SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 10 Feb, 2025 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Given equation:

18 ÷ 15 + 5 × 3 − 4 = ?

Given Sign Interchanges:

• ‘+’ and ‘÷‘ are interchanged
• ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged

Applying the sign interchanges to the given equation:

Original: 18 ÷ 15 + 5 × 3 − 4

New equation: 18 + 15 ÷ 5 − 3 × 4

= 18 + 15 ÷ 5 − 3 × 4

= 18 + 3 − 12

= 21 − 12

= 9

Therefore, the value of the question mark (?) is 9.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre (but not necessarily in the same order) .

P is sitting to the immediate right of R and immediate left of Q. T is sitting to the immediate left of R. 

S is sitting to the immediate right of U and immediate left of T.

Thus, V is immediate neighbour of both Q and U.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

JGKH is related to LIMJ 

VSWT is related to XUYV

Similarly,

WTXU  is related to ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, code for R is "1".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The unfolded of the paper cutting will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Seven people, G, H, I, J, K, L and M, are sitting in a row, facing north(but not necessarily in the same order) .

Only five people sit between H and G. L sits to the immediate left of G.

Only one person sits between L and I. J sits at some place to the left of K but at some place to the right of M.

Thus, Only two is people sit to the left of J.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given : word → MODULES 

So, according to question rearranging the word in alphabetic : 

Thus, according to the final arrangement zero letter remains unchanged.

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Given: ZVRU_TPSV_NQTP ORN_

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Statements:

All drawers are racks.

Some racks are cabinets.

All cabinets are shelves.

The least possible venn diagram is given:

<br> <br>

 Conclusions:

(I) All shelves are racks - False(because, all cabinets are shelves are given, it implies that some shelves are cabinets, so it can possible only).

(II) Some shelves are drawers - False(because, there is no direct relation is given, so it can be possible only).

Thus,  Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The unfolded the paper cutting will be:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given: P is the brother of R. R is the father of Q. S is the husband of Q. T is the daughter of S.

Thus, P is the Mother's father's brother of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The embedded image of the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) GID

Option 2) DGB

Here, it does not follow.

Option 3) HJE

Option 4) PRM

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Sum of the place value - 11 = code.

'TZKI' is coded as '55'

'QBYA' is coded as '34'.

Similarly, 

'FWNP'  is coded as ?.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

LNPR is related to TVXZ 

FHJL is related to NPRT

Similarly,

ZBDF is related to  ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Elements are moving 45º anticlockwise and letters is adding in the each next step.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The least possible venn diagram of given statement is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The Correct answer is MM Keeravani.

Key Points

• MM Keeravani is a renowned Indian music composer, playback singer, and lyricist.
• He gained global recognition for his song 'Naatu Naatu', featured in the action film RRR.
• The song 'Naatu Naatu' won the Academy Award (Oscar) for Best Original Song in 2023, making it the first Indian song to win this prestigious accolade.
• MM Keeravani has primarily worked in the Telugu cinema industry, but his compositions have also been featured in other Indian languages such as Hindi, Tamil, and Kannada.
• He has collaborated extensively with SS Rajamouli, the director of RRR, on several blockbuster films.
• MM Keeravani is celebrated for his ability to blend Indian classical music with contemporary styles, creating memorable soundtracks that resonate with audiences worldwide.
• Besides 'Naatu Naatu,' his other notable works include compositions for films like Baahubali, Annamayya, Pelli Sandadi, and Eega.
• MM Keeravani's contribution to Indian cinema has earned him numerous awards, including National Film Awards, Filmfare Awards, and State Nandi Awards.

 Additional Information

• AR Rahman
• AR Rahman is one of India's most celebrated music composers, known for his versatility and innovation in music.
• He won two Academy Awards (Oscars) for his work in the film Slumdog Millionaire (Best Original Score and Best Original Song - "Jai Ho").
• Rahman has composed music for numerous acclaimed films, such as Roja, Bombay, Lagaan, and 127 Hours.
• He is often referred to as the Mozart of Madras and has been honored with several Grammy Awards, BAFTA Awards, and National Film Awards.
• KJ Yesudas
• KJ Yesudas is an iconic playback singer from India, primarily known for his contributions to Indian classical and film music.
• He has sung in multiple Indian languages, including Malayalam, Tamil, Telugu, Hindi, Kannada, Bengali, and Sanskrit.
• Yesudas is a recipient of several prestigious awards, such as the Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Vibhushan.
• While he is a celebrated singer, he is not known for composing music like MM Keeravani.
• SP Balasubramanium
• SP Balasubramanium, often referred to as SPB, was a legendary playback singer, music director, and actor.
• He sang over 40,000 songs in multiple Indian languages, including Telugu, Tamil, Kannada, Hindi, and Malayalam.
• SPB won numerous accolades, including National Film Awards, Filmfare Awards, and State Nandi Awards.
• Though he contributed immensely to Indian music, he was primarily recognized as a singer rather than a composer like MM Keeravani.

The Correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Uzhavar Thirunal, also known as Farmers’ Festival, is celebrated in the state of Tamil Nadu.
• This festival coincides with the celebration of Pongal, a major harvest festival in Tamil Nadu.
• It is a time dedicated to honoring and expressing gratitude to farmers for their contributions to agriculture and the economy.
• During this festival, people acknowledge the importance of agriculture, which is the backbone of Tamil Nadu's economy.
• Traditional dishes are prepared using fresh harvest produce, and communities come together to celebrate.
• Farmers offer prayers to the Sun God and other deities for a prosperous agricultural season.
• The festival also highlights cultural performances, traditional games, and exhibitions, showcasing Tamil Nadu's rich heritage.
• Uzhavar Thirunal reflects the significance of agriculture in Tamil Nadu and promotes the idea of sustainability and respect for nature.

 Additional Information

• Kerala
• Kerala is known for its harvest festival called Onam, which is celebrated with great enthusiasm across the state.
• Onam marks the homecoming of the mythical King Mahabali and includes rituals, feasts, boat races, and traditional dances.
• Kerala is often referred to as "God's Own Country" due to its scenic beauty and cultural heritage.
• Andhra Pradesh
• In Andhra Pradesh, the harvest festival is celebrated as Sankranti, which is a major event in the state.
• It involves rituals, traditional food, and kite flying to mark the harvest season.
• Sankranti is also associated with the worship of cattle, which play a significant role in agriculture.
• Telangana
• Telangana celebrates Sankranti with unique traditions, such as the decoration of houses and cooking traditional dishes.
• Special events like cockfights and cultural performances are organized during the festival.
• Agriculture is an important aspect of Telangana’s economy, and Sankranti symbolizes the gratitude towards farmers and nature.

The Correct answer is Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Key Points

• Prof. (Dr. Soumya Swaminathan), a renowned scientist in the field of public health, was appointed as Principal Advisor for the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in July 2024.
• The National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme (NTEP) aims to eliminate Tuberculosis (TB) from India by 2025, as per the Sustainable Development Goals outlined by the Government of India.
• Dr. Swaminathan has vast experience, having served as the Chief Scientist of the World Health Organization (WHO), and her expertise in global health and infectious diseases makes her a crucial asset to this initiative.
• The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare plays a pivotal role in the implementation of health-related programs, focusing on the prevention and elimination of diseases like TB, malaria, and others.
• This Ministry works closely with state governments, international organizations, and various stakeholders to ensure the success of health programs like the NTEP.
• India has the highest burden of Tuberculosis globally, and initiatives like NTEP are critical in addressing this public health challenge.

 Additional Information

• Union Ministry of Housing Welfare
• This Ministry primarily focuses on issues related to housing, urban development, and welfare programs.
• It is responsible for schemes like Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), which aims to provide affordable housing to Indian citizens.
• This Ministry does not oversee health-related programs such as TB elimination.
• Union Ministry of Home Affairs
• The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for internal security, law and order, and disaster management within India.
• It plays a vital role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the nation but does not focus on health programs or initiatives.
• Union Ministry of Child Care
• This Ministry does not exist as a separate entity; however, child-related welfare programs are often overseen by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
• It focuses on schemes like Poshan Abhiyaan and Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) but does not have a direct role in the elimination of diseases such as TB.

The correct answer is 10.

Key Points

• In the sport of archery, the scoring system is based on the part of the target an arrow hits.
• The target face consists of concentric rings, with the innermost ring known as the inner gold ring.
• The inner gold ring represents the highest scoring area, and hitting this ring with an arrow gives a maximum score of 10 points.
• This scoring system is standard in most archery formats, including Olympic archery and other international competitions.
• A perfect score in a round of archery depends on the number of arrows shot, but hitting the inner gold ring consistently is the key to achieving the highest possible score.
• Accurate aim, proper technique, and focus are critical for archers to hit this high-value target zone.
• This scoring system ensures fairness and rewards precision, making archery a highly competitive and skill-oriented sport.

 Additional Information

• Key Concepts in Archery Scoring
• The target face in archery is divided into several colored rings, each representing a specific score value ranging from 1 to 10.
• The gold rings are located at the center of the target and are worth the highest points, with the outer gold ring scoring 9 points and the inner gold ring scoring 10 points.
• Archery competitions can be held in various formats, including indoor, outdoor, and field archery, each with specific rules and target distances.
• In some formats, a perfect score can result from hitting the inner gold ring multiple times in a round.
• Importance of 10-Point Scoring
• The 10-point score is a benchmark for excellence in archery and is often targeted by professional and competitive archers.
• It also requires a combination of skills such as precision, steadiness, and mental focus, making it a challenging yet rewarding achievement.
• In major tournaments like the Olympics, archers aim for the inner gold ring to secure victory and achieve high rankings.

The Correct answer is Cuttack.

Key Points

• Cuttack is one of the most prominent cities in the state of Odisha, India.
• It is often referred to as the ‘Silver City’ due to its famous silver filigree works.
• The city is known for its rich cultural heritage, historical significance, and being a hub for sports activities.
• The Barabati Stadium, located in Cuttack, is a major venue for hosting domestic and international sports events, including cricket and other tournaments.
• The Ultimate Kho-Kho League Season 2 final was organized in Cuttack, underlining the city’s growing importance in promoting indigenous sports in India.
• Cuttack is also the judicial capital of Odisha and houses the Orissa High Court.
• Its central location and excellent connectivity make it a popular choice for hosting major events, including sports leagues.

 Additional Information

• Bhubaneshwar
• Bhubaneshwar, the capital of Odisha, is known as the ‘Temple City of India’ due to its numerous ancient temples.
• The city is an important center for education, IT, and tourism in Odisha.
• Bhubaneshwar has hosted several national and international sports events, including the Hockey World Cup.
• Although it is a major sports venue, the Ultimate Kho-Kho League Season 2 final was not held here.
• Sambalpur
• Sambalpur is famous for its rich cultural heritage, particularly the Sambalpuri sarees and traditional music.
• The city is located on the banks of the Mahanadi River and is known for its Hirakud Dam, the longest earthen dam in the world.
• While Sambalpur is a historically and culturally significant city, it was not chosen as the venue for the final match of the Ultimate Kho-Kho League Season 2.
• Rourkela
• Rourkela is known as the ‘Steel City of Odisha’ and is home to one of India’s largest steel plants, the Rourkela Steel Plant.
• The city also has a strong sports culture and recently hosted matches during the Men’s Hockey World Cup 2023.
• Despite its sports infrastructure, Rourkela did not host the Ultimate Kho-Kho League Season 2 final.

The Correct answer is Article 25.

Key Points

• Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the freedom of religion to every individual.
• This article provides all persons with the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate their religion, subject to public order, morality, and health.
• It ensures that individuals can follow their religious beliefs without interference, as long as they do not violate laws or disrupt public harmony.
• It applies to citizens and non-citizens alike, making it a universal right for all individuals residing in India.
• However, the article allows the state to regulate or restrict activities related to religion in the interest of social welfare and reform, such as the abolition of practices like untouchability.
• Freedom of religion is one of the fundamental rights enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
• This article plays a crucial role in ensuring secularism, which is a key feature of India's democratic framework.

 Additional Information

• Article 27
• Article 27 prohibits individuals from being compelled to pay any taxes that are specifically allocated for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.
• This article ensures that the state does not favor any religion financially and maintains a secular approach in its operations.
• Article 28
• Article 28 deals with the freedom from attending religious instruction or religious worship in educational institutions wholly maintained by the state.
• It ensures that no individual is forced to participate in religious activities in such institutions, safeguarding the principle of secular education.
• Article 26
• Article 26 grants every religious denomination or its sections the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
• It also allows them to manage their own affairs in matters of religion, own and acquire property, and administer it in accordance with the law.

The Correct answer is 382 persons/km².

Key Points

• The Census of India 2011 is the 15th National Census conducted by the Government of India.
• The population density is defined as the number of people living per unit area (per square kilometer).
• As per the Census of India 2011, the population density of India was recorded as 382 persons/km².
• This marked an increase from the previous census (2001), which reported a density of 325 persons/km².
• Higher population density indicates a more concentrated population in certain areas, especially in states like Bihar, West Bengal, and Kerala.
• The states with the highest population density in 2011 were Bihar (1106 persons/km²) and West Bengal (1028 persons/km²).
• India's population density is influenced by factors like availability of resources, geographical conditions, and urbanization.
• Regions with lower population density include mountainous and desert areas, such as Arunachal Pradesh (17 persons/km²) and Rajasthan.

 Additional Information

• Census of India 2011
• The Census of India 2011 was conducted under the supervision of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India.
• It recorded a total population of 1.21 billion.
• The literacy rate of India in 2011 was recorded at 74.04%.
• It also provided insights into other factors such as sex ratio, urbanization trends, and household amenities.
• Population Density Trends
• States like Bihar and West Bengal have consistently reported high population density due to better agricultural resources and urban concentration.
• Regions like the Northeast and parts of Rajasthan have lower density due to geographical constraints like mountains and deserts.
• Population density serves as an important metric for planning and resource allocation.

The Correct answer is Focus on economic crisis management and policy adjustments.

Key Points

• The Rolling Plan was introduced in 1978 by the Janata Party government led by Prime Minister Morarji Desai.
• The primary objective of the Rolling Plan was to address the economic instability caused by the global oil crisis of the 1970s and the subsequent domestic economic issues.
• The plan focused on policy adjustments to stabilize the economy and manage the crisis effectively.
• Unlike the fixed Five-Year Plans, the Rolling Plan was flexible and allowed for annual revisions based on the prevailing economic conditions.
• It aimed to provide a short-term response to economic challenges while maintaining a medium-term perspective on growth and development.
• The plan emphasized the need for fiscal discipline, reduction of inflation, and a balanced approach to resource allocation.
• It was a significant departure from the traditional planning process, allowing for greater adaptability in economic policy-making.

 Additional Information

• Employment generation and regional balance
• This objective was central to the Second Five-Year Plan, which focused on industrialization and ensuring balanced regional development.
• It aimed to reduce disparities in regional development by creating employment opportunities in less developed areas.
• Growth with social justice and economic stability
• This was the focus of the Fourth Five-Year Plan, which emphasized inclusive growth and poverty alleviation.
• The plan sought to combine economic growth with social justice, ensuring that the benefits of development reached all sections of society.
• Agricultural expansion and industrial growth
• This was the main objective of the Third Five-Year Plan, which aimed to achieve self-sufficiency in food grain production and promote industrialization.
• The focus was on agriculture and industry as the twin pillars of economic development.

The Correct answer is 33.

Key Points

• The Edicts of Ashoka are a collection of 33 inscriptions engraved on pillars, boulders, and cave walls, created during the reign of the Mauryan emperor Ashoka (c. 268–232 BCE).
• These inscriptions are found across the Indian subcontinent, including regions in modern-day India, Nepal, Pakistan, and Afghanistan.
• The edicts are written in several languages, including Prakrit, Greek, and Aramaic, and are inscribed in various scripts, such as the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts.
• The main purpose of these edicts was to propagate Ashoka’s policy of Dhamma (a code of moral and ethical conduct).
• The edicts can be classified into several categories: Pillar Edicts, Major Rock Edicts, and Minor Rock Edicts.
• They highlight Ashoka’s efforts to promote Buddhism, his dedication to the welfare of his people, and his emphasis on nonviolence, tolerance, and compassion.
• The most famous of these inscriptions is the Kalinga Edict, which reflects Ashoka’s remorse after the destructive Kalinga War and his subsequent commitment to nonviolence.
• The inscriptions are an important source for understanding the history, administration, and cultural practices of the Mauryan Empire.

 Additional Information

• Importance of the Edicts
• The edicts provide insights into the administrative policies of the Mauryan Empire and Ashoka’s role as a ruler.
• They emphasize principles such as religious tolerance, social welfare, and moral responsibility.
• The inscriptions also demonstrate Ashoka’s adoption of Buddhism and his efforts to spread its teachings across his empire and beyond.
• Key Features of the Edicts
• The inscriptions are unique for their use of multiple languages and scripts, reflecting the diversity of the Mauryan Empire.
• They serve as some of the earliest examples of written records in Indian history, contributing significantly to the study of epigraphy and linguistics.
• They are widely regarded as a testament to Ashoka’s progressive and humanitarian approach to governance.

The Correct answer is 2008.

Key Points

• The Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) was launched in the year 2008 by the Government of India.
• The program is aimed at generating self-employment opportunities through the establishment of micro-enterprises in the non-farm sector.
• It is implemented by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) through Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), which acts as the nodal agency.
• The program merged two earlier schemes: Prime Minister’s Rojgar Yojana (PMRY) and Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP).
• Under PMEGP, the government provides financial assistance in the form of a subsidy for setting up new projects.
• The scheme promotes entrepreneurship in rural and urban areas, targeting unemployed youth and traditional artisans.
• It provides subsidies ranging from 15% to 35% of the project cost based on the category of the applicant and location of the project.
• PMEGP has played a significant role in boosting employment generation and in fostering economic growth at the grassroots level in India.

 Additional Information

• 2006
• The year 2006 is significant for the introduction of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), later renamed as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).
• This act aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by guaranteeing 100 days of wage employment in a financial year to every household.
• 2007
• In 2007, the Government of India launched the National Skill Development Mission with a focus on enhancing skill development initiatives for the youth.
• This was a preparatory phase for many employment-related schemes.
• 2009
• The year 2009 marked the introduction of the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), which was established to promote skill training by involving the private sector.
• This initiative complements employment generation schemes like PMEGP.

The Correct answer is Concurrent List.

Key Points

• The Concurrent List is one of the three legislative lists defined under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• This list includes subjects on which both the Centre and the States can legislate.
• It represents the concept of cooperative federalism, enabling joint efforts by both levels of government.
• Some key subjects in the Concurrent List include education, marriage and divorce, bankruptcy and insolvency, forests, protection of wildlife, and criminal laws.
• In case of a conflict between laws made by the Centre and the States on subjects in the Concurrent List, the law made by the Central Government prevails, as per Article 254 of the Constitution.
• The Concurrent List allows flexibility and coordination, ensuring that both the Centre and the States can address critical issues simultaneously.
• It was inspired by the legislative structure of the Australian Constitution, which also includes a concurrent legislative framework.

 Additional Information

• Union List
• The Union List includes subjects on which only the Central Government can legislate. It is defined under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• It consists of subjects of national importance such as defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, banking, currency, and communication.
• There are 100 subjects in the Union List as per the Constitution (as of now).
• The idea of a Union List ensures central control over critical areas affecting the entire nation.
• Residual List
• The Residual List consists of subjects that are not enumerated in the Union, State, or Concurrent Lists.
• As per Article 248, these subjects fall under the exclusive legislative authority of the Central Government.
• Examples of residual subjects include cyberspace, e-commerce, and atomic energy.
• State List
• The State List includes subjects on which only the State Governments can legislate.
• It comprises 61 subjects, such as police, public health, agriculture, and local government.
• The State List empowers states to address region-specific issues independently.

The Correct answer is Indian Railways and India Post.

Key Points

• Indian Railways and India Post collaborated to develop the 'Joint Parcel Product' (JPP) in 2022.
• The JPP initiative was designed to create a seamless and integrated logistics network for parcel delivery.
• The primary goal is to leverage the expansive railway network and the vast reach of India Post to enhance parcel transportation services.
• It aims to improve efficiency, speed, and affordability in the delivery of goods and parcels across India.
• Indian Railways, with its extensive network, provides fast and reliable transportation services, while India Post contributes with its widespread last-mile delivery capability.
• This partnership aligns with the government's focus on improving logistics infrastructure and promoting e-commerce growth.
• The collaboration also supports the vision of Digital India by integrating technology into logistics and delivery services.
• JPP is expected to play a significant role in streamlining parcel services for businesses, individuals, and government agencies.

 Additional Information

• Indian Airlines and India Post
• Indian Airlines was merged with Air India in 2007, making it part of the larger national carrier.
• While Indian Airlines primarily focused on passenger air travel, it did not have a significant role in logistics or parcel delivery like Indian Railways.
• India Post, however, has a long-standing history of providing postal and parcel services across India.
• Ministry of External Affairs
• The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is responsible for managing India's foreign relations and diplomacy, not logistics or parcel services.
• Its key functions include managing embassies, consulates, and international treaties.
• MEA is not directly involved in domestic transportation or delivery systems like Indian Railways or India Post.
• Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
• The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways oversees the development and maintenance of national highways and road infrastructure in India.
• While the ministry plays a critical role in improving road-based logistics, it is not directly involved in the JPP initiative.
• Its focus lies on road transportation systems rather than railway or postal networks.

The correct answer is Odisha.

Key Points

• The Ganga delta and coastal plains of Odisha are frequently affected by storms and heavy rains, especially during the monsoon season (July and August).
• Odisha’s geographical location along the Bay of Bengal makes it particularly vulnerable to cyclonic storms and heavy rainfall.
• These storms are often associated with low-pressure systems that form over the Bay of Bengal and intensify, causing disruptions in the region.
• Such weather phenomena lead to waterlogging, flooding, and agricultural losses in the state.
• Odisha has experienced several catastrophic cyclones, such as the 1999 Super Cyclone, which caused widespread devastation.
• The government of Odisha has implemented various disaster management initiatives to mitigate the impact of these storms, including the establishment of cyclone shelters and early warning systems.
• The coastal plains of Odisha also benefit from a fertile soil composition, which is vital for agriculture, but the recurring storms often disrupt farming activities.
• Odisha’s climatic conditions during July and August are largely influenced by the Southwest Monsoon, which brings heavy rainfall to the region.

 Additional Information

• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu is primarily affected by cyclonic storms during the Northeast Monsoon season, which occurs between October and December.
• It receives less rainfall from the Southwest Monsoon compared to other states on the eastern coast.
• The coastal areas of Tamil Nadu are vulnerable to storms originating in the Bay of Bengal, but these are less frequent during July and August.
• Gujarat
• Gujarat is located on the western coast of India and is primarily affected by cyclonic storms originating in the Arabian Sea.
• Monsoonal rainfall in Gujarat is significant but does not typically involve frequent storms like those in Odisha.
• The state faces occasional cyclones during the post-monsoon season or early monsoon period.
• Maharashtra
• Maharashtra experiences monsoonal rainfall, particularly in the Western Ghats region, but it is not prone to frequent cyclonic storms during July and August.
• The state’s coastal areas, such as Mumbai and Konkan, are more affected by heavy rains due to the monsoon rather than storms.
• Unlike Odisha, Maharashtra’s geographical features do not make it highly vulnerable to cyclones from the Bay of Bengal.

The Correct answer is Sankirtana.

Key Points

• Sankirtana is a traditional dance and singing form of Manipur that was inscribed on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity by UNESCO in 2013.
• It is primarily performed by the Vaishnava community in Manipur, reflecting their devotion to Lord Krishna.
• The performance integrates singing, drumming, and dancing and is considered a sacred ritual in the Vaishnava tradition.
• Pung (traditional drum) and Kartal (cymbals) are the primary musical instruments used during Sankirtana performances.
• The dance form portrays episodes from the life of Lord Krishna and is performed during various religious and social ceremonies, such as weddings and celebrations.
• Sankirtana is not just an art form but also a tool for community bonding, as it fosters spiritual and social harmony among the people of Manipur.
• It is a vital part of the Vaishnava culture and reflects the rich cultural heritage and traditions of Manipur.
• UNESCO recognized Sankirtana for its unique oral traditions, its ability to preserve history and spirituality, and its role in strengthening community ties.

 Additional Information

• Ras Lila
• Ras Lila is another traditional dance form of Manipur that narrates the divine love story of Lord Krishna and Radha.
• It is performed in Manipuri temples during religious festivals and holds a significant place in the Vaishnava culture.
• However, Ras Lila has not been inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage like Sankirtana.
• Maibi
• Maibi dance is a ritualistic dance performed by the Maibi priestesses of Manipur.
• It is associated with the Lai Haraoba festival, which celebrates the creation stories of the Manipuri people.
• Maibi dance has cultural significance but is not on the UNESCO Representative List.
• Cymbal
• Cymbals are musical instruments that are used in various traditional and religious performances in India, including Sankirtana.
• However, cymbals themselves are not a dance or singing form, but rather an instrumental component of many performances.

The Correct answer is Singapore.

Key Points

• The Azad Hind Fauj (Indian National Army) was reorganised by Subhas Chandra Bose in Singapore in 1943.
• Singapore played a key role as it was under the control of the Imperial Japanese Army during World War II, which supported Bose's efforts.
• The formation of the INA was aimed at liberating India from British rule through an armed struggle.
• Subhas Chandra Bose made a famous speech at the Cathay Building in Singapore, where he declared the establishment of the Provisional Government of Free India (Azad Hind).
• The Indian prisoners of war captured by the Japanese in Southeast Asia formed the initial recruits of the INA.
• The INA was a significant part of the Indian independence movement, symbolizing the unity and strength of Indians abroad in their fight against colonial rule.
• The motto of the Azad Hind Fauj was "Ittehad, Itmad aur Qurbani" (Unity, Faith, and Sacrifice).
• Singapore served as the headquarters for the INA's activities under Bose's leadership, where he strategized military campaigns to advance towards India.

 Additional Information

• Japan
• Japan was a major ally of the Azad Hind Fauj. The Japanese government supported Subhas Chandra Bose financially and militarily.
• The Japanese Army trained INA soldiers and collaborated with them in campaigns like the Imphal and Kohima operations.
• However, the INA was not reorganised in Japan, but Japan played a significant role in its sustenance and operations.
• Germany
• Germany was where Subhas Chandra Bose initially sought support for India's independence during World War II.
• Bose formed the Free India Legion in Germany, comprising Indian prisoners of war held by the Nazis.
• However, the reorganisation of the INA did not occur in Germany.
• Burma
• Burma (modern-day Myanmar) was a key theater for the INA's military campaigns.
• The INA fought significant battles in Burma, including the Battle of Imphal and the advance towards Assam.
• While Burma was crucial for the INA's operations, it was not the location where the INA was reorganised.

The Correct answer is Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA).

Key Points

• Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is the statutory authority responsible for regulating civil aviation in India.
• It functions under the Ministry of Civil Aviation and ensures compliance with the Aircraft Act, 1934 and the rules made thereunder.
• The DGCA is tasked with ensuring safety standards for aircraft operations, airworthiness, and crew licensing.
• The DGCA regulates aviation activities including air traffic services, aerodrome standards, and passenger safety.
• It oversees the implementation of International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standards in India.
• The DGCA also investigates aviation incidents and accidents to enhance safety measures and prevent future occurrences.
• It plays a pivotal role in issuing civil aviation directives, guidelines, and certifications for operators and pilots.
• Established as a statutory body under the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024, it strengthens regulatory mechanisms and ensures compliance with global aviation norms.
• The DGCA collaborates with international aviation authorities for technical cooperation and exchange programs.

 Additional Information

• Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau (AAIB)
• The Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau is an independent agency under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
• It is responsible for investigating aircraft accidents and incidents in India to determine their causes and make recommendations to prevent future occurrences.
• The AAIB works in collaboration with the DGCA but does not regulate safety standards directly.
• Its role is limited to investigation and reporting, unlike the DGCA, which has a broader regulatory function.
• Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
• The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) is responsible for ensuring aviation security standards in India.
• It operates under the Ministry of Civil Aviation and focuses on preventing unlawful interference in civil aviation operations.
• The BCAS formulates guidelines for security checks, screening procedures, and anti-terrorism measures at airports.
• Unlike the DGCA, which regulates overall aviation safety, the BCAS specifically focuses on security aspects.
• Aircraft Accidents Investigation Committee
• The Aircraft Accidents Investigation Committee is not a statutory body but rather an ad-hoc panel formed for specific investigations.
• It lacks the dedicated infrastructure and regulatory authority of the AAIB or DGCA.
• Such committees are usually formed for certain high-profile accidents or incidents to supplement the work of agencies like the AAIB.

The Correct answer is Kathakali.

Key Points

• Kathakali is a classical dance-drama originating from the state of Kerala, India, and is known for its distinctive combination of dance, music, and acting.
• It integrates the four aspects of abhinaya (expression):
• Angika – Expression through body movements and gestures.
• Aharya – Expression through costumes, makeup, and stage props.
• Vachika – Expression through verbal communication and vocal music.
• Satvika – Expression of emotions and internal feelings.
• Kathakali also combines the three elements of classical dance:
• Nritta – Pure dance movements showcasing rhythm and technique.
• Nritya – Expressive dance movements conveying emotions and moods.
• Natya – Dramatic representation of stories through acting.
• The themes of Kathakali performances are often drawn from Indian epics like the Mahabharata and Ramayana, and other mythological stories.
• Performers wear elaborate costumes and makeup, including brightly colored face paints to depict various characters such as gods, demons, and humans.
• Musical accompaniments include traditional instruments like the chenda and maddalam, and the vocal music typically follows the Carnatic tradition.

 Additional Information

• Manipuri
• Manipuri dance originates from the northeastern state of Manipur, India.
• It is primarily a devotional and spiritual dance form associated with Vaishnavism and themes from the life of Lord Krishna.
• Manipuri is known for its graceful movements, delicate hand gestures, and soft facial expressions.
• Unlike Kathakali, it does not emphasize dramatic expressions through heavy makeup or costumes.
• Manipuri dance is performed to the accompaniment of classical music and traditional instruments like the pung (drum) and kartal (cymbals).
• Bharatanatyam
• Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest classical dance forms of India, originating from Tamil Nadu.
• It is characterized by its precise hand gestures (mudras), intricate footwork, and expressions (abhinaya).
• Bharatanatyam combines nritta, nritya, and natya, but its focus is more on storytelling through expressive gestures rather than dramatic costumes like Kathakali.
• The themes of Bharatanatyam often revolve around religious devotion, particularly to Lord Shiva, Vishnu, and Krishna.
• Musical accompaniment follows the Carnatic music tradition.
• Kathak
• Kathak is a classical dance form originating from northern India.
• It emphasizes intricate footwork, spins, and subtle facial expressions.
• Kathak is heavily influenced by both Hindu mythology and the Mughal court traditions.
• Unlike Kathakali, it does not use elaborate costumes or heavy makeup, focusing instead on the dancer's movements and expressions.
• Musical accompaniment includes instruments like the tabla, sitar, and harmonium.

The Correct answer is 0.667 N.

Key Points

• The gravitational force of attraction between two spherical solid balls can be calculated using Newton's law of gravitation, which is given by the formula: F = G * (m₁ * m₂) / d², where:
• G = Universal Gravitational Constant (6.67 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg²).
• m₁ and m₂ are the masses of the two spheres.
• d is the distance between the centers of the spheres.
• To calculate the mass of each sphere, we use the formula for the volume of a sphere and multiply it by the given density:
• Volume of a sphere = (4/3)πr³ = (4/3) × π × (1 m)³ = (4/3)π m³.
• Density of the material is given as (3/2π) × 10⁵ kg/m³.
• Mass of each sphere = Density × Volume = [(3/2π) × 10⁵] × [(4/3)π] = 2 × 10⁵ kg.
• Since the spheres are identical and touch each other, the distance between their centers is equal to twice the radius, i.e., d = 2 m.
• Substitute the values into the gravitational force formula:
• F = [6.67 × 10^-11] × [(2 × 10⁵) × (2 × 10⁵)] / (2²).
• F = [6.67 × 10^-11] × (4 × 10¹⁰) / 4.
• F = 0.667 N.
• Hence, the gravitational force of attraction between the two spheres is 0.667 N.

 Additional Information

• Universal Gravitational Constant (G)
• G is a physical constant used in Newton's law of universal gravitation.
• Its value is approximately 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg².
• The constant is essential for calculating the gravitational force between two masses.
• Henry Cavendish was the first to measure the value of G in 1798 using his torsion balance experiment.
• Density
• Density is defined as the mass per unit volume of a material.
• It is typically measured in units such as kg/m³.
• In this problem, the density of the spheres is given as (3 / 2π) × 10⁵ kg/m³.
• Density is a key property in determining the mass of an object when its volume is known.

The Correct answer is Hyaloplasm.

Key Points

• Hyaloplasm refers to the fluid portion of the cytosol that does not contain any cell organelles.
• It serves as the basic matrix or ground substance of the cytoplasm, often called the cytoplasmic matrix.
• Hyaloplasm is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, serving as a medium for biochemical reactions.
• This fluid component is responsible for hosting various molecules, such as enzymes, ions, and proteins, which play crucial roles in cellular processes.
• It provides a structural framework for the cell and facilitates the movement of organelles and substances within the cytoplasm.
• The term "hyaloplasm" is derived from the Greek word "hyalos" meaning glass, indicating its clear and transparent nature.
• Unlike the organelles suspended within the cytoplasm, the hyaloplasm is devoid of any visible structures under a microscope.
• It plays a vital role in maintaining the homeostasis of the cell by balancing the distribution of ions and nutrients.

 Additional Information

• Nucleoplasm
• Nucleoplasm, also known as nuclear sap, is the fluid found inside the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.
• It serves as a medium for the suspension of nuclear components such as chromatin and nucleolus.
• It also plays a role in the exchange of substances between the nucleus and cytoplasm through nuclear pores.
• Protoplasm
• Protoplasm refers to the entire living content of a cell, which includes both the cytoplasm and nucleoplasm.
• It is considered the fundamental substance of life, hosting all vital cellular activities.
• Lysosome
• Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing digestive enzymes, primarily involved in breaking down cellular waste and recycling cellular components.
• They are often referred to as the "suicide bags" of the cell due to their role in autophagy.

The Correct answer is Failure of the Third Five-Year Plan.

Key Points

• The Third Five-Year Plan (1961–1966) in India aimed at achieving self-sufficiency in food production and increasing industrial output.
• However, the plan faced severe challenges due to events such as the India-China War in 1962, the India-Pakistan War in 1965, and a series of droughts that resulted in food shortages.
• The plan failed to achieve its goals, leading to substantial economic setbacks and a decline in agricultural production.
• Due to these challenges, the government decided to suspend further Five-Year Plans temporarily, resulting in the 'Plan Holiday' period from 1966 to 1969.
• During this period, annual plans were formulated instead of long-term Five-Year Plans to focus on immediate issues such as food production, economic stabilization, and post-war recovery.
• The Plan Holiday was essential to address the economic crisis and reevaluate strategies for future planning in India.

 Additional Information

• Political instability
• Political instability can affect economic planning, but it was not the primary reason for the Plan Holiday. The Plan Holiday was more a response to economic challenges and failures of the Third Five-Year Plan.
• Political instability in India during the 1960s was marked by leadership changes, such as the transition from Jawaharlal Nehru to Lal Bahadur Shastri, and later to Indira Gandhi, but this was secondary to the economic issues.
• Economic liberalisation
• Economic liberalisation refers to the process of reducing government restrictions on the economy, which gained prominence in India during the 1990s, not the 1960s.
• It was not related to the Plan Holiday, as the focus during this time was on addressing immediate economic crises rather than liberalisation.
• Deflation
• Deflation refers to a decrease in the general price level of goods and services. While economic issues were part of the challenges, deflation was not the direct reason for the Plan Holiday.
• The Plan Holiday was more focused on managing food shortages and economic instability caused by droughts and wars.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in principal amounts = ₹10200 − ₹5400 = ₹4800

Difference in simple interest for 3 years = ₹360

Difference in interest for 1 year = 360 ÷ 3 = ₹120

Rate of interest = (Interest for 1 year ÷ Difference in principal) × 100

Rate = (120 ÷ 4800) × 100 = 2.5%

∴ The correct answer is 2.5%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Keshav's principal (P₁) = ₹5400

Tushar's principal (P₂) = ₹10200

Time (T) = 3 years

Difference in interest (SI₂ − SI₁) = ₹360

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Tushar's Principal: ₹10200

Keshav: ₹5400

Diff: ₹4800

Generates ₹360 interest in 3 yrs

Calculations:

⇒ SI₂ − SI₁ = 360

⇒ [(P₂ × R × T) ÷ 100] − [(P₁ × R × T) ÷ 100] = 360

⇒ [(P₂ − P₁) × R × T] ÷ 100 = 360

⇒ [(10200 − 5400) × R × 3] ÷ 100 = 360

⇒ (4800 × R × 3) ÷ 100 = 360

⇒ 48 × R × 3 = 360

⇒ 144R = 360

⇒ R = 360 ÷ 144

⇒ R = 2.5%

∴ The correct answer is 2.5%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI) Formula

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100, where P is principal, R is rate of interest, and T is time in years. The simple interest generated remains constant for every year.

Difference in Interest Property

When time and rate of interest are constant, the difference in simple interest for two different principals is solely due to the difference in the principals: ΔSI = (ΔP × R × T) ÷ 100.

Compound Interest (CI)

Unlike SI, compound interest is calculated on both the initial principal and the accumulated interest from previous periods: Amount = P(1 + R/100)^T.

Given:

Expression: [(19 × 3) × { 8 ÷ 2 × ((18 - 14) ÷ 4) }]

Formula used:

Follow the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division and Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

Calculation:

[(19 × 3) × { 8 ÷ 2 × ((18 - 14) ÷ 4) }]

⇒ [(19 × 3) × { 8 ÷ 2 × (4 ÷ 4) }]

⇒ [(19 × 3) × { 8 ÷ 2 × 1 }]

⇒ [(19 × 3) × { 4 × 1 }]

⇒ [(19 × 3) × 4]

⇒ [57 × 4]

⇒ 228

∴ The correct answer is option 1.

Shortcut Trick

Mean proportional = √(a × b)

⇒ √[(12 + 6√2) × (8 − 4√2)]

⇒ √[24 × (2 + √2)(2 − √2)]

⇒ √[24 × (4 − 2)] = √48

⇒ 4√3

∴ The correct answer is 4√3.

Alternate Method

Given:

First number (a) = 12 + 6√2

Second number (b) = 8 − 4√2

Product of Extremes = a × b

Product of Means = x × x

12 + 6√2

:

x

::

x

:

8 − 4√2

x = √(a × b)

Formula Used:

Mean proportional (x) = √(a × b)

Calculations:

⇒ x = √[(12 + 6√2) × (8 − 4√2)]

⇒ Taking common factors out:

⇒ x = √[6(2 + √2) × 4(2 − √2)]

⇒ x = √[24 × (2 + √2)(2 − √2)]

⇒ Using algebraic identity: (a + b)(a − b) = a² − b²

⇒ x = √[24 × (2² − (√2)²)]

⇒ x = √[24 × (4 − 2)]

⇒ x = √[24 × 2]

⇒ x = √48

⇒ x = √(16 × 3) = 4√3

∴ The correct answer is 4√3.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

For two numbers a and b, the mean proportional is the square root of their product. Formula: x = √(ab).

Third Proportional

For two numbers a and b, the third proportional c satisfies a : b = b : c. Formula: c = b² ÷ a.

Fourth Proportional

For three numbers a, b and c, the fourth proportional d satisfies a : b = c : d. Formula: d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Algebraic Identity

The product of the sum and difference of two terms is given by (a + b)(a − b) = a² − b².

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(12, 20, 15) = 60 units.

Efficiencies: A = 5, B = 3, C = 4 units/day.

Sequence is C, B, A → Work in 1 cycle (3 days) = 4 + 3 + 5 = 12 units.

Number of 3-day cycles = 60 ÷ 12 = 5 cycles.

Total days = 5 × 3 = 15 days.

∴ The correct answer is 15 days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A = 12 days

Time taken by B = 20 days

Time taken by C = 15 days

Concept Used:

Total Work = LCM of individual times taken.

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ According to the question, they work on alternate days in the sequence C, B, A.

⇒ Work done by C on the 1st day = 4 units

⇒ Work done by B on the 2nd day = 3 units

⇒ Work done by A on the 3rd day = 5 units

⇒ Total work done in one 3-day cycle = 4 + 3 + 5 = 12 units

⇒ Number of complete cycles required = Total Work ÷ Work per cycle

⇒ Number of complete cycles = 60 ÷ 12 = 5 cycles

⇒ Total time required = 5 cycles × 3 days/cycle = 15 days

∴ The correct answer is 15 days.

Additional Information

Alternate Day Work

Work is completed in repeated cycles. Always calculate the total work done in one full cycle, then divide the total work by this value to find the number of full cycles. Compute any remaining work day-by-day according to the sequence.

Work and Wages

Wages are strictly proportional to the total amount of work done by each individual. If all individuals work for the exact same number of days, the wages can be directly divided in the ratio of their efficiencies.

Negative Work (Pipes & Cisterns)

In problems involving a leak or an emptying pipe, its efficiency is taken as negative. Total combined efficiency = Efficiency of filling pipes − Efficiency of emptying pipes.

Given:

Expression: [(12 ÷ 4) × { (15 ÷ 5) + (16 ÷ 1) × (9 - 8) }]

Formula used:

Follow BODMAS Rule: Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction

Calculation:

[(12 ÷ 4) × { (15 ÷ 5) + (16 ÷ 1) × (9 - 8) }]

⇒ [(12 ÷ 4) × { 3 + 16 × 1 }]

⇒ [(12 ÷ 4) × { 3 + 16 }]

⇒ [(12 ÷ 4) × 19]

⇒ [3 × 19]

⇒ 57

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Shortcut Trick

To minimize the number of rows, each row must contain the maximum possible number of identical trees.

Maximum trees per row = HCF(33, 55, 88) = 11 trees.

Minimum number of rows = Total Trees ÷ Trees per row

⇒ Rows = (33 + 55 + 88) ÷ 11 = 176 ÷ 11 = 16 rows.

∴ The correct answer is 16 rows.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of guava trees = 33

Number of banana trees = 55

Number of malta trees = 88

Guava (33)

11

11

11 → 3 rows

Banana (55)

11

11

11

11

11 → 5 rows

Malta (88)

11

11

11

11

11

11

11

11 → 8 rows

Total minimum rows = 3 + 5 + 8 = 16

Concept Used:

To keep the number of rows to an absolute minimum, each row must contain the greatest possible number of trees. This requires finding the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of the separate tree quantities.

Calculation:

⇒ Finding the HCF of 33, 55, and 88:

⇒ 33 = 3 × 11

⇒ 55 = 5 × 11

⇒ 88 = 2³ × 11

⇒ HCF (33, 55, 88) = 11

⇒ Thus, each row will perfectly contain 11 trees of the same type.

Now, calculate the individual row counts:

⇒ Rows of guava trees = 33 ÷ 11 = 3 rows

⇒ Rows of banana trees = 55 ÷ 11 = 5 rows

⇒ Rows of malta trees = 88 ÷ 11 = 8 rows

⇒ Minimum total rows = 3 + 5 + 8 = 16 rows

∴ The correct answer is 16 rows.

Additional Information

Highest Common Factor (HCF)

The HCF is the largest positive integer that divides two or more numbers without leaving a remainder. It is widely used in division and grouping problems to maximize the size of equal groups.

Application of HCF in Real-life Grouping

Whenever diverse items need to be arranged into the minimum possible identical rows or containers without mixing them, the quantity per group should equal their HCF. The minimum number of groups is found by the formula: (Total sum of all items) ÷ HCF.

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

Contrasting with HCF, LCM finds the smallest multiple common to the numbers. It is primarily applied in synchronization problems, like finding when distinct events will repeat together.

Shortcut Trick

Using the standard property: Product of two numbers = LCM × HCF

Let the unknown number be x.

77 × x = 154 × 7

x = (154 ÷ 77) × 7

x = 2 × 7 = 14

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Alternate Method

Given:

LCM of two numbers = 154

HCF of two numbers = 7

First number (A) = 77

Formula Used:

For any two positive integers A and B:

A × B = LCM(A, B) × HCF(A, B)

Calculations:

Let the second number be B.

⇒ 77 × B = 154 × 7

⇒ B = (154 × 7) ÷ 77

⇒ B = 154 ÷ 77 × 7

⇒ B = 2 × 7

⇒ B = 14

∴ The correct answer is 14.

Additional Information

LCM and HCF of Fractions

LCM of fractions = (LCM of Numerators) ÷ (HCF of Denominators).
HCF of fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators).

Co-prime Numbers Property

If two numbers are co-prime (their HCF is 1), then their LCM is always equal to their product.

Product Rule Limitation

The mathematical rule (Product of numbers = LCM × HCF) is valid ONLY for exactly two numbers. It cannot be applied to three or more numbers.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance covered = 30.25 km.

Total time taken = 25 minutes = 25/60 hours.

Speed = Distance × (Inverse of Time)

Speed = 30.25 × (60/25) = 1.21 × 60 = 72.6 km/h.

∴ The correct answer is 72.6 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

→ Distance covered = 30 km 250 m = 30.25 km

→ Time taken = 25 minutes = 25/60 hours = 5/12 hours

Start End

Car

Distance = 30.25 km

Time = 25 minutes Speed = ? km/h

Formula Used:

→ Speed = Distance ÷ Time

Calculations:

⇒ Speed = 30.25 ÷ (5/12)

⇒ Speed = 30.25 × (12/5)

⇒ Speed = 6.05 × 12

⇒ Speed = 72.6 km/h

∴ The correct answer is 72.6 km/h.

Additional Information

Unit Conversions for Speed

To convert speed from km/h to m/s, multiply the value by 5/18. To convert from m/s to km/h, multiply by 18/5.

Average Speed

If equal distances are covered at speeds x and y, Average Speed = (2xy) ÷ (x + y). For variable distances, Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time.

Relative Speed

For two objects moving in the same direction, Relative Speed = S₁ − S₂. For objects moving in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂.

Shortcut Trick

Profit is directly calculated as a percentage of the Cost Price.

Profit = 20% of CP

Profit = ¹/₅ × 315

Profit = 63

∴ The correct answer is ₹63.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost Price (CP) = ₹315

Profit Percentage = 20%

Formula Used:

Profit = (Profit% ÷ 100) × CP

CP = ₹315

• 20% Profit

SP = ₹378

Profit = ₹63

Calculations:

⇒ Profit = (20 ÷ 100) × 315

⇒ Profit = 0.20 × 315

⇒ Profit = 63

∴ The correct answer is ₹63.

Additional Information

Cost Price (CP) & Selling Price (SP)

CP is the price at which goods are bought. SP is the price at which goods are sold.

Profit & Loss Basics

Profit occurs when SP > CP (Profit = SP − CP). Loss occurs when CP > SP (Loss = CP − SP).

Percentage Formulas

Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100 and Loss % = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always given on the Marked Price (MP). SP = MP − Discount.

Given:

2% of x = 240

Formula used:

2% of x = (2/100) × x

Calculation:

(2/100) × x = 240

⇒ x = 240 × (100/2)

⇒ x = 240 × 50

⇒ x = 12000

∴ The correct answer is option (1).

Shortcut Trick Convert the given ratios into percentages to find the smallest value directly: 2/3 × 100 ≈ 66.66%   |   5/7 × 100 ≈ 71.42% 3/4 × 100 = 75.00%   |   5/9 × 100 ≈ 55.55% Since 55.55% is the smallest percentage, 5 : 9 is the smallest ratio. ∴ The correct answer is 5 : 9.

Alternate Method Given: Four ratios: 2 : 3, 5 : 7, 3 : 4, and 5 : 9 Method Used: Convert the ratios into decimals to compare their exact values.

Ratio Comparison

2 : 3

0.666

5 : 7

0.714

3 : 4

0.750

5 : 9

0.555 (Smallest)

0.0

1.0

Calculations: ⇒ Decimal value of 2 : 3 = 2 ÷ 3 = 0.666... ⇒ Decimal value of 5 : 7 = 5 ÷ 7 = 0.714... ⇒ Decimal value of 3 : 4 = 3 ÷ 4 = 0.750 ⇒ Decimal value of 5 : 9 = 5 ÷ 9 = 0.555... ⇒ Comparing the calculated decimal values: ⇒ 0.555 < 0.666 < 0.714 < 0.750 ⇒ Thus, the smallest value corresponds to 5 : 9. ∴ The correct answer is 5 : 9.

Additional Information Cross-Multiplication Method To compare two fractions a/b and c/d quickly, multiply crosswise. If a × d > b × c, then a/b > c/d.

Percentage Conversion Multiplying a fraction by 100 converts it into a percentage, making it intuitive and faster to compare multiple ratios directly without finding common denominators.

LCM of Denominators You can make the denominators equal by finding their Least Common Multiple (LCM) and scaling the numerators accordingly to find the largest or smallest ratio effortlessly.

Shortcut Trick

The difference between a single discount of (A + B)% and two successive discounts of A% and B% is exactly (A × B) ÷ 100 % of the marked price.

Here, A = 10 and B = 15.

Difference % = (10 × 15) ÷ 100 % = 150 ÷ 100 % = 1.5%

Difference in Amount = 1.5% of ₹600 = (1.5 ÷ 100) × 600 = ₹9

∴ The correct answer is ₹9.

Alternate Method

Given:

Bill Amount = ₹600

Single Discount = 25%

Successive Discounts = 10% and 15%

₹600

Single Discount (25%) − ₹150

₹450

₹600

10% − ₹60

₹540

15% − ₹81

₹459

Diff = ₹9

Calculations:

Case 1: Single Discount of 25%

⇒ Discount Amount = 25% of 600 = (25 ÷ 100) × 600 = ₹150

⇒ Selling Price 1 = 600 − 150 = ₹450

Case 2: Successive Discounts of 10% and 15%

⇒ Price after first discount of 10% = 600 − (10% of 600) = 600 − 60 = ₹540

⇒ Price after second discount of 15% = 540 − (15% of 540) = 540 − 81 = ₹459

⇒ Selling Price 2 = ₹459

Finding the Difference:

⇒ Difference in Selling Prices = Selling Price 2 − Selling Price 1

⇒ Difference = 459 − 450 = ₹9

∴ The correct answer is ₹9.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts Formula

The single equivalent discount for two successive discounts of a% and b% is calculated using the formula: (a + b − ab/100)%.

Marked Price and Selling Price

Discount is always calculated on the Marked Price (MP) of an article. The Selling Price (SP) is obtained as: SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

Three Successive Discounts

For three successive discounts x%, y%, and z%, first find the equivalent of x% and y%, then use that result with z% to determine the final overall discount.

Shortcut Trick

The volume of a hemisphere is calculated directly using the formula V = (2/3) × πr³.

Given the radius r = 6√3 cm, substitute the value into the formula:

V = (2/3) × π × (6√3)³

V = (2/3) × π × (216 × 3√3)

V = (2/3) × π × 648√3 = 432√3π cm³

∴ The correct answer is 432√3π cm³.

Alternate Method

r = 6√3 cm

h = r

Given:

Radius of the hemisphere (r) = 6√3 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of Hemisphere = (2/3) × πr³

Calculations:

⇒ First, find the cube of the radius:

⇒ r³ = (6√3)³

⇒ r³ = 6³ × (√3)³ = 216 × 3√3 = 648√3

⇒ Now, substitute this value into the volume formula:

⇒ Volume = (2/3) × π × 648√3

⇒ Volume = 2 × 216√3 × π

⇒ Volume = 432√3π cm³

∴ The correct answer is 432√3π cm³.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of Hemisphere

The total surface area includes the curved base and the flat circular top. It is given by TSA = 3πr².

Curved Surface Area of Hemisphere

The area of only the curved outer dome, excluding the base, is given by CSA = 2πr².

Volume of a Sphere

A hemisphere is exactly half of a full sphere. The volume of a full sphere is V = (4/3) × πr³.

Shortcut Trick

For 2 years, the ratio of CI to SI is given by: CI ÷ SI = 1 + (R ÷ 200)

⇒ 46 ÷ 44 = 1 + (R ÷ 200)

⇒ R ÷ 200 = (46 − 44) ÷ 44 = 2 ÷ 44 ⇒ R = 100/11 %

Now, Principal (P) = (SI × 100) ÷ (R × T)

⇒ P = (44 × 100) ÷ ((100/11) × 2) = (44 × 11) ÷ 2

∴ The correct answer is ₹242.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) for 2 years = ₹44

Compound Interest (CI) for 2 years = ₹46

Time (T) = 2 years

Principal (P) ₹22 ₹22 ₹2

1st Year SI 2nd Year SI Interest on 1st Yr SI

SI = 22 + 22 = ₹44 CI = 44 + 2 = ₹46

Formula Used:

SI for 1 year = Total SI ÷ T

Difference (CI − SI) for 2 years = Interest on 1st year's SI

Principal (P) = (SI × 100) ÷ (R × T)

Calculations:

⇒ SI for 1 year = 44 ÷ 2 = ₹22

⇒ Difference between CI and SI = 46 − 44 = ₹2

⇒ This ₹2 is the interest earned on the 1st year's SI (₹22) during the 2nd year.

⇒ Rate of Interest (R) = (2 ÷ 22) × 100 = 100/11 %

⇒ Total Simple Interest = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

⇒ 44 = (P × (100/11) × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ 44 = (P × 2) ÷ 11

⇒ P = (44 × 11) ÷ 2

⇒ P = 22 × 11 = 242

∴ The correct answer is ₹242.

Additional Information

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years

The difference between compound interest and simple interest for 2 years can be directly calculated using the formula: Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)².

Difference between CI and SI for 3 years

For a 3-year period, the formula expands to: Difference = P × (R ÷ 100)² × (300 + R) ÷ 100.

Relation between CI and SI for 2 years

For a time period of exactly 2 years, the ratio of Compound Interest to Simple Interest is: CI ÷ SI = 1 + (R ÷ 200). This is widely used as a shortcut to find the rate of interest.

Shortcut Trick

When the distance traveled is the same for both parts of the journey, the average speed is calculated directly:

Average Speed = (2 × S₁ × S₂) ÷ (S₁ + S₂)

Average Speed = (2 × 24 × 36) ÷ (24 + 36)

⇒ 1728 ÷ 60 = 28.8 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 28.8 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed to school (S₁) = 24 km/hr

Speed returning home (S₂) = 36 km/hr

Let the one-way distance be D km.

Home

School

24 km/hr

36 km/hr

Distance = D

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = D + D = 2D

⇒ Time taken to reach school = D ÷ 24

⇒ Time taken to return home = D ÷ 36

⇒ Total Time = (D ÷ 24) + (D ÷ 36)

⇒ Total Time = (3D + 2D) ÷ 72 = 5D ÷ 72

⇒ Average Speed = 2D ÷ (5D ÷ 72)

⇒ Average Speed = (2 × 72) ÷ 5 = 144 ÷ 5

⇒ Average Speed = 28.8 km/hr

∴ The correct answer is 28.8 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed (Different Distances)

If distances are different, Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time = (D₁ + D₂ + ...) ÷ (T₁ + T₂ + ...).

Relative Speed

When two objects move in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂. When moving in the same direction, Relative Speed = |S₁ − S₂|.

Distance and Speed Relation

If distance is constant, the ratio of time taken is inversely proportional to the ratio of speeds (T₁:T₂ = S₂:S₁).

Average Speed of 3 Equal Distances

If a person covers 3 equal distances at speeds x, y, and z, the Average Speed = (3xyz) ÷ (xy + yz + zx).

Shortcut Trick

For a dishonest dealer selling at cost price, Profit % = [ Error ÷ (True Value − Error) ] × 100

Given Error = 39% and True Value = 100%

⇒ Profit % = [ 39 ÷ (100 − 39) ] × 100

⇒ Profit % = (39 ÷ 61) × 100 = 3900 ÷ 61

⇒ Profit % = 63 ⁵⁷/₆₁ %

∴ The correct answer is 63 ⁵⁷/₆₁ %.

Alternate Method

Dishonest Dealer Profit Logic

Actual: 61g CP = 61

Claimed: 100g SP = 100

Profit = 39

Profit % = (39 ÷ 61) × 100 = 63 57/61 %

Given:

Shopkeeper sells goods at cost price.

He uses a weight that is 39% less than the marked weight.

Calculations:

⇒ Let the cost price of 100g of goods be ₹100.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) of the claimed 100g = ₹100.

⇒ However, actual weight given = 100 − 39 = 61g.

⇒ Actual Cost Price (CP) for 61g of goods = ₹61.

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 100 − 61 = ₹39.

⇒ Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (39 ÷ 61) × 100

⇒ Profit % = 3900 ÷ 61 = 63 ⁵⁷/₆₁ %

∴ The correct answer is 63 ⁵⁷/₆₁ %.

Additional Information

Dishonest Dealer Selling at CP

When a dealer claims to sell goods at cost price but uses false weight, Profit % = (Error ÷ True Weight Given) × 100.

Dishonest Dealer Selling at Markup

If the dealer marks up the price by x% and also gives less weight, use Successive Percentage or Ratio method connecting (Actual CP → SP) and (Actual Weight → Claimed Weight).

Successive Discount

Equivalent discount for two successive discounts of a% and b% is [ a + b − (a × b ÷ 100) ]%.

Shortcut Trick

By using the net change method for averages:

Teacher's age = Old Average + (Total Number of Persons × Increase in Average)

Total persons after teacher joins = 57 + 1 = 58

Increase in average = 14 − 13 = 1 year

Teacher's age = 13 + (58 × 1) = 71 years

∴ The correct answer is 71 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of students = 57

Average age of 57 students = 13 years

New average age including the teacher = 14 years

Formula Used:

Average = Sum of observations ÷ Number of observations

Sum of observations = Average × Number of observations

57 Students (Avg = 13)

Teacher (Age = ?)

New Avg = 14 (Increase of +1 year)

Teacher's Age = 13 + (58 × 1) = 71

Calculations:

⇒ Total age of 57 students = 57 × 13 = 741 years

⇒ Total number of people after including the teacher = 57 + 1 = 58

⇒ Total age of 58 people = 58 × 14 = 812 years

⇒ Age of the teacher = Total age of 58 people − Total age of 57 students

⇒ Age of the teacher = 812 − 741 = 71 years

∴ The correct answer is 71 years.

Additional Information

New Member Joining

When a new member joins a group: New Value = Old Average + (New Total Number of Members × Change in Average).

Member Leaving

When a member leaves a group: Left Value = Old Average − (Remaining Number of Members × Change in Average).

Replacement in a Group

When one member replaces another: New Member's Value = Replaced Member's Value + (Total Members × Change in Average).

Weighted Average

The combined average of two groups with sizes n₁ and n₂ and averages A₁ and A₂ is (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Shortcut Trick

Total Time = Distance_down ÷ (Speed_boat + Speed_stream) + Distance_up ÷ (Speed_boat − Speed_stream)

Substitute Option 1 (12 km/h) into the equation directly to verify the total time.

⇒ Total Time = 20 ÷ (12 + 4) + 14 ÷ (12 − 4)

⇒ Total Time = 20 ÷ 16 + 14 ÷ 8 = 1.25 + 1.75 = 3 hours (Matches Given Time).

∴ The correct answer is 12 km/h.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed of stream = 4 km/h

Distance downstream = 20 km, Distance upstream = 14 km

Total time taken = 3 hours

Downstream Journey Dist = 20 km | Speed = x + 4

Upstream Journey Dist = 14 km | Speed = x − 4

Total Time 3 hours

Formula Used:

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Downstream Speed = Speed of boat + Speed of stream

Upstream Speed = Speed of boat − Speed of stream

Calculations:

Let the speed of the boat in still water be x km/h.

⇒ Downstream speed = (x + 4) km/h

⇒ Upstream speed = (x − 4) km/h

⇒ 20 ÷ (x + 4) + 14 ÷ (x − 4) = 3

⇒ [20(x − 4) + 14(x + 4)] ÷ [(x + 4)(x − 4)] = 3

⇒ (20x − 80 + 14x + 56) ÷ (x² − 16) = 3

⇒ 34x − 24 = 3(x² − 16)

⇒ 3x² − 48 = 34x − 24

⇒ 3x² − 34x − 24 = 0

⇒ 3x² − 36x + 2x − 24 = 0

⇒ 3x(x − 12) + 2(x − 12) = 0

⇒ (3x + 2)(x − 12) = 0

⇒ x = 12 or x = −2/3

Since speed cannot be negative, x = 12 km/h.

∴ The correct answer is 12 km/h.

Additional Information

Speed of Boat in Still Water

It is the average of the downstream and upstream speeds: B = (D + U) ÷ 2.

Speed of Stream

It is half the difference between the downstream and upstream speeds: S = (D − U) ÷ 2.

Average Speed of Journey

If a boat goes a certain distance downstream and returns the same distance upstream, the average speed is (2 × D × U) ÷ (D + U).

Shortcut Trick

For equal amounts under compound interest, the ratio of shares of the older person to the younger person is (1 + R/100)^ΔT.

Difference in time (ΔT) = 14 − 13 = 1 year.

Share ratio (Vipul : Chetan) = (1 + 8/100)¹ : 1 = 108/100 : 1 = 27 : 25.

Vipul's share = [27 ÷ (27 + 25)] × 23400 = (27 ÷ 52) × 23400 = 12150.

∴ The correct answer is ₹12150.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total money = ₹23400

Rate of interest (R) = 8% p.a. compounded annually

Chetan's time (T₁) = 23 − 13 = 10 years

Vipul's time (T₂) = 23 − 14 = 9 years

Formula Used:

Amount A = P(1 + R/100)^T

Total: ₹23400

Chetan's Share (C) Time = 10 yrs Rate = 8% CI

Vipul's Share (V) Time = 9 yrs Rate = 8% CI

Final Amounts are Equal

Calculations:

⇒ Let Chetan's share be C and Vipul's share be V.

⇒ C(1 + 8/100)¹⁰ = V(1 + 8/100)⁹

⇒ C(108/100)¹⁰ = V(108/100)⁹

⇒ V ÷ C = (108/100)¹⁰ ÷ (108/100)⁹

⇒ V ÷ C = 108 / 100 = 27 / 25

⇒ Ratio of Vipul's share to Chetan's share = 27 : 25

⇒ Total ratio parts = 27 + 25 = 52 parts

⇒ 52 parts = ₹23400

⇒ 1 part = 23400 ÷ 52 = ₹450

⇒ Vipul's share = 27 parts = 27 × 450 = ₹12150

∴ The correct answer is ₹12150.

Additional Information

Equal Amount Distribution under CI

When a sum is divided between two individuals such that their amounts become equal after different time periods, the ratio of their original shares is determined by (1 + R/100)^ΔT. The person with less time remaining (older) receives a larger initial share.

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

In Simple Interest, the interest is calculated only on the initial principal. In Compound Interest, the interest earned is added back to the principal at each compounding interval, leading to exponential growth. For the first compounding period, SI and CI remain identical.

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of males to females = 225000 : (360000 − 225000) = 225 : 135 = 5 : 3

Let the literate percentage of females be x%. Using weighted average:

(5 × 17) + (3 × x) = (5 + 3) × 35

85 + 3x = 280 ⇒ 3x = 195 ⇒ x = 65

∴ The correct answer is 65%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total population = 360000

Total males = 225000

Total females = 360000 − 225000 = 135000

17% Males

x% Females

35% Overall

x − 35

18

Ratio = 5 Ratio = 3

3 parts = 18 → 5 parts = 30 ⇒ x − 35 = 30 ⇒ x = 65

Calculations:

⇒ Total literate population = 35% of 360000 = (35 ÷ 100) × 360000 = 126000

⇒ Total literate males = 17% of 225000 = (17 ÷ 100) × 225000 = 38250

⇒ Total literate females = Total literate population − Literate males

⇒ Total literate females = 126000 − 38250 = 87750

⇒ Percentage of literate females = (Literate females ÷ Total females) × 100

⇒ Percentage of literate females = (87750 ÷ 135000) × 100

⇒ Percentage of literate females = 65%

∴ The correct answer is 65%.

Additional Information

Alligation Rule

Used to find the ratio in which two components are mixed. Ratio = (Dearer − Mean) : (Mean − Cheaper).

Weighted Average Formula

When a group is divided into parts with varying averages, the combined average is: A = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Percentage Change and Base

The percentage of a part concerning a whole is calculated as (Part ÷ Whole) × 100.

The correct answer is 'clear'.

 

Key Points

• The adjective "clear" is commonly used in collocation with "conclusion" to indicate a conclusion that is definite and easily understood.
• The sentence implies that the matter was discussed thoroughly, leading to a conclusion that is unambiguous.
• Options 1, 2, and 3 are not appropriate collocations in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "We reached a clear conclusion after discussing the matter."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "quick conclusion" is incorrect because "quick" does not imply clarity; it relates to speed.
• Option 2: "big conclusion" is incorrect because "big" does not align with the context of a clear or definitive conclusion.
• Option 3: "heavy conclusion" is incorrect because "heavy" is not a suitable collocation with "conclusion" in this context.

The correct answer is '2' i.e. consequency, we had .

Key Points

• The word "consequency" is incorrect in the given sentence. The correct word should be "consequently."
• "Consequently" is an adverb used to mean "as a result" or "therefore," and fits the intended meaning of the sentence.
• The rest of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not contain any errors.

Correct sentence: The project was delayed because of unforeseen issues; consequently, we had to adjust our timeline.

Additional Information

• Usage of Adverbs:
• Adverbs like "consequently," "therefore," and "thus" are used to show cause-and-effect relationships.
• Correct placement of adverbs ensures clarity and coherence in sentences.
• Common Errors:
• Misspelling or incorrect usage of words can change the meaning or make the sentence grammatically incorrect.
• Always cross-check the spelling and meaning of words in formal writing.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. attended .

Key Points

• The given sentence, "She is attending the conference yesterday," is grammatically incorrect because the verb tense does not match the time reference.
• The word "yesterday" indicates a past event, so the verb must be in the past tense.
• The corrected sentence should use the simple past tense verb "attended" to match the time reference.

Correct sentence: She attended the conference yesterday.

Additional Information

• Verb Tenses:
• Present Continuous: Used for actions happening at the moment of speaking (e.g., She is attending the conference now).
• Simple Past: Used for actions that happened and were completed in the past (e.g., She attended the conference yesterday).
• Common Errors:
• Mismatched verb tense and time reference.
• Using "is attending" for a past event.

The correct answer is: Option 4 (Exhibit).

Key Points

• The word "camouflage" means the act of concealing or disguising something to blend in with the surroundings and avoid detection. (छिपाना/छलावरण)
• Example: The chameleon uses its ability to change colors as a natural form of camouflage.
• "Exhibit" refers to making something visible or putting it on display, which is the opposite of concealing or disguising. (प्रदर्शित करना)
• Example: The museum will exhibit rare artifacts from ancient civilizations.
• Hence, the antonym of "camouflage" is "exhibit."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (Exhibit).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Veiled (ढका हुआ): Covered, hidden, or concealed.
• Example: Her veiled comments suggested she was unhappy with the decision.
• Disguised (भेष बदलना): To change appearance or hide identity.
• Example: The detective disguised himself as a common man to gather information.
• Obscure (अस्पष्ट): Not clearly expressed or easily understood; hidden or concealed.
• Example: The meaning of the old manuscript was obscure to modern readers.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The word "Suspeciously" is incorrectly spelt. It should be spelled as "Suspiciously", meaning in a manner that shows distrust or doubt. (संदेहपूर्ण)
• Example: She looked at the stranger suspiciously, unsure of his intentions.
• The correct word "Suspiciously" refers to showing doubt or mistrust toward someone or something. (संदेहपूर्ण)
• Example: The officer asked questions suspiciously, trying to find inconsistencies in the story.
• Hence, the word "Suspeciously" is incorrect, and the correct spelling is "Suspiciously".

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Wearily (थकावट से): In a manner that shows tiredness.
• Example: He sat down wearily after a long day of hard work.
• Recklessly (लापरवाही से): In a way that shows carelessness or lack of regard for consequences.
• Example: She drove recklessly through the crowded streets, putting lives at risk.
• Stealthily (चुपके से): In a secretive or sneaky manner.
• Example: He entered the room stealthily to avoid waking anyone up.

The correct answer is 'generous'.

 

Key Points

• The word "generous" means showing a readiness to give more of something, especially money or time, than is strictly necessary or expected. (उदार)
• The sentence highlights her spirit of helping others, which aligns with the meaning of the word "generous".
• The other options: "greedy," "selfish," and "mean" carry negative connotations and do not fit the context.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: She is known for her generous spirit, always helping others in need.

Additional Information

• Greedy (लोभी): means having or showing an intense and selfish desire for something, especially wealth or power.
• Selfish (स्वार्थी): means lacking consideration for others and being concerned chiefly with one's own personal profit or pleasure.
• Mean (कृपण): means unkind, spiteful, or unfair.

The correct answer is: Flexibility.

Key Points

• The word "rigidity" refers to the quality of being stiff, inflexible, or unable to adapt or change. (कठोरता)
• Example: His rigidity in following outdated rules made it difficult for the team to innovate.
• "Flexibility" is the ability to adapt, change, or adjust easily to new circumstances or conditions. It is the opposite of rigidity. (लचीलापन)
• Example: The flexibility of the new schedule allowed employees to balance work and personal life more effectively.
• Hence, we can infer that the antonym of 'rigidity' is 'flexibility'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Flexibility.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Complexity (जटिलता): The state or quality of being intricate or complicated.
• Example: The complexity of the problem required a team of experts to solve it.
• Uniformity (एकरूपता): The quality or state of being the same in all cases and at all times.
• Example: The uniforms ensured uniformity among the students during the parade.
• Consistency (संगति): The quality of always behaving or performing in a similar way, or of always happening in a similar way.
• Example: Her consistency in delivering high-quality work earned her a promotion.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Foolish).

Key Points

• The word "Quick-witted" means having or showing the ability to think and respond quickly and effectively. (तेज़ दिमाग वाला)
• Example: The quick-witted student answered the teacher's tricky question without hesitation.
• "Foolish" refers to someone lacking good sense or judgment; someone who acts unwisely. (मूर्ख)
• Example: It was foolish of him to invest all his money in a risky business without proper research.
• Since "Foolish" is the opposite of "Quick-witted," it is the most appropriate antonym.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Foolish).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Brave (बहादुर): Someone who shows courage and is not afraid of facing danger or difficulties.
• Example: The brave firefighter risked his life to save the trapped family.
• Kind (दयालु): Someone who is generous and considerate towards others.
• Example: She is known for her kind nature and willingness to help those in need.
• Patient (धैर्यवान): Someone who can remain calm and not get annoyed, especially in a difficult situation.
• Example: The doctor was patient with his elderly patients, explaining everything carefully.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Explain.

Key Points

• The word "justify" means to give a reason or explanation for something, often to prove it is reasonable or acceptable. (औचित्य सिद्ध करना)
• Example: She tried to justify her decision by explaining the benefits of her choice.
• "Explain" means to make something clear or easy to understand by describing or giving more details. (समझाना)
• Example: The teacher explained the concept of gravity to the students using simple examples.
• In the given sentence, Ashok is trying to justify his late arrival by providing reasons, which is closely related to the meaning of "explain."

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e. Explain.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Mention (उल्लेख करना): To refer to something briefly or casually.
• Example: He mentioned his plans to visit Paris during the conversation.
• Hesitate (हिचकिचाना): To pause before saying or doing something, often because of uncertainty.
• Example: She hesitated before answering the difficult question.
• Intensify (तेज करना): To make something stronger or more extreme.
• Example: The storm intensified as it moved closer to the coast.

The correct answer is 'cordial'.

 

Key Points

• The word "cordial" means warm and friendly. (मिलनसार या सौहार्दपूर्ण)
• Her cordial attitude towards her colleagues made her a beloved team member.
• The other options: "indifferent," "apathetic," and "belligerent" do not fit the context as they carry negative or unrelated meanings.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

Complete Sentence: Her cordial attitude towards her colleagues made her a beloved team member.

Additional Information

• Indifferent (उदासीन): means having no particular interest or sympathy.
• Apathetic (उpathetic): means showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern.
• Belligerent (लड़ाकू): means hostile and aggressive.

The correct answer is '1' i.e. gently volunteered .

Key Points

• The given sentence is grammatically correct except for the incorrect usage of the adverb "gently".
• The adverb "gently" does not logically fit with the verb "volunteered" as volunteering is typically not an action described using this adverb.
• A better choice might be adverbs like "eagerly" or "willingly" to describe the manner of volunteering.

Correct sentence: Benjamin and Lucas willingly volunteered for the disaster management task.

Additional Information

• Adverbs: Words that modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs, often describing how, when, where, or to what extent an action occurs.
• Correct usage: Ensure the adverb logically matches the verb or action it modifies.
• Common adverb errors: Using an adverb that does not match the context or meaning of the verb.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "Sykophants" is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is "Sycophants".
• Meaning: A sycophant refers to a person who acts obsequiously towards someone important to gain advantage. (चापलूस)
• Example: The sycophants constantly flattered the boss, hoping for a promotion.
• The word "Sycophants" is the correct spelling.
• Meaning: As mentioned above, it refers to someone engaging in insincere flattery for personal gain. (चापलूस)
• Example: Sycophants often make themselves indispensable to powerful individuals through excessive praise.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Ridiculous (मूर्खतापूर्ण): Something that deserves mockery or is absurdly unreasonable.
• Example: His ridiculous suggestions often make people laugh instead of solving the problem.
• Portrayed (चित्रित): Represented or depicted in a work of art or literature.
• Example: The artist portrayed the struggles of the common man in his painting.
• Occasionally (कभी-कभी): Happening or occurring at irregular intervals or infrequently.
• Example: She occasionally visits her hometown during the holidays.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e. Elegance and smoothness of movement.

Key Points

• The word "grace" refers to elegance and smoothness in movement, behavior, or expression. (शालीनता, सौंदर्य, या कोमलता)
• Example: The ballerina moved with grace, captivating the entire audience with her performance.
• In the given sentence, "The conductor directed the orchestra with precision and grace," the word "grace" emphasizes the conductor’s refined and effortless movements while directing the orchestra. (कोमलता और शालीनता के साथ संचालक ने ऑर्केस्ट्रा का निर्देशन किया।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: A style of music (संगीत की एक शैली): Refers to a particular genre or type of music.
• Example: Jazz is a style of music that originated in the African-American communities of New Orleans.
• Option 3: A type of flower (एक प्रकार का फूल): Refers to a specific variety of flower.
• Example: The garden was filled with various types of flowers, including roses and tulips.
• Option 4: A prayer before a meal (भोजन से पहले की प्रार्थना): A short prayer of thanks said before eating.
• Example: They always say grace before dinner as a family tradition.

The correct answer is: Option 4 i.e., "Identify something exactly right".

Key Points

• The idiom "You hit the nail on the head" means to identify or describe something perfectly or exactly. (ठीक पहचान करना)
• Example: When you said the team needs better coordination, you really hit the nail on the head.
• "Hit the nail on the head" in English refers to being accurate or precise, especially in understanding or solving a problem. In Hindi, it means "सही बात कहना या करना".
• Example: By suggesting this strategy, you’ve hit the nail on the head regarding increasing customer engagement.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hit the floor (फर्श पर गिरना): This phrase usually means to fall down or to dance energetically.
• Example: The moment the music started, everyone hit the floor and began dancing.
• Hit the wall (किसी बाधा का सामना करना): This means to reach a point where you cannot continue or progress further.
• Example: After working for 12 hours straight, I hit the wall and couldn't concentrate anymore.
• Analyse and understand the situation (स्थिति का विश्लेषण और समझना): While this phrase is related to thinking critically, it does not convey the exact meaning of the idiom "hit the nail on the head."
• Example: It’s important to analyse and understand the situation before making any decisions.

The correct answer is 'from'.

 

Key Points

• The correct preposition to use in this context is "from" because it indicates separation or removal.
• The sentence implies that someone is trying to divert the speaker away from their principles, and "from" fits this meaning perfectly.
• Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because they do not convey the intended meaning of separation or removal.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Sentence: "Don't try to divert me from my principles."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "on" is incorrect because "on" is not used to indicate separation or diversion.
• Option 3: "about" is incorrect because it does not fit the context of diversion or moving away.
• Option 4: "for" is incorrect because it implies purpose or reason, which is not suitable here.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The sentence states that IMF restructuring programmes ________ winners and losers. This implies that the programmes bring about or cause the existence of winners and losers.
• Let's examine the options:
• 1) Create: This means to bring (something) into existence. This fits the context perfectly, as the programmes cause the emergence of winners and losers.
• 2) Celibate: This is an adjective meaning abstaining from marriage and sexual relations. It is grammatically and contextually incorrect here.
• 3) Calibrate: This means to adjust (something) precisely for a particular purpose. While programmes are designed, they don't "calibrate" winners and losers in this sense.
• 4) Calculate: This means to determine (the amount or number of something) mathematically. Programmes don't "calculate" winners and losers; they produce them.
• Therefore, "create" is the most appropriate word to describe the outcome of the IMF programmes.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Passage: Scholars have long noted that International Monetary Fund (IMF) restructuring programmes (1) create winners and losers, but always in (2) ____to different sectors of the economy. For example, the fact that programmes (3) ____to strengthen exports has been shown to favour farmers and business owners over urban middle class state employees like civil servants. The problem with purely (4) ____analyses is highlighted when you look at citizens’ experiences. One (5) ____of the survey data, covering nine countries in Africa, showed that three out of ten civil servants actually thought IMF reforms made their lives better.

The correct answer is Option 1.

 

Key Points

• The sentence states that IMF restructuring programmes create winners and losers, "but always in (2)________________ to different sectors of the economy." This phrase indicates a connection or comparison between the winners/losers and the economic sectors.
• Let's examine the options:
• 1) Relation: The phrase "in relation to" means "in connection with" or "concerning." This perfectly fits the context, as the winners and losers are identified in connection to specific economic sectors.
• 2) Narration: This refers to the act of telling a story. It is grammatically and contextually incorrect here.
• 3) Objection: This means an expression or feeling of disapproval or opposition. It does not fit the context of describing how winners and losers are distributed across sectors.
• 4) Anticipation: This means the action of looking forward to something. It is irrelevant to the distribution of winners and losers.
• Therefore, "relation" is the most appropriate word for blank no. 2.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1.

 

Complete Passage: Scholars have long noted that International Monetary Fund (IMF) restructuring programmes (1) create winners and losers, but always in (2) relation to different sectors of the economy. For example, the fact that programmes (3) ____to strengthen exports has been shown to favour farmers and business owners over urban middle class state employees like civil servants. The problem with purely (4) ____analyses is highlighted when you look at citizens’ experiences. One (5) ____of the survey data, covering nine countries in Africa, showed that three out of ten civil servants actually thought IMF reforms made their lives better.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence describes "programmes (3)________________ to strengthen exports." This implies that the programmes make an effort or try to achieve the goal of strengthening exports.
• Let's examine the options:
• 1) Separate: This means to divide or detach. It does not fit the context of programmes aiming to strengthen exports.
• 2) Integrate: This means to combine or bring together. While programmes might integrate elements, "integrate to strengthen exports" is not a natural or common phrasing.
• 3) Attempt: This means to make an effort to achieve or complete (something). This fits the context well, as programmes "attempt to strengthen exports." It suggests the action or objective of the programmes.
• 4) Negate: This means to make ineffective or deny the existence of. This is the opposite of strengthening exports.
• Therefore, "attempt" is the most appropriate word for blank no. 3, indicating the effort or aim of the programmes.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Passage: Scholars have long noted that International Monetary Fund (IMF) restructuring programmes (1) create winners and losers, but always in (2) relation to different sectors of the economy. For example, the fact that programmes (3) attempt to strengthen exports has been shown to favour farmers and business owners over urban middle class state employees like civil servants. The problem with purely (4) ____analyses is highlighted when you look at citizens’ experiences. One (5) ____of the survey data, covering nine countries in Africa, showed that three out of ten civil servants actually thought IMF reforms made their lives better.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The sentence discusses "The problem with purely (4)___________________ sectors" and states that this problem is "highlighted when you look at citizens’ experiences." This implies that focusing solely on the broad categories or a specific type of analysis of sectors is insufficient when considering individual experiences.
• Let's examine the options:
• 1) Compering: This refers to acting as a compere or host. It is grammatically and contextually incorrect.
• 2) Comparing: While "comparing" is a verb, it can also function as a participle acting as an adjective. In this context, "purely comparing sectors" could imply that the analysis is limited to merely comparing sectors at a high level, without delving into the individual experiences within them. The problem arises when the analysis is purely about comparison, overlooking other aspects. This is the most plausible fit among the given options, suggesting a type of limited analysis.
• 3) Compelling: This means evoking interest or admiration, or forcing something to happen. It does not fit the context of describing sectors in an economic analysis.
• 4) Compiling: This means gathering or collecting information. While data is compiled, "compiling sectors" is not a meaningful phrase in this context.
• Given the options, "comparing" is the most appropriate choice, implying that a purely comparative analysis of sectors is insufficient to understand citizens' experiences.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Complete Passage: Scholars have long noted that International Monetary Fund (IMF) restructuring programmes (1) create winners and losers, but always in (2) relation to different sectors of the economy. For example, the fact that programmes (3) attempt to strengthen exports has been shown to favour farmers and business owners over urban middle class state employees like civil servants. The problem with purely (4) comparing sectors is highlighted when you look at citizens’ experiences. One (5) ____of the survey data, covering nine countries in Africa, showed that three out of ten civil servants actually thought IMF reforms made their lives better.

The correct answer is Option 3.

 

Key Points

• The sentence refers to "One (5)_____________________ of the survey data, covering nine countries in Africa, showed that three out of ten civil servants actually thought IMF reforms made their lives better." This implies a specific part or a distinct portion of the survey data that revealed a particular outcome or observation.
• Let's examine the options:
• 1) Ligament: A band of fibrous tissue in the body. This is irrelevant to survey data.
• 2) Payment: The act of paying money. This is irrelevant to survey data.
• 3) Segment: A part of something. This fits the context well, referring to a distinct portion or section of the overall survey data. For example, a segment of the data might focus on civil servants' opinions.
• 4) Fragment: A small part broken or separated off something. While it means a part, "fragment" often implies incompleteness or being broken. "Segment" is a more neutral term for a distinct part of a whole, which is more appropriate for discussing survey data.
• Therefore, "segment" is the most appropriate word for blank no. 5, indicating a specific portion or aspect of the survey data.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3.

 

Complete Passage: Scholars have long noted that International Monetary Fund (IMF) restructuring programmes (1) create winners and losers, but always in (2) relation to different sectors of the economy. For example, the fact that programmes (3) attempt to strengthen exports has been shown to favour farmers and business owners over urban middle class state employees like civil servants. The problem with purely (4) sectoral analyses is highlighted when you look at citizens’ experiences. One (5) segment of the survey data, covering nine countries in Africa, showed that three out of ten civil servants actually thought IMF reforms made their lives better.

अभ्यागत पर्याय है - अतिथि का

Key Points

• अभ्यागत​ का पर्यायवाची शब्द - 'मेहमान' होगा।
• अभ्यागत​ के अन्य पर्यायवाची शब्द - अतिथि, पहुना, आगंतुक आदि।
• पर्यायवाची - ऐसे शब्द जिनके अर्थ समान हों, पर्यायवाची शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Informationकुछ महत्वपूर्ण पर्यायवाची शब्द -

कारक चिह्न का अशुद्ध प्रयोग हुआ है-  उस दिन पिताजी से मुझसे पूछा ही नहीं ।

Key Pointsशुद्ध वाक्य-

• उस दिन पिताजी ने मुझसे पूछा ही नहीं।

Important Pointsहिन्दी में आठ कारक’ हैं -

Additional Informationकारक संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ -