SSC GD Constable 2026 Official Paper (Held On 30 May, 2026 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)

Logic followed here is,

730 + 6 = 736

736 + 6 = 742

742 + 6 = 748

748 + 6 = 754

754 + 6 = 760

760 + 6 = 766

766 + 6 = 772

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Logic followed here is,

18 × 2 − 2 = 34

34 × 3 − 2 = 100

100 × 2 − 2 = 198

198 × 3 − 2 = 592

592 × 2 − 2 = 1182

1182 × 3 − 2 = 3544

3544 × 2 − 2 = 7086

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed in this pattern is a series of alphabetical shifts.

For 'UQ' related to 'YW':

For 'DV' related to 'HB':

Applying the same logic to find the first cluster for 'BS':

Thus, XM is related to BS.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

For the set '(NQ, PT, RW)':

For the set '(CJ, EM, GP)':

Applying the same logic to '(HL, JO, LR)':

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

​The given date is 26 January 2018.

We break down the time until this date: 2017 full years + 26 days of 2018.

Odd days in 2000 years = 0.

Odd days in the remaining 17 years (from 2001 to 2017):

Number of leap years in 17 years = 17 ÷ 4 = 4 (2004, 2008, 2012, 2016)

Number of ordinary years = 17 − 4 = 13

Total odd days = (4 × 2) + (13 × 1) = 8 + 13 = 21 days

21 ÷ 7 = 3 weeks and 0 odd days.

Days in the year 2018 until 26 January:

Total days = 26

26 ÷ 7 = 3 weeks and 5 odd days.

Total odd days = 0 + 0 + 5 = 5 odd days.

Based on the day code table, 5 corresponds to Friday.

Hence, the day of the week on 26 January 2018 was Friday.

Alternate Method

Using the calendar formula: [Date + Month Code + Century Code + Year + (Year ÷ 4)] ÷ 7

Where:

Date = 26

Month Code (January for non-leap year) = 0

Century Code (2000) = 6

Year (last 2 digits) = 18

Leap Year part (18 ÷ 4) = 4

Sum = 26 + 0 + 6 + 18 + 4 = 54

Now, divide the sum by 7 to find the remainder: 54 ÷ 7 = 7 remainder 5.

Remainder 5 represents Friday.

Hence, the correct answer is Friday.

5 persons V, M, N, P and Q are sitting in a row facing north (not necessarily in the same order).

1. Two persons sit between P and M.
2. P is to the left of M.
3. Two persons sit between V and Q.
4. V is to the left of M and to the right of P.

Q is sitting at the right end of the row.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

7 students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order).

1. V is fourth to the right of Q.
2. Considering towards left of S, there is only 1 student between S and Q.
3. T is not the immediate neighbour of V or S.
4. P is fourth to the right of U.

T is sitting immediate right of P.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

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KLM18 : MNK36

ACW22 : CEU44

Similarly,

PRS16 : ?

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Dictionary order of given words:

4. Invigilate
5. Inviolable
6. Invisible
7. Invite
8. Invoice 

Correct order is: 45123

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = First Number − 39

For the first pair 2949 : 2910

⇒ 2949 − 39 = 2910.

For the third pair 3080 : 3041

⇒ 3080 − 39 = 3041.

Applying the same logic to the second pair

1761 : ?

⇒ 1761 − 39 = 1722.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Second Number = (First Number × 4) + 5

For the first pair 643 : 2577

⇒ (643 × 4) + 5

⇒ 2572 + 5 = 2577.

Applying the same logic to the second pair 374 : 1501

⇒ (374 × 4) + 5

⇒ 1496 + 5 = 1501.

Applying the same logic to the third pair

? : 1157

⇒ (1157 − 5) ÷ 4

⇒ 1152 ÷ 4 = 288.

Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

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The pattern observed is: (Sum of positional values of letters) ÷ 2.

LAST is coded as 26 →

Sum of positional values = 12 + 1 + 19 + 20 = 52

Code = 52 ÷ 2 = 26

COME is coded as 18 →

Sum of positional values = 3 + 15 + 13 + 5 = 36

Code = 36 ÷ 2 = 18

Similarly, let's find the code for GAME:

Sum of positional values = 7 + 1 + 13 + 5 = 26

Code = 26 ÷ 2 = 13

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

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Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 4”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

The correct answer is Right to Property.

Key Points

• The Constitution of India originally recognized seven fundamental rights under Part III, which serves as the foundational charter of civil liberties in the country.
• The Right to Property was initially protected under two specific provisions: Article 19(1)(f), which guaranteed the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property, and Article 31, which protected citizens against the compulsory acquisition of their property.
• During the tenure of the Janata Party government, the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 was passed, which formally removed the Right to Property from the list of fundamental rights.
• This legislative change was primarily driven by the need to implement land reforms and facilitate socialist redistribution of resources without the legal bottlenecks created by fundamental right challenges in the courts.
• Following the amendment, the right was transitioned to Part XII of the Constitution as Article 300A, where it currently exists as a legal right or constitutional right.
• As a result of this reclassification, the Right to Property is no longer enforceable through the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32, although it still mandates that no person can be deprived of property except by authority of law.

 Additional Information

• Right to Education:
• It was established as a fundamental right through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
• Under Article 21A, the state must provide free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years.
• Right to Equality:
• It is encapsulated within Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution.
• This includes equality before the law (Article 14) and the abolition of untouchability (Article 17).
• Right to Freedom of Religion:
• These rights are detailed under Articles 25 to 28.
• They guarantee the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate any religion.

The correct answer is Article 30.

Key Points

• Article 30 of the Indian Constitution is specifically designed to protect the interests of religious and linguistic minorities, granting them the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
• Under Article 30(1), all minorities have the fundamental right to manage their institutions, which includes choosing their governing bodies, appointing qualified staff, and admitting students while maintaining their unique cultural or religious identity.
• The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, introduced Article 30(1A), which mandates that the State must provide appropriate compensation if it compulsorily acquires the property of a minority educational institution, ensuring that the right to establish such institutions is not hindered.
• Article 30(2) prohibits the State from discriminating against any educational institution in terms of providing financial aid or recognition solely because it is under the management of a religious or linguistic minority.
• While these rights are absolute in terms of management, they are subject to reasonable state regulations regarding academic standards, health, sanitation, and public order to ensure educational excellence.

 Additional Information

• Article 25:
• Guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion.
• It is subject to public order, morality, and health, and allows the State to regulate secular activities associated with religious practice.
• Article 28:
• Provides freedom regarding attendance at religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.
• It distinguishes between institutions wholly maintained by the State (where religious instruction is prohibited) and those aided by the State.
• Article 29:
• Focuses on the protection of interests of any section of citizens residing in India who have a distinct language, script, or culture.
• It ensures they have the right to conserve their heritage, and no citizen shall be denied admission to state-aided institutions on grounds of religion, race, caste, or language.

Therefore, the correct option is 4.

The correct answer is Dhol.

Key Points

• The Dhol is a large, double-sided barrel drum that serves as the essential rhythmic heartbeat of Bhangra music and the associated folk dance from Punjab.
• Historically, the instrument played a crucial role in agrarian Punjabi society, used to celebrate the Vaisakhi festival and to signal the successful completion of the harvest.
• It is played using two wooden sticks: a thick, curved stick called the dagga for the bass side and a thin bamboo stick called the tilli for the treble side.
• The Dhol provides the signature chaal rhythm, a syncopated 8-beat pattern that defines the high-energy nature of Bhangra performances.
• While other percussion instruments exist in Punjabi folk, the Dhol is the most iconic and loud, making it suitable for large outdoor gatherings and festive processions.

 Additional Information

• Tabla:
• A pair of hand drums consisting of the Dayan (right) and Bayan (left).
• It is the primary percussion instrument for Hindustani Classical music and is used for intricate rhythmic patterns rather than the loud, booming beats required for Bhangra.
• Sitar:
• A plucked string instrument belonging to the lute family, featuring sympathetic strings and a long hollow neck.
• It is a staple of Indian classical music and is generally not used as a lead instrument in traditional Bhangra folk compositions.
• Violin:
• A bowed chordophone that was adapted into the Indian musical tradition.
• It is particularly prominent in Carnatic music of South India, though it occasionally appears in modern fusion versions of Bhangra.

The correct answer is To Kill a Mockingbird.

Key Points

• Published in 1960, To Kill a Mockingbird is the debut novel by American author Harper Lee and is considered a masterpiece of Southern Gothic literature.
• The novel was an immediate success, winning the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 1961 and becoming one of the most widely read books in the United States.
• The plot is set in the fictitious town of Maycomb, Alabama, during the 1930s, a period marked by the Great Depression and deep-seated racial segregation.
• The narrative centers on Atticus Finch, a courageous lawyer who defends Tom Robinson, a Black man falsely accused of raping a white woman, Mayella Ewell.
• Through the eyes of Atticus's children, Scout and Jem Finch, the book explores the themes of racial injustice, the destruction of innocence, and the persistence of prejudice in society.
• The title refers to the central metaphor of the mockingbird, which represents innocence; to kill a mockingbird is considered a sin because they do nothing but provide music for people to enjoy.

 Additional Information

• Go Set a Watchman:
• Published in 2015, this was originally written by Harper Lee in the mid-1950s but served as the first draft for what eventually became To Kill a Mockingbird.
• It depicts an older Scout Finch returning to Maycomb and discovering unsettling truths about her father's views on race.
• The Color Purple:
• A 1982 epistolary novel by Alice Walker that won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction and the National Book Award.
• It focuses on the lives of African American women in the Southern United States during the early 20th century, dealing with themes of abuse and empowerment.
• Invisible Man:
• A seminal novel by Ralph Ellison, published in 1952, which addresses social and intellectual issues facing African Americans.
• The book won the National Book Award and explores the concept of identity and the feeling of being socially invisible due to racism.

The correct answer is Surgery.

Key Points

• A cataract is a medical condition involving the opacification or clouding of the eye's natural crystalline lens, which is normally clear to allow light to focus on the retina.
• The condition is primarily caused by the aggregation of crystallin proteins within the lens due to oxidative stress, aging, or UV radiation, leading to blurred vision and eventual blindness if left untreated.
• Surgery is the only definitive corrective method; it involves the extraction of the cloudy lens and the implantation of a clear, artificial Intraocular Lens (IOL).
• The most common surgical technique is Phacoemulsification, where an ultrasonic probe vibrates at high frequencies (approx. 40,000 Hz) to emulsify the hardened lens for removal through a micro-incision.
• Clinical data suggests that cataract surgery has a success rate exceeding 95 percent, making it one of the most frequently performed and safest medical procedures globally.

 Additional Information

• Limitations of Non-Surgical Options:
• Glasses and Contacts: These can improve visual acuity in the very early stages by correcting refractive errors caused by lens changes, but they cannot reverse the protein clumping in the lens.
• Eye Drops: While lubricating drops or medicated drops treat surface issues or glaucoma, no pharmacological agent is currently approved to dissolve a cataract.
• Risk Factors and Prevention:
• Systemic Conditions: Chronic diseases such as Diabetes Mellitus and Hypertension significantly increase the rate of lens opacification.
• Environmental Factors: Long-term exposure to ultraviolet (UV) rays and habits like smoking are major contributors to the early onset of senile cataracts.

The correct answer is 2 min.

Key Points

• The World Archery Federation (formerly known as FITA) governs the official rules for target archery worldwide. Under these regulations, the standard time allotted for an archer to shoot an end of three arrows is exactly 2 minutes (120 seconds).
• This timing rule is calculated based on a generous allowance of 40 seconds per arrow. The 40-second-per-arrow benchmark is the international standard for individual indoor and outdoor target archery qualification rounds.
• The time limit is strictly monitored using digital countdown clocks and acoustic signals (whistles) to ensure that the competition proceeds efficiently and fairly for all participants.
• If an archer fails to release all three arrows within the 2-minute window, any arrow shot after the expiration of time is penalized. Typically, the highest-scoring arrow of that end is forfeited and recorded as a miss (zero).
• This specific time frame applies to both the Recurve and Compound bow categories during standard ranking rounds in official tournaments like the World Championships and the Olympic Games.

 Additional Information

• Visual and Acoustic Signaling:
• Green Light: Indicates the start of the shooting period.
• Amber (Yellow) Light: This signal usually appears when only 30 seconds remain in the 2-minute block, serving as a warning for the archer to complete their shots.
• Red Light: Indicates that the time has expired and no more arrows may be released.
• Whistle Commands: One blast of the whistle signals the start of shooting, while two blasts signal the archers to move to the shooting line.
• Alternate Match Play:
• In high-stakes Match Play (head-to-head eliminations), the time limit is often reduced to 20 seconds per arrow. In these cases, archers shoot one arrow at a time alternately, which adds significant pressure to the timing and execution.
• Six-Arrow Ends:
• In some tournament formats, archers shoot ends of six arrows. In such scenarios, the time limit is doubled to 4 minutes (240 seconds), maintaining the same ratio of 40 seconds per arrow.

The correct answer is Third Plan.

Key Points

• The Third Five-Year Plan, implemented from 1961 to 1966, is often referred to as the Gadgil Yojana, named after Dhananjay Ramchandra Gadgil, a renowned social scientist and the then Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission.
• The primary objective of this plan was to make the Indian economy self-reliant and to reach a self-generating state by emphasizing agriculture and increasing the production of wheat.
• It aimed for a balanced regional development and prioritized the expansion of basic industries such as steel, chemicals, fuel, and power to support long-term industrialization.
• Historically, the plan is considered a failure in meeting its growth targets, achieving only a 2.4 percent growth rate against a target of 5.6 percent, primarily due to external shocks including the Sino-Indian War (1962) and the Indo-Pakistani War (1965).
• The plan also coincided with a severe drought in 1965-66, which led to the Green Revolution being conceptualized to ensure food security in the subsequent years.

 Additional Information

• First Five-Year Plan:
• Based on the Harrod-Domar model, it focused on the agricultural sector and irrigation projects like the Bhakra Nangal Dam.
• Second Five-Year Plan:
• Commonly known as the Mahalanobis Plan, it focused on heavy industries and rapid industrialization under the leadership of P.C. Mahalanobis.
• Fourth Five-Year Plan:
• Launched after the Plan Holidays, it focused on growth with stability and progressive achievement of self-reliance, utilizing the Gadgil Formula for resource allocation between the Center and States.
• Plan Holiday:
• Between 1966 and 1969, three Annual Plans were implemented due to the economic instability following the failure of the Third Five-Year Plan and the devaluation of the Indian Rupee.

The correct answer is Adenosine triphosphate.

Key Points

• Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a complex organic chemical that provides energy to drive many processes in living cells, such as muscle contraction, nerve impulse propagation, and chemical synthesis.
• The molecular structure of ATP consists of a nitrogenous base (adenine), a pentose sugar (ribose), and a chain of three phosphate groups covalently bonded to the sugar.
• It is universally recognized as the 'energy currency' of life because it captures chemical energy obtained from the breakdown of food molecules and releases it to fuel other cellular processes.
• Energy is stored within the phosphoanhydride bonds linking the phosphate groups; the hydrolysis of the terminal phosphate bond releases approximately 30.5 kJ/mol of energy under standard conditions.
• Upon losing a phosphate group, ATP is converted into Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP), which can then be recharged back into ATP during cellular respiration.

 Additional Information

• Adenosine vs Adenine:
• Adenine is a purine nucleobase, while Adenosine is a nucleoside formed when adenine is attached to a ribose sugar ring.
• Phosphate Variations:
• ADP (Adenosine Diphosphate) contains two phosphate groups and represents a partially discharged state of the energy carrier.
• AMP (Adenosine Monophosphate) contains a single phosphate group and is often involved in cellular signaling (e.g., cyclic AMP).
• Mitochondria:
• Known as the 'powerhouse of the cell', these organelles are the primary sites where oxidative phosphorylation occurs to generate the bulk of the cell's ATP supply.

The correct answer is Anil Kumble.

Key Points

• Anil Kumble, a legendary leg-spinner, holds the record for the highest number of wickets by an Indian in Test cricket, having claimed 619 wickets in 132 matches.
• He maintained an average of 29.65 and a strike rate of 65.9 throughout his illustrious career spanning from 1990 to 2008.
• Kumble is famously known for his Perfect 10 achievement, where he took all 10 wickets in a single innings against Pakistan at the Feroz Shah Kotla (now Arun Jaitley Stadium) in 1999.
• He currently ranks fourth on the overall list of highest wicket-takers in Test history, trailing only Muttiah Muralitharan, Shane Warne, and James Anderson.
• Known for his accuracy and bounce rather than massive turn, he bowled a staggering 40,850 balls in Test cricket, the most by any Indian bowler.

 Additional Information

• R. Ashwin:
• As of mid-2024, Ravichandran Ashwin is the second-highest wicket-taker for India with over 500 Test wickets.
• He holds the record for being the fastest Indian to reach milestones of 50, 100, 150, 200, 250, 300, 350, 400, 450, and 500 Test wickets.
• Kapil Dev:
• The 1983 World Cup winning captain took 434 wickets in 131 matches before retiring in 1994.
• He was the first bowler in the world to surpass Sir Richard Hadlee's record for the most Test wickets at that time.
• Harbhajan Singh:
• Known as the Turbanator, he took 417 wickets in 103 Test matches.
• He was the first Indian to record a hat-trick in Test cricket, achieved against Australia in 2001.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.

Key Points

• The Bhakra-Nangal Project is one of the earliest and largest multi-purpose river valley schemes in India, constructed across the Sutlej River.
• The Bhakra Dam is situated in the Bilaspur district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a massive concrete gravity dam that creates the Govind Sagar reservoir.
• The Nangal Dam is located approximately 13 kilometers downstream from Bhakra at Nangal in the state of Punjab, serving as a balancing reservoir for the Bhakra Dam.
• This project is a joint venture of the states of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, designed to harness the waters of the Sutlej for irrigation and hydroelectric power.
• Standing at a height of approximately 226 meters, the Bhakra Dam was once the highest gravity dam in the world and remains a vital engineering marvel in India.

 Additional Information

• Sutlej River Characteristics:
• It is an antecedent river that originates from Lake Rakshasthal in Tibet near Mount Kailash.
• The river enters India through the Shipki La pass in the Himalayan ranges.
• Historical Context:
• The construction of the project began in 1948, and it was dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru in 1963.
• Nehru famously referred to such projects as the 'Temples of Modern India' due to their role in economic self-reliance.
• Economic Impact:
• The project facilitates irrigation for over 10 million acres of agricultural land in the northwest region of India.
• Hydroelectric power stations at Ganguwal and Kotla utilize the water flow to generate thousands of megawatts of electricity for industrial and domestic use.
• The Govind Sagar reservoir is named after the tenth Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh, and provides significant fisheries and tourism opportunities.

The correct answer is Woman-focused financial assistance of ₹50,000 over 5 years.

Key Points

• The Subhadra Yojana is a flagship welfare initiative launched by the Government of Odisha aimed at the financial empowerment and socio-economic development of women in the state.
• Under this scheme, eligible women receive a total financial assistance of ₹50,000 distributed over a period of five years, covering the financial years from 2024-25 to 2028-29.
• The assistance is provided in annual increments of ₹10,000, which is credited directly to the beneficiary's Aadhaar-enabled bank account to ensure transparency and efficiency.
• Each annual payment is further divided into two equal installments of ₹5,000, released on significant occasions: Rakhi Purnima and International Women's Day (March 8).
• The scheme targets a massive demographic, specifically focusing on women within the age group of 21 to 60 years across all 30 districts of Odisha.

 Additional Information

• Launch and Implementation:
• The scheme was officially inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on September 17, 2024, in Bhubaneswar.
• The Women and Child Development Department is the nodal agency responsible for the execution and monitoring of the scheme.
• Eligibility and Exclusions:
• Beneficiaries must be permanent residents of Odisha and belong to families covered under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) or the State Food Security Scheme (SFSS).
• Exclusions apply to women who are income tax payers, regular government employees, or those receiving more than ₹1,500 per month from other government welfare schemes.
• Families owning more than 5 acres of irrigated land or 10 acres of non-irrigated land are generally ineligible.
• Scheme Objectives:
• It aims to increase the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) footprint and promote digital financial literacy among rural and urban women.
• The funds are intended to help women meet their entrepreneurial needs, improve their standard of living, and provide a financial safety net for health and education.

The correct answer is Atal Innovation Mission (AIM).

Key Points

• The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative launched by NITI Aayog in 2016 to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across India.
• The mission aims to foster a culture of innovation at different levels, including schools, universities, research institutions, and the MSME sector.
• One of its key components is the Atal Tinkering Labs (ATL), which are established in schools to nurture curiosity, creativity, and imagination in young minds through tools like 3D printers, robotics, and Internet of Things (IoT).
• For higher education and industry, it supports Atal Incubation Centers (AIC), providing world-class infrastructure and mentorship to startups in sectors such as health, agriculture, and energy.
• It also features the Atal New India Challenges (ANIC), which seek to spur product and technology innovations that have a direct social impact in areas like sanitation and clean energy.
• The Mentor of Change program under AIM is one of the largest formal volunteer mentoring networks in the country, connecting professionals with students to guide their innovative journeys.

 Additional Information

• Digital India Initiative:
• Launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
• It focuses on transforming India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy through enhanced online infrastructure.
• National Skill Development Mission:
• Launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
• It aims to provide the overall institutional framework to rapidly scale up skill development efforts across the country.
• Startup India Scheme:
• Launched in January 2016 by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
• It intends to build a strong ecosystem for nurturing startups by providing tax exemptions, funding support, and simplified compliance.

The correct answer is Mission Poshan 2.0.

Key Points

• Mission Poshan 2.0 is an integrated nutrition support program launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to address the challenges of malnutrition in children, adolescent girls, and pregnant women through a strategic shift in nutrition delivery.
• As of July 2025, the mission has successfully registered over 72.22 lakh pregnant women as beneficiaries, ensuring they receive essential supplementary nutrition and health monitoring services.
• The scheme utilizes the Poshan Tracker, a robust ICT-enabled real-time monitoring system that tracks the delivery of nutrition services and the growth of beneficiaries across Anganwadi Centres nationwide.
• It focuses on three main verticals: Nutritional Support for various groups, Early Childhood Care and Education, and Maternal Nutrition to reduce the incidence of low birth weight and stunting.
• The program emphasizes the Convergence of various departmental schemes to ensure that the 1,000-day window (from conception to a child’s second birthday) is managed with high-quality nutritional interventions.

 Additional Information

• Food Fortification Initiative:
• This involves the deliberate addition of essential micronutrients such as Iron, Folic Acid, and Vitamin B12 to staple foods like rice, wheat, and milk.
• It aims to combat anaemia and micronutrient deficiencies without requiring changes in the dietary habits of the population.
• Eat Right India Movement:
• An initiative led by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) to transform the food ecosystem.
• It focuses on three pillars: Eat Safe, Eat Healthy, and Eat Sustainable, targeting behavioral changes in food consumption.
• PM Gati Shakti:
• A National Master Plan for Multi-modal Connectivity aimed at breaking departmental silos in infrastructure planning.
• It focuses on logistics efficiency and infrastructure development (like railways, roads, and ports) and is unrelated to maternal healthcare or nutrition.

The correct answer is Nanda dynasty.

Key Points

• The Shishunaga dynasty, which ruled Magadha from approximately 413 BCE to 345 BCE, was succeeded by the Nanda dynasty. The transition occurred when Mahapadma Nanda usurped the throne by assassinating the last Shishunaga ruler, traditionally identified as Kalashoka or his sons.
• Mahapadma Nanda is renowned as the first great empire builder of India. He expanded the boundaries of Magadha significantly, conquering territories across Northern India and parts of the Deccan, earning the title Ekarat (sole sovereign).
• The Nanda dynasty is historically significant for being the first non-Kshatriya dynasty, with Puranic texts often describing the founder as being of Shudra origin, which marked a major shift in the social hierarchy of Indian royalty.
• The dynasty was known for its immense wealth and a massive military force, which included 200,000 infantry, 20,000 cavalry, 2,000 chariots, and 3,000 war elephants. This military reputation is cited as one of the factors that discouraged the army of Alexander the Great from advancing further into the Gangetic plains in 326 BCE.

 Additional Information

• Haryanka Dynasty:
• It was the first major dynasty to rule Magadha, founded by Bimbisara in 544 BCE.
• Key rulers included Ajatashatru, who patronized the First Buddhist Council, and Udayin, who founded the city of Pataliputra.
• Maurya Dynasty:
• Founded by Chandragupta Maurya in 322 BCE after he defeated Dhana Nanda, the last Nanda king, with the strategic guidance of Chanakya (Kautilya).
• This dynasty reached its zenith under Emperor Ashoka, who promoted Dhamma and unified nearly the entire Indian subcontinent.
• Gupta Dynasty:
• Established much later, around 319 CE, by Sri Gupta.
• Known as the Golden Age of India, this period saw massive advancements in science, mathematics, and Sanskrit literature.

The correct answer is Subsidy Claim Application for NFSA.

Key Points

• The SCAN (Subsidy Claim Application for NFSA) portal was launched in December 2024 by Pralhad Joshi, the Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, to modernize the food subsidy management system in India.
• The primary function of this digital platform is to streamline, automate, and digitize the entire process of submitting and processing subsidy claims by State Governments and Union Territories under the National Food Security Act (NFSA).
• The portal eliminates the traditional manual submission of documents, thereby reducing the time-lag in the settlement of claims and ensuring the timely release of funds to state agencies involved in procurement and distribution.
• It features a robust real-time monitoring dashboard that allows both central and state officials to track the status of applications, verify data accuracy, and address discrepancies through a transparent electronic audit trail.
• By implementing SCAN, the government aims to enhance the efficiency of the food supply chain and improve the financial liquidity of state agencies, which is crucial for maintaining the steady flow of foodgrains to the poor.
• The system incorporates automated validation checks that compare state-submitted data with central records of foodgrain off-take, ensuring that the subsidy disbursed is accurate and prevents leakage or over-claiming of funds.

 Additional Information

• National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013:
• This landmark legislation provides legal entitlement to subsidized foodgrains to approximately 813.5 million people across India.
• It covers up to 75 percent of the rural population and 50 percent of the urban population under two categories: Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) and Priority Households (PHH).
• The central government pays the difference between the Economic Cost (procurement, storage, and distribution) and the Central Issue Price as a subsidy.
• Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution:
• The ministry is responsible for the Minimum Support Price (MSP) operations, procurement through the Food Corporation of India (FCI), and the management of the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS).
• The launch of the SCAN portal is a significant step under the ministry’s 100-day action plan aimed at enhancing Ease of Doing Business and digital governance.
• Pralhad Joshi:
• An Indian politician currently serving as the Union Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution and the Minister of New and Renewable Energy.
• He previously held portfolios such as Parliamentary Affairs, Coal, and Mines, emphasizing infrastructure and systemic reforms in the public sector.

The correct answer is 4.

Key Points

• The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the third-generation launch vehicle developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), specifically designed to launch Indian Remote Sensing satellites into Sun-synchronous orbits.
• The PSLV-D2 mission, conducted on October 15, 1994, was the second developmental flight and the first successful mission of the PSLV program, following the unsuccessful PSLV-D1 flight in 1993.
• The vehicle is famously known as a four-stage rocket, which alternates between solid and liquid propulsion systems to achieve high efficiency and precise orbital placement.
• The first stage (PS1) consists of an S139 solid rocket motor carrying 138 tonnes of Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB) propellant, supplemented by six strap-on boosters to provide initial liftoff thrust.
• The second stage (PS2) is powered by the Vikas engine, a liquid-propellant engine that utilizes UH25 (a blend of UDMH and Hydrazine Hydrate) and Nitrogen Tetroxide as the oxidizer.
• The third stage (PS3) uses a high-performance solid rocket motor that provides the necessary thrust for the vehicle's journey through the upper atmosphere.
• The fourth stage (PS4), the final stage, utilizes a twin-engine liquid propulsion system using Monomethylhydrazine (MMH) and Mixed Oxides of Nitrogen (MON-3), allowing for the precise injection of the satellite into its target orbit.
• During the PSLV-D2 mission, the vehicle successfully placed the 804 kg IRS-P2 satellite into an 817 km Polar Sun-synchronous orbit.

 Additional Information

• PSLV Historical Significance and Evolution
• The PSLV earned the title 'Workhorse of ISRO' due to its consistent reliability in launching various national and international satellites.
• It was the vehicle used for India's first interplanetary mission, the Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan), and the first lunar probe, Chandrayaan-1.
• The Vikas engine used in the second stage was developed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) and was named after Dr. Vikram Sarabhai, the father of the Indian space program.
• Standard variants of the PSLV include the PSLV-G (Generic), PSLV-CA (Core Alone), and PSLV-XL, differing primarily in the use and power of the strap-on boosters rather than the core stage count.

The correct answer is Henry Louis Vivian Derozio.

Key Points

• Henry Louis Vivian Derozio (1809−1831) was a radical thinker of Anglo-Indian descent and a brilliant teacher at Hindu College, Calcutta, from 1826 to 1831.
• He was the primary force behind the Young Bengal Movement, which represented a radical trend in the Indian Renaissance during the late 1820s and early 1830s.
• Deeply influenced by the French Revolution, Derozio encouraged his students to adopt rationalism, challenge all forms of authority, and cherish the ideals of liberty and equality.
• His followers, known as the Derozians, were famous for their public criticism of orthodox Hindu customs, support for women's education, and advocacy for freedom of expression.
• Derozio founded the Academic Association in 1828, a debating society where students discussed topics like atheism, patriotism, and social reform.
• Often cited as the first Nationalist Poet of Modern India, his patriotic poems like 'To India - My Native Land' reflected early sentiments of Indian nationalism.

 Additional Information

• Raja Rammohun Roy:
• Regarded as the Father of Modern India, he founded the Atmiya Sabha in 1815 and the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 to reform Indian society.
• He was instrumental in the legal abolition of Sati in 1829 and promoted the study of Western science and English education.
• Keshub Chunder Sen:
• A charismatic leader who joined the Brahmo Samaj in 1857 and later formed the Brahmo Samaj of India in 1866 to emphasize universalism.
• He worked extensively on social issues, leading to the enactment of the Native Marriage Act (or Civil Marriage Act) in 1872.
• Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume):
• A retired officer of the Indian Civil Service who played a pivotal role in organizing the first session of the Indian National Congress in 1885.
• He is known for his role as a bridge between the British Administration and Indian nationalists during the early stages of the political struggle.

The correct answer is 17.3%.

Key Points

• The 1951 Census of India was the first comprehensive population count conducted after the country attained Independence and following the Partition of the subcontinent.
• According to the official data of the 1951 Census, the total population of India stood at approximately 361.1 million people.
• Of this total, the urban population was recorded at 62.4 million, which constitutes 17.29% (commonly rounded to 17.3%) of the total population.
• The rural population accounted for the vast majority of the residents, numbering 298.7 million and representing about 82.7% of the total count.
• The decadal growth rate of the urban population between 1941 and 1951 was notably high at approximately 41.4%, largely driven by the migration of refugees into cities following Partition.

 Additional Information

• Historical Urbanization Trends:
• 1901 Census: The urban population was significantly lower, recorded at just 10.85%.
• 1981 Census: By the early eighties, the urban share had grown to approximately 23.34%.
• 2011 Census: The most recent completed census recorded that 31.16% of the Indian population resides in urban areas.
• Definition of Urban Areas (1951): In the 1951 Census, an area was classified as urban if it had a municipality, town committee, notified area committee, or cantonment board, or if it possessed a population of at least 5,000 with distinct urban characteristics.
• Economic Context: The 1951 figures reflect an agrarian economy where the majority of the labor force was engaged in primary sector activities, specifically agriculture, before the intensive industrialization phases of later Five-Year Plans.

The correct answer is 6.

Key Points

• In the sport of Kabaddi, a bonus point is a tactical scoring mechanism awarded to a raider for reaching the bonus line under specific defensive conditions.
• The bonus line only becomes active when the defending team (the catchers) has a minimum of 6 players or a maximum of 7 players present on the court.
• To successfully earn this point, the raider must cross the bonus line such that one foot is placed completely on the ground beyond the line, while the other foot (trailing foot) is lifted in the air, ensuring no contact with the ground behind or on the line.
• If the number of defenders on the mat is 5 or fewer, the bonus point rule is suspended, meaning the raider cannot earn this extra point regardless of their foot placement.
• As per the regulations of the International Kabaddi Federation (IKF) and the Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI), the bonus line is marked at 4.75 meters from the mid-line in the men’s court and 4 meters in the women’s court.

 Additional Information

• Baulk Line:
• This line is situated 3.75 meters from the mid-line. A raider must cross this line with at least one foot to make a raid valid; failure to do so results in the raider being declared out.
• Super Tackle:
• A Super Tackle occurs when a raider is successfully caught by a defense consisting of 3 or fewer players. In this case, the defending team earns 2 points instead of the standard 1 point.
• Lona:
• A Lona is awarded when a team manages to put out the entire opposing team. The side achieving this receives 2 bonus points, and the entire opposition is then revived to resume play.
• Do-or-Die Raid:
• If a team completes two consecutive empty raids (raids where no points are scored), the third raid is designated as a Do-or-Die raid, where the raider must score a point or they will be declared out.

The correct answer is Afghanistan.

Key Points

• The World Happiness Report 2024 was released on March 20, 2024, in observance of the International Day of Happiness.
• The report is a publication of the United Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network and draws data primarily from the Gallup World Poll.
• Afghanistan was identified as the least happy country in the world, ranking 143rd out of the 143 nations surveyed.
• The score is determined by a three-year average of life evaluations recorded between 2021 and 2023, capturing the period since the Taliban took control.
• The nation's ranking is a reflection of ongoing humanitarian crises, widespread poverty, and the systematic suppression of rights, particularly those of women and girls.

 Additional Information

• The World Happiness Report bases its rankings on six key factors:
• GDP per capita and Healthy life expectancy.
• Social support and Freedom to make life choices.
• Generosity and Perceptions of corruption.
• Global Leaders: Finland maintained its top spot as the happiest country for the seventh consecutive year, followed by Denmark and Iceland.
• Context of Other Options:
• Pakistan: Positioned at 108th, showing a better happiness index compared to Afghanistan despite domestic challenges.
• China: Ranked 60th, placing it in the upper-middle bracket of the global rankings.
• North Korea: This country was not included in the 2024 report due to the absence of independent survey data from the Gallup World Poll.
• India's Standing: India was ranked 126th in the 2024 report, which remains unchanged from its 2023 ranking.

Shortcut Trick

Solve the core components using BODMAS: 58 × 2 = 116 and (43 + 15) = 58.

Simplify: 116 − 58 = 58.

Remaining: 58 − 29 + 64 + 18.

Total: 29 + 82 = 111.

∴ The correct answer is 111.

Alternate Method

Given Expression: 58 × 2 − 29 + 64 − (43 + 15) + 18

Apply the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction):

⇒ 116 − 29 + 64 − (58) + 18

⇒ 116 − 29 + 64 − 58 + 18

⇒ (116 + 64 + 18) − (29 + 58)

⇒ 198 − 87

⇒ 111

∴ The correct answer is 111.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

The acronym stands for Bracket, Of (Orders/Exponents), Division, Multiplication, Addition, and Subtraction, which defines the sequence of operations.

Bracket Hierarchy

Always solve Parentheses () first, followed by Braces {}, and then Square Brackets [].

Commutative Property

For Addition and Multiplication, the order of numbers does not change the result (e.g., a + b = b + a).

Shortcut Trick

Solve using the unit digit method to save time.

Expression unit digits: 3 + 6 − 4 + (3 × 2) + 7

⇒ 3 + 6 − 4 + 6 + 7 = 18

The unit digit of the result must be 8.

Among the given options, only 128 ends with the digit 8.

∴ The correct answer is 128.

Alternate Method

Given: 33 + 76 − 44 + (23 × 2) + 17

Follow the BODMAS rule: Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.

⇒ 33 + 76 − 44 + 46 + 17

⇒ (33 + 76 + 46 + 17) − 44

⇒ 172 − 44

⇒ 128

∴ The correct answer is 128.

Additional Information

BODMAS Rule

This rule dictates the hierarchy of mathematical operations to ensure consistent results. Multiplication must be performed before addition or subtraction when no brackets or orders are involved.

Commutative Property of Addition

Addition is commutative, meaning a + b = b + a. In simplification, it is often easier to sum all positive terms first and then subtract the negative terms.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the expression as a form of (a⁴ − b⁴) ÷ (a² − b²).

By algebraic identity, (a⁴ − b⁴) = (a² − b²)(a² + b²).

The expression simplifies directly to a² + b².

Put a = 0.5 and b = 0.4: (0.5)² + (0.4)² = 0.25 + 0.16 = 0.41.

∴ The correct answer is 0.41.

Alternate Method

Given: Expression = ((0.5)⁴ − (0.4)⁴) ÷ ((0.5)² − (0.4)²)

Formula Used: x² − y² = (x − y)(x + y)

⇒ Let a = 0.5 and b = 0.4

⇒ Expression = ((a²)² − (b²)²) ÷ (a² − b²)

⇒ Expression = [(a² − b²)(a² + b²)] ÷ (a² − b²)

⇒ Expression = a² + b²

⇒ Expression = (0.5)² + (0.4)²

⇒ Expression = 0.25 + 0.16

⇒ Expression = 0.41

∴ The correct answer is 0.41.

Additional Information

Difference of Squares

The identity a² − b² = (a − b)(a + b) is one of the most common algebraic factorizations used in simplification.

Higher Power Identities

The pattern for even powers follows aⁿ − bⁿ = (a^n/2 − b^n/2)(a^n/2 + b^n/2), allowing for recursive simplification.

Decimal Squaring

When squaring a decimal with one decimal place, the result will have two decimal places (e.g., 0.5 × 0.5 = 0.25).

Shortcut Trick

Approximate the cube root of the product to find the middle value: √³12075 ≈ 22.9.

The consecutive odd numbers near 22.9 are 21, 23, and 25.

Verify the product: 21 × 23 × 25 = 483 × 25 = 12075.

The largest number among 21, 23, and 25 is 25.

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Alternate Method

Given: Product of three consecutive odd numbers = 12075.

Method: Prime Factorization of the product.

⇒ Prime factors of 12075:

⇒ 12075 = 5 × 2415

⇒ 12075 = 5 × 5 × 483

⇒ 12075 = 5 × 5 × 3 × 161

⇒ 12075 = 5 × 5 × 3 × 7 × 23

Group these factors into three consecutive odd numbers:

⇒ (3 × 7) × 23 × (5 × 5)

⇒ 21 × 23 × 25

The numbers are 21, 23, and 25.

⇒ Largest number = 25.

∴ The correct answer is 25.

Additional Information

Consecutive Odd Numbers

These are odd integers that follow each other in order, such as x, x+2, x+4. The common difference is always 2.

Arithmetic Mean of Consecutive Numbers

For an odd number of terms in an arithmetic progression, the middle term is the average of the numbers.

Product Approximation

If the product of three consecutive numbers is P, the middle number is approximately √³P.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the perfect square identity: 4a² + 4a + 1 = (2a + 1)².

The expression reduces to √(2a + 1)² + 3a = 2a + 1 + 3a = 5a + 1.

Substituting a = 0.067, we get 5(0.067) + 1 = 0.335 + 1 = 1.335.

∴ The correct answer is 1.335.

Alternate Method

Given:

Value of a = 0.067

Formula Used:

Algebraic identity: (x + y)² = x² + 2xy + y²

Property: √x² = |x|

Calculations:

⇒ √(4a² + 4a + 1) + 3a

⇒ √((2a)² + 2 × (2a) × 1 + 1²) + 3a

⇒ √(2a + 1)² + 3a

⇒ (2a + 1) + 3a

⇒ 5a + 1

⇒ 5 × 0.067 + 1

⇒ 0.335 + 1

⇒ 1.335

∴ The correct answer is 1.335.

Additional Information

Perfect Square Binomial

An expression of the form x² + 2xy + y² can always be written as (x + y)², which simplifies the square root to (x + y) for positive terms.

Absolute Value in Roots

Mathematically, √x² = |x|. If the variable x is known to be such that the binomial is positive (like 2a + 1 where a = 0.067), the modulus is simply the term itself.

Decimal Calculations

When multiplying decimals like 5 × 0.067, multiply as whole numbers (5 × 67 = 335) and then place the decimal point three places from the right to get 0.335.

Shortcut Trick

Find the second diagonal: d₂ = (2 × Area) ÷ d₁ = (2 × 336) ÷ 14 = 48 cm.

The half-diagonals are 7 cm (14 ÷ 2) and 24 cm (48 ÷ 2).

Using the Pythagorean triplet (7, 24, 25), the side of the rhombus is 25 cm.

∴ The correct answer is 25 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Area of rhombus = 336 cm²

Diagonal 1 (d₁) = 14 cm

Formula Used:

Area = 1/2 × d₁ × d₂

Side (a) = √[(d₁/2)² + (d₂/2)²]

Calculations:

⇒ 336 = 1/2 × 14 × d₂

⇒ 336 = 7 × d₂

⇒ d₂ = 336 ÷ 7 = 48 cm

⇒ Side = √[(14/2)² + (48/2)²]

⇒ Side = √(7² + 24²)

⇒ Side = √(49 + 576)

⇒ Side = √625

⇒ Side = 25 cm

∴ The correct answer is 25 cm.

Additional Information

Properties of a Rhombus

A rhombus is a special parallelogram where all four sides are equal. Its diagonals bisect each other at right angles (90°).

Relationship between Side and Diagonals

The side 'a' and diagonals d₁, d₂ are related by the equation: 4a² = d₁² + d₂².

Perimeter of Rhombus

Since all sides are equal, the perimeter of a rhombus is calculated as 4 × side.

Shortcut Trick

Number of terms (n) = [(Last term − First term) ÷ Common difference] + 1

⇒ n = [(272 − 96) ÷ 4] + 1 = 44 + 1 = 45

Sum = Average × n = [(96 + 272) ÷ 2] × 45

Sum = 184 × 45 = 8280

∴ The correct answer is 8280.

Alternate Method

Given:

First term (a) = 96

Common difference (d) = 100 − 96 = 4

Last term (l) = 272

Formula Used:

n-th term: l = a + (n − 1)d

Sum of n terms: S_n = (n/2) × (a + l)

Calculations:

⇒ 272 = 96 + (n − 1) × 4

⇒ 272 − 96 = (n − 1) × 4

⇒ 176 = (n − 1) × 4

⇒ n − 1 = 176 ÷ 4 = 44

⇒ n = 44 + 1 = 45

⇒ S₄₅ = (45/2) × (96 + 272)

⇒ S₄₅ = (45/2) × 368

⇒ S₄₅ = 45 × 184 = 8280

∴ The correct answer is 8280.

Additional Information

General Term of an AP

The n-th term is given by a_n = a + (n − 1)d, where a is the first term and d is the common difference.

Sum of First n Natural Numbers

The sum of the first n natural numbers is S = n(n + 1) ÷ 2.

Arithmetic Mean

For any two numbers x and y, the arithmetic mean is (x + y) ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

The series is an Arithmetic Progression (AP) with first term 116 and common difference 4.

Total terms (n) = [(Last − First) ÷ Difference] + 1

n = [(352 − 116) ÷ 4] + 1 = 59 + 1 = 60 terms.

Sum = (n ÷ 2) × (First + Last) = (60 ÷ 2) × (116 + 352) = 30 × 468.

∴ The correct answer is 14040.

Alternate Method

Given:

First term (a) = 116

Last term (l) = 352

Common difference (d) = 120 − 116 = 4

Formula Used:

l = a + (n − 1)d

S_n = (n ÷ 2) × (a + l)

Calculations:

⇒ 352 = 116 + (n − 1) × 4

⇒ 352 − 116 = (n − 1) × 4

⇒ 236 = (n − 1) × 4

⇒ n − 1 = 236 ÷ 4

⇒ n − 1 = 59

⇒ n = 60

⇒ S₆₀ = (60 ÷ 2) × (116 + 352)

⇒ S₆₀ = 30 × 468

⇒ S₆₀ = 14040

∴ The correct answer is 14040.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Progression (AP)

An AP is a sequence where the difference between any two consecutive terms is a constant called the common difference (d).

n-th Term of an AP

The formula to find the n-th term is a_n = a + (n − 1)d, where 'a' is the first term.

Sum of n terms (Alternative Formula)

S_n = (n ÷ 2) × [2a + (n − 1)d]. This is used when the last term is not explicitly given.

Sum of First 'n' Natural Numbers

The sum of the first n positive integers is calculated using [n × (n + 1)] ÷ 2.

Shortcut Trick

If a constant value 'M' is subtracted from every observation in a set, the Average of that set also decreases by exactly 'M'.

Change in Average = Old Average − New Average

M = 48 − 39 = 9

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total numbers (n) = 24

Original Average = 48

New Average = 39

Value subtracted from each number = M

Formula Used:

Average = (Total Sum of numbers) ÷ (Number of terms)

If each term is reduced by M, then: New Average = Old Average − M

Calculations:

⇒ Total original sum = 24 × 48 = 1152

⇒ Total new sum = 24 × 39 = 936

⇒ Total decrease in sum = 1152 − 936 = 216

⇒ Since M is subtracted from each of the 24 numbers, Total decrease = 24 × M

⇒ 24 × M = 216

⇒ M = 216 ÷ 24

⇒ M = 9

∴ The correct answer is 9.

Additional Information

Arithmetic Property of Average

If a constant k is added to or subtracted from each observation, the new average becomes (Old Average + k) or (Old Average − k) respectively.

Multiplication Property of Average

If each observation is multiplied or divided by a non-zero constant k, the new average becomes (Old Average × k) or (Old Average ÷ k).

Change in Number of Observations

When a new observation is added, New Sum = (Old Average × n) + New Value. The new average is then New Sum ÷ (n + 1).

Shortcut Trick

Total deficiency left by removed numbers = (35 − 20) + (35 − 14) + (35 − 26) + (35 − 32) = 15 + 21 + 9 + 3 = 48.

This surplus of 48 is now distributed among the remaining 10 − 4 = 6 numbers.

Increase in average = 48 ÷ 6 = 8.

New Average = Old Average + Increase = 35 + 8 = 43.

∴ The correct answer is 43.

Alternate Method

Given: Average of 10 numbers = 35, Removed numbers = 20, 14, 26, 32.

Formula: New Average = (Total Sum − Sum of Removed Numbers) ÷ (Total Count − Removed Count)

⇒ Total sum of 10 numbers = 35 × 10 = 350

⇒ Sum of removed numbers = 20 + 14 + 26 + 32 = 92

⇒ Sum of remaining 6 numbers = 350 − 92 = 258

⇒ New average = 258 ÷ 6

⇒ New average = 43

∴ The correct answer is 43.

Additional Information

Average Formula

The arithmetic mean or average is calculated as the Sum of all observations divided by the Total number of observations.

Effect of Exclusion

When a value is excluded, if the excluded value is less than the average, the new average increases; if it is greater, the average decreases.

Sum of Deviations

The sum of deviations of a set of values from their arithmetic mean is always zero.

Shortcut Trick

Convert the decimals into integers by multiplying by 100: 42, 60, and 78.

Calculate the differences between the numbers: 60 − 42 = 18 and 78 − 60 = 18.

The Highest Common Factor (HCF) must be a factor of 18. Factors of 18 are 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18.

The largest factor that divides 42, 60, and 78 is 6.

Re-apply the decimal by dividing by 100: 6 ÷ 100 = 0.06.

∴ The correct answer is 0.06.

Alternate Method

Given: Decimal numbers 0.42, 0.60, and 0.78.

Formula Used: HCF of decimals = (HCF of integers obtained by making decimal places equal) ÷ (10ⁿ), where n is the number of decimal places.

Calculations:

⇒ Express decimals as fractions: 42/100, 60/100, 78/100

⇒ To find the HCF, we find the prime factorization of the numerators:

⇒ 42 = 2 × 3 × 7

⇒ 60 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 = 2² × 3 × 5

⇒ 78 = 2 × 3 × 13

⇒ Common factors are 2 and 3. So, HCF(42, 60, 78) = 2 × 3 = 6.

⇒ Applying the common denominator: 6 ÷ 100 = 0.06.

∴ The correct answer is 0.06.

Additional Information

HCF of Fractions

HCF = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators). Ensure fractions are in their simplest form before applying the rule.

LCM of Decimals

Like HCF, first make the number of decimal places equal for all numbers, find the LCM as integers, and then place the decimal point accordingly.

Relationship between HCF and LCM

For any two numbers A and B, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: A × B = HCF × LCM.

Shortcut Trick

The LCM of 2 and 7 is 14.

The largest 2-digit number is 99.

99 ÷ 14 = 7 with remainder 1.

Largest multiple = 99 − 1 = 98.

∴ The correct answer is 98.

Alternate Method

Given: Divisors are 2 and 7.

Formula Used: Common divisibility requires the Least Common Multiple (LCM).

⇒ LCM of 2 and 7 = 2 × 7 = 14.

⇒ Multiples of 14 are: 14, 28, 42, 56, 70, 84, 98, 112, ...

⇒ Since we need the largest 2-digit number, we check values less than 100.

⇒ 98 is the highest value in the sequence that is less than 100.

∴ The correct answer is 98.

Additional Information

LCM (Least Common Multiple)

The LCM of two prime numbers (like 2 and 7) is simply their product.

Divisibility Rule for 14

A number is divisible by 14 if it is both even (divisible by 2) and satisfies the divisibility rule for 7.

General Formula for Largest Multiple

To find the largest multiple of n less than or equal to k, use the formula: k − (k mod n).

Shortcut Trick

Difference in percentage values = 18% − 12% = 6%

Given that this 6% difference corresponds to the value 48.

Calculating 1% of the number: 48 ÷ 6 = 8.

The whole number (100%) = 8 × 100 = 800.

∴ The correct answer is 800.

Alternate Method

Given:

Percentage 1 = 18%

Percentage 2 = 12%

Numerical Difference = 48

Formula Used:

Value = (Difference in Values ÷ Difference in Percentages) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the required number be x.

⇒ 18% of x − 12% of x = 48

⇒ (18 − 12)% of x = 48

⇒ 6% of x = 48

⇒ (6 ÷ 100) × x = 48

⇒ x = (48 × 100) ÷ 6

⇒ x = 8 × 100

⇒ x = 800

∴ The correct answer is 800.

Additional Information

Percentage Difference Rule

When two different percentages of the same base number are compared, the difference in their values is directly proportional to the difference in their percentage rates.

Base Value Calculation

If p% of a number is 'n', the original number is calculated as: Number = (n × 100) ÷ p.

Successive Percentage Change

If a number changes by a% and then by b%, the net effective change is [a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100]%.

Shortcut Trick

Loss Percentage of 20% is equivalent to the ratio 1/5.

This implies if the Cost Price (CP) is 5 units, the Loss is 1 unit.

The difference between CP and SP (which is the loss) is given as ₹400.

⇒ 1 unit = ₹400.

Selling Price (SP) = CP − Loss = 5 − 1 = 4 units.

⇒ SP = 4 × ₹400 = ₹1600.

∴ The correct answer is ₹1600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Difference (CP − SP) = ₹400

Loss Percentage = 20%

Formula Used:

1. Loss = Cost Price (CP) − Selling Price (SP)
2. Loss% = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100
3. SP = CP − Loss

Calculations:

⇒ Loss Percentage = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ 20 = (400 ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ CP = (400 × 100) ÷ 20

⇒ CP = 20 × 100 = ₹2000

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = CP − Loss

⇒ SP = 2000 − 400

⇒ SP = ₹1600

∴ The correct answer is ₹1600.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss Relationship

When Selling Price (SP) is greater than Cost Price (CP), it is a Profit. When CP is greater than SP, it is a Loss.

Direct SP Calculation

Selling Price can be directly calculated using the formula: SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100 or SP = CP × (100 + Profit%) ÷ 100.

Marked Price and Discount

Marked Price (MP) is the labeled price. Discount is always calculated on the MP, and SP = MP − Discount.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Time taken by M and S = 28 : 35 = 4 : 5.

Ratio of Efficiencies (Wage Ratio) = Inverse of Time Ratio = 5 : 4.

Total wage units = 5 + 4 = 9 units → ₹6300.

1 unit = ₹700.

Share of M = 5 units × 700 = ₹3500.

∴ The correct answer is ₹3500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by M = 28 days

Time taken by S = 35 days

Total wages = ₹6300

Formula Used:

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Days

Wage Share = (Individual Efficiency ÷ Total Efficiency) × Total Wages

Calculations:

⇒ Total Efficiency = Efficiency of M + Efficiency of S

⇒ Total Efficiency = 5 + 4 = 9 units

⇒ Share of M = (Efficiency of M ÷ Total Efficiency) × Total Wage

⇒ Share of M = (5 ÷ 9) × 6300

⇒ Share of M = 5 × 700

⇒ Share of M = ₹3500

∴ The correct answer is ₹3500.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Rule

Wages are always distributed in the ratio of the work done by each person. If they work together for the same amount of time, the wage ratio is equal to their efficiency ratio.

Efficiency and Time Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a task. If time ratio is a:b, then efficiency ratio is b:a.

Work and Days formula

Total Work = Efficiency × Number of Days. This relation is the foundation of the LCM method used in Time and Work problems.

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(12, 18, 36) = 36 units.

Efficiencies: A = 3, B = 2, C = 1.

Work done in 2 days by (A+B+C) = (3 + 2 + 1) × 2 = 12 units.

Remaining Work = 36 − 12 = 24 units.

Time taken by A and C = 24 ÷ (3 + 1) = 6 days.

∴ The correct answer is 6 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 12 days

Time taken by B = 18 days

Time taken by C = 36 days

Formula Used:

Total Work = Efficiency × Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total Work (LCM of 12, 18, 36) = 36 units.

⇒ Work completed by A, B, and C in first 2 days = (3 + 2 + 1) × 2 = 12 units.

⇒ Remaining work to be done = 36 − 12 = 24 units.

⇒ B leaves the work, so A and C complete the rest.

⇒ Combined efficiency of A and C = 3 + 1 = 4 units/day.

⇒ Time taken for remaining work = 24 ÷ 4 = 6 days.

∴ The correct answer is 6 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the Time taken. If a person completes work in 'n' days, their one-day efficiency is 1/n.

Work and Wages

Wages are generally distributed in the ratio of work done or the ratio of efficiencies when all workers work for the same duration.

Combined Work Formula

For two people A and B, the time taken to complete work together is (A × B) ÷ (A + B).

Shortcut Trick

Total distance covered = Speed × Time

Total distance = 25 × 45 = 1125 m

Train Length = Total distance − Bridge Length

Train Length = 1125 − 700 = 425 m

∴ The correct answer is 425 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of the train = 25 m/s

Length of the bridge = 700 m

Time taken to cross the bridge = 45 sec

Formula Used:

Total Distance = Speed × Time

Total Distance = (Length of Train + Length of Bridge)

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = 25 × 45

⇒ Total Distance = 1125 m

⇒ Length of Train + Length of Bridge = 1125

⇒ Length of Train + 700 = 1125

⇒ Length of Train = 1125 − 700

⇒ Length of Train = 425 m

∴ The correct answer is 425 m.

Additional Information

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Relative Speed

If two objects move in the same direction, relative speed is S₁ − S₂. In opposite directions, it is S₁ + S₂.

Crossing a Stationary Point

When a train crosses a pole or a standing man, the distance covered is exactly equal to the length of the train.

Shortcut Trick

For a round trip (Upstream + Downstream), use the direct formula: Total Time = [2 × D × u] ÷ [u² − v²]

Where D = 120 km, v = 4 km/hr, and Total Time = 40 hr.

40 = [2 × 120 × u] ÷ [u² − 4²] ⇒ 40 = 240u ÷ (u² − 16)

1 = 6u ÷ (u² − 16) ⇒ u² − 6u − 16 = 0

Solving the quadratic equation, we get u = 8 (Since speed cannot be negative).

∴ The correct answer is 8 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of Stream (v) = 4 km/hr

Distance (D) = 120 km

Total Time (T) = 40 hr

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Upstream Speed = u − v | Downstream Speed = u + v

Calculations:

⇒ [120 ÷ (u − 4)] + [120 ÷ (u + 4)] = 40

⇒ 120 × [(u + 4) + (u − 4)] ÷ [(u − 4)(u + 4)] = 40

⇒ 120 × [2u] ÷ (u² − 16) = 40

⇒ 240u ÷ (u² − 16) = 40

⇒ 6u = u² − 16

⇒ u² − 6u − 16 = 0

⇒ u² − 8u + 2u − 16 = 0

⇒ u(u − 8) + 2(u − 8) = 0

⇒ (u − 8)(u + 2) = 0

⇒ u = 8 or u = −2

⇒ Speed of boat in still water (u) = 8 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 8 km/hr.

Additional Information

Speed in Still Water and Stream

Speed of Boat in Still Water (u) = (Downstream Speed + Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Speed of Current

Speed of Stream (v) = (Downstream Speed − Upstream Speed) ÷ 2.

Average Speed for Round Trip

Average Speed = (Downstream Speed × Upstream Speed) ÷ Still Water Speed = (u² − v²) ÷ u.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Marked Price (MP) is given by: CP/MP = (100 − Discount%)/(100 + Profit%)

CP / 1000 = (100 − 20) / (100 + 25)

CP / 1000 = 80 / 125

CP = (80 ÷ 125) × 1000 ⇒ CP = 80 × 8

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 640.

Alternate Method

Given: Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 1000, Discount = 20%, Profit = 25%.

Formula Used: SP = MP × (100 − D%)/100; CP = SP × 100/(100 + P%)

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 1000 − (20% of 1000)

⇒ SP = 1000 − 200 = Rs. 800

⇒ Since Profit is 25%, SP = 125% of Cost Price (CP)

⇒ 800 = 1.25 × CP

⇒ CP = 800 ÷ 1.25 = Rs. 640

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 640.

Additional Information

CP and MP Relationship

The formula CP/MP = (100 − Discount%)/(100 + Profit%) is the fastest way to find the ratio between cost and marked price when both profit and discount percentages are known.

Mark-up Percentage

Mark-up % = [(MP − CP)/CP] × 100. It represents how much the price is increased over the Cost Price before offering a discount.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d₁ and d₂ are given, the equivalent single discount is d₁ + d₂ − (d₁ × d₂)/100.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Marked Price (MP) to Cost Price (CP) = 140 : 100 = 7 : 5.

Given 7 units = ₹2800 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹400.

Cost Price (CP) = 5 units = 5 × 400 = ₹2000.

Profit = 25% ⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 125% of CP.

Selling Price (SP) = 2000 × 1.25 = ₹2500.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2500.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹2800

Markup Percentage = 40%

Profit Percentage = 25%

Formula Used:

Marked Price (MP) = Cost Price (CP) × (1 + Markup%/100)

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (1 + Profit%/100)

Calculations:

⇒ 2800 = CP × (1 + 40/100)

⇒ 2800 = CP × 140/100

⇒ CP = (2800 × 100) ÷ 140

⇒ CP = 20 × 100 = ₹2000

⇒ SP = 2000 × (1 + 25/100)

⇒ SP = 2000 × 125/100

⇒ SP = 20 × 125

⇒ SP = ₹2500

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 2500.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP, MP, and Discount

The core relationship is given by the ratio CP/MP = (100 − Discount%)/(100 + Profit%).

Markup Percentage

Markup % is the percentage by which the Marked Price is higher than the Cost Price: Markup % = [(MP − CP)/CP] × 100.

Discount and Selling Price

Selling Price is also calculated as SP = MP × (1 − Discount%). In this problem, no discount was mentioned, so SP was derived directly from Profit.

The correct answer is 'traveling'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the shift toward working from home and its various benefits and challenges.
• The blank requires a verb that describes the act of commuting or moving between home and the workplace.
• 'Traveling' is the most suitable word here as it refers to the journey made between one's home and place of work, commonly known as commuting.
• In the context of the sentence, it explains that working from home saves the time that people usually spend on the road or in transit to reach their office.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: Working from home has become more common in recent years. It offers flexibility and saves time that would be spent (1) traveling to the office. However, it also comes with challenges such as avoiding (2) distractions and staying productive. A quiet workspace and a clear (3) schedule help people focus better. It is also important to take breaks and avoid long hr of (4) nonstop work. With the right approach, working from home can be both convenient and (5) productive.

Additional Information

• Running: Refers to the physical exercise or moving at a fast pace on foot, which is too specific and unlikely to be the general mode of commuting for everyone.
• Walking: Like running, this is a specific mode of transport and does not encompass all forms of commuting (bus, train, car).
• Studying: This refers to the act of learning or academic work, which does not fit the context of moving to an office.

The correct answer is 'distractions'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the advantages and difficulties of working from home.
• When working in a home environment, one of the primary challenges is the presence of various interruptions like household chores, family members, or noise.
• 'Distractions' refers to things that prevent someone from giving their full attention to something else. Avoiding these is crucial for maintaining productivity.
• The word fits the context of the sentence which contrasts staying productive with things that must be avoided.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Passage: Working from home has become more common in recent years. It offers flexibility and saves time that would be spent 1. traveling to the office. However, it also comes with challenges such as avoiding 2. distractions and staying productive. A quiet workspace and a clear 3. schedule help people focus better. It is also important to take breaks and avoid long hr of 4. nonstop work. With the right approach, working from home can be both convenient and 5. productive.

Additional Information

• Emails: These are a common part of digital work and are usually managed rather than avoided to stay productive.
• Attention: This is the concentration required for work; one needs to maintain attention, not avoid it.
• Boredom: While a potential issue, the sentence structure implies external factors or habits that hinder focus, for which 'distractions' is the more appropriate term.

The correct answer is 'schedule'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the environment and practices necessary for effective working from home.
• The sentence indicates that along with a quiet workspace, a clear plan or routine is needed to help individuals focus better.
• 'Schedule' refers to a plan of procedure, typically for a proposed objective, especially with reference to the sequence and timing of operations. In a work context, having a clear schedule is essential for managing time and staying focused.
• Other options like 'report' (a document), 'goal' (an aim), and 'message' (a communication) do not directly describe the daily routine or time management needed to maintain focus.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Passage: Working from home has become more common in recent years. It offers flexibility and saves time that would be spent (1) traveling to the office. However, it also comes with challenges such as avoiding (2) distractions and staying productive. A quiet workspace and a clear (3) schedule help people focus better. It is also important to take breaks and avoid long hr of (4) nonstop work. With the right approach, working from home can be both convenient and (5) productive.

Additional Information

• Report: A written or spoken account of something that one has observed, heard, done, or investigated.
• Goal: The object of a person's ambition or effort; an aim or desired result.
• Message: A verbal, written, or recorded communication sent to or left for a recipient.

The correct answer is 'nonstop'.

Key Points

• The sentence suggests that to maintain a healthy work-life balance while working from home, it is essential to take breaks.
• The blank requires an adjective that describes a type of work habit that should be avoided by taking regular intervals.
• 'Nonstop' means continuing without stopping or pausing. Working for long hours nonstop can lead to fatigue and decreased productivity.
• In the context of the sentence, avoiding 'nonstop' work directly correlates with the advice to 'take breaks'.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Passage: Working from home has become more common in recent years. It offers flexibility and saves time that would be spent (1) traveling to the office. However, it also comes with challenges such as avoiding (2) distractions and staying productive. A quiet workspace and a clear (3) schedule help people focus better. It is also important to take breaks and avoid long hr of (4) nonstop work. With the right approach, working from home can be both convenient and (5) productive.

Additional Information

• 'Relaxing' refers to something that reduces tension or provides rest, which is something generally encouraged, not avoided.
• 'Silent' means making no sound; while a workspace should be silent, 'silent work' is not typically something one is advised to avoid by taking breaks.
• 'Healthy' means promoting good health, which is a positive attribute and would not be something to avoid.

The correct answer is 'productive'.

Key Points

• The passage discusses the nature of working from home, highlighting its benefits like flexibility and the challenges it presents.
• It mentions that while there are hurdles, they can be overcome with the right approach, such as maintaining a quiet workspace and a clear schedule.
• The word for blank (5) is paired with 'convenient' using the conjunction 'and', indicating that a positive adjective is required to describe the outcome of a good work-from-home strategy.
• 'Productive' fits perfectly as it means achieving or doing a lot, which aligns with the goal of working effectively from home.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Passage: Working from home has become more common in recent years. It offers flexibility and saves time that would be spent 1. traveling to the office. However, it also comes with challenges such as avoiding 2. distractions and staying productive. A quiet workspace and a clear 3. schedule help people focus better. It is also important to take breaks and avoid long hr of 4. nonstop work. With the right approach, working from home can be both convenient and 5. productive.

Additional Information

• Dangerous: Refers to something likely to cause harm or injury, which is contextually incorrect for describing a work environment.
• Stressfu: This is a misspelling of 'stressful', meaning causing mental or emotional strain. It contradicts the positive context of the final sentence.
• Difficult: Means needing much effort or skill to accomplish. While working from home can be hard, the sentence suggests that the right approach makes it 'convenient', making 'difficult' an inappropriate pairing.

The correct answer is: zephyr.

Key Points

• The word 'zephyr' refers to a very slight or gentle breeze, typically one that is pleasant. (हल्की मंद हवा)
• Example: The warm zephyr made the afternoon heat much more bearable as we sat by the lake.
• 'zephyr' is the correctly spelled word among the given options; it is often used in literary contexts to describe a soft wind. (मंद समीर)
• Example: A soft zephyr drifted through the open window, carrying the scent of fresh rain.
• Hence, we can infer that the correctly spelled word is 'zephyr'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: zephyr.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Zealote (कट्टरपंथी): This is an incorrect spelling; the correct spelling is Zealot, which refers to a person who is fanatical and uncompromising in pursuit of their religious or political ideals.
• Example: He was a political zealot who refused to listen to any opposing arguments.
• Zeitgeist (युग-चेतना): This term refers to the defining spirit or mood of a particular period of history as shown by the ideas and beliefs of the time.
• Example: The film perfectly captured the zeitgeist of the 1960s counterculture movement.
• zithre (एक प्रकार का वाद्य यंत्र): This is an incorrect spelling; the correct spelling is Zither, which is a musical instrument consisting of a flat wooden sound box with numerous strings.
• Example: The folk musician played a hauntingly beautiful melody on the zither.

The correct answer is Option (3) i.e. consistant.

Key Points

• The word 'consistant' is the misspelt version of the word 'consistent'. It refers to something that is in agreement or remains the same. (संगत)
• Example: The results of the second experiment were not consistant with the first one.
• 'Consistent' is the correct spelling, meaning acting or done in the same way over time, especially so as to be fair or accurate. (संगत)
• Example: He has been a consistent performer for the team throughout the season.
• Hence, we can infer that the misspelt word among the options is 'consistant'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- consistant.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Credible (विश्वसनीय): Able to be believed; convincing.
• Example: The witness provided a credible account of the events that took place.
• Ambiguities (अस्पष्टता): The quality of being open to more than one interpretation; inexactness.
• Example: The contract was rewritten to remove any legal ambiguities.
• Precedents (पूर्ववर्ती उदाहरण): An earlier event or action that is regarded as an example or guide to be considered in subsequent similar circumstances.
• Example: There are no precedents for such a drastic change in the company policy.

The correct answer is: Preserve.

Key Points

• The word 'alter' means to change something, usually in a small but significant way, or to become different. (बदलना)
• Example: We had to alter our travel plans due to the heavy rainfall.
• 'Preserve' refers to the act of maintaining something in its original state or keeping it safe from change, decay, or destruction. (संरक्षित करना)
• Example: The museum aims to preserve ancient artifacts for future generations.
• Hence, it is clear that 'preserve' is the most opposite in meaning to 'alter'.

Therefore, the correct answer is- Preserve.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Modify (संशोधित करना): To make partial or minor changes to something, especially to improve it.
• Example: You may need to modify your diet to improve your overall health.
• Change (बदलना): To make or become different in some way.
• Example: Leaves change color in the autumn season.
• Adjust (समायोजित करना): To alter or move something slightly in order to achieve the desired fit or result.
• Example: It took him some time to adjust to the new working environment.

The correct answer is A series of workshops for skill development is being organised by the team..

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the Active Voice and utilizes the Present Continuous Tense. The structural formula for this tense is: Subject + is/am/are + V1 + ing + Object.
• To convert a Present Continuous sentence into Passive Voice, the object of the active sentence ('a series of workshops for skill development') is transitioned into the subject position.
• The Passive Voice construction for this tense follows the rule: New Subject + is/am/are + being + Past Participle (V3) + by + Agent.
• The noun phrase 'a series' serves as the head of the subject. In English grammar, 'a series of' is treated as a singular collective unit, which requires the singular auxiliary verb 'is' to maintain Subject-Verb Agreement.
• The inclusion of the word 'being' is a critical grammatical requirement to indicate the continuous or progressive aspect of the action.
• The main verb 'organise' is converted into its Past Participle form, which is 'organised'.
• Finally, the original subject 'the team' is added as the agent of the action, preceded by the preposition 'by'. Therefore, the resulting sentence is the logically and grammatically correct passive transformation.

 Additional Information

• Analysis of Tense Variations in Passive Voice:
• Simple Present Passive: This uses the structure 'is/am/are + V3'. Option 1 ('is organised') is incorrect because it fails to represent the ongoing action found in the original sentence.
• Past Continuous Passive: This uses 'was/were + being + V3'. Option 3 ('was being organised') is incorrect because it changes the timeframe of the action from present to past.
• Present Perfect Passive: This follows 'has/have + been + V3'. Option 4 ('has been organised') is incorrect as it describes a completed action rather than a continuous one.
• General Rules for Voice Conversion:
• The Object of the active sentence always becomes the Subject of the passive sentence.
• The Passive Voice always requires a form of the verb 'to be' followed by the Past Participle of the main verb.
• The tense of the sentence must remain consistent during the transformation from active to passive voice.

The correct answer is Was this bridge built without modern machines by them?.

Key Points

• The original sentence Did they build this bridge without modern machines? is in the Simple Past Tense and follows an interrogative structure.
• In the active voice, the Simple Past interrogative follows the pattern: Did + Subject + Base Verb (V1) + Object?. Here, they is the subject, build is the verb, and this bridge is the object.
• To convert a Simple Past question into passive voice, the structure changes to: Was/Were + Subject (Object of Active Voice) + Past Participle (V3) + by + Agent?.
• Since the object this bridge is singular, the auxiliary verb Was is used to start the sentence.
• The base verb build is converted into its past participle form, which is built.
• The active subject they is converted into the objective pronoun them following the preposition by.
• Applying these rules, the sentence becomes: Was this bridge built without modern machines by them?.

 Additional Information

• Understanding incorrect tense structures:
• Present Perfect Passive: Uses Has/Have + Subject + been + V3. This is used when the active sentence is in the Present Perfect Tense.
• Simple Present Passive: Uses Is/Am/Are + Subject + V3. This is applicable if the active sentence uses Do/Does.
• Simple Future Passive: Uses Will + Subject + be + V3. This is used for sentences indicating future intent or actions.
• Tense Consistency: It is a fundamental rule of voice conversion that the tense of the sentence must remain unchanged during the transformation from active to passive.

The correct answer is 'with'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition 'with' is used after the verb 'argue' when referring to the person or group of people with whom one is having a disagreement.
• In the sentence, the phrase 'each other' refers to the people involved in the discussion (the students), making 'with' the grammatically correct choice.
• The general structure for this verb is: Argue + with + someone + about + something.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The students argued with each other about the solution to the problem of drinking water in the college.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: 'about' is used to indicate the subject or topic of the argument (e.g., They argued about the price). It is already used later in the sentence ('about the solution').
• Option 3: 'against' is used when someone is opposing an idea, a proposal, or a person in a formal debate or legal context (e.g., He argued against the motion).
• Option 4: 'for' is used when someone is supporting or favoring a particular idea or cause (e.g., She argued for better facilities).

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The central issue in the sentence is the choice of preposition used with the adjective steadfast.
• Steadfast means to be resolutely or dutifully firm and unwavering in purpose, loyalty, or resolve.
• In standard English idiomatic usage, the adjective steadfast is typically followed by the preposition to when it refers to an adherence to principles, beliefs, faith, or duties.
• Therefore, the correct phrase should be steadfast to their principles to ensure idiomatic accuracy.
• The verb urged is appropriate here as it means to earnestly or persistently persuade someone to do something.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

Correct Sentence: 'The speaker, in his concluding remarks, urged the audience to remain steadfast to their principles despite adversity.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: The verb surged means a sudden powerful forward or upward movement (like a crowd or a wave), which is contextually incorrect in place of urged.
• Option 3: While requested is grammatically possible, steadfast in is less idiomatic than steadfast to when discussing loyalty to specific principles.
• Option 4: The original sentence uses steadfast with, which is not the standard prepositional pairing for this adjective in this context.

The correct answer is 'but'.

 

Key Points

• The word but can be used as a preposition meaning except or apart from.
• The idiomatic expression but for is used to introduce the only person or thing that is an exception to a general statement.
• In this context, the sentence states that the building was absolutely empty, with the ladder being the sole exception.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 do not fit the grammatical structure or the intended meaning of showing an exception.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: 'The building was absolutely empty but for the ladder against the front wall.'

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: at is a preposition used to indicate a specific point, location, or time.
• Option 3: through is used to indicate movement from one side to the other or by means of something.
• Option 4: with is used to indicate accompaniment, possession, or the instrument used to perform an action.

The correct answer is No improvement required.

Key Points

• The original sentence uses Despite correctly as a preposition to show contrast. It is followed by the gerund (verb+ing) facing, which acts as the object of the preposition. Hence, the original structure is grammatically sound.
• Option 1 is incorrect because the quantifier multiple must be followed by a plural countable noun. The use of the singular form challenge instead of challenges makes this option grammatically invalid. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Option 2 is incorrect because Despite is never followed by the preposition of. While In spite of is a three-word preposition, Despite functions as a single-word preposition on its own. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Option 3 is less appropriate because Although is a conjunction that usually introduces a subordinate clause containing a subject and a finite verb (e.g., Although the team faced...). While reduced clauses exist, Despite is the most direct and standard choice for preceding a gerund phrase in this context. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Since the underlined portion Despite facing multiple challenges adheres to all rules of English syntax, including prepositional usage and noun-number agreement, no changes are necessary. Hence, the correct choice is No improvement required.

 Additional Information

• Prepositions of Contrast:
• Despite: Used without of. Followed by a noun, pronoun, or gerund.
• In spite of: Meaning is identical to despite, but it must include of.
• Conjunctions of Contrast:
• Although / Even though / Though: These are followed by a clause (Subject + Verb). Example: Even though they faced challenges, they finished.
• Noun Agreement:
• Words like multiple, various, numerous, and several always require a plural noun in standard English.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The primary grammatical error in the sentence lies in the phrase 'her colleague'.
• The sentence aims to compare the presentation skills of two individuals. However, comparing 'She' directly to 'her colleague' in this context creates an issue of illogical or faulty comparison.
• To establish a proper and logical parallel comparison of their skills, the possessive form 'her colleague's' should be used. This implies 'her colleague's presentation skills'.
• Thus, the error is located in the segment containing 'her colleague'.

Therefore, the correct answer is her colleague.

 

Correct Sentence: 'She is better than her colleague's in presentation skills.'

 

Additional Information

• is: This is the correct singular form of the verb 'to be', agreeing with the singular subject 'She'.
• better: This is the correct comparative degree of the adjective 'good', used for comparing two entities.
• then: In comparative structures, 'than' is the standard conjunction used; however, the fundamental structural error under evaluation is the faulty comparison of nouns.