / 0.5

⇒ 384 = (M₂ × 16) / 0.5

⇒ 384 × 0.5 = M₂ × 16

⇒ 192 = M₂ × 16

⇒ M₂ = 192 / 16

⇒ M₂ = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12.

Additional Information

Chain Rule Concept

The relationship between men, days, hours, and work is given by (M × D × H) / W = Constant. This allows comparing two different scenarios of the same or different tasks.

Inverse Proportion

For a constant amount of work, the number of men is inversely proportional to the number of days taken. If men increase, days decrease (M₁D₁ = M₂D₂).

Work and Efficiency

Total work is the product of the number of workers, their efficiency, and the time spent. If efficiency varies, it is included in the numerator of the chain rule formula.

Shortcut Trick

Given P + R = 2Q. Adding Q to both sides gives P + Q + R = 3Q.

The combined efficiency of the group is 3 times the efficiency of Q alone.

Since time is inversely proportional to efficiency, Q will take 3 times the time taken by the group.

Time for Q alone = 4 days × 3 = 12 days.

∴ The correct answer is 12 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

(Q + R) = 6 × P

(P + R) = 2 × Q

Time (P + Q + R) = 4 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Combined Efficiency × Time Taken

Calculations:

⇒ Efficiency (Q + R) : P = 6 : 1 (Total parts = 7)

⇒ Efficiency (P + R) : Q = 2 : 1 (Total parts = 3)

⇒ To equalize total efficiency, use LCM of 7 and 3 = 21.

⇒ Total Efficiency (P + Q + R) = 21 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of P = 21 × (1 ÷ 7) = 3 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of Q = 21 × (1 ÷ 3) = 7 units/day.

⇒ Efficiency of R = 21 − (3 + 7) = 11 units/day.

⇒ Total Work = 21 units/day × 4 days = 84 units.

⇒ Time for Q alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of Q

⇒ Time = 84 ÷ 7 = 12 days.

∴ The correct answer is 12 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. If efficiency is doubled, time is halved (Time = Work ÷ Efficiency).

Combined Rate Formula

When multiple people work together, their individual efficiencies are added to get the total efficiency: E_total = E₁ + E₂ + ... + E_n.

Ratio Normalization

To solve efficiency ratio problems involving multiple groupings, normalize the total parts of the ratios by using the Least Common Multiple (LCM).

Shortcut Trick

When Distance is constant, Speed is inversely proportional to Time (Speed ∝ 1/Time).

Time Ratio (Walking : Cycle) = 9.5 : 6 = 19 : 12

Speed Ratio (Walking : Cycle) = 12 : 19

Walking speed 12 units = 12 km/hr ⇒ 1 unit = 1 km/hr.

Cycling speed 19 units = 19 km/hr.

∴ The correct answer is 19 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Walking Speed (S₁) = 12 km/hr

Walking Time (T₁) = 9 hr 30 min = 9.5 hr

Cycling Time (T₂) = 6 hr

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Calculations:

⇒ First, calculate the total Distance covered while walking:

⇒ Distance = 12 km/hr × 9.5 hr

⇒ Distance = 114 km

⇒ Now, calculate the Cycling Speed (S₂) for the same distance:

⇒ S₂ = Distance ÷ T₂

⇒ S₂ = 114 km ÷ 6 hr

⇒ S₂ = 19 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 19 km/hr.

Additional Information

Constant Distance Property

When distance is fixed, the product of speed and time remains constant: S₁ × T₁ = S₂ × T₂.

Average Speed

If a person travels two equal distances at speeds S₁ and S₂, the average speed is 2 × S₁ × S₂ ÷ (S₁ + S₂).

Unit Conversion

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Total Distance = 80 + (60 × 3) = 260 km

Total Time = (80 ÷ 40) + 3 = 5 hr

Average Speed = 260 ÷ 5 = 52 kmph

∴ The correct answer is 52 kmph.

Alternate Method

Given:

Distance of 1^st part (d₁) = 80 km

Speed of 1^st part (s₁) = 40 km/hr

Speed of 2^nd part (s₂) = 60 km/hr

Time for 2^nd part (t₂) = 3 hr

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Distance = Speed × Time

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Time taken for the first 80 km = 80 ÷ 40 = 2 hr

⇒ Distance covered in the remaining journey = 60 × 3 = 180 km

⇒ Total Distance = 80 + 180 = 260 km

⇒ Total Time = 2 + 3 = 5 hr

⇒ Average Speed = 260 ÷ 5 = 52 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 52 kmph.

Additional Information

Average Speed (Equal Distance)

When a person covers two equal distances at speeds x and y, the average speed is given by 2xy ÷ (x + y).

Average Speed (Equal Time)

If a person travels at speed x for time t and at speed y for the same time t, the average speed is (x + y) ÷ 2.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Selling Price to Discount = 5 : 3 ⇒ Marked Price = 5 + 3 = 8 units.

Profit = 20% ⇒ Ratio of Cost Price to Selling Price = 100 : 120 = 5 : 6.

Equating Selling Price (LCM of 5 and 6 is 30): CP : SP : MP = 25 : 30 : 48.

Required % = (25 ÷ 48) × 100 = 52.08%.

∴ The correct answer is 52.08 percent.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit percentage = 20%

Discount = (3/5) × Selling Price (SP)

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) of the article be 100.

⇒ Since Profit is 20%, SP = 100 + 20% of 100 = 120.

⇒ Discount = (3/5) × 120 = 3 × 24 = 72.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount = 120 + 72 = 192.

⇒ Percentage of CP with respect to MP = (CP ÷ MP) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = (100 ÷ 192) × 100

⇒ Required Percentage = 10000 ÷ 192 ≈ 52.08%.

∴ The correct answer is 52.08 percent.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP and MP

The ratio of Cost Price to Marked Price is given by the formula: CP/MP = (100 − Discount%) / (100 + Profit%).

Discount and Selling Price

Marked Price is the price at which the Discount is calculated, and Selling Price = MP × (1 − Discount%/100).

Profit and Loss Basics

Profit is always calculated on the Cost Price unless specified otherwise. Profit = SP − CP.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Selling Price (SP) to Marked Price (MP) = (100 + Profit%) : (100 + Markup%)

Ratio SP : MP = (100 + 45) : (100 + 50) = 145 : 150

Given MP = 150 units = Rs. 1500 ⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 10

Selling Price = 145 units × 10 = Rs. 1450

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1450.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 1500

Markup Percentage = 50 percent more than CP

Profit Percentage = 45 percent

Formula Used:

1. Cost Price (CP) = Marked Price ÷ (1 + Markup%)
2. Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price × (1 + Profit%)

Calculations:

⇒ Let Cost Price (CP) = Rs. x

⇒ Marked Price = x + 50% of x = 1.5x

⇒ 1500 = 1.5x

⇒ x = 1500 ÷ 1.5 = Rs. 1000

⇒ Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit

⇒ Selling Price = 1000 + 45% of 1000

⇒ Selling Price = 1000 + 450 = Rs. 1450

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1450.

Additional Information

Markup Percentage

It is the percentage increase from Cost Price to Marked Price. Formula: Markup% = [(MP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100.

Profit Percentage

Profit is the gain on the Cost Price. Formula: Profit% = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100. Always assume CP as the base unless mentioned otherwise.

Discount Percentage

Discount is the reduction offered on the Marked Price. Formula: Discount% = [(MP − SP) ÷ MP] × 100.

CP and MP Relationship

A direct link between CP and MP using profit and discount: CP ÷ MP = (100 − Discount%) ÷ (100 + Profit%).

The correct answer is: xanthic.

Key Points

• The word 'xanthic' is an adjective used to describe something that has a yellow color or is related to yellow pigments like xanthine. (पीले रंग का)
• Example: The xanthic hue of the sunset cast a warm, golden glow over the entire valley.
• 'xanthic' is correctly spelled and originates from the Greek word 'xanthos', which specifically refers to the color yellow; it is commonly used in chemistry and biology. (पीला)
• Example: Scientists categorized the new species of butterfly based on its distinct xanthic wing patterns.
• Hence, we can infer that 'xanthic' is the correctly spelled word among the provided options.

Therefore, the correct answer is: xanthic.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• xenolithe (अशुद्ध वर्तनी): The correct English spelling is 'xenolith', which refers to a fragment of rock that is foreign to the igneous rock in which it is embedded. (विजातीय शिलाखंड)
• Example: The volcanic eruption brought a rare xenolith from the Earth's mantle to the surface.
• xennie (अशुद्ध वर्तनी): This is not a standard dictionary word; it is likely a misspelling of 'xenia', which describes the influence of pollen on the seed and fruit characters of plants. (पौधों में पराग का प्रभाव)
• Example: The researcher documented the xenia effect when crossing different varieties of corn.
• xerophyte (मरुद्भिद): A type of plant that has evolved to survive in very dry or arid environments with minimal water.
• Example: The xerophyte, such as the cactus, stores water in its thick stems to survive long droughts.

The correct answer is embezzelment.

Key Points

• The word embezzelment is misspelt in the provided sentence. The correct spelling is embezzlement.
• The term is a derivative noun formed by adding the suffix -ment to the root verb embezzle, which means to secretly take money that is in your care but belongs to an organization or another person.
• According to English orthography, when a suffix is added to a word ending in -le, the existing letters remain in their original order. In this case, -le- should precede the -ment, not -el-.
• From a legal standpoint, embezzlement is a white-collar crime characterized by the fraudulent misappropriation of assets by a person in a position of trust or fiduciary responsibility.
• Statistically, cases of embezzlement often involve financial sectors where internal controls are bypassed to hide the theft of liquid assets or company funds over long periods.

 Additional Information

• accountability
• Refers to the institutionalized expectation that public and private agents will provide information about their actions and justify them.
• It serves as a core component of democratic governance and corporate ethics, ensuring transparency and reducing malpractice.
• falsified
• This is the past participle of the verb falsify, which involves altering information to make it incorrect or deceptive.
• In forensic auditing, falsified data refers to manipulated financial records used to cover up illicit transactions or inflate company value.
• corruption
• Defined as the abuse of entrusted power for private gain, often measured globally by the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI).
• It encompasses various activities including bribery, extortion, nepotism, and money laundering.

The correct answer is: Dismiss.

Key Points

• The word 'consider' means to think carefully about something, typically before making a decision or reaching a conclusion. (विचार ��रना)
• Example: Please take some time to consider the job offer before you give us an answer.
• 'Dismiss' refers to the act of deciding that something is not important or not worth your attention; it involves rejecting a thought or idea almost immediately. (खारिज करना)
• Example: The manager was quick to dismiss the new employee's concerns as trivial.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'consider' is 'dismiss'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Dismiss.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Contemplate (मनन करना): To look at something thoughtfully for a long time or to think profoundly.
• Example: He sat by the lake to contemplate the meaning of life.
• Reflect (चिंतन करना): To think deeply or carefully about something, often something that happened in the past.
• Example: The teacher asked the students to reflect on their progress during the semester.
• Ponder (विचार करना): To think about something carefully, especially before making a choice.
• Example: She began to ponder whether she should pursue a master's degree abroad.

The correct answer is The construction of the new bridge will have been completed by them by the end of this year..

Key Points

• To convert a sentence from Active Voice to Passive Voice, we must first identify the tense of the original sentence. The sentence 'They will have completed the construction of the new bridge by the end of this year' is in the Future Perfect Tense.
• In the Active Voice, the Future Perfect Tense follows the structure: Subject + will + have + Past Participle (V3) + Object. In this sentence, They is the subject and the construction of the new bridge is the object.
• When converting to Passive Voice, the Object of the active sentence becomes the New Subject. Thus, the construction of the new bridge starts the passive sentence.
• The verb transformation for Future Perfect Passive requires the addition of the auxiliary verb been. The formula is: New Subject + will + have + been + V3 + by + Agent.
• Therefore, will have completed is transformed into will have been completed. The original subject They is converted into the agent them following the preposition by.
• The time phrase 'by the end of this year' remains at the end of the sentence to provide the context of completion in the future.

 Additional Information

• Future Perfect Tense characteristics:
• It expresses an action that will be certainly completed by a specific point in the future.
• In passive transformations, the inclusion of been is mandatory to distinguish it from the Future Continuous or Simple Future.
• Evaluation of incorrect structures:
• Simple Future Passive: Uses 'will be completed', which fails to capture the perfective aspect (the completion) of the original statement.
• Present Passive: Uses 'is completed', which changes the temporal frame from the future to the present.
• Grammatical Omission: Sentences that omit been while using will have remain in an incomplete active form and do not function as passive voice.

The correct answer is The deer was missed by the hunter despite aiming carefully..

Key Points

• The sentence provided is in the Active Voice, following the structure: Subject (the hunter) + Verb (missed) + Object (the deer).
• The verb missed is in the Simple Past Tense. According to the rules of English grammar, the Passive Voice for the Simple Past Tense is formed using was/were + Past Participle (V3).
• To transform the sentence, the Object of the active voice (the deer) is moved to the Subject position. Since the deer is a singular noun, the auxiliary verb was is required.
• The Past Participle form of the verb miss is missed, which remains consistent in both forms but serves as the V3 component here.
• The original Subject (the hunter) becomes the Agent in the passive sentence and is preceded by the preposition by.
• The adverbial phrase despite aiming carefully is a modifier that describes the circumstances of the action; it is retained to ensure the semantic integrity and contextual meaning of the original sentence are preserved.

 Additional Information

• Grammatical Tense Consistency:
• In voice conversion, the tense of the original sentence must not change. The use of is missed would incorrectly shift the sentence into the Simple Present Tense.
• The use of will be missed would incorrectly shift the sentence into the Simple Future Tense, which describes an event that has not yet occurred.
• Logical Subject-Object Relationship:
• The construction was aimed carefully by the hunter changes the primary action of the sentence from missing to aiming, which deviates from the original intent of the active sentence where the main action is the failure to hit the target (missing).

The correct answer is 'of'.

 

Key Points

• The word shy, when followed by the preposition 'of', forms an idiomatic expression.
• The phrase shy of means short of, less than, or just before reaching a specific amount, level, or point in time.
• In the given sentence, it indicates that the soldier died just a few days before he could celebrate his marriage anniversary.
• Other options like for, by, or to do not form a standard idiom with shy to convey the intended meaning of being nearly at a milestone.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The soldier died while fighting against the terrorists just a few days shy of his marriage anniversary.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'for' is typically used to indicate a duration or a purpose (e.g., waiting for hours).
• Option 3: 'by' is often used to show proximity, agency, or a deadline (e.g., finished by noon).
• Option 4: 'to' is generally used to indicate direction, destination, or comparison.

The correct answer is collectively resigned in protest against.

Key Points

• The term collectively refers to actions performed by all members of a group acting as a single unit or a whole. In the context of a committee, it signifies that the decision to resign was a unified group action.
• While the original word cooperatively suggests working together or being helpful to one another, it is less idiomatic than collectively when describing a mass resignation or a joint formal action.
• The structure in protest against is the standard prepositional phrase used to denote that an action is taken to demonstrate strong disapproval or opposition toward a specific entity, such as unethical management practices.
• Using collectively improves the sentence by emphasizing that the resignation was not just a series of individual acts but a coordinated effort by the entire committee.

 Additional Information

• Communally:
• This refers to things shared by all members of a community or group for common use.
• It typically applies to living arrangements, dining, or resource management within a community.
• Cohesively:
• This adverb describes the quality of sticking together or functioning as a well-integrated whole.
• It usually refers to how a group collaborates or interacts (e.g., a cohesively functioning team) rather than the specific act of leaving an organization.

The correct answer is 'at'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase 'at length' is a standard idiomatic expression in English.
• It means to speak or write about something for a long time or in great detail.
• In the context of the sentence, the historian is agreeing to provide a detailed discussion regarding the Harappan Civilization.
• The other prepositions provided in Options 1, 2, and 4 do not form this specific idiomatic meaning when paired with the word length in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The historian agreed to talk at length about the Harappan Civilization.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'for' is generally used to indicate a period of time or purpose, but 'for length' is not a standard phrase for speaking in detail.
• Option 2: 'about' is a preposition used to indicate the subject matter. Using it here would be redundant as the subject (Harappan Civilization) is already introduced by 'about' later in the sentence.
• Option 4: 'in' is often used to describe physical dimensions (e.g., three meters in length) rather than the manner of speaking.

The correct answer is that it was impossible.

Key Points

• The sentence requires the use of a correlative conjunction to link the degree of an attribute to its result. The standard structure used in English for this purpose is so + adjective/adverb + that.
• In this context, so modifies the adjectives intricate and captivating, while the word that introduces the subordinate clause explaining the consequence (the impossibility of predicting the ending).
• While the word that is occasionally omitted in informal spoken English, formal writing and competitive examinations require its inclusion to avoid a comma splice and to clearly establish the cause-and-effect relationship.
• By replacing the comma and the following phrase with that it was impossible, the sentence achieves grammatical completeness and logical flow.

 Additional Information

• Correlative Structures:
• So... that: Used with adjectives or adverbs to show degree and result (e.g., so fast that).
• Such... that: Used with noun phrases to show degree and result (e.g., such an intricate plot that).
• Too... to: Used to indicate a negative consequence due to excess (e.g., too intricate to predict).
• Analysis of Incorrect Options:
• so it was impossible: This creates a redundancy because the word so is already present earlier in the sentence. Using it twice as a conjunction and an intensifier in this manner is non-standard.
• as to not be possible: This phrase follows the so + adjective + as to + verb construction. However, it is wordy, less direct, and typically used when the subject of both clauses is the same. In the original sentence, the reader (implicit or explicit) is the one facing the impossibility, making the that clause more appropriate.

Question 1

The correct answer is: Satirist.

Key Points

• The phrase 'sharply sarcastic, biting in wit' describes a person who uses their intelligence and humor in a way that is cutting or intended to mock. (तीखा व्यंग्य करने वाला व्यक्ति)
• Example: His biting wit made him the most feared critic in the theater world.
• A 'Satirist' is a person who uses satire, which is the use of humor, irony, exaggeration, or ridicule to expose and criticize people's stupidity or vices. (व्यंग्यकार)
• Example: The Satirist wrote a series of essays mocking the greed of the corporate world.
• Hence, we can conclude that a person who is sharply sarcastic and biting in wit is known as a Satirist.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Satirist.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Ironist (विडंबनाकार): A person who uses irony, which is the expression of meaning by using language that normally signifies the opposite.
• Example: The Ironist observed that the fire station had ironically caught fire.
• Vitriolic (कटु): An adjective describing speech or writing that is very cruel and malicious.
• Example: He was shocked by the Vitriolic tone of the letter he received.
• Scathing (तीखा): An adjective meaning witheringly scornful or severely critical.
• Example: The director received Scathing reviews for his latest movie.

The correct answer is Option(3) i.e. ominous.

Key Points

• The word 'Auspicious' means showing or suggesting that future success is likely or being a sign of good fortune. (शुभ)
• Example: The auspicious start of the partnership led to many years of successful business ventures.
• 'Ominous' refers to giving the impression that something bad or unpleasant is going to happen; it is threatening or inauspicious. (अमंगलकारी)
• Example: The ominous growling of the dog made the stranger step back from the gate.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Auspicious' is 'ominous'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- ominous.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Auspicious (शुभ): Characterized by success or providing a favorable sign.
• Example: It was an auspicious day for the launch of the new spacecraft.
• Promising (आशाजनक): Showing signs of future excellence, success, or potential.
• Example: The young pianist is a promising talent who has already won several awards.
• Hopeful (आशावान): Feeling or inspiring optimism about a future event.
• Example: Despite the setback, the team remains hopeful about their chances in the next round.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The error in the sentence is the use of the base form of the verb meet after the phrase with a view to.
• The expression with a view to is a phrasal preposition that must be followed by a gerund (the -ing form of a verb).
• A gerund acts as a noun, which is required after the preposition to in this specific idiomatic context.
• Therefore, the verb meet should be changed to meeting to make the sentence grammatically accurate.
• Thus, the error is located in part 3 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 3.

 

Correct Sentence: 'I went to my school with a view to meeting the principal.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'i went to my school' – This part contains the subject and the main verb in the past tense, which is grammatically correct.
• Option 2: 'with a view to' – This is a standard idiomatic phrase meaning 'with the intention of'. It is used correctly as a linker here.
• Option 4: 'the principal' – This is the object of the gerund and is used correctly with the definite article.
• Similar phrases that are followed by a gerund instead of an infinitive include: look forward to, accustomed to, used to (when preceded by a 'be' verb), and given to.
• Example: 'He is looking forward to visiting the museum.'

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence provided is an example of a Third Conditional sentence, which is used to talk about a situation that did not happen in the past and its imaginary result.
• The grammatical structure for the Third Conditional is: If + Past Perfect (had + V3), would have + Past Participle (V3).
• In the clause 'If you had told me earlier,' the past perfect tense (had told) is used correctly.
• However, the main clause 'I will have' incorrectly uses the future tense auxiliary 'will' instead of the conditional 'would.'
• The correct phrase should be 'I would have' to maintain grammatical harmony in a third conditional construction.
• Therefore, the error is located in part 3 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is I will have.

 

Correct Sentence: 'If you had told me earlier, I would have helped you.'

 

Additional Information

• if you had told – This part of the sentence correctly establishes the hypothetical past condition using the past perfect tense.
• me earlier, – This is an adverbial phrase modifying the verb and is grammatically correct.
• helped you – This is the correct past participle (V3) form of the verb 'help,' which is required following 'have' in this structure.

The correct answer is 'curiosity'.

Key Points

• The sentence discusses how certain educational systems that prioritize memorization over analysis have a negative impact on a student's intellectual development.
• When a system focuses solely on rote learning (memorization), it discourages the habit of questioning and seeking new knowledge.
• 'Curiosity' refers to a strong desire to know or learn something. In the context of the passage, it is the natural trait that is stifled alongside creativity when analytical thinking is not encouraged.
• Therefore, the word 'curiosity' fits correctly in the blank as it complements the idea of an inhibited intellectual spirit.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: Critical thinking allows individuals to analyze information rather than accept it blindly. In an age flooded with social media posts and biased news, this skill has become indispensable. It encourages people to question assumptions, examine evidence, and form reasoned judgements. Educational systems that promote memorization instead of analysis often limit creativity and 1. curiosity. Critical thinking empowers students to solve problems independently and make informed decisions. It also helps in identifying manipulation and propaganda. Employers value this skill because it leads to innovation and 2. productivity. Developing critical thinking involves reading widely, discussing ideas, and being open to constructive criticism. When citizens think critically, they become more responsible voters and informed 3. citizens. A society guided by logic and fairness can resist misinformation and build 4. stability. Therefore, fostering critical thinking is not only an academic goal but a foundation of 5. vibrant democracy.

Additional Information

• Discipline refers to the practice of training people to obey rules or a code of behavior, which is often actually enforced in memorization-heavy systems.
• Confidence refers to a feeling of self-assurance, which might be affected, but it is not as directly linked to the cognitive act of analysis as curiosity is.
• Obedience refers to compliance with an order, request, or law or submission to another's authority; rote learning systems typically demand more obedience, not less.