SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 07 Feb, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

From the give dice: 

Dice 1 and Dice 2:

The Opposite of E is: L.

The Opposite of I is: S.

The Opposite of U is: R.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Given word: 'ARMCHAIR'

Original word positions:

Letters in reverse English alphabetical order:

Comparing the original and sorted letters at each position:

 

Thus, the position of THREE letter will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word 'ARMCHAIR' is arranged in reverse English alphabetical order.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The least possible venn diagram is given:

All parrots are birds.

Cat is different.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Six people, E, F, G, Q, R and S, are sitting in a row facing north (but not necessarily in the same order).

Only two people sit to the right of R. Only two people sit between R and E. Only one person sits between E and F. F sits to the immediate left of R.

S sits to the immediate right of Q

Thus, Only two  people sit between Q and G.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Element on both side moving upside and downside respectively in each next step.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

For, ILOR is related to UXAD.

For, CFIL is related to ORUX.

Similarly, 

WZCF is related to ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

For, JILT is related to AZCK

For, ZYBJ is related to QPSA

Similarly, 

YXAI  is related to ?

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here:

Given: _ D _ L _ F _ O L J

Option 1) OJDF → O D J L D / F F O L J

Option 2) FOJD → F D O L J / F D O L J, its follow the pattern.

Option 3) DJOF → D D J L O / F F O L J

Option 4) JDOF → J D D L O / F F O L J.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

From the given dice:

Dice 1 and Dice 2:

The Opposite of L is: I.

The Opposite of U is: R.

The Opposite of A is: Q.

Thus, the opposite of Q is A.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

The code for "R" is "2".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Statements:

Some taps are soaps.

Some taps are creams.

Some soaps are oils.

The least possible venn diagram is given:

Conclusions:

(I) Some taps are oils - False(because, there is no direct relation id given between them so, it can be possible only).

(II) Some soaps are creams -  False(because, there is no direct relation id given between them so, it can be possible only).

Thus, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The logic followed here is:

Let's check options one by one:

Option 1) MHC

Option 2) TOJ

Option 3) GBW

 

Option 4) QJE

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Number of letter - 2 = code.

 'ZXFGA' is coded as '3'.

The number of letter is 5 - 2 = 3

'BTGHASQR' is coded as '6'.

The number of letter is 8 - 2 = 6

Similarly,

 'YWNERI' is coded as ?

The number of letter is 6 - 2 = 4

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The embedded image of the given figure:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given: K ÷ L × M - N + O

K ÷ L × M - N + O: It means that K is the father of L, L is the wife of M, M is the brother of N, N is the mother of O.

Thus, M is the Mother's brother of O.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Logic: Addition of the consecutive odd number.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given: Six people, D, E, F, G, H and W, are sitting in a row facing north(but not necessarily in the same order).

No one sits to the right of H. Only two people sit between H and G.

Only two people sit between W and D. G sits to the immediate left of D.  E sits to the immediate left of G. 

Thus, Only two people sit between F and E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given equation: 9 × (34 - 15) + (105 ÷ 7) + 28 + (13 × 4) = 218

 

1) Interchanging 15 and 13

New equation: 9 × (34 - 13) + (105 ÷ 7) + 28 + (15 × 4)

= 9 × 21 + 15 + 28 + 60

= 189 + 15 + 28 + 60

= 204 + 28 + 60

= 232 + 60

= 292 ≠ 218 (Incorrect)

2) Interchanging 15 and 7

New equation: 9 × (34 - 7) + (105 ÷ 15) + 28 + (13 × 4)

= 9 × 27 + 7 + 28 + 52

= 243 + 7 + 28 + 52

= 250 + 28 + 52

= 278 + 52

= 330 ≠ 218 (Incorrect)

3) Interchanging 28 and 15

New equation: 9 × (34 - 28) + (105 ÷ 7) + 15 + (13 × 4)

= 9 × 6 + 15 + 15 + 52

= 54 + 15 + 15 + 52

= 69 + 15 + 52

= 84 + 52

= 136 ≠ 218 (Incorrect)

4) Interchanging 34 and 28

New equation: 9 × (28 - 15) + (105 ÷ 7) + 34 + (13 × 4)

= 9 × 13 + 15 + 34 + 52

= 117 + 15 + 34 + 52

= 132 + 34 + 52

= 166 + 52

= 218

218 = 218 (Correct)

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The correct answer is Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Key Points

• The Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, was introduced by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in the Parliament.
• This amendment aims to modernize the existing Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Act, 1948, to align with current industry practices and challenges.
• The Bill seeks to enhance efficiency in oilfield operations and ensure better regulation of exploration and production activities.
• It also aims to facilitate foreign and domestic investment in India's oil and gas sector while ensuring environmental safeguards.
• The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is responsible for the development and regulation of petroleum, natural gas, and related industries in India.

Additional Information

• Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Act, 1948
• The original Act was enacted to regulate the exploration and development of oilfields in India.
• It provides the framework for granting licenses and leases for petroleum and natural gas exploration.
• The Act ensures that oilfield operations are conducted in a manner that safeguards national interests and environmental standards.
• Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
• The Ministry oversees the exploration, production, distribution, and pricing of petroleum and natural gas in India.
• It also regulates the downstream sector, including refining and marketing of petroleum products.
• The Ministry plays a key role in ensuring India’s energy security and reducing dependency on imports.
• India's Oil and Gas Sector
• India is the third-largest consumer of crude oil and natural gas globally.
• The government has launched initiatives like the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP) to boost exploration activities.
• The sector contributes significantly to India’s GDP and supports industrial growth.
• Environmental Safeguards in Oilfield Operations
• Regulations mandate the use of advanced technology to minimize environmental impact.
• Operators are required to adhere to stringent norms for waste management, air quality, and water resource protection.
• Environmental Impact Assessments (EIA) are mandatory for new oilfield projects.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest classical dance forms of India, originating in Tamil Nadu.
• It is deeply rooted in Natya Shastra, the ancient Sanskrit text on performing arts attributed to Bharata.
• The dance form was traditionally performed in temples as an offering to the deities, combining expressive gestures (Mudras), rhythmic movements, and storytelling.
• Bharatanatyam is characterized by its graceful movements, intricate footwork, and evocative facial expressions.
• The dance style is performed to Carnatic music and is often used to narrate stories from Hindu mythology, particularly focusing on themes of devotion (Bhakti).

Additional Information

• Natya Shastra:
• An ancient treatise written by Bharata that serves as the foundational text for Indian classical dance and drama.
• It outlines the principles of aesthetics, gestures, expressions, and stagecraft integral to performing arts.
• Components of Bharatanatyam:
• Nritta: Pure dance movements focusing on rhythm and technique.
• Nritya: Expressive dance using gestures and facial expressions to convey emotions.
• Natya: The dramatic aspect involving storytelling and enactment.
• Costume and Makeup:
• Dancers wear traditional silk sarees with intricate borders and jewelry.
• Makeup emphasizes facial expressions and eye movements, essential for conveying emotions.
• Famous Bharatanatyam Practitioners:
• Rukmini Devi Arundale: A pioneer who redefined Bharatanatyam as a respected art form.
• Padma Subrahmanyam: Known for her innovative approach to Bharatanatyam.

The correct answer is Exponential Growth.

Key Points

• Exponential growth refers to the rapid increase in population size when resources are unlimited, resulting in a J-shaped growth curve.
• This type of growth occurs when the birth rate significantly exceeds the death rate, leading to accelerated population expansion.
• Exponential growth is often observed in ideal conditions where there are no limiting factors such as food, space, or predation.
• It is mathematically modeled as P(t)=P0ert , where P(t) is the population at time t , P0 is the initial population, r is the growth rate, and e is Euler's number.
• While exponential growth can occur temporarily, it is unsustainable in the long term due to environmental limitations and competition.

Additional Information

• Logistic Growth:
• Logistic growth occurs when population growth slows down and stabilizes as it approaches the carrying capacity.
• It is represented by an S-shaped curve and accounts for limiting factors like resources and space.
• Carrying Capacity:
• Carrying capacity is the maximum population size that an environment can sustain indefinitely without degradation.
• It is determined by the availability of resources, competition, and environmental conditions.
• Population Explosion:
• Refers to an extremely rapid increase in population size, typically due to high birth rates and reduced mortality rates.
• Population explosion can lead to resource depletion and environmental challenges.
• Factors Influencing Population Growth:
• Birth rate, death rate, immigration, and emigration are key factors impacting population growth.
• Environmental conditions, healthcare advancements, and socio-economic factors also play significant roles.

The correct answer is 5th.

Key Points

• India secured the 5th position in the overall medal tally of the 2023 Para Asian Games, held in Hangzhou, China.
• The Indian contingent won a total of 111 medals, including 29 gold, 31 silver, and 51 bronze medals.
• This was India's best-ever performance in the history of the Para Asian Games.
• China topped the medal tally, followed by Iran, Japan, and South Korea, with India emerging as a significant sporting nation in para sports.
• The 2023 Para Asian Games were held from October 22 to October 28, 2023, and saw participation from over 40 countries.

Additional Information

• Para Asian Games Overview
• The Para Asian Games, also known as the Asian Para Games, is a multi-sport event held every four years for athletes with disabilities, organized by the Asian Paralympic Committee.
• The event promotes inclusivity and celebrates the achievements of para-athletes across Asia.
• The first edition of the Para Asian Games was held in Guangzhou, China, in 2010.
• India's Growth in Para Sports
• India has made significant progress in para sports, thanks to the efforts of organizations like the Paralympic Committee of India.
• Government initiatives such as the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) and increased funding have contributed to improved performances.
• Key Indian Athletes in 2023 Para Asian Games
• Star performers included Sumit Antil (gold in javelin throw) and Avani Lekhara (gold in shooting).
• Several debutants also made a significant impact, showcasing India's depth in para sports.
• Hangzhou 2023 Highlights
• The Games featured 22 sports, including athletics, swimming, badminton, and table tennis.
• Advanced facilities and high-tech arrangements in Hangzhou ensured a smooth and inclusive event for all participants.

The correct answer is Painted Grey Ware.

Key Points

• Painted Grey Ware (PGW) is a type of pottery that emerged as a hallmark of early Iron Age settlements in northern India, particularly during the Vedic period (circa 1200–600 BCE).
• This pottery is characterized by its fine texture, grey color, and painted designs in black or deep brown hues, often depicting geometric patterns or simple motifs.
• PGW is strongly associated with settlements located in the Indo-Gangetic plains, including sites like Hastinapur, Ahichchhatra, and Atranjikhera.
• Archaeological findings suggest that PGW pottery reflects the cultural and technological advancements during the early Iron Age, coinciding with the transition from pastoral to agrarian societies.
• It is often linked with the later Vedic culture and is considered one of the indicators of early urbanization in northern India.

Additional Information

• Black-and-Red Ware:
• A type of pottery associated with Chalcolithic cultures and some Iron Age sites in India.
• It features a dual-color scheme with black interiors and red exteriors, often with simple decorations.
• While significant, it predates Painted Grey Ware and is not specific to early Iron Age settlements.
• Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW):
• NBPW pottery is a later development, flourishing around 700–200 BCE during the Mauryan period.
• It is known for its glossy finish and was often associated with urban centers and trade networks.
• Red Polished Ware:
• This type of pottery is typically associated with later periods, such as the post-Mauryan and Gupta periods.
• It is characterized by its bright red color and smooth texture, often used for decorative purposes.
• Early Iron Age Settlements:
• The period saw the rise of agrarian societies, advancements in metallurgy, and the use of iron tools and weapons.
• Settlements like Hastinapur and Kaushambi flourished during this era, marking the transition to urbanization.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• India implemented a total of 7 five-year plans between 1951 and 1990.
• The first five-year plan began in 1951, focusing on agricultural development and infrastructure.
• Subsequent plans aimed at industrialization, poverty reduction, and economic growth.
• The seventh five-year plan (1985-1990) emphasized productivity, modernization, and self-reliance.
• The planning process during this period was overseen by the Planning Commission, established in 1950.

Additional Information

• Five-Year Plans in India:
• Introduced in 1951, inspired by the Soviet Union's model of centralized economic planning.
• Aimed to set targets for national development over a five-year period.
• Planning Commission:
• Established in 1950 by the Government of India.
• Responsible for formulating and overseeing five-year plans until its dissolution in 2014.
• Major Focus Areas:
• Agriculture (First Plan), Industrialization (Second Plan), Poverty Alleviation (Fourth Plan).
• Self-reliance and modernization (Seventh Plan).
• Transition After 1990:
• The era of economic liberalization started in 1991, shifting focus to market-driven reforms.
• Five-year plans continued until 2017, replaced by the NITI Aayog framework.

The correct answer is Tapan Kumar Pattanayak.

Key Points

• Tapan Kumar Pattanayak is a renowned Indian dancer known for his expertise in Chhau dance, a traditional Indian dance form.
• He was awarded the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for Chhau dance in 2018, recognizing his contributions to this art form.
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi Award is India's highest honor for performing arts, given by the National Academy of Music, Dance, and Drama.
• Chhau dance has three main styles: Seraikella Chhau, Purulia Chhau, and Mayurbhanj Chhau, each originating from different regions of India.
• Tapan Kumar Pattanayak has played a vital role in preserving and promoting the Mayurbhanj Chhau style, which is characterized by its energetic movements and martial art elements.

Additional Information

• Chhau Dance
• Chhau is a semi-classical Indian dance form that incorporates martial arts, folklore, and storytelling.
• It is primarily performed in the states of Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal.
• Chhau dance uses masks in some styles, such as Purulia Chhau, whereas Mayurbhanj Chhau is performed without masks.
• The themes of Chhau performances often revolve around episodes from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
• Sangeet Natak Akademi
• Established in 1952, Sangeet Natak Akademi is India's National Academy for Music, Dance, and Drama.
• The Akademi Awards are conferred annually to artists for their outstanding achievements in performing arts.
• It aims to preserve and promote India's rich cultural heritage and traditional art forms.
• Mayurbhanj Chhau Dance
• Originating from Odisha, Mayurbhanj Chhau is a mask-less version of Chhau dance.
• It is known for its vigorous and dynamic movements, often depicting themes of heroism and mythology.
• Mayurbhanj Chhau incorporates elements of acrobatics and martial arts, making it visually captivating.
• Key Figures in Chhau Dance
• Many notable artists have contributed to the development and preservation of Chhau dance, including Tapan Kumar Pattanayak.
• Efforts by dancers and cultural institutions have helped Chhau gain recognition both nationally and internationally.

The correct answer is Himachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Halda Festival is a cultural celebration observed in the Lahaul-Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh.
• This festival is celebrated to honor the Hindu deity Goddess Kali and to seek blessings for prosperity and well-being.
• It is celebrated during the winter season, particularly in January, depending on the lunar calendar.
• The festival involves a traditional ritual where villagers light a bonfire using cedar branches, symbolizing unity and harmony.
• Halda is distinct for its communal participation, with villagers coming together to celebrate and strengthen social bonds.

Additional Information

• Himachal Pradesh
• Known as the "Land of Gods", Himachal Pradesh is famous for its rich cultural heritage and traditions.
• It is home to numerous festivals such as Dussehra of Kullu, Losar Festival, and Minjar Fair.
• The state is known for its scenic beauty, including the Himalayas, rivers, and valleys.
• Himachal Pradesh plays a vital role in preserving Indian tribal and folk traditions.
• Lahaul-Spiti Region
• Lahaul-Spiti is a tribal region in Himachal Pradesh known for its rugged terrain and Buddhist culture.
• The region experiences extreme winters, and festivals like Halda offer an opportunity for socializing.
• It is also famous for ancient monasteries such as Key Monastery and Tabo Monastery.
• Significance of Goddess Kali
• Goddess Kali is a significant deity in Hinduism, symbolizing strength, protection, and the destruction of evil.
• She is often invoked during festivals for blessings and protection from adversities.
• Traditional Festivals of India
• India is known for its diversity of festivals, which reflect the cultural and religious plurality of the country.
• Festivals like Halda not only preserve traditions but also promote community bonding and cultural identity.

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

• According to the Census of India 2011, Mizoram had the least population among the listed states.
• The total population of Mizoram in 2011 was approximately 1,091,014, making it one of the least populated states in India.
• Mizoram is a northeastern state of India, known for its hilly terrain and dense forests.
• Among the northeastern states mentioned (Assam, Manipur, Tripura, and Mizoram), Mizoram had the lowest population figures as per the census.
• Despite its low population, Mizoram boasts a high literacy rate of about 91.33% as per the 2011 Census.

Additional Information

• Census of India:
• The Census is conducted every 10 years by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
• The Census of India 2011 was the 15th national census since the first census conducted in 1872.
• It provides comprehensive data on population, literacy, gender ratio, and other demographic factors.
• Population Distribution in India:
• India's population is unevenly distributed due to geographic, economic, and social factors.
• States like Uttar Pradesh have the highest population, whereas smaller states like Mizoram and Sikkim have much lower populations.
• Mizoram:
• Mizoram is one of the seven sister states in northeast India.
• The state is characterized by its tribal communities and unique cultural heritage.
• Mizoram's economy is primarily agrarian, with shifting cultivation being a common practice.
• Literacy Rate:
• The literacy rate is an important parameter measured during the Census.
• Mizoram's literacy rate of 91.33% (2011 Census) is one of the highest in India, showcasing its focus on education.

The correct answer is 2021.

Key Points

• The PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan was officially launched on 13th October 2021 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• This plan aims to provide multimodal connectivity infrastructure to various economic zones in the country.
• It focuses on integrated infrastructure planning and coordination among different government departments to improve logistics efficiency and reduce costs.
• The initiative is a part of the government’s strategy to make India a global manufacturing hub by streamlining transport, supply chains, and infrastructure development.
• It is aligned with the goal of achieving a $5 trillion economy by addressing critical bottlenecks in infrastructure development.

Additional Information

• Key Objectives of PM Gati Shakti:
• Enhance coordination among departments to ensure integrated planning and implementation of infrastructure projects.
• Reduce logistics costs to make Indian businesses more competitive globally.
• Support India’s goal of becoming a global manufacturing and export hub.
• Components of the Gati Shakti Plan:
• Involves a Geospatial Digital Platform for real-time data monitoring and project tracking.
• Includes 16 ministries, such as Railways, Roads and Highways, Power, and Telecom, working together for integrated infrastructure development.
• National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP):
• PM Gati Shakti is closely integrated with the NIP, which was launched in 2019.
• NIP aims to invest over Rs. 111 lakh crore in infrastructure by 2025 across sectors like energy, roads, railways, and urban development.
• Multimodal Connectivity:
• Focuses on connecting ports, airports, railways, and roadways to facilitate seamless movement of goods and services.
• Encourages the use of modern technologies, such as drones and GIS-based mapping, for better planning and execution.

The correct answer is 5-10 km.

Key Points

• The oceanic crust is primarily composed of basalt, a dense, dark volcanic rock.
• The thickness of the oceanic crust ranges from 5 to 10 kilometers beneath the ocean floor, depending on its age and location.
• New oceanic crust is formed at mid-ocean ridges due to volcanic activity and spreads outward over time.
• It is thinner and denser than the continental crust, which is mostly composed of granite and is around 30-50 km thick.
• The oceanic crust is a crucial part of the Earth's lithosphere and plays a significant role in the plate tectonic cycle.

Additional Information

• Basalt
• Basalt is a volcanic igneous rock that makes up the majority of the oceanic crust.
• It is rich in minerals like pyroxene, plagioclase, and olivine, and has a high density compared to continental crust rocks.
• Mid-Ocean Ridges
• These are underwater mountain ranges where new oceanic crust is formed due to tectonic plate divergence.
• Examples include the Mid-Atlantic Ridge and the East Pacific Rise.
• Plate Tectonics
• The oceanic crust is part of the Earth's lithosphere, which is divided into tectonic plates.
• Plates interact at boundaries, leading to processes like subduction, where oceanic crust is pushed beneath continental crust, recycling it into the mantle.
• Oceanic vs. Continental Crust
• Oceanic crust is thinner (5-10 km) but denser, while continental crust is thicker (30-50 km) but less dense.
• The differences in composition and density play a key role in tectonic processes like subduction and mountain building.
• Seafloor Spreading
• The process by which new oceanic crust is created at mid-ocean ridges and spreads outward.
• This phenomenon provides evidence for the theory of plate tectonics, as observed through magnetic patterns on the seafloor.

The correct answer is Article 40.

Key Points

• Article 40 of the Indian Constitution directs the state to organize village panchayats and empower them to function as units of self-government.
• This provision is included under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are non-justiciable guidelines for governance.
• The concept of village panchayats aligns with Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of decentralized governance and rural empowerment.
• Village panchayats play a significant role in local administration and decision-making, fostering grassroots democracy.
• Article 40 emphasizes the principle of decentralization to ensure efficient governance and equitable development in rural areas.

Additional Information

• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
• DPSPs are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 36-51).
• They are non-enforceable in courts but serve as guiding principles for governance aimed at achieving socio-economic justice.
• Decentralized Governance:
• Decentralization involves the distribution of decision-making powers to lower levels of government, such as village panchayats.
• This ensures better representation, accountability, and efficient resource utilization at the local level.
• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act:
• This act, passed in 1992, established the Panchayati Raj system in India.
• It provided constitutional status to village panchayats and detailed their powers, composition, and functions.
• Importance of Village Panchayats:
• Village panchayats serve as the foundation of rural development and local self-governance.
• They handle essential functions like sanitation, water supply, education, and rural infrastructure development.

The correct answer is Preeti Sudan.

Key Points

• Preeti Sudan was appointed as the Chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) on 1 August 2024.
• She succeeded Dr. Manoj Soni, the former Chairperson of UPSC.
• Preeti Sudan is a retired Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer from the 1983 batch of the Andhra Pradesh cadre.
• She has served as the Union Health Secretary and played a key role in shaping policies during the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Her experience in various administrative roles makes her highly qualified for heading UPSC, the premier recruiting agency for the Indian government.

Additional Information

• Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):
• UPSC is a constitutional body established under Article 315 of the Indian Constitution.
• It conducts prestigious exams like the Civil Services Examination, Engineering Services Examination, and others.
• UPSC is responsible for recruiting candidates for top administrative positions in the Indian government.
• Role of the Chairperson of UPSC:
• The Chairperson leads the commission in conducting examinations and interviews for government recruitment.
• They ensure transparency, fairness, and integrity in the recruitment process.
• Preeti Sudan’s Career Highlights:
• She played a crucial role in the implementation of Ayushman Bharat, India’s flagship health insurance scheme.
• She also contributed to the drafting of the National Health Policy 2017.
• Her administrative experience spans sectors like education, finance, and health.
• Importance of UPSC Chairperson:
• The Chairperson’s leadership influences the quality of governance through the selection of top-tier officials.
• They uphold the constitutional mandate of impartiality and merit-based selection in public service recruitment.

The correct answer is 7.

Key Points

• The Union Budget 2023-24 adopted seven priorities, referred to as the "Saptarishi" to guide India's Amrit Kaal journey.
• The seven priorities are Inclusive Development, Reaching the Last Mile, Infrastructure and Investment, Unleashing Potential, Green Growth, Youth Power, and Financial Sector.
• Each priority is aligned with the vision of fostering sustainable economic growth and achieving India's long-term development goals.
• These priorities reflect the government's commitment to inclusivity, innovation, and environmental sustainability in policymaking.
• The Union Budget 2023-24 was presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1, 2023.

Additional Information

• Amrit Kaal:
• A term introduced by the government to define the 25-year period leading up to India’s centenary of independence in 2047.
• It emphasizes India's vision for inclusive and sustainable development during this transformative era.
• Green Growth:
• One of the seven priorities aimed at promoting sustainable practices and reducing carbon emissions.
• Includes initiatives like green hydrogen, energy transition, and renewable energy expansion.
• Reaching the Last Mile:
• Focuses on ensuring that the benefits of government schemes and initiatives reach the underserved and marginalized sections of society.
• Includes targeted development for tribal regions and vulnerable groups.
• Infrastructure and Investment:
• Aims at enhancing capital investment to boost economic growth and job creation.
• Proposes an increased capital expenditure of ₹10 lakh crore for the fiscal year 2023-24.

The correct answer is Agriculture.

Key Points

• The First Five-Year Plan (1951–1956) of India focused primarily on agriculture and irrigation as its highest priority.
• This emphasis was due to the significant challenges of food shortages and the need for self-sufficiency in food production post-independence.
• Agriculture accounted for approximately 31% of the total plan allocation, highlighting its critical importance.
• The plan aimed to improve agricultural productivity through land reforms, community development programs, and irrigation projects.
• Key initiatives included major irrigation projects like the Bhakra Nangal Dam to enhance water resources for farming.

Additional Information

• Five-Year Plans of India:
• India adopted the five-year plan model from the Soviet Union to achieve planned economic development.
• The Planning Commission, established in 1950, was responsible for formulating and implementing these plans.
• The First Five-Year Plan focused on agriculture, irrigation, and energy production to address immediate needs.
• Land Reforms:
• Land reforms under the First Five-Year Plan aimed to abolish the zamindari system and redistribute land to farmers.
• These reforms included tenancy rights, land ceilings, and consolidation of land holdings.
• Community Development Program (1952):
• This program was launched to promote rural development through agriculture, education, health, and infrastructure.
• It served as a model for integrated rural development during the First Five-Year Plan.
• Major Irrigation Projects:
• Projects like Bhakra Nangal Dam, Hirakud Dam, and Damodar Valley Corporation were initiated to address water scarcity and improve agricultural irrigation.
• These projects played a vital role in enhancing agricultural productivity in India.
• Economic Growth Target:
• The First Five-Year Plan aimed at an annual growth rate of 2.1% but achieved a higher growth rate of 3.6% due to agricultural success.

The correct answer is Chief Justice of High Court.

Key Points

• The Chief Justice of a High Court is part of the judiciary and not the state executive, which primarily consists of political and administrative heads.
• The state executive comprises the Governor, Chief Minister, and the Council of Ministers, all of whom are responsible for the administration and governance of the state.
• The Chief Justice and judges of the High Court are responsible for interpreting laws and ensuring justice, which falls under the jurisdiction of the judiciary and not the executive branch.
• The separation of powers doctrine clearly distinguishes the judiciary from the executive to maintain checks and balances in governance.
• While the Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other ministers, the judiciary remains independent and is governed by the provisions of the Constitution of India.

Additional Information

• Governor:
• The Governor is the constitutional head of a state and is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years.
• They act as the representative of the Union Government in the state.
• The Governor has executive, legislative, and discretionary powers, including appointing the Chief Minister and dissolving the State Assembly.
• Chief Minister:
• The Chief Minister is the real executive head of a state and is responsible for formulating policies and governance within the state.
• They are appointed by the Governor, usually the leader of the majority party in the state legislature.
• Council of Ministers:
• The Council of Ministers, headed by the Chief Minister, aids and advises the Governor in the administration of the state.
• They are collectively responsible to the State Legislature.
• Judiciary:
• The High Court is the highest judicial authority in a state and functions independently of the executive and legislature.
• The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state.
• The judiciary ensures adherence to the Constitution and protects the fundamental rights of citizens.

The correct answer is Khilafat Committee.

Key Points

• The Khilafat Committee was established in 1919 to protest against the injustices meted out to the Ottoman Caliphate after World War I and to protect its authority.
• It aimed to support the Khilafat Movement and foster Hindu-Muslim unity in the Indian independence struggle.
• The leaders of the Khilafat Movement included prominent figures like Maulana Mohammad Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali, also known as the Ali Brothers.
• Mahatma Gandhi supported the Khilafat Movement, encouraging Indian Muslims and Hindus to work together against British colonial rule.
• The movement eventually merged with the Non-Cooperation Movement initiated by Gandhi, forming a united front against British oppression.

Additional Information

• Khilafat Movement:
• The movement was a pan-Islamic political campaign launched by Indian Muslims to influence the British government and protect the Ottoman Caliphate after World War I.
• The Treaty of Sèvres (1920), which dismantled the Ottoman Empire, was a major catalyst for this movement.
• Role of the Ali Brothers:
• Maulana Mohammad Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali were instrumental in leading the Khilafat Movement in India.
• They worked in collaboration with Mahatma Gandhi to ensure Hindu-Muslim unity during the struggle for independence.
• Hindu-Muslim Unity:
• The Khilafat Movement marked a rare period of collaboration between Hindus and Muslims in the Indian freedom struggle.
• Gandhi's support for the movement was pivotal in bridging communal gaps temporarily.
• Decline of the Movement:
• The Khilafat Movement declined after Mustafa Kemal Atatürk abolished the Caliphate in 1924 and established a secular government in Turkey.
• This development weakened the relevance of the movement in India.

The correct answer is Ghazal.

Key Points

• Jagjit Singh was popularly known as the “Ghazal King” for his contributions to the Indian music industry, particularly in the genre of Ghazals.
• He is credited with making Ghazals more accessible to the masses by blending traditional Ghazal music with modern instrumentation.
• Jagjit Singh’s albums such as “The Unforgettable,” “Mirage,” and “Hope” are iconic works in the Ghazal genre.
• He performed in multiple languages including Hindi, Punjabi, and Urdu, showcasing his versatility as a Ghazal singer and composer.
• His contribution to Ghazal music earned him several awards, including the Sahitya Kala Academy Award and recognition as a pivotal figure in Indian music history.

Additional Information

• Ghazal:
• Ghazal is a poetic form consisting of rhyming couplets and a refrain, with each line sharing the same meter.
• Originating in Arabic literature, Ghazals later became popular in Persian, Urdu, and Indian literature and music.
• It often expresses themes of love, loss, and mysticism, making it a highly emotive form of art.
• Jagjit Singh’s Legacy:
• He was the first Indian musician to record a digital album.
• His music played a significant role in reviving the Ghazal genre during the late 20th century.
• Jagjit Singh collaborated with prominent poets like Kaifi Azmi and Gulzar to bring poetry to life through his music.
• Impact on Indian Music:
• Jagjit Singh’s work bridged the gap between classical music and contemporary tastes.
• He introduced simple, relatable lyrics in Ghazals, making the genre widely appreciated by diverse audiences.

The correct answer is Option 1: 2C4H10(l) + 13O2(g) → 8CO2(g) + 10H2O.

Key Points

• The chemical equation 2C4H10(l) + 13O2(g) → 8CO2(g) + 10H2O represents the complete combustion of butane (C4H10).
• In a balanced chemical equation, the number of atoms of each element on the reactant side must equal those on the product side.
• Here, 2 molecules of butane react with 13 molecules of oxygen to produce 8 molecules of carbon dioxide and 10 molecules of water.
• The balancing ensures that carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms are conserved during the reaction according to the law of conservation of mass.
• This equation is commonly used in the study of hydrocarbon combustion reactions.

Additional Information

• Combustion Reaction
• A combustion reaction occurs when a hydrocarbon reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water, and energy.
• Complete combustion happens when there is enough oxygen available, producing CO2 and H2O as the only products.
• Law of Conservation of Mass
• This law states that matter cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.
• In a balanced equation, the mass and number of atoms on the reactant side must equal the mass and number of atoms on the product side.
• Hydrocarbons
• Hydrocarbons are organic compounds consisting entirely of carbon and hydrogen.
• They are categorized into alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes based on the type of bonds between carbon atoms.
• Butane (C4H10) is an alkane, characterized by single bonds between carbon atoms.
• Importance of Combustion Reactions
• Combustion reactions are crucial for energy production in industries, vehicles, and households.
• Fuels like propane, butane, and methane undergo combustion to generate heat and power.

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

• Tamil Nadu defeated Punjab in the final match to secure the men's title in the 71st Senior National Basketball Championship 2022.
• The final game took place at Chennai, Tamil Nadu, where the championship was hosted.
• Tamil Nadu showcased exceptional performance, winning the men's title with a scoreline of 87-69 against Punjab.
• The victory highlighted Tamil Nadu's dominance in the basketball circuit in India.
• This championship is one of the prestigious national-level tournaments in basketball, organized under the aegis of the Basketball Federation of India.

Additional Information

• Basketball Federation of India (BFI):
• The BFI is the governing body for basketball in India and is responsible for organizing national-level tournaments like the Senior National Basketball Championship.
• Founded in 1950, it works to promote basketball across the country and represents India in international basketball events.
• Significance of the Senior National Basketball Championship:
• This championship provides a platform for players from different states to showcase their talent and compete at the highest level in India.
• It is considered a crucial event for the selection of players for the national basketball team.
• Basketball in India:
• Basketball has been growing steadily in popularity, especially among youth, due to increased exposure to international leagues like the NBA.
• India has been making efforts to improve infrastructure and coaching standards to develop basketball at grassroots levels.
• Tamil Nadu's Basketball Legacy:
• Tamil Nadu has traditionally been one of the strongholds in Indian basketball, consistently performing well in national championships.
• The state has produced several talented players who have represented India at international levels.

Shortcut Trick

When a new person joins and increases the overall average, use the net deviation method:

Age of new person = Old Average + (New Total Members × Increase in Average)

⇒ Age of the teacher = 22 + (60 × 1)

⇒ Age of the teacher = 22 + 60 = 82

∴ The correct answer is 82 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial number of students = 59

Average age of 59 students = 22 years

New average age when the teacher is included = 23 years

Total members after including the teacher = 59 + 1 = 60

Formula Used:

Total Age = Average Age × Number of Members

Age Deviation / Net Change

Old Average = 22

Total Increase = 60 × 1

Teacher's Age = 82

Calculations:

⇒ Total age of 59 students = 59 × 22

⇒ Total age of 59 students = 1298 years

⇒ Total age of 60 members (students + teacher) = 60 × 23

⇒ Total age of 60 members = 1380 years

⇒ Age of the teacher = Total age of 60 members − Total age of 59 students

⇒ Age of the teacher = 1380 − 1298 = 82 years

∴ The correct answer is 82 years.

Additional Information

Combined Average

When combining two different groups into one, the weighted average is calculated as: Combined Average = (n₁a₁ + n₂a₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂)

Replacement in Averages

If a person is replaced by a new person in a group, the change in value is evaluated as: New Person's Value = Old Person's Value ± (Total Members × Change in Average)

Exclusion in Averages

If a person leaves a group and the average of the remaining members decreases, their value was higher than the average: Value of leaving person = Old Average + (Remaining Members × Decrease in Average)

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM of given days (5, 10, 2) = 10 units.

Combined efficiency of all three = 10 ÷ 2 = 5 units/day.

Efficiency of Abhishek = 10 ÷ 5 = 2 units/day | Efficiency of Deepanshi = 10 ÷ 10 = 1 unit/day.

Efficiency of Chitransh = Total Efficiency − (Abhishek + Deepanshi) = 5 − 3 = 2 units/day.

Chitransh's Wage = (Chitransh's Efficiency ÷ Total Efficiency) × Total Amount = (2 ÷ 5) × 1000 = ₹400.

∴ The correct answer is ₹400.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by Abhishek = 5 days

Time taken by Deepanshi = 10 days

Time taken by Abhishek, Deepanshi, and Chitransh together = 2 days

Total payment for the work = ₹1000

Formula Used:

When multiple people work together for the same number of days, the total wage is distributed strictly in the ratio of their efficiencies.

Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time taken

Calculation:

⇒ Let total work be the LCM of 5, 10, and 2.

⇒ Efficiency of Chitransh = Total Efficiency − (Efficiency of Abhishek + Efficiency of Deepanshi)

⇒ Efficiency of Chitransh = 5 − (2 + 1) = 2 units/day

⇒ Ratio of efficiencies (Abhishek : Deepanshi : Chitransh) = 2 : 1 : 2

⇒ Total ratio parts = 2 + 1 + 2 = 5 parts

⇒ Value of 5 parts = ₹1000

⇒ Value of 1 part = 1000 ÷ 5 = ₹200

⇒ Chitransh's payment (2 parts) = 2 × 200 = ₹400

∴ The correct answer is ₹400.

Additional Information

Work and Wages Principle

When individuals work together for the entire duration of a task, the total wage is distributed exactly in proportion to their individual efficiencies (work completed per day).

Wages for Unequal Working Days

If workers join or leave in between, working for different numbers of days, the wage share is strictly based on the total work done by each person: Share = (Efficiency × Days Worked) ÷ Total Work.

Application in Pipes & Cisterns

The exact same LCM logic applies to pipes filling or emptying a tank. An emptying pipe (leak) simply functions with a negative efficiency while filling pipes have positive efficiency.

Shortcut Trick

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is given by √(a × b).

⇒ Mean Proportional = √(68 × 272)

Since 272 is simply 68 × 4, we can substitute it directly.

⇒ Mean Proportional = √(68 × 68 × 4)

⇒ Mean Proportional = 68 × 2 = 136

∴ The correct answer is 136.

Alternate Method

Given:

The two numbers are 68 and 272.

Formula Used:

If x is the mean proportional between two numbers a and b, then a : x :: x : b.

68

:

x

::

x

:

272

Product of Means = x × x Product of Extremes = 68 × 272

x² = 68 × 272

Calculations:

Let the mean proportional be x.

⇒ 68 / x = x / 272

⇒ x² = 68 × 272

⇒ x = √(68 × 272)

⇒ x = √(17 × 4 × 17 × 16)

⇒ x = √(17² × 64)

⇒ x = 17 × 8

⇒ x = 136

∴ The correct answer is 136.

Additional Information

Third Proportional

If c is the third proportional to a and b, then a : b :: b : c, which gives c = b² ÷ a.

Fourth Proportional

If d is the fourth proportional to a, b and c, then a : b :: c : d, which gives d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Duplicate Ratio

The duplicate ratio of a : b is defined as the ratio of their squares, which is a² : b².

Given:

2% of x = 324

Calculation:

2% of x = 324

$\frac{2}{100} \times x = 324$

⇒ $\frac{2x}{100} = 324$

⇒ $x = \frac{324 \times 100}{2}$

⇒ x = 16200

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Shortcut Trick

Successive percentage changes can be calculated by multiplying their respective scaling factors.

Multiplying factor = (1 − 0.35) × (1 − 0.10) × (1 − 0.30) × (1 + 0.65)

Multiplying factor = 0.65 × 0.90 × 0.70 × 1.65 = 0.675675

Net percentage change = (0.675675 − 1) × 100 = −32.4325% ≈ −32.43%

∴ The correct answer is Decreases by 32.43%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Price decreases in the first three months: 35%, 10% and 30%.

Price increases in the fourth month: 65%.

Formula Used:

Final Value = Initial Value × (1 ± R₁/100) × (1 ± R₂/100) × ...

100 65 58.5 40.95 67.57

−35% −10% −30% +65%

Net Decrease = 32.43%

Calculations:

⇒ Let the initial price of the fuel be 100 units.

⇒ Price after 1st month = 100 − (35% of 100) = 65

⇒ Price after 2nd month = 65 − (10% of 65) = 65 − 6.5 = 58.5

⇒ Price after 3rd month = 58.5 − (30% of 58.5) = 58.5 − 17.55 = 40.95

⇒ Price after 4th month = 40.95 + (65% of 40.95) = 40.95 + 26.6175 = 67.5675

⇒ Overall change = Final Price − Initial Price = 67.5675 − 100 = −32.4325

⇒ The negative sign indicates an overall decrease.

⇒ Percentage decrease = 32.4325% ≈ 32.43%

∴ The correct answer is Decreases by 32.43%.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change Formula

For two successive changes of A% and B%, the net percentage change is given by: A + B + (A × B) / 100. This formula can be chained sequentially for multiple changes.

Fraction Equivalents

Converting percentages to fractions speeds up calculations. For instance, a decrease of 35% means the new value is simply 13/20 of the prior value.

Base Independence

In problems strictly dealing with percentage scaling, the final percentage change remains completely independent of the starting value. Assuming an initial value of 100 prevents unnecessary fraction handling.

Shortcut Trick

Net deviation = 3 × (48 − 57) + 7 × (58 − 57) = −27 + 7 = −20.

Sum of last 3 numbers = 3 × 57 − (−20) = 171 + 20 = 191.

Let 12^th number = x. Then 11^th = 2x and 13^th = x + 3.

Sum = 2x + x + (x + 3) = 191 ⇒ 4x = 188 ⇒ x = 47.

11^th = 94, 13^th = 50 ⇒ Average = (94 + 50) ÷ 2 = 72.

∴ The correct answer is 72.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average of 13 numbers = 57

Average of first 3 numbers = 48

Average of next 7 numbers = 58

Formula Used:

Total Sum = Average × Number of terms

13 Numbers: Average = 57, Total Sum = 741

First 3 Avg: 48 Sum = 144

Next 7 Avg: 58 Sum = 406

Last 3 11th, 12th, 13th Sum = 191

Last 3 Sum = 741 − (144 + 406) = 191

Calculation:

⇒ Total sum of 13 numbers = 13 × 57 = 741

⇒ Sum of first 3 numbers = 3 × 48 = 144

⇒ Sum of next 7 numbers = 7 × 58 = 406

⇒ Sum of 11^th, 12^th, and 13^th numbers = 741 − (144 + 406) = 191

⇒ Let the 12^th number be x.

⇒ 11^th number = 2x

⇒ 13^th number = x + 3 (since 12^th number is 3 less than 13^th)

⇒ 2x + x + (x + 3) = 191

⇒ 4x + 3 = 191

⇒ 4x = 188

⇒ x = 47

⇒ 11^th number = 2 × 47 = 94

⇒ 13^th number = 47 + 3 = 50

⇒ Average of 11^th and 13^th numbers = (94 + 50) ÷ 2 = 144 ÷ 2 = 72

∴ The correct answer is 72.

Additional Information

Net Deviation Method

It calculates the difference of each subset average from the overall average. If the sum of deviations of known numbers is D, the remaining items must compensate by −D.

Combined Average

Used to find the overall average when a group is split into subsets: A = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂ + ... ) ÷ (n₁ + n₂ + ... )

Weighted Average

Similar to combined average, weights are applied based on proportional quantities instead of absolute frequencies.

Shortcut Trick

Time to complete one round = Distance ÷ Speed

Ram's time = 800 ÷ 25 = 32 sec

Mohan's time = 800 ÷ 40 = 20 sec

Time to meet at the starting point = LCM of individual times to complete one round

⇒ LCM (32, 20) = 160 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 160 seconds.

Alternate Method

Starting Point Distance = 800 m

Ram (25 m/s) Mohan (40 m/s)

Given:

⇒ Total length of the circular track = 800 m

⇒ Speed of Ram = 25 m/sec

⇒ Speed of Mohan = 40 m/sec

Formula Used:

⇒ Time = Distance ÷ Speed

⇒ Time taken to meet at the starting point = LCM of the times taken by each individual to complete one full round.

Calculations:

⇒ Time taken by Ram to complete one round = 800 ÷ 25 = 32 seconds

⇒ Time taken by Mohan to complete one round = 800 ÷ 40 = 20 seconds

⇒ Time to meet at the starting point = LCM (32, 20)

⇒ Multiples of 32: 32, 64, 96, 128, 160, 192...

⇒ Multiples of 20: 20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120, 140, 160...

⇒ The least common multiple (LCM) = 160

∴ The correct answer is 160 seconds.

Additional Information

1. Meeting for the first time anywhere on the track

Time = Total track distance ÷ Relative Speed. If moving in the same direction, Relative Speed = |S₁ − S₂|. If moving in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂.

2. Meeting for the first time at the starting point

Time = LCM of the time taken by each runner to complete one full round independently. This rule remains the same regardless of whether the runners are moving in the same or opposite directions.

3. Number of distinct meeting points on the track

When individual speeds S₁ and S₂ are reduced to their simplest ratio a : b, the runners will meet at |a − b| distinct points if running in the same direction, and at (a + b) distinct points if running in opposite directions.

Shortcut Trick

Total distance to cross = 150 + 350 = 500 m = 0.5 km.

Relative speed in same direction = 120 − 60 = 60 km/h.

Time required to cross = Distance ÷ Relative speed = 0.5 ÷ 60 hours.

Time in minutes = (0.5 ÷ 60) × 60 = 0.5 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 0.5 minutes.

Alternate Method

Train 2: 350 m 120 km/h →

Train 1: 150 m 60 km/h →

Total crossing distance = 350 + 150 = 500 m

Given:

Length of first train (L₁) = 150 m

Length of second train (L₂) = 350 m

Speed of first train (S₁) = 60 km/h

Speed of second train (S₂) = 120 km/h

Formula Used:

Relative speed (same direction) = S₂ − S₁

Time taken to cross = (L₁ + L₂) ÷ Relative speed

Calculation:

⇒ Total distance = 150 + 350 = 500 m

⇒ Relative speed = 120 − 60 = 60 km/h

⇒ Convert relative speed to m/s = 60 × (5/18) = 300/18 = 50/3 m/s

⇒ Time taken = Total distance ÷ Relative speed

⇒ Time taken = 500 ÷ (50/3) = (500 × 3) ÷ 50 = 30 seconds

⇒ Convert time to minutes = 30 ÷ 60 = 0.5 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 0.5 minutes.

Additional Information

Relative Speed Concept

When two objects move in the same direction, their relative speed is the difference between their speeds (S₁ − S₂). When they move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their speeds (S₁ + S₂).

Unit Conversion Trick

To convert km/h to m/s, multiply the speed value by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/h, multiply the speed value by 18/5.

Crossing an Object with Length

When a train crosses another train, a bridge, or a platform, the total distance to be covered to completely cross the object is always the sum of the lengths of the train and the object it is crossing.

Shortcut Trick

The required number must be exactly 9 more than a common multiple of 64 and 80.

By subtracting 9 from the given options, the result must be perfectly divisible by 80 (meaning it must end in 0).

Checking Option 3: 329 − 9 = 320.

320 ends in 0 and is fully divisible by both 64 (64 × 5 = 320) and 80 (80 × 4 = 320).

∴ The correct answer is 329.

Alternate Method

Given:

Divisors = 64 and 80

Remainder in each case = 9

Formula Used:

Smallest Number = LCM(a, b) + k (where k is the common remainder)

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of 64 = 2⁶

⇒ Prime factorization of 80 = 2⁴ × 5

⇒ LCM(64, 80) = Highest power of all prime factors

⇒ LCM(64, 80) = 2⁶ × 5

⇒ LCM(64, 80) = 64 × 5 = 320

⇒ Required Number = 320 + 9 = 329

∴ The correct answer is 329.

Additional Information

LCM & HCF Relation

For any two given numbers a and b, the product of the numbers (a × b) is always equal to LCM(a, b) × HCF(a, b).

Greatest Number for Given Remainders

The greatest number that divides x, y, and z leaving remainders a, b, and c respectively is found by calculating the HCF of (x−a), (y−b) and (z−c).

LCM of Fractions

LCM of fractions = LCM of Numerators ÷ HCF of Denominators.

Shortcut Trick

The volume of a hemisphere is calculated directly using the formula V = ²/₃ × π × r³.

Given the diameter is 7 cm, the radius is ⁷/₂ cm.

V = ²/₃ × ²²/₇ × (⁷/₂)³

V = ⁵³⁹/₆ = 89.833... cm³

∴ The correct answer is 89.83 cm³.

Alternate Method

Given:

Diameter of the hemisphere (d) = 7 cm

Radius (r) = d ÷ 2 = ⁷/₂ cm = 3.5 cm

Formula Used:

Volume of a hemisphere = ²/₃ × π × r³

Diameter = 7 cm Volume = ?

r = 3.5 cm

Calculation:

⇒ Volume = ²/₃ × ²²/₇ × (⁷/₂)³

⇒ Volume = ²/₃ × ²²/₇ × ³⁴³/₈

⇒ Volume = ²/₃ × 22 × ⁴⁹/₈

⇒ Volume = ¹¹/₃ × ⁴⁹/₂

⇒ Volume = ⁵³⁹/₆

⇒ Volume = 89.833...

⇒ Volume ≈ 89.83 cm³

∴ The correct answer is 89.83 cm³.

Additional Information

Volume of a Sphere

The total space occupied by a full sphere is given by V = ⁴/₃ × π × r³.

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a Hemisphere

The area of the curved surface only is calculated as CSA = 2 × π × r².

Total Surface Area (TSA) of a Hemisphere

The sum of the curved surface area and the flat circular base is given by TSA = 3 × π × r².

Given:

Ratios: 17:42, 19:21, 1:7, 11:13, 23:26

Formula used:

To compare ratios, divide the numerator by the denominator to find the decimal value.

Calculation:

For 17:42, decimal value = $\dfrac{17}{42}$

⇒ $\dfrac{17}{42} = 0.4047$

For 19:21, decimal value = $\dfrac{19}{21}$

⇒ $\dfrac{19}{21} = 0.9048$

For 1:7, decimal value = $\dfrac{1}{7}$

⇒ $\dfrac{1}{7} = 0.1428$

For 11:13, decimal value = $\dfrac{11}{13}$

⇒ $\dfrac{11}{13} = 0.8462$

For 23:26, decimal value = $\dfrac{23}{26}$

⇒ $\dfrac{23}{26} = 0.8846$

Descending order:

19:21 (0.9048), 23:26 (0.8846), 11:13 (0.8462), 17:42 (0.4047), 1:7 (0.1428)

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Given:

Evaluate: 16 + 8 ÷ 4 - 2 × 3

Calculations:

16 + 8 ÷ 4 - 2 × 3

⇒ 16 + 2 - 2 × 3

⇒ 16 + 2 - 6

⇒ 18 - 6

⇒ 12

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Shortcut Trick

Total CP of 400 chickooes = ₹1260 × 4 = ₹5040

Total SP of 400 chickooes = CP + Profit = 5040 + 860 = ₹5900

SP of 1 dozen (12 chickooes) = (5900 ÷ 400) × 12 = 59 × 3 = ₹177

∴ The correct answer is ₹177.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of chickooes = 400

Cost Price (CP) per hundred = ₹1260

Total Profit = ₹860

Formula Used:

Total Cost Price = (Cost Price of 100 units) × (Total units ÷ 100)

Total Selling Price (SP) = Total CP + Total Profit

Total CP = ₹5040

• Profit ₹860

Total SP = ₹5900 (for 400 chickooes)

Calculations:

⇒ Total CP of 400 chickooes = 1260 × (400 ÷ 100) = ₹5040

⇒ Total SP of 400 chickooes = 5040 + 860 = ₹5900

⇒ SP of 1 chickoo = 5900 ÷ 400 = ₹14.75

⇒ SP of 1 dozen (12 chickooes) = 14.75 × 12 = ₹177

∴ The correct answer is ₹177.

Additional Information

Profit & Loss Basics

Profit occurs when the Selling Price (SP) is greater than the Cost Price (CP). The fundamental equation is: Profit = SP − CP.

Unitary Method

The unitary method involves finding the value of one single unit of an item and then multiplying it to find the value of the required number of units. Here, we found the SP of 1 chickoo to calculate the SP of 12 chickooes.

Profit Percentage

Profit % is always calculated on the base of the Cost Price (CP) unless stated otherwise. Formula: Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100.

Shortcut Trick

20% gain in fractional form = 20 ÷ 100 = 1 ÷ 5

Let Cost Price (CP) = 5 units and Profit = 1 unit

Selling Price (SP) = CP + Profit = 5 + 1 = 6 units

6 units = ₹216 ⇒ 1 unit = 216 ÷ 6 = 36

Cost Price (CP) = 5 units = 5 × 36 = 180

∴ The correct answer is ₹180.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) of the article = ₹216

Gain percentage = 20%

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = [100 ÷ (100 + Gain%)] × SP

CP ?

SP ₹216

+20% Profit

Calculations:

⇒ CP = [100 ÷ (100 + 20)] × 216

⇒ CP = (100 ÷ 120) × 216

⇒ CP = (5 ÷ 6) × 216

⇒ CP = 5 × 36

⇒ CP = 180

∴ The correct answer is ₹180.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage

When Selling Price is less than Cost Price, a loss is incurred. Loss% = (Loss ÷ CP) × 100.

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always calculated on Marked Price (MP). Selling Price = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

Successive Profit or Discount

For two successive percentage changes of a% and b%, the effective net percentage change is given by the formula: Net Change = a + b + (a × b ÷ 100).

Shortcut Trick

For 2 years, the direct relation between Compound Interest (CI) and Simple Interest (SI) is:

CI = SI × (1 + R ÷ 200)

⇒ 178.5 = SI × (1 + 4 ÷ 200)

⇒ 178.5 = SI × 1.02

⇒ SI = 178.5 ÷ 1.02 = ₹175

∴ The correct answer is ₹175.

Alternate Method

Given:

Rate of interest (R) = 4% per annum

Time (T) = 2 years

Compound Interest (CI) = ₹178.5

Formula Used:

CI = P[(1 + R ÷ 100)^T − 1]

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Start P

Year 1

SI = ₹87.5

Year 2

SI = ₹87.5

Extra = ₹3.5

Total CI = ₹178.5   |   Rate = 4% p.a. Total SI = ₹87.5 + ₹87.5 = ₹175

Calculations:

⇒ 178.5 = P[(1 + 4 ÷ 100)² − 1]

⇒ 178.5 = P[(1.04)² − 1]

⇒ 178.5 = P[1.0816 − 1]

⇒ 178.5 = P × 0.0816

⇒ P = (178.5 × 100) ÷ 8.16 = ₹2187.5

⇒ Now, SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = (2187.5 × 4 × 2) ÷ 100

⇒ SI = 17500 ÷ 100 = ₹175

∴ The correct answer is ₹175.

Additional Information

Effective Rate of Compound Interest

For 2 years at rate R%, the effective CI rate can be calculated using the successive percentage formula: R + R + (R² ÷ 100)%.

Difference between CI and SI

For 2 years, the difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on a principal P is given by: D = P × (R ÷ 100)².

Half-Yearly & Quarterly Compounding

If compounded half-yearly, the rate becomes R ÷ 2 and time becomes 2T. If quarterly, the rate becomes R ÷ 4 and time becomes 4T.

Shortcut Trick

Difference in Principal = ₹9400 − ₹5400 = ₹4000

Difference in Simple Interest for 5 years = ₹960

Difference in Simple Interest for 1 year = 960 ÷ 5 = ₹192

Rate % = (Interest difference for 1 year ÷ Difference in Principal) × 100

Rate % = (192 ÷ 4000) × 100 = 4.8%

∴ The correct answer is 4.8%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal for Mukund (P₁) = ₹5400

Principal for Sachin (P₂) = ₹9400

Time (T) = 5 years

Difference in Interest = ₹960

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (SI) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Sachin: ₹9400

Mukund: ₹5400

• ₹4000

SI = 470 R SI = 270 R

200 R = ₹960

Thus, Rate R = 4.8%

Calculations:

⇒ SI for Sachin = (9400 × R × 5) ÷ 100 = 470R

⇒ SI for Mukund = (5400 × R × 5) ÷ 100 = 270R

⇒ Difference in Interest = 470R − 270R = 200R

⇒ 200R = 960

⇒ R = 960 ÷ 200 = 4.8%

∴ The correct answer is 4.8%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI)

Simple interest is calculated uniformly on the principal amount for the entire period. Formula: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100.

Compound Interest (CI)

Compound interest is calculated on both the initial principal and the accumulated interest from previous periods. Formula: A = P(1 + R ÷ 100)^T.

Difference Between CI and SI

For a fixed period of 2 years at rate R%, the difference is calculated as: D = P(R ÷ 100)². For 3 years, the difference expands to: D = P(R ÷ 100)² × (3 + R ÷ 100).

Given:

$[(18 × 19) × {8 ÷ 4 × ((16 - 12) ÷ 2)}]$

Formula used:

Follow the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division/Multiplication, Addition/Subtraction).

Calculation:

[(18 × 19) × {8 ÷ 4 × ((16 - 12) ÷ 2)}]

⇒ [(18 × 19) × {8 ÷ 4 × (4 ÷ 2)}]

⇒ [(18 × 19) × {8 ÷ 4 × 2}]

⇒ [(18 × 19) × {2 × 2}]

⇒ [(18 × 19) × 4]

⇒ [342 × 4]

⇒ 1368

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Shortcut Trick

Apply the successive discount multipliers directly to the Marked Price.

Final Price = MP × (100 − D₁)% × (100 − D₂)%

Final Price = 30000 × 80% × 90%

Final Price = 30000 × 0.8 × 0.9 = 21600

∴ The correct answer is ₹21,600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹30,000

First Discount (D₁) = 20%

Second Discount (D₂) = 10%

MP ₹30,000

−20%

After 1st Dis ₹24,000

−10%

Final SP ₹21,600

Successive Discount Calculation

Formula Used:

Selling Price = MP − Discount Amount

Calculations:

⇒ Price after 1st discount = 30000 − (20% of 30000)

⇒ Price after 1st discount = 30000 − 6000 = 24000

⇒ Price after 2nd discount = 24000 − (10% of 24000)

⇒ Final Selling Price = 24000 − 2400 = 21600

∴ The correct answer is ₹21,600.

Additional Information

Effective Successive Discount

For two successive discounts of a% and b%, the effective single discount is calculated as: [a + b − (a × b) / 100]%.

Marked Price (MP) vs Selling Price (SP)

Discount is exclusively calculated on the Marked Price. It acts as a reduction, resulting in the final Selling Price: SP = MP × (1 − Discount%).

Order Independence

The order in which successive discounts are applied does not affect the final selling price. A 20% discount followed by a 10% discount yields the same final price as a 10% discount followed by a 20% discount.

Shortcut Trick

The numbers 20 and 40 are both exact factors of 120.

So, the LCM of 20, 40, and 120 is simply 120 itself.

Now, we only need to find the LCM of 120 and 335.

Both 120 and 335 share a common factor of 5: 120 = 5 × 24, and 335 = 5 × 67.

LCM = Common factor × Remaining distinct factors = 5 × 24 × 67 = 8040.

∴ The correct answer is 8040.

Alternate Method

Given:

Numbers: 40, 20, 120, and 335

Concept Used:

The Least Common Multiple (LCM) is the product of the highest powers of all prime factors involved in the given numbers.

Calculation:

⇒ Prime factorisation of 20 = 2² × 5

⇒ Prime factorisation of 40 = 2³ × 5

⇒ Prime factorisation of 120 = 2³ × 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factorisation of 335 = 5 × 67

⇒ Taking the highest power of each prime factor present:

⇒ LCM = 2³ × 3¹ × 5¹ × 67¹

⇒ LCM = 8 × 3 × 5 × 67

⇒ LCM = 120 × 67

⇒ LCM = 8040

∴ The correct answer is 8040.

Additional Information

LCM (Least Common Multiple)

The smallest positive integer that is perfectly divisible by each of the given numbers.

HCF (Highest Common Factor)

The largest positive integer that divides each of the numbers without leaving any remainder.

LCM and HCF Formula

For any two numbers a and b, their product is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: LCM(a, b) × HCF(a, b) = a × b.

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is 1. The LCM of two co-prime numbers is simply their direct product.

Shortcut Trick

For 3 years, CI and SI difference = P × (R/100)² × (300 + R)/100

183 = P × (5/100)² × (305/100)

183 = P × (1/400) × (61/20)

P = (183 × 8000) ÷ 61

P = 3 × 8000 = 24000

∴ The correct answer is ₹24000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Difference between CI and SI (D) = ₹183

Rate of interest (R) = 5% per annum

Time period (T) = 3 years

Formula Used:

Using the Tree Ratio Method for CI (refer to diagram):

Since R = 5% = 1/20, Let Principal be Denominator^Time = (20)³ = 8000 units.

5% 5% 5%

8000 units

Year 1 Year 2 Year 3

400 400 400

20 40 1

Total Difference = 20 + 40 + 1 = 61 units = ₹183

Calculations:

⇒ Simple Interest for each year = 5% of 8000 = 400 units

⇒ Extra interest in 2nd year (CI on 1st year SI) = 5% of 400 = 20 units

⇒ Extra interest in 3rd year = CI on previous SIs + CI on previous extra

⇒ 3rd year extra = 5% of 800 + 5% of 20 = 40 + 1 = 41 units

⇒ Total difference = 20 + 41 = 61 units

⇒ Given difference = ₹183

⇒ 61 units = ₹183 ⇒ 1 unit = ₹3

⇒ Principal = 8000 units × 3 = ₹24000

∴ The correct answer is ₹24000.

Additional Information

Tree Method Shortcut for 3 Years

For a fractional rate 1/x, if Principal = x³, the 3-year difference between CI and SI is exactly (3x + 1) units.

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years

The direct formula for the difference between Compound Interest and Simple Interest for 2 years is D = P × (R/100)².

Effective Rate Method

Effective SI rate = 3R. Effective CI rate ≈ 3R + 3R²/100 + R³/10000. The difference is directly (3R²/100 + R³/10000)% of Principal.

The correct answer is: Trivial.

Key Points

• The word "frivolous" means something that is not serious or lacks any real purpose or value. (तुच्छ, महत्वहीन)
• Example: She was criticised for spending money on frivolous items instead of saving for necessities.
• "Trivial" refers to something of little importance or value, often associated with insignificant matters. (सामान्य, मामूली)
• Example: The meeting wasted too much time discussing trivial issues instead of focusing on the key agenda.
• Hence, the synonym of 'frivolous' is 'trivial'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Trivial.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Substantial (महत्वपूर्ण): Refers to something of considerable importance, size, or worth.
• Example: The company made substantial progress in reducing its carbon footprint.
• Momentous (महत्वपूर्ण): Refers to something of great significance or importance, particularly in historical or future contexts.
• Example: The signing of the peace treaty was a momentous event in history.
• Eventful (घटनापूर्ण): Refers to something full of interesting or important events.
• Example: It was an eventful day, filled with surprises and celebrations.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The adverbial usage error lies in the phrase "Seldom than walking."
• The correct phrase should be "Seldom walking" or "Rather than walking."
• The word "seldom" is an adverb and is used to indicate infrequent actions, but it should not be followed by "than."
• "Than" is used for comparisons, which is incorrect in this context.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Oliver told Mia, 'Seldom walking, she prefers to take the city bus.'"

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "take the city bus." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 2: "she prefers to" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 3: "Oliver told Mia," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is: Option 1 i.e., step on anyone's toes.

Key Points

• The phrase "upset anyone" means to cause someone to feel troubled, annoyed, or offended. (किसी को नाराज़ करना)
• Example: He avoided talking about politics so as not to upset anyone at the party.
• "Step on anyone's toes" is an idiom which means to offend someone by interfering in their affairs or responsibilities. (किसी के अधिकार क्षेत्र में हस्तक्षेप करना या उसे नाराज़ करना)
• Example: She made sure not to step on anyone’s toes while introducing new policies in the office.
• This idiom perfectly replaces "upset anyone" in the sentence, as both convey the idea of avoiding conflict or offense.

Therefore, the correct answer is: step on anyone's toes.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Bite the bullet (कठिन परिस्थिति को सहना): To bravely face or endure an unpleasant situation.
• Example: I had to bite the bullet and tell my boss the truth about the mistake.
• Steal the show (सबका ध्यान खींच लेना): To receive more attention or praise than anyone else in a performance or event.
• Example: The little boy in the dance group stole the show with his amazing moves.
• Scratch anyone's heads (किसी को उलझन में डालना): This is not a standard idiom. The correct version is usually "scratch one's head," which means to feel confused or puzzled.
• Example: The strange question made everyone scratch their heads in confusion.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The given sentence is in the passive voice, but the usage of the word "repairing" is incorrect in this context.
• In passive voice, we use the past participle form of the verb. Therefore, "repairing" should be replaced with "repaired."
• The correct construction is: "The road was repaired by the workers," ensuring grammatical accuracy and proper sentence structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "The road was repaired by the workers."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: No correction required – This is incorrect because the sentence contains a grammatical error.
• Option 3: been repaired – This is incorrect as the sentence would then require a different construction like "has been repaired" to be grammatically correct, which changes the meaning.
• Option 4: repairs – This is incorrect because "repairs" is in the present tense, while the sentence is in the past tense.

The correct answer is: Option 2 i.e., Quarentine.

Key Points

• The word "Quarentine" is incorrectly spelt.
• The correct spelling is "Quarantine".
• Quarantine refers to a state, period, or place of isolation in which people or animals that have been exposed to infectious or contagious diseases are placed. (संगरोध)
• Example: After travelling internationally, he had to stay in quarantine for two weeks to ensure he wasn’t carrying the virus.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Practice (अभ्यास): The act of repeatedly doing an activity to improve a skill.
• Example: Consistent practice will make you better at playing the piano.
• Concentrate (ध्यान केंद्रित करना): To focus all your attention on a particular task or subject.
• Example: It's hard to concentrate when there is so much noise around.
• Elicit (प्राप्त करना): To draw out a response, answer, or fact from someone in reaction to one's actions or questions.
• Example: The teacher’s question was designed to elicit thoughtful responses from the students.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the adverbial usage error in the segment "Evelyn clearly."
• The placement of the adverb "clearly" creates ambiguity, as it is not positioned correctly within the sentence.
• To ensure clarity, adverbs should be positioned in a way that clearly modifies the intended verb or clause.
• Thus, the error is located in Option 4, which represents the segment "Evelyn clearly."

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "Evelyn packed her suitcase clearly for the trip to Malaysia."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "suitcase for" – This segment is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 2: "packed her" – This segment is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• Option 3: "the trip to Malaysia" – This segment is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is: Languid.

Key Points

• The word "Languid" means displaying or having a disinclination for physical exertion or effort; slow and relaxed. It can also imply a lack of energy, enthusiasm, or vitality. (शिथिल, सुस्त)
• Example: After a long day at work, she lay on the couch in a languid state, too tired to move.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Languid.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained:

• Languied: This is an incorrect spelling of "Languid."
• Langud: This is another incorrect spelling of "Languid."
• Langued: This is also an incorrect spelling of "Languid."

The correct answer is: Endure.

Key Points

• The word "Abscond" means to leave hurriedly and secretly, typically to avoid detection or arrest. (गुप्त रूप से भाग जाना)
• Example: The thief absconded with the money before the police arrived.
• "Endure" refers to the ability to tolerate or withstand something, particularly difficult situations, without running away or escaping. (सहना)
• Example: She endured the harsh weather conditions during her trek to the mountains.
• Hence, the antonym of 'Abscond' is 'Endure', as enduring implies facing a situation rather than escaping or fleeing from it.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Endure.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Withdraw (पीछे हटना): To retreat or move away from a situation.
• Example: He decided to withdraw from the competition due to injury.
• Flee (भाग जाना): To run away from a place or situation of danger.
• Example: The residents fled the town during the flood.
• Hide (छिपाना): To conceal oneself or something from view or detection.
• Example: She hid the gift in the closet to surprise her friend.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The word "Frugal" means being economical or sparing in the use of resources, especially money. It refers to avoiding waste and being thrifty. (साधारण / मितव्ययी)
• Example: She lived a frugal life, saving every penny for her children's education.
• "Prodigal" is the antonym of "Frugal." It means spending resources recklessly or wastefully. (अपव्ययी)
• Example: His prodigal habits left him bankrupt within a few years.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Frugal' is 'Prodigal.'

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Right (सही): Something that is morally good, justified, or acceptable.
• Example: It is always right to speak the truth, even in difficult situations.
• Sparing (मितव्ययी): Being economical or careful in the use of something.
• Example: He was sparing in his praise, but his words carried great weight.
• Prudent (सावधान): Acting with or showing care and thought for the future.
• Example: It is prudent to save money for unforeseen emergencies.

The correct answer is Option 4.

 

Key Points

• The original sentence contains a tense-related error in the phrase "prove to more resilient."
• Since the sentence refers to a completed action in the past (during the COVID-19 pandemic), the correct tense should be the past tense "proved."
• The correct phrase is "proved to be more resilient," which aligns with the past context of the sentence.
• Thus, the correct option is Option 4, as it ensures both grammatical correctness and appropriate verb tense usage.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Correct Sentence: "The COVID-19 pandemic led to trade disruptions worldwide, but the agricultural and food sector proved to be more resilient than other sectors of the economy."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "prove to be more resilient" – This is incorrect because "prove" is in the present tense, which does not align with the past context of the sentence.
• Option 2: "proved to been more resilient" – This is incorrect because "been" is unnecessary and grammatically incorrect in this context.
• Option 3: "proving to be more resilient" – This is incorrect because "proving" is in the present continuous tense, which does not fit the past context of the sentence.

The correct answer is: Option 1 (Fair weather friend).

Key Points

• The term "fair weather friend" refers to someone who is only a friend during good times but is unreliable and disappears when things get tough. (सुख-दुःख में साथ न देने वाला दोस्त)
• Example: When I lost my job, I realized that my colleague was just a fair weather friend who stopped helping me.
• Explanation of the phrase in the given sentence: The sentence highlights the idea of a selfish friend who abandons you in times of difficulty. A "fair weather friend" perfectly fits this description. (ऐसा दोस्त जो केवल अच्छे समय में आपके साथ हो।)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 (Fair weather friend).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Great hand (उत्कृष्ट सहायक): Refers to someone who is very skilled or helpful.
• Example: She is a great hand at organising events and managing teams.
• Past master (विशेषज्ञ): Refers to someone who is highly skilled or experienced in a particular field.
• Example: He is a past master at solving complex mathematical problems.
• Good Samaritan (सहायक व्यक्ति): Refers to a person who selflessly helps others in need.
• Example: A good Samaritan helped the injured man by calling an ambulance.

The correct answer is: Option 4 (Banter).

Key Points

• The word "Persiflage" means light, teasing, or playful conversation, often in a joking or humorous manner. (हंसी-मजाक)
• Example: The persiflage among the friends at the party lightened the mood and brought laughter to everyone.
• "Banter" refers to friendly, joking, and teasing remarks exchanged in a lighthearted way. (मज़ाक)
• Example: The banter between the teammates during the practice session kept everyone energised and cheerful.
• Hence, we can conclude that the synonym of 'Persiflage' is 'Banter'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (Banter).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Seriousness (गंभीरता): The quality or state of being serious or solemn.
• Example: The seriousness of the situation was evident from the tense expressions on everyone's faces.
• Argument (तर्क/विवाद): A discussion in which people express different opinions about something, often in a heated or contentious manner.
• Example: The heated argument between the two colleagues disrupted the meeting.
• Criticism (आलोचना): The expression of disapproval of someone or something based on perceived faults or mistakes.
• Example: The artist took the criticism of his work as an opportunity to improve.

The correct answer is 'a'.

 

Key Points

• The indefinite article "a" is used before a singular, countable noun when it begins with a consonant sound.
• The blank in the sentence requires an article that fits the context of "united strength," which is singular and countable.
• Option 1 ("an") is incorrect because "united" begins with a consonant sound, not a vowel sound.
• Option 2 (no article) is incorrect because the sentence would be incomplete and lack grammatical correctness.
• Option 3 ("any") is incorrect because it does not fit the intended meaning of showing a specific strength.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.

 

Complete Sentence: "By showing a united strength, we may scare the opposition."

 

Additional Information

• Option 1: "an" is incorrect because "united" starts with a consonant sound (/y/ sound).
• Option 2: "no" is incorrect because it would make the sentence incomplete and grammatically incorrect.
• Option 3: "any" is incorrect as it changes the context of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'quick'.

 

Key Points

• The word "quick" is most appropriate for describing a short and hurried shower.
• The other options: "relaxed," "luxurious," and "long" do not match the context of being late.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: I was running late so I only had time for a quick shower.

Additional Information

• Relaxed: means calm and leisurely, which doesn't fit the urgency described.
• Luxurious: means very elegant or involving great comfort, which contradicts the time constraint.
• Long: means extended duration, which is not possible when running late.

The correct answer is: Withhold.

Key Points

• The word "Offer" means to present or provide something for someone to accept or reject. (प्रस्ताव देना)
• Example: He offered his help to complete the project.
• "Withhold" refers to holding back or refusing to give something that might otherwise be offered. (रोकना)
• Example: The company decided to withhold bonuses due to financial constraints.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Offer' is 'Withhold'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Withhold.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Hurt (दुख पहुंचाना): To cause pain or injury to someone.
• Example: His words hurt her feelings deeply.
• Open (खोलना): To make something accessible or not closed.
• Example: She opened the door to let the guests in.
• Select (चुनना): To choose something from a group or list.
• Example: Please select your preferred option from the menu.

The correct answer is 'cool'.

 

Key Points

• The passage discusses anticipation for a particular type of weather during summer.
• People look forward to pleasant weather and long, hot days, suggesting that the weather is agreeable and comfortable.
• "Cool" fits well as it implies a refreshing and pleasant temperature, suitable for summer weather.
• Other options like "mean," "cold," and "ugly" do not logically fit the positive anticipation of summer weather described in the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: The worst days of any summer are the rainy ones. We spend all year looking forward to cool weather and long, hot days. All of winter, with its dreary grey days and (2) _________ cold, we dream of those (3) ________ days at the beach, laying on the sand and (4) ________ in the (5) ___________ and burning sun. And then, summer comes, and it rains.

 

Additional Information

• Cool weather suggests a pleasant and refreshing climate, which people often look forward to during the summer season.
• The phrase aligns well with the context of anticipation for summer's favorable conditions.
• Options like "mean," "cold," and "ugly" carry negative connotations that conflict with the positive tone of the passage.

The correct answer is 'bitter'.

 

Key Points

• The passage contrasts the unpleasantness of winter with the anticipation of summer.
• The phrase "dreary grey days and ______ cold" suggests a harsh, unpleasant type of cold.
• "Bitter" cold is a common collocation used to describe severe, harsh winter cold, fitting perfectly in this context.
• Other options like "warm," "sweet," and "loving" are inconsistent with the description of winter's harshness and do not suit the tone of the passage.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: The worst days of any summer are the rainy ones. We spend all year looking forward to cool weather and long, hot days. All of winter, with its dreary grey days and bitter cold, we dream of those (3) ________ days at the beach, laying on the sand and (4) ________ in the (5) ___________ and burning sun. And then, summer comes, and it rains.

 

Additional Information

• Bitter cold is a well-established phrase indicating intense, harsh cold typical of winter.
• This choice aligns with the gloomy and harsh depiction of winter in the passage.
• Words such as "warm," "sweet," or "loving" contradict the tone and meaning of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'endless'.

 

Key Points

• The passage refers to the ideal summer days people dream about, emphasizing their pleasant and prolonged nature.
• The phrase "_______ days at the beach" implies a desire for long, uninterrupted, and enjoyable days.
• "Endless" fits best as it suggests infinite or very long days, which aligns with the positive anticipation of summer.
• Options like "restricted," "confined," and "definite" suggest limitations or boundaries, which contradict the intended meaning.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: The worst days of any summer are the rainy ones. We spend all year looking forward to cool weather and long, hot days. All of winter, with its dreary grey days and bitter cold, we dream of those endless days at the beach, laying on the sand and (4) ________ in the (5) ___________ and burning sun. And then, summer comes, and it rains.

 

Additional Information

• Endless days evoke the feeling of long, uninterrupted summer days filled with leisure and enjoyment.
• This choice enhances the imagery of summer as a time for relaxation and freedom from constraints.
• Words like "restricted," "confined," or "definite" imply limitation, which contradicts the hopeful and expansive tone of the passage.

The correct answer is 'soaking'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase "laying on the sand and ______ in the sun" describes an activity commonly done at the beach.
• "Soaking" in the sun means to absorb or enjoy the warmth and rays of the sun, fitting well with the beach context.
• Other options such as "arid," "walking," and "dry" do not logically complete the phrase or convey the intended meaning.
• "Arid" and "dry" describe conditions rather than actions, and "walking" does not fit the parallel structure of the phrase.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: The worst days of any summer are the rainy ones. We spend all year looking forward to cool weather and long, hot days. All of winter, with its dreary grey days and bitter cold, we dream of those endless days at the beach, laying on the sand and soaking in the (5) ___________ and burning sun. And then, summer comes, and it rains.

 

Additional Information

• Soaking in the sun is an idiomatic expression that means enjoying or absorbing sunlight, which is a common beach activity.
• This phrase complements "laying on the sand" and conveys a relaxed, enjoyable experience.
• Options like "arid," "walking," and "dry" do not fit the context or grammar of the sentence.

The correct answer is 'bright'.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes a typical summer scene at the beach with sun and warmth.
• The phrase "_______ and burning sun" suggests the sun's qualities during a summer day.
• "Bright" aptly describes the sun's shining and radiant nature, fitting naturally in this context.
• Other options like "dull," "solemn," and "unpleasant" convey negative or inappropriate qualities that do not align with the imagery of a sunny summer day.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Passage: The worst days of any summer are the rainy ones. We spend all year looking forward to cool weather and long, hot days. All of winter, with its dreary grey days and bitter cold, we dream of those endless days at the beach, laying on the sand and soaking in the bright and burning sun. And then, summer comes, and it rains.

 

Additional Information

• Bright effectively captures the shining, radiant quality of the sun typical of a warm summer day.
• This adjective helps create vivid imagery of a sunny beach day that people long for during winter.
• Words such as "dull," "solemn," or "unpleasant" do not fit the positive, warm atmosphere described.

सही उत्तर है - गरिष्ठ

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - रात्रि में गरिश्ठ भोजन नहीं करना चाहिए।
• दिए गये वाक्य में वर्तनी प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'गरिश्ठ' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'गरिष्ठ' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - 'रात्रि में गरिष्ठ भोजन नहीं करना चाहिए'।
• वर्तनी - किसी शब्द में आये हुए अक्षरों को मात्राओं सहित कहने या लिखने की रीति को वर्तनी कहते हैं।

Additional Information कुछ अशुद्ध शब्द और शुद्ध शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - निर्यात

Key Points

• इस वर्ष इस्पात के निर्यात में इजाफा हुआ है।
• 'आयात' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'निर्यात' होगा।
• 'आयात' का अर्थ- किसी दूसरे देश से अपने देश में माल या सेवाएँ लाना।
• 'निर्यात' का अर्थ- माल बाहर भेजना, एक्सपोर्ट।
• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information  कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

सही उत्तर है - भेंट किया गया

Key Points

• शुद्ध वाक्य - निराला को अभिनंदन ग्रंथ प्रदान किया गया।
• दिए गये वाक्य में शब्द-अर्थ प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'प्रदान किया गया।' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'भेंट किया गया' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - निराला को अभिनंदन ग्रंथ भेंट किया गया।

Additional Information

  शब्द-अर्थ संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ -