SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 06 Feb, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The pattern followed here is:

Thus, 628 will be the next number in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) EHN

Option 2) JMS

Option 3) WXQ

Not follow the same logic.

Option 4) KNT

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The given figure (X) is embedded:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The pattern followed here is:

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

Seven people, E, F, G, H, K, L and N, are sitting in a row facing north.

No one sits to the left of H. Only four people sit between H and F.

Only three people sit to the right of N. K sits to the immediate left of L.

G is not an immediate neighbour of N.

Thus, 'L' sits fourth to the left of G..

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

ER 32 is related to DS 34

And,

XW 54 is related to WX 56

Similarly,

ZB 78 is related to

Thus, ZB 78 is related to YC 80.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The pattern followed here is:

Thus, 377 will be the next number in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The least possible venn diagram is:

Conclusions:

(I): No top is a dog → False (As there no direct relation is given)

(II): Some cats are tops → False (As there is no direct relation is given)

Thus, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

TREASURE.​

Arranging them in reverse alphabetical order (from Z to A):

Upon comparing, none of the letters remains unchanged.

Thus, the number of letters whose positions remain unchanged is Zero.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given:

Seven people, A, B, L, M, N, S and T, are sitting in a row, facing north.

No one sits to the right of N. Only three people sit between N and S.

Only two people sit between S and T.

M sits third to the left of L. A sits to the immediate right of L.

Thus, three person sit between B and T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Given equation: 11 ÷ 4 + 3 × 3 - 1 = ?

After interchanging ‘÷’ and ‘×’, we get:

11 × 4 + 3 ÷ 3 - 1 = ?

= 44 + 1 - 1

= 44

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The logic followed here is:

 'ZIYJ' is coded as '38'

And, 

 'PXBO' is coded as '51'

Similarly,

'VTUC' is related to

Thus, 'VTUC' is related to 42.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The given code language:

Thus, code for 'Can' is 'pr'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

The least possible venn diagram is:

As, some grapes are green in color. Table has no relation with grapes and green.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The pattern followed here is:

Thus, SUQ will be the next in the series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given:

P is the sister of R. R is the father of Q. S is the wife of Q. T is the daughter of S

Thus, P is Father's father's sister of T.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Given dice:

As, E is common in both the dice. moving clockwise direction from E.

Opposite pair

N ⇔ L

G ⇔ I

E ⇔ B

Thus, B is opposite to E.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

Thus, IPNUW will complete the blank of the given series.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

 'CLICHE' is written as 'IHJAMF'

And,

'KINDLY' is written as 'QEOBQZ'

Similarly,

'FUMBLE' is written as 

Thus, 'FUMBLE' is written as LQNZQF.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Given dice:

As, 12 and 10 are common in both the dice.

Thus, 8 will be opposite face of 11.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Shantala Natya Sri Award was initiated by the Karnataka State Government in 1995.
• This award is dedicated to the field of classical dance and is named after Queen Shantala, who was a renowned patron of art and culture.
• Queen Shantala was the wife of King Vishnuvardhana of the Hoysala dynasty and was known for her exceptional contributions to the promotion of art forms, especially dance.
• The award aims to honor and recognize excellence in the domain of Indian classical dance, which includes forms like Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Kuchipudi, and Odissi.
• Karnataka has a rich cultural heritage and a strong connection to classical art forms, making it an ideal state to institute such an award.
• The Shantala Natya Sri Award is one of the most prestigious recognitions in the field of dance and serves as a motivation for artists to preserve and promote traditional Indian dance forms.

Additional Information

• Assam
• Assam is known for its traditional dance forms like Bihu and Sattriya (one of the eight classical dance forms of India).
• It is a northeastern state of India with a rich tradition of art, culture, and music.
• Andhra Pradesh
• Andhra Pradesh is renowned for its classical dance form Kuchipudi, which originated in the state.
• The state has a long tradition of promoting classical arts and culture.
• Tamil Nadu
• Tamil Nadu is the birthplace of Bharatanatyam, one of the oldest classical dance forms of India.
• It has a rich tradition of temple dances and classical music, especially associated with the temples of Chidambaram and Thanjavur.

The Correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

Key Points

• Roppi is a traditional folk dance that originates from the state of Arunachal Pradesh, a state in northeastern India.
• This dance is primarily performed by the Adi tribe, one of the major tribal groups in Arunachal Pradesh.
• The dance is usually performed during festivals, community celebrations, and cultural events.
• It is characterized by its graceful and rhythmic movements, often accompanied by traditional musical instruments like the drums and cymbals.
• Roppi symbolizes joy, harmony, and community spirit, making it an essential part of the cultural heritage of the Adi tribe.
• Arunachal Pradesh is known for its rich cultural diversity, with several tribes contributing to its unique traditions and art forms.
• This state celebrates various festivals such as Solung, Losar, and Dree, during which traditional dances like Roppi are performed.

Additional Information

• Kerala
• Kerala is known for its famous classical and folk dances like Mohiniyattam, Kathakali, Theyyam, and Thiruvathira.
• The state is located in the southern part of India, known for its backwaters, Ayurveda, and rich cultural heritage.
• Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form that is performed exclusively by women and is deeply rooted in the traditions of Kerala.
• Karnataka
• Karnataka is famous for its folk dances such as Dollu Kunitha, Yakshagana, and Veeragase.
• The state is located in the southwestern region of India and is known for its heritage sites and classical art forms.
• Yakshagana is a unique dance-drama that combines music, dance, and dialogue delivery to narrate mythological stories.
• Assam
• Assam is known for its famous dance forms like Bihu, Sattriya, and Bagurumba.
• Bihu is performed during the Bihu festival, which marks the Assamese New Year.
• Sattriya is one of the classical dance forms of India and has its origins in the Vaishnavite monasteries of Assam.

The Correct answer is By leading to higher interest rates and reduced private investment.

Key Points

• A high fiscal deficit occurs when a government's total expenditure exceeds its total revenue (excluding borrowings).
• To finance a fiscal deficit, the government often resorts to borrowing from the market, which creates competition for available funds.
• This increased demand for funds in the market leads to a rise in interest rates, as lenders seek higher returns due to greater demand for capital.
• Higher interest rates make borrowing more expensive for private businesses, discouraging private investment in the economy.
• The phenomenon where government borrowing "crowds out" private investment is called crowding out.
• This can lead to slower economic growth, as private investment is a key driver of innovation, employment, and productivity.
• The crowding-out effect is particularly significant in economies with limited savings and a smaller pool of financial resources.
• In contrast, if fiscal deficits are managed effectively and funds are channeled into productive investments, they can stimulate economic growth without significant crowding out.

Additional Information

• By enhancing the availability of credit for businesses
• This is incorrect because a high fiscal deficit typically reduces the availability of credit for private businesses rather than enhancing it, due to the government absorbing a significant share of the available funds.
• Increased government borrowing often leads to less credit being available for the private sector, exacerbating the crowding-out effect.
• By reducing government borrowing and debt
• This option is incorrect because a high fiscal deficit actually increases government borrowing and debt, not reduces it.
• Fiscal deficit is a measure of the shortfall between the government's income and expenditure, which is filled through borrowing.
• By increasing private investment in the market
• This option is incorrect because a high fiscal deficit generally discourages private investment due to the crowding-out effect caused by higher interest rates.
• Private businesses face higher borrowing costs, making it less attractive to invest in new projects.
• Key Points for Exams
• Crowding out: A situation where increased government borrowing leads to reduced private sector investment.
• Interest rates: A crucial factor influenced by government borrowing and fiscal policy.
• Fiscal deficit: The difference between the government's expenditure and revenue, excluding borrowings.

The Correct answer is Indonesia.

Key Points

• The Indian badminton team created history by winning the prestigious Thomas Cup title for the first time in 2022.
• They defeated the powerhouse team of Indonesia, which has been a dominant force in badminton for decades.
• This victory was particularly significant as Indonesia is the most successful team in the history of the Thomas Cup, having won the title 14 times.
• The final match ended with a 3-0 scoreline in favor of India, showcasing their dominance in the tournament.
• Key players like Kidambi Srikanth, Lakshya Sen, and the doubles pair of Chirag Shetty and Satwiksairaj Rankireddy played pivotal roles in securing this historic win.
• The tournament was held in Bangkok, Thailand, and India's triumph brought immense pride to the nation.
• This victory marked a new era for Indian badminton, emphasizing the rising stature of the sport in the country.

Additional Information

• Malaysia
• Malaysia has been a strong contender in the Thomas Cup historically and has won the title 5 times.
• The last time Malaysia won the Thomas Cup was in 1992.
• Malaysia is known for producing legendary badminton players like Lee Chong Wei.
• Japan
• Japan won its first and only Thomas Cup title in 2014.
• The country has been consistently performing well in international badminton tournaments.
• Japan is home to top-tier players like Kento Momota in men's singles and strong doubles pairs.
• Denmark
• Denmark is the only European country to have won the Thomas Cup, achieving this historic feat in 2016.
• It has a rich badminton culture and has produced world-class players like Viktor Axelsen, who is a reigning world champion.
• Denmark remains a consistent force in badminton globally.

The Correct answer is Yttrium and Scandium.

Key Points

• Lanthanides along with Yttrium and Scandium are often referred to as 'rare earth elements'.
• Rare earth elements are a group of 17 chemically similar elements, including the 15 lanthanides plus Yttrium and Scandium.
• Yttrium and Scandium are grouped with lanthanides because of their similar chemical properties and occurrence in the same mineral deposits.
• These elements are critical for applications in electronics, renewable energy technologies, aerospace, and defense industries.
• Examples of their uses include magnets, phosphors, batteries, and catalysts.
• Rare earth elements are typically found in low concentrations in the Earth's crust, making their extraction challenging and contributing to the term "rare."
• The geopolitical importance of rare earth elements is significant due to their role in high-tech applications and limited global production centers.

Additional Information

• Vanadium and Niobium
• Vanadium is a transition metal used primarily in steel alloys to improve hardness and durability.
• Niobium is used in superconducting materials and specialized steel alloys for aerospace and construction industries.
• These elements are not classified as rare earth elements due to their distinct chemical and physical properties.
• Ruthenium and Zirconium
• Ruthenium is a member of the platinum group metals and is used in electronics, catalysts, and jewelry.
• Zirconium is utilized for nuclear reactors, ceramics, and corrosion-resistant applications.
• These elements are not related to rare earth elements due to their differing classification and occurrence.
• Molybdenum and Palladium
• Molybdenum is a transition metal known for its use in steel alloys, electronics, and catalysts.
• Palladium, a platinum group metal, is used in automotive catalytic converters, electronics, and jewelry.
• These elements have distinct applications and are not part of the rare earth elements group.

The correct answer is Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

Key Points

• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was popularly known as the 'Frontier Gandhi' due to his close association with Mahatma Gandhi and his commitment to the principles of non-violence and peace.
• He was a prominent freedom fighter and leader from the North-West Frontier Province (now in Pakistan).
• He founded the Khudai Khidmatgar (Servants of God) movement, which was dedicated to the principles of non-violence and the upliftment of society.
• He was the first non-Indian to be awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honor, in 1987.
• Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was a staunch advocate of Hindu-Muslim unity and worked tirelessly to bridge communal divides during the Indian freedom struggle.
• Due to his efforts in the region, he is remembered as a symbol of peace, resilience, and unity.

Additional Information

• Liaquat Ali Khan
• Liaquat Ali Khan was the first Prime Minister of Pakistan after the partition of India in 1947.
• He played a key role in the creation of Pakistan and was a close associate of Mohammed Ali Jinnah.
• He is known for his contributions to Pakistan’s early political and economic policies.
• Shaukat Ali
• Shaukat Ali was a prominent leader of the Khilafat Movement in India, which aimed to preserve the authority of the Ottoman Caliphate.
• He was the elder brother of Mohammad Ali Jauhar and worked for the unity of Muslims in the Indian subcontinent.
• He was known for his strong support of the Muslim League and its objectives.
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
• Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was an eminent freedom fighter, scholar, and the first Education Minister of independent India.
• He was a proponent of Hindu-Muslim unity and was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress.
• He played a significant role in the Non-Cooperation Movement and was a key figure in India’s independence struggle.

The correct answer is The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes as mother cell.

Key Points

• Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two genetically identical daughter cells from a single parent cell.
• The daughter cells produced by mitosis have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell, making them diploid.
• This process is essential for the growth, repair, and maintenance of tissues in multicellular organisms.
• Unlike meiosis, which results in daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes (haploid), mitosis maintains the chromosome number of the original cell.
• Mitosis consists of several phases: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, and Cytokinesis, ensuring accurate chromosome segregation and cell division.
• The incorrect statement suggests that mitosis results in daughter cells with half the chromosomes, which is characteristic of meiosis, not mitosis.

Additional Information

• Each cell called mother cell divides to form two identical daughter cells
• This is a correct statement as mitosis results in the formation of two genetically identical daughter cells from a single parent cell.
• It ensures that the daughter cells maintain the same genetic makeup as the parent cell.
• It helps in growth and repair of tissues in organisms
• Mitosis plays a crucial role in growth, development, and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms.
• It is vital for the replacement of damaged or dead cells, ensuring the proper functioning of tissues and organs.
• Cells divide for growth
• Mitosis is a fundamental process for cellular growth and development, allowing organisms to increase in size.
• This division ensures that new cells are available for the expansion and maintenance of tissues.

The Correct answer is Bulandibagh.

Key Points

• Bulandibagh is an archaeological site located in Pataliputra, Bihar.
• The site is associated with the remains of a wooden palisade, which is indicative of ancient fortifications and urban planning during the Mauryan Empire.
• The wooden palisade remnants are crucial as they provide evidence of the structural techniques used during the Mauryan period.
• Pataliputra, the capital of the Mauryan Empire, was a highly advanced urban center known for its fortified architecture.
• The discovery of wooden palisades at Bulandibagh highlights the strategic importance of this site in protecting the city from invasions.
• The Mauryan archaeological remains at Bulandibagh include structures that reflect the military and administrative organization of the empire.
• The site provides valuable insights into the engineering capabilities and materials used during ancient times.

Additional Information

• Bhita
• Bhita is an ancient archaeological site located near Allahabad (Prayagraj), Uttar Pradesh.
• The site is known for its Gupta period remains, including sculptures, pottery, and terracotta objects.
• It reflects the cultural and economic significance of the region during ancient India.
• Mathura
• Mathura is a historically significant city located in Uttar Pradesh, India.
• It is famous for its artistic and religious heritage, especially during the Kushan period.
• Mathura is known for its Buddhist and Jain sculptures, along with Hindu religious artifacts.
• Taxila
• Taxila is an ancient city located in present-day Pakistan.
• It was a major center of learning and culture during ancient times, particularly during the Gandhara period.
• Taxila is famous for its monasteries, stupas, and ancient universities.

The Correct answer is Articles 12 to 35.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
• These rights are provided under Articles 12 to 35.
• Fundamental Rights guarantee civil liberties to all citizens of India, ensuring equality, freedom, and justice.
• Key Fundamental Rights include:
• The Right to Equality (Articles 14-18).
• The Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22).
• The Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24).
• The Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28).
• The Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29-30).
• The Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32).
• These rights are justiciable, meaning individuals can approach the courts if their Fundamental Rights are violated.
• The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to enforce these rights through writs like habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari.
• The Fundamental Rights are inspired by the United States Bill of Rights.

Additional Information

• Articles 15 to 35
• This option is incorrect because Articles 15 to 35 cover only a part of the Fundamental Rights.
• While some Fundamental Rights like the Right to Equality and Right to Freedom are included here, Articles 12-14 are also essential for defining Fundamental Rights.
• Articles 2 to 7
• Articles 2 to 7 are related to provisions regarding the admission of new states or alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states.
• These articles are not related to Fundamental Rights but to the organization of states in India.
• Articles 10 to 40
• Articles 10 to 40 do not exclusively deal with Fundamental Rights.
• They include provisions such as citizenship and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• Directive Principles (Articles 36-51) are non-justiciable guidelines to the State, unlike Fundamental Rights, which are justiciable.

The Correct answer is Poverty.

Key Points

• The Rangarajan Committee was constituted in 2012 by the Planning Commission of India to review the methodology for measuring poverty in the country.
• The committee was chaired by C. Rangarajan, a renowned economist and former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• It proposed a new methodology to determine the poverty line, which was based on the consumption expenditure required for a minimum acceptable standard of living.
• According to the committee, the poverty line for 2011-12 was set at a monthly per capita consumption expenditure of ₹972 in rural areas and ₹1,407 in urban areas.
• It emphasized the inclusion of both calorie intake and non-food expenditures in its poverty estimation methodology.
• The Rangarajan Committee's recommendations highlighted that the official poverty estimates needed to be more inclusive and reflective of the realities of India’s socio-economic conditions.
• The committee's findings showed a higher number of people living below the poverty line compared to the earlier estimates of the Tendulkar Committee.

Additional Information

• Education
• Education is generally related to policies and committees such as the Kothari Commission (1964-66), which laid the foundation for the 10+2+3 education structure in India.
• Other notable committees in education include the National Policy on Education (1986) and the NEP 2020.
• Banking
• Banking-related committees include the Narasimham Committee, which suggested reforms in the Indian banking sector.
• The Nayak Committee focused on working capital requirements of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) sector.
• Unemployment
• Unemployment is addressed through policies like the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), which later became the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).
• Committees such as the Arjun Sengupta Committee also focused on employment and the informal sector.

The Correct answer is To initiate a process of development.

Key Points

• The central objective of planning in India was to initiate a process of economic and social development.
• After independence in 1947, India faced challenges such as poverty, illiteracy, unemployment, and a lack of infrastructure.
• Planning was introduced to ensure a balanced growth across different sectors of the economy.
• The government established the Planning Commission in 1950 to formulate and oversee the implementation of five-year plans aimed at achieving growth and development.
• The first Five-Year Plan (1951–1956) focused on agriculture, irrigation, and energy to improve food production and rural infrastructure.
• Subsequent plans aimed at reducing regional disparities, promoting industrialization, and improving the standard of living for citizens.
• The process of development included investments in education, healthcare, transportation, energy, and the establishment of industries.
• The planning system also emphasized self-reliance in food production and technology to reduce dependence on foreign aid.
• The objective was to create a framework for sustainable economic growth and social equity while addressing the country's long-term needs.

Additional Information

• To initiate a process of privatization
• Privatization refers to the transfer of ownership of public sector enterprises to private entities.
• While privatization became a key reform under the Liberalization policy in 1991, it was not the central objective of planning in India during the initial years post-independence.
• The early planning phases focused on building a strong public sector to drive growth and development.
• To follow British culture
• India aimed to break away from colonial influences and develop its own identity post-independence.
• The planning process was rooted in principles of self-reliance and aimed at addressing the specific needs of the Indian population.
• There was no objective to follow British culture as part of the planning process.
• To initiate uniqueness
• While India's approach to planning was unique in its focus on a mixed economy, this was not explicitly stated as the central objective.
• The emphasis was on development rather than creating uniqueness.

The Correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

• Chapchar Kut is the most celebrated and oldest festival of the state of Mizoram, India.
• It is celebrated in anticipation of a golden harvest and marks the end of the arduous task of jungle-clearing for jhum cultivation (shifting agriculture).
• The festival is observed in March every year, after the completion of the initial stage of farming known as “clearing of the forests.”
• The festival is marked by traditional folk dances, music, and cultural performances, showcasing the rich heritage of the Mizo community.
• People wear their traditional attire and participate in dances such as the Cheraw dance, also known as the bamboo dance.
• The festival promotes unity, joy, and cultural preservation among the Mizo people.
• Chapchar Kut is not just a religious or agricultural festival but also an opportunity for social bonding and showcasing Mizo traditions to the younger generation.

Additional Information

• Uttarakhand
• Uttarakhand is known for its festivals such as Kumaoni Holi, Ganga Dussehra, and Harela, which are deeply tied to its rich cultural and spiritual heritage.
• The state is also famous for its Char Dham Yatra, an important pilgrimage for Hindus.
• Madhya Pradesh
• Madhya Pradesh celebrates festivals like Lokrang Festival, Khajuraho Dance Festival, and Malwa Utsav, which highlight its diverse cultural traditions and arts.
• The state is also home to tribal festivals, such as Bhagoria Festival, celebrated by the Bhil and Bhilala tribes.
• Kerala
• Kerala is renowned for its iconic festival Onam, a harvest festival celebrated with grand feasts, boat races, and cultural programs.
• Other notable festivals in Kerala include Vishu, Thrissur Pooram, and Theyyam, which reflect the state's unique cultural identity.

The Correct answer is 3rd Edition.

Key Points

• The Khelo India University Games (KIUG) is a flagship initiative of the Government of India under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, aimed at promoting sports culture among university students.
• The 3rd edition of the Khelo India University Games was held in Uttar Pradesh in 2023.
• This edition was significant as it showcased the participation of a large number of athletes from across the country, fostering a spirit of competitiveness and teamwork.
• The event was organized in collaboration with the Uttar Pradesh Government and various sports federations, ensuring world-class facilities and infrastructure.
• The games included a wide range of disciplines such as athletics, swimming, wrestling, badminton, and many others, promoting a diverse sporting culture.
• The Khelo India initiative emphasizes the importance of identifying and nurturing young talent to represent India on international platforms.
• This edition of the games also aimed to promote the state of Uttar Pradesh as a hub for sporting activities and showcased its rich cultural heritage.

Additional Information

• 2nd Edition
• The 2nd edition of the Khelo India University Games was held in Bengaluru, Karnataka, in 2021-2022.
• The event was organized at the Jain University campus, with high participation from student athletes.
• This edition focused on promoting sports amidst the challenges posed by the COVID-19 pandemic.
• 1st Edition
• The 1st edition of the Khelo India University Games took place in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, in 2020.
• This inaugural edition saw the participation of over 4000 athletes from across Indian universities.
• The event was instrumental in setting the foundation for future editions of the games.
• 4th Edition
• The 4th edition has not yet been conducted as of 2023, but it is expected to follow the success of previous editions.
• Future editions aim to expand participation and enhance infrastructure for university-level sports.

The Correct answer is Buddhism.

Key Points

• Buddhism is one of the most widely practiced religions in China.
• It was introduced to China during the Han Dynasty (206 BCE–220 CE) and has since become deeply ingrained in Chinese culture.
• There are three main schools of Buddhism in China: Han Buddhism, Tibetan Buddhism, and Theravada Buddhism.
• Key features of Buddhism in China include practices such as meditation, chanting, and monastic life.
• Numerous historical Buddhist sites in China, such as the Shaolin Temple and the Longmen Grottoes, are renowned globally.
• Many Chinese people also integrate Buddhist principles with elements of Confucianism and Taoism, forming a unique religious and philosophical blend.
• Buddhism emphasizes the concepts of the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path, which focus on overcoming suffering and attaining enlightenment.

Additional Information

• Islam
• Islam is practiced by a minority in China, primarily by the Hui, Uighur, and other Muslim ethnic groups.
• It was introduced to China during the Tang Dynasty via the Silk Road.
• Notable Islamic sites in China include the Great Mosque of Xi'an, one of the oldest mosques in the country.
• Christianity
• Christianity is another minority religion in China, having been introduced by missionaries such as Nestorians during the Tang Dynasty.
• Today, there are two main branches: Protestantism and Catholicism.
• Christianity in China is closely monitored and regulated by the government.
• Hinduism
• Hinduism is not widely practiced in China and has limited historical influence.
• However, cultural exchanges between India and China, such as during the Gupta Dynasty, introduced certain Hindu concepts to the region.

The Correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

• Lalrinpuii serves as the Health & Family Welfare Minister of the state of Mizoram as of October 2024.
• Mizoram is one of the northeastern states of India, bordered by Tripura, Assam, and Manipur, and also shares international borders with Bangladesh and Myanmar.
• The state government of Mizoram is committed to improving healthcare infrastructure, especially in rural areas, under the guidance of its ministry.
• Mizoram is known for its initiatives in public health, including programs targeting maternal and child health and combating communicable diseases prevalent in the region.
• Lalrinpuii's leadership aligns with Mizoram's focus on promoting access to healthcare and strengthening healthcare delivery systems.
• Mizoram has a unique demographic and geographical landscape, which requires tailored health and welfare solutions to meet the needs of its indigenous and tribal populations.

Additional Information

• Haryana
• Haryana is a state in northern India, known for its agricultural economy and proximity to the national capital, New Delhi.
• It has made significant progress in healthcare with the establishment of AIIMS (All India Institute of Medical Sciences) in Jhajjar.
• The state is also renowned for its policies on promoting sports and fitness, along with healthcare initiatives for rural areas.
• Assam
• Assam, located in northeastern India, is known for its tea plantations and the mighty Brahmaputra River.
• Healthcare in Assam has seen growth with the expansion of medical colleges and hospitals, particularly in urban centers like Guwahati.
• The state government has prioritized health schemes for maternal and child care and combating diseases like malaria and tuberculosis.
• Nagaland
• Nagaland is another northeastern state, known for its rich tribal culture and biodiversity.
• Healthcare in Nagaland faces challenges due to its hilly terrain, necessitating innovative solutions for healthcare delivery.
• The state government has been working on improving primary healthcare services in remote areas.

The Correct answer is Mridangam.

Key Points

• Ramnad V. Raghavan was a renowned artist associated with the Mridangam, a percussion instrument widely used in Carnatic music.
• The Mridangam is a double-sided drum made primarily of wood and leather.
• This instrument is considered the primary rhythmic accompaniment in Carnatic music concerts.
• Ramnad V. Raghavan played a significant role in promoting and teaching Mridangam both in India and abroad.
• He was known for his mastery of rhythm, technique, and his ability to blend traditional and modern styles.
• He taught at institutions such as the Wesleyan University in the United States, contributing to the global appreciation of Indian classical music.
• The Mridangam is often played during performances featuring vocalists, violinists, and other Carnatic instrumentalists.
• Ramnad V. Raghavan was also known for collaborating with several legendary Carnatic musicians, earning widespread acclaim.

Additional Information

• Nadaswaram
• The Nadaswaram is a classical wind instrument widely used in South Indian music, particularly in temple rituals and weddings.
• It is considered one of the loudest non-brass acoustic instruments in the world.
• The Nadaswaram is made of wood and is associated with auspicious occasions.
• Dholak
• The Dholak is a double-headed drum commonly used in folk music and Bollywood songs.
• It is smaller and more portable compared to the Mridangam.
• The Dholak is widely used in North Indian music traditions and in devotional gatherings.
• Sarangi
• The Sarangi is a bowed string instrument used in Hindustani classical music.
• It is known for its ability to mimic the human voice and is often used as an accompaniment to vocal performances.
• The Sarangi is made primarily of wood and has gut strings.

The Correct answer is Second Plan.

Key Points

• The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961) is popularly known as the Mahalanobis Plan.
• It was formulated under the guidance of the Indian statistician Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis, who was a key figure in the development of planning in India.
• This plan focused on the industrialization of India and emphasized the creation of a strong base for heavy industries, such as steel plants, machine tools, and heavy engineering industries.
• The plan was based on the Mahalanobis model, which highlighted the role of the capital goods sector in economic growth and development.
• The strategy aimed to achieve a self-reliant economy by reducing dependence on imports through the growth of domestic industries.
• The plan also laid emphasis on socialist principles, such as reducing income inequalities and ensuring equitable distribution of wealth.
• Some of the major projects initiated under this plan include the establishment of steel plants in Bhilai, Rourkela, and Durgapur.
• The plan was a significant milestone in shaping India’s economic policies and remains a landmark in the history of Indian economic planning.

Additional Information

• First Plan
• The First Five-Year Plan (1951–1956) focused on agriculture and irrigation to address food shortages and to promote rural development.
• It was based on the Harrod-Domar model and aimed at achieving self-sufficiency in food production.
• Key projects included the Bhakra-Nangal Dam and other irrigation initiatives.
• Seventh Plan
• The Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985–1990) focused on employment generation, productivity, and modernization.
• It emphasized social justice and aimed at reducing poverty through programs like Integrated Rural Development Program (IRDP).
• It also focused on improving basic infrastructure, such as education and healthcare.
• Fourth Plan
• The Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969–1974) aimed at achieving growth with stability and focused on reducing income inequality.
• It emphasized self-reliance and introduced the Minimum Needs Program to improve the living standards of underprivileged sections.
• The plan faced challenges such as economic instability due to droughts and wars.

The Correct answer is 73rd Amendment Act.

Key Points

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 was a landmark amendment that introduced Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in India.
• This amendment added a new part, Part IX, to the Constitution and inserted Articles 243 to 243O.
• It mandated the establishment of the State Finance Commission to ensure the distribution of financial resources between the state and Panchayati Raj Institutions.
• The State Finance Commission is constituted every five years by the state government as per Article 243I.
• The commission is responsible for recommending the principles for the distribution of funds, grants, and financial resources between the state government and local self-governing bodies.
• The amendment aimed to strengthen grassroots-level democracy and ensure financial autonomy for local bodies.
• The 73rd Amendment Act is applicable to all states except, Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, as well as certain areas covered under the Sixth Schedule.

Additional Information

• 74th Amendment Act
• The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act introduced provisions for Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities).
• This amendment added Part IXA to the Constitution and inserted Articles 243P to 243ZG.
• It aimed to strengthen urban governance by establishing municipalities and ensuring their financial and administrative autonomy.
• It mandated the creation of the District Planning Committees and Metropolitan Planning Committees for integrated planning at the district and metropolitan levels.
• 75th Amendment Act
• The 75th Amendment Act deals with enabling provisions for the establishment of Rent Control Tribunals.
• The act aimed to streamline the process of rent regulation and dispute resolution in urban areas.
• It provided states with the power to establish tribunals for speedy adjudication of rent-related disputes.
• 76th Amendment Act
• The 76th Amendment Act included the Tamil Nadu Reservation Act of 1994 in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution.
• This amendment ensured that the reservation policy of Tamil Nadu, which provides 69% reservation for backward classes, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes, remains protected from judicial review.
• The Ninth Schedule was created to shield certain laws from being challenged for violating fundamental rights.

The Correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

• Maharashtra was recognized as the best Indian state for farming in 2024 by the 15th Agriculture Leadership Awards Committee.
• The state has shown remarkable progress in agricultural innovation, adopting modern technologies like drip irrigation, precision farming, and sustainable agricultural practices.
• Maharashtra is a leader in the production of several crops, including sugarcane, cotton, soybeans, and horticultural crops such as grapes, oranges, and pomegranates.
• The state has implemented several government schemes and programs, such as the Jalyukt Shivar Abhiyan, to improve water conservation and irrigation facilities.
• It has a strong network of Agricultural Produce Market Committees (APMCs) and agricultural universities like the Mahatma Phule Krishi Vidyapeeth, which focus on research and development.
• The state’s agro-climatic diversity allows the cultivation of a variety of crops, enhancing its agricultural potential.
• Maharashtra has also focused on export-oriented agriculture, particularly in the horticulture sector, boosting the state's economy.

Additional Information

• Punjab
• Punjab is known as the ‘Granary of India’ due to its high agricultural output, especially in wheat and rice.
• It is part of the Green Revolution success story in India.
• However, challenges like depleting groundwater levels and soil degradation have impacted its long-term agricultural sustainability.
• Haryana
• Haryana is another agricultural powerhouse, known for its contribution to the Green Revolution.
• The state excels in wheat, rice, and dairy production, but it faces issues like water scarcity and environmental concerns.
• Gujarat
• Gujarat is famous for its white revolution and is a leading producer of milk and dairy products.
• The state has also achieved success in horticulture and cash crops like cotton and groundnuts.
• However, it is limited in terms of arable land compared to states like Maharashtra.

The correct answer is Troposphere.

Key Points

• The troposphere is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere and extends from the Earth's surface up to an average height of about 8–15 km, depending on the latitude and season.
• This layer contains approximately 75% of the atmosphere's mass and nearly all of its water vapor, making it crucial for weather phenomena.
• Weather events such as rain, snow, storms, and winds occur in the troposphere due to the presence of water vapor and temperature variations.
• The temperature in the troposphere generally decreases with altitude, at an average rate of 6.5°C per kilometer (known as the lapse rate).
• The boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere is known as the tropopause, which acts as a barrier preventing the mixing of air between the two layers.
• This layer also plays an important role in the Earth’s climate system, as it contains the greenhouse gases that regulate surface temperatures.
• The troposphere is where human activities such as aviation and pollution primarily occur, influencing its composition and dynamics.

Additional Information

• Mesosphere
• The mesosphere is the third layer of the atmosphere, located above the stratosphere and below the thermosphere.
• It extends from about 50 to 85 km above the Earth's surface.
• It is the coldest atmospheric layer, with temperatures dropping as low as -90°C.
• This layer is where meteors burn up upon entering the Earth's atmosphere, creating shooting stars.
• Stratosphere
• The stratosphere lies above the troposphere and extends from about 15 to 50 km above the Earth's surface.
• It contains the ozone layer, which absorbs and scatters ultraviolet solar radiation, protecting life on Earth.
• In contrast to the troposphere, the temperature in the stratosphere increases with altitude due to the absorption of UV radiation by ozone.
• This layer is also relatively stable, making it suitable for commercial aviation.
• Exosphere
• The exosphere is the outermost layer of the atmosphere, extending from about 500 km above the Earth's surface to the edge of space.
• This layer contains very few air molecules and is where satellites orbit.
• The particles in the exosphere can escape into space due to the low gravity pull at these altitudes.

Shortcut Trick

The greatest number dividing x and y and leaving remainders a and b is HCF(x − a, y − b).

Required number = HCF(406 − 1, 1388 − 3)

Required number = HCF(405, 1385)

405 = 5 × 3⁴ and 1385 = 5 × 277

The highest common factor is strictly 5.

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Alternate Method

Given:

Numbers: 406 and 1388

Remainders: 1 and 3

Formula Used:

Required Number = HCF of (N₁ − R₁) and (N₂ − R₂)

Calculation:

⇒ First number to perfectly divide = 406 − 1 = 405

⇒ Second number to perfectly divide = 1388 − 3 = 1385

⇒ Prime factorization of 405 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 3⁴ × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 1385 = 5 × 277

⇒ The only common prime factor between 405 and 1385 is 5.

⇒ HCF(405, 1385) = 5

∴ The correct answer is 5.

Additional Information

Greatest Number leaving same remainder

If a number divides x, y, and z leaving the same remainder r in each case, the greatest such number is the HCF of |x − y|, |y − z|, and |z − x|.

Least Number with different remainders

If a number when divided by x, y, and z leaves remainders a, b, and c such that (x − a) = (y − b) = (z − c) = k, the required smallest number is LCM(x, y, z) − k.

Least Number with same remainder

If a number when divided by x, y, and z leaves the same remainder r, the required smallest number is LCM(x, y, z) + r.

Shortcut Trick

When amounts become equal under compound interest, the ratio of their principals is determined directly by the time difference.

Ratio of shares (Arun / Mahesh) = (1 + R/100)^{Time difference}

Arun / Mahesh = (1 + 10/100)^{15 − 14} = 11 / 10

Total ratio parts = 11 + 10 = 21 parts.

Arun's share = (11 / 21) × 1617 = ₹847.

∴ The correct answer is ₹847.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total amount to be divided = ₹1617

Rate of interest (R) = 10% compounded annually.

Investment duration for Arun (T₁) = 14 years

Investment duration for Mahesh (T₂) = 15 years

Formula Used:

Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)^T

Total Amount = ₹1617Arun's Share (A)14 Years @ 10% CIMahesh's Share (M)15 Years @ 10% CIA(1.1)¹⁴ = M(1.1)¹⁵ → A : M = 11 : 10

Calculations:

Let the principal given to Arun be A and Mahesh be M.

⇒ Amount of Arun after 14 years = Amount of Mahesh after 15 years

⇒ A(1 + 10/100)¹⁴ = M(1 + 10/100)¹⁵

⇒ A / M = (1 + 10/100)^{15 − 14}

⇒ A / M = (1 + 1/10)¹

⇒ A / M = 11 / 10

⇒ Ratio of Arun's share to Mahesh's share = 11 : 10

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 11 + 10 = 21

⇒ Value of 1 part = 1617 ÷ 21 = 77

⇒ Arun's share = 11 parts = 11 × 77

⇒ Arun's share = ₹847

∴ The correct answer is ₹847.

Additional Information

Compound Interest Formula

Amount = P(1 + R/100)^T, where P is principal, R is rate of interest, and T is time period.

Equal Amounts Concept

When two principals P₁ and P₂ amount to the same value after T₁ and T₂ years, their ratio is P₁/P₂ = (1 + R/100)^{T2 − T1}.

Effective Rate of Interest

For 2 years at R% per annum, the effective compound interest rate is (2R + R²/100)%.

Shortcut Trick

Total average weight = 45 kg

Deviation of Rupesh and Mandar = (43 − 45) × 2 = −4

Deviation of Mandar and Ketan = (45 − 45) × 2 = 0

Since Mandar is common to both groups, his weight = Total Average + Total Deviation

Mandar's weight = 45 + (−4) + 0 = 41 kg

∴ The correct answer is 41 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average weight of Rupesh, Mandar, and Ketan = 45 kg

Average weight of Rupesh and Mandar = 43 kg

Average weight of Mandar and Ketan = 45 kg

Formula Used:

Sum of values = Average × Number of values

Rupesh + Mandar + Ketan = 135 kg

Rupesh + Mandar = 86 kg

Mandar + Ketan = 90 kg

Mandar (Overlap)

Calculations:

⇒ Total weight of Rupesh, Mandar, and Ketan (R + M + K) = 45 × 3 = 135 kg

⇒ Total weight of Rupesh and Mandar (R + M) = 43 × 2 = 86 kg

⇒ Total weight of Mandar and Ketan (M + K) = 45 × 2 = 90 kg

⇒ Adding the sums of the two pairs:

⇒ (R + M) + (M + K) = 86 + 90

⇒ R + 2M + K = 176

⇒ Substitute the value of the group of three (R + M + K = 135):

⇒ (R + M + K) + M = 176

⇒ 135 + M = 176

⇒ M = 176 − 135 = 41 kg

∴ The correct answer is 41 kg.

Additional Information

Concept of Averages

Average = Sum of values ÷ Number of values. If an entity belongs to multiple overlapping groups, its actual value equals the sum of the overlapping groups minus the sum of the total combined group.

Deviation Method

Deviation is the difference from the assumed overall average. For finding an overlapping term systematically: Value = Overall Average + Sum of Deviations of the individual groups.

Replacement Rule

When an existing entity is replaced by a new one, the new weight = Old weight + (Number of persons × Increase in average).

Shortcut Trick

Rate per 10 months = 12% × (10 ÷ 12) = 10%.

Total time = 2.5 years = 30 months ⇒ number of cycles = 30 ÷ 10 = 3.

Effective compound interest rate for 3 cycles at 10% is 33.1%.

Amount = 100% + 33.1% = 133.1% of x = ₹54571.

x = 54571 × (100 ÷ 133.1) = 41000.

∴ The correct answer is ₹41000.

Alternate Method

Given:

Amount (A) = ₹54571

Time (T) = 2.5 years = 30 months

Rate of Interest (R) = 12% p.a.

Interest is compounded every 10 months.

Principal ₹x

Amount ₹54571

+10% +10% +10%

10 months 10 months 10 months

Total Time: 30 months

Calculations:

⇒ Rate per 10 months = (12% ÷ 12) × 10 = 10%

⇒ Number of compounding cycles (n) = 30 months ÷ 10 months = 3

⇒ Formula for Amount: A = P × (1 + R/100)ⁿ

⇒ 54571 = x × (1 + 10/100)³

⇒ 54571 = x × (11/10)³

⇒ 54571 = x × (1331/1000)

⇒ x = (54571 × 1000) ÷ 1331

⇒ x = 41 × 1000 = 41000

∴ The correct answer is ₹41000.

Additional Information

Effective Compound Interest

For a 10% rate, the effective CI for 2 cycles is 21%, for 3 cycles is 33.1%, and for 4 cycles is 46.41%. Memorizing these percentage values helps solve calculation-heavy problems instantly.

Custom Compounding Frequency

When interest is compounded every 'k' months, the adjusted rate becomes R_new = R × (k ÷ 12), and the total number of compounding cycles is n = (Total Time in Months) ÷ k.

Successive Percentage Change

Compound interest conceptually equals successive percentage increments, which can be found step-by-step using the net change formula: a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

When distance is constant, speed is inversely proportional to time.

Speed Ratio (Normal : New) = 3 : 2

Time Ratio (Normal : New) = 2 : 3

Difference in time ratio = 3 − 2 = 1 unit.

1 unit = 10 minutes, therefore normal time (2 units) = 20 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 20 minutes.

Alternate Method

Given:

New speed = 2/3 × Normal speed

Time difference = 10 minutes

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Normal Journey

City A City B Speed = S, Time = T

Delayed Journey

City A City B Speed = 2S/3, Time = T + 10

Distance = Speed × Time = Constant

Calculations:

⇒ Let normal speed be S and normal time be T minutes.

⇒ Since the distance between City A and City B is constant:

⇒ Normal Speed × Normal Time = New Speed × New Time

⇒ S × T = (2S / 3) × (T + 10)

⇒ T = 2/3 × (T + 10)

⇒ 3T = 2T + 20

⇒ T = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20 minutes.

Additional Information

Inverse Proportion of Speed and Time

When the distance travelled is constant, speed and time are inversely proportional. This implies that if speed is multiplied by a fraction a/b, the time taken will be multiplied by its reciprocal b/a.

Distance Formula

Distance = Speed × Time. It connects the three foundational elements of kinematics. Ensuring consistent units (e.g., kmph for speed and hours for time) is critical for accurate calculations.

Average Speed

Average Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time. If equal distances are covered at speeds S₁ and S₂, Average Speed = (2 × S₁ × S₂) ÷ (S₁ + S₂).

Given:

Evaluate: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-15) + (-4) × 6

Formula used:

Order of operations (BODMAS): Brackets, Orders (powers), Division/Multiplication (left to right), Addition/Subtraction (left to right)

Calculations:

Expression: (-9) - (-60) ÷ (-15) + (- 4) × 6

⇒ (-9) - (-60 ÷ -15) + (-4 × 6)

⇒ (- 9) - (4) + (-24)

⇒ - 9 - 4 - 24

⇒ -37

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Shortcut Trick

Difference in principal = ₹9400 − ₹5400 = ₹4000

Difference in interest for 3 years = ₹960

Difference in interest for 1 year = 960 ÷ 3 = ₹320

Rate% = (Interest difference for 1 year ÷ Principal difference) × 100

Rate% = (320 ÷ 4000) × 100 = 8%

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal for Varun (P₁) = ₹5400

Principal for Ashish (P₂) = ₹9400

Time (T) = 3 years

Difference in Simple Interest (SI) = ₹960

Formula Used:

SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Varun: ₹5400

Ashish: ₹5400

Extra: ₹4000

Extra SI: ₹960 (3 Yrs)

R% = (Extra SI for 1 Year ÷ Extra Principal) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Ashish's SI − Varun's SI = 960

⇒ [(9400 × R × 3) ÷ 100] − [(5400 × R × 3) ÷ 100] = 960

⇒ (28200R ÷ 100) − (16200R ÷ 100) = 960

⇒ 282R − 162R = 960

⇒ 120R = 960

⇒ R = 960 ÷ 120

⇒ R = 8

∴ The correct answer is 8%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI) vs Compound Interest (CI)

In Simple Interest, the principal remains constant throughout the period. In Compound Interest, the interest of the previous years is added to the principal for the calculation of interest in the subsequent year.

Difference Between CI and SI

For 2 years, Difference = P(R ÷ 100)². For 3 years, Difference = P(R ÷ 100)² × (R ÷ 100 + 3).

Effective Rate of Interest

For simple interest, the effective rate for 'T' years is simply R × T%. So for an 8% rate at 3 years, the total simple interest accrued is 24% of the principal amount.

Shortcut Trick

Use successive percentage multipliers to find the original Cost Price directly.

Amit's profit is 5% → Multiplier = 105% = 21/20

Gopal's loss is 25% → Multiplier = 75% = 3/4

Initial CP × 21/20 × 3/4 = 1890

Initial CP = 1890 × 80/63 = 2400

∴ The correct answer is ₹2400.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit percentage of Amit = 5%

Loss percentage of Gopal = 25%

Cost Price for Akshay = ₹1890

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) × (100 ± Profit/Loss%) ÷ 100

+5% Profit

-25% Loss

Amit (CP) ? = x

Gopal (CP) 1.05x

Akshay (CP) ₹ 1890

Equation: x × 1.05 × 0.75 = 1890

Calculation:

⇒ Let Amit's Cost Price be x.

⇒ Amit's Selling Price = Gopal's Cost Price = x × (100 + 5) ÷ 100 = 1.05x

⇒ Gopal's Selling Price = Akshay's Cost Price = 1.05x × (100 − 25) ÷ 100 = 1.05x × 0.75

⇒ Given that Akshay paid ₹1890

⇒ x × 1.05 × 0.75 = 1890

⇒ x × (105/100) × (75/100) = 1890

⇒ x × (21/20) × (3/4) = 1890

⇒ x × (63/80) = 1890

⇒ x = 1890 × (80/63)

⇒ x = 30 × 80

⇒ x = 2400

∴ The correct answer is ₹2400.

Additional Information

Successive Profit and Loss

When a product passes through multiple hands, the effective final price is given by: Final Price = Initial Price × (100 ± P₁/L₁%) ÷ 100 × (100 ± P₂/L₂%) ÷ 100.

Dishonest Dealer

When a dealer sells goods at cost price but uses a false weight, his profit percentage is given by: Profit% = (Error ÷ True Weight) × 100.

Marked Price and Discount

Marked Price (MP) and Selling Price (SP) are related by: SP = MP × (100 − Discount%) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

Let initial base value of expenditure be 100.

New Price Level = 100 + 50 = 150

Target Expenditure Level = 100 + 14 = 114

Reduction needed from new price level = 150 − 114 = 36

Percentage reduction = (36 ÷ 150) × 100 = 24%

∴ The correct answer is 24%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Price increase = 50%

Expenditure increase = 14%

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Price × Consumption ⇒ Consumption = Expenditure ÷ Price

100 Initial Base

114 Target Exp.

150 New Price

Price +50%

Reduce ? %

Exp +14%

Calculations:

⇒ Ratio of Old Price to New Price = 100 : 150 = 2 : 3

⇒ Ratio of Old Expenditure to New Expenditure = 100 : 114 = 50 : 57

⇒ Ratio of Old Consumption to New Consumption = (50 ÷ 2) : (57 ÷ 3)

⇒ Ratio of Consumption = 25 : 19

⇒ Decrease in consumption ratio parts = 25 − 19 = 6 parts

⇒ Percentage decrease = (6 ÷ 25) × 100 = 24%

∴ The correct answer is 24%.

Additional Information

Expenditure, Price and Consumption Relation

Total Expenditure is always the product of Price and Consumption. If Expenditure remains constant, Price and Consumption are inversely proportional.

Successive Percentage Change

Net percentage change can also be calculated using the successive formula: a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100, where 'a' and 'b' are the percentage changes in Price and Consumption respectively.

Ratio Method for Percentages

When working with percentage changes, converting them into fraction ratios (Initial : Final) allows quick multiplication or division to find the overall combined effect easily.

Shortcut Trick

When two items are sold at the same price with an equal percentage of profit and loss (x%), the transaction always results in an overall loss.

Overall Loss % = (x² ÷ 100) %

Here, the profit and loss percentages are equal, so x = 22.

Overall Loss % = (22² ÷ 100) % = (484 ÷ 100) % = 4.84%

∴ The correct answer is 4.84% loss.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit on Dog 1 = 22%

Loss on Dog 2 = 22%

Selling Price of Dog 1 = Selling Price of Dog 2

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = [100 ÷ (100 + Profit %)] × SP

Cost Price (CP) = [100 ÷ (100 − Loss %)] × SP

Loss % = (Total Loss ÷ Total CP) × 100

Dog 1 (CP&sub1;)

Dog 2 (CP&sub2;)

Same SP

• 22% Profit − 22% Loss

Calculations:

Let the Selling Price (SP) of each dog be 100 units.

⇒ Total SP = 100 + 100 = 200 units

⇒ CP of Dog 1 (sold at 22% profit) = (100 ÷ 122) × 100 = 10000 ÷ 122 = 5000 ÷ 61 units

⇒ CP of Dog 2 (sold at 22% loss) = (100 ÷ 78) × 100 = 10000 ÷ 78 = 5000 ÷ 39 units

⇒ Total CP = (5000 ÷ 61) + (5000 ÷ 39)

⇒ Total CP = 5000 × [(39 + 61) ÷ (61 × 39)]

⇒ Total CP = 5000 × [100 ÷ 2379] = 500000 ÷ 2379 units

⇒ Total Loss = Total CP − Total SP

⇒ Total Loss = (500000 ÷ 2379) − 200

⇒ Total Loss = (500000 − 475800) ÷ 2379 = 24200 ÷ 2379 units

⇒ Loss % = (Total Loss ÷ Total CP) × 100

⇒ Loss % = [(24200 ÷ 2379) ÷ (500000 ÷ 2379)] × 100

⇒ Loss % = (24200 ÷ 500000) × 100

⇒ Loss % = 242 ÷ 50 = 4.84%

∴ The correct answer is 4.84% loss.

Additional Information

Case of Same Cost Price (CP)

If two articles are bought at the same price and one is sold at x% profit and the other at x% loss, then there is strictly NO profit and NO loss overall.

Successive Discounts

When two consecutive discounts of a% and b% are applied on an item, the effective single equivalent discount is (a + b − ab ÷ 100)%.

Dishonest Dealer Formula

If a seller claims to sell goods at Cost Price but uses a faulty weight, the Profit % = [(True Weight − False Weight) ÷ False Weight] × 100.

Given:

\(\left[(23 × 16) ×\left{3 ÷ 3 × \frac{(19-13)}{3}\right}\right]\)

Formula used:

Order of operations (BODMAS): Brackets → Orders (powers/roots) → Division/Multiplication → Addition/Subtraction.

Calculation:

\(\left[(23 × 16) ×\left{3 ÷ 3 × \frac{(19-13)}{3}\right}\right]\)

⇒\(\left[(23 × 16) ×\left{3 ÷ 3 × \frac{6}{3}\right}\right]\)

⇒\( \left[(23 × 16) ×\left{1 × 2\right}\right]\)

⇒$\left[(23 × 16) × 2\right]$

⇒ (368 × 2)

⇒ 736

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of speeds = 40 : 45 = 8 : 9

Ratio of time = 9 : 8 (since distance is constant, time is inversely proportional to speed)

Difference in time ratio = 9 − 8 = 1 unit

Actual time difference = 10 min − 4 min = 6 min ⇒ 1 unit = 6 min

Time taken at 40 km/hr = 9 units = 9 × 6 = 54 min

Correct time = 54 − 10 = 44 min

∴ The correct answer is 44 min.

Alternate Method

Given:

Speed 1 (S₁) = 40 km/hr

Speed 2 (S₂) = 45 km/hr

Let the correct time to reach the destination be t min.

Time 1 (T₁) = (t + 10) min

Time 2 (T₂) = (t + 4) min

Formula Used:

Distance = Speed × Time

Start Destination

Distance (D) = Constant

Speed: 40 km/hr | Time: t + 10

Speed: 45 km/hr | Time: t + 4

Calculations:

⇒ Since the distance covered is constant for both scenarios, S₁ × T₁ = S₂ × T₂

⇒ 40 × (t + 10) = 45 × (t + 4)

⇒ 8 × (t + 10) = 9 × (t + 4)

⇒ 8t + 80 = 9t + 36

⇒ 9t − 8t = 80 − 36

⇒ t = 44

∴ The correct answer is 44 min.

Additional Information

Relative Speed

When two bodies move in the same direction, Relative Speed = S₁ − S₂. When moving in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S₁ + S₂.

Average Speed

If equal distances are covered at speeds S₁ and S₂, the Average Speed = (2 × S₁ × S₂) ÷ (S₁ + S₂).

Direct Distance Formula

Distance = [(S₁ × S₂) ÷ |S₁ − S₂|] × Difference in Time. This is a powerful and direct approach for finding distance when two different speeds result in early or late arrivals.

Shortcut Trick

Convert discounts to fractions: 30% = 3/10, 25% = 1/4, 40% = 2/5.

Marked Price (MP) → Selling Price (SP) ratios for each discount:

10 → 7 | 4 → 3 | 5 → 3

Multiply columns: Overall MP = 10 × 4 × 5 = 200, Overall SP = 7 × 3 × 3 = 63.

Equivalent Discount % = [(200 − 63) ÷ 200] × 100 = 68.5%.

∴ The correct answer is 68.5%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Three successive discounts of 30%, 25%, and 40%

Formula Used:

Equivalent discount for successive discounts a% and b% = a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100

100 MP

−30%

70

−25%

52.5

−40%

31.5 SP

Single Equivalent Discount = 100 − 31.5 = 68.5%

Calculations:

⇒ Calculate the single equivalent discount for the first two discounts (30% and 25%):

⇒ D₁ = 30 + 25 − (30 × 25) ÷ 100

⇒ D₁ = 55 − 7.5 = 47.5%

⇒ Calculate the final equivalent discount using D₁ (47.5%) and the third discount (40%):

⇒ Final Discount = 47.5 + 40 − (47.5 × 40) ÷ 100

⇒ Final Discount = 87.5 − 19 = 68.5%

∴ The correct answer is 68.5%.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

For two successive changes of a% and b%, the net percentage change is given by (a + b + ab/100)%. For discounts, a and b are implicitly negative, which simplifies the effective magnitude to a + b − ab/100.

Direct Selling Price Formula

When multiple discounts are given, the final Selling Price (SP) can be directly calculated from the Marked Price (MP) using multiplying factors: SP = MP × (1 − d₁/100) × (1 − d₂/100) × (1 − d₃/100).

Buy X Get Y Free Discount

In promotional offers, the equivalent discount percentage is always calculated based on the total quantity of items given to the customer: Equivalent Discount % = [Y ÷ (X + Y)] × 100.

Shortcut Trick

The mean proportion of two numbers x and y is given directly by √(x × y).

Given terms are x = a²/b³ and y = 9b²/(4a³).

Product = (a²/b³) × (9b²/(4a³)) = 9 / (4ab)

Mean proportion = √(9 / (4ab)) = 3 / (2√(ab))

∴ The correct answer is 3 / (2√(ab)).

Alternate Method

Given:

First term (A) = a²/b³

Second term (B) = 9b²/(4a³)

Formula Used:

Mean proportion = √(A × B)

Mean Proportion = √(A × B) Where A and B are the given terms

Term A a² / b³

Term B 9b² / 4a³

× Result: √(9 / 4ab) = 3 / (2√(ab))

Calculations:

⇒ Mean proportion = √[ (a²/b³) × (9b²/(4a³)) ]

⇒ Simplifying the expression by grouping similar terms:

⇒ Mean proportion = √[ (9 × a² × b²) / (4 × a³ × b³) ]

⇒ Cancelling common factors a² and b² from numerator and denominator:

⇒ Mean proportion = √[ 9 / (4 × a³⁻² × b³⁻²) ]

⇒ Mean proportion = √[ 9 / (4ab) ]

⇒ Mean proportion = 3 / (2√(ab))

∴ The correct answer is 3 / (2√(ab)).

Additional Information

Mean Proportion

For any two positive numbers a and b, the mean proportion is √(ab). It is the value x such that a : x = x : b.

Third Proportion

For two numbers a and b, the third proportion is the value c such that a : b = b : c. It is calculated directly as c = b² / a.

Fourth Proportion

For three numbers a, b, and c, the fourth proportion is the value d such that a : b = c : d. It is calculated directly as d = (b × c) / a.

Given:

4% of x = 132

Formula used:

x = $\frac{\text{value}}{\text{percentage}} \times 100$

Calculation:

132 = 4% of x

⇒ x = $\frac{132}{4} \times 100$

⇒ x = 33 × 100

⇒ x = 3300

∴ The correct answer is option (3).

Shortcut Trick

Subtract the remainders from the given numbers to get exactly divisible values.

First number = 92 − 7 = 85

Second number = 215 − 11 = 204

The greatest number dividing both is the HCF of 85 and 204.

HCF(85, 204) = 17

∴ The correct answer is 17.

Alternate Method

Given:

Numbers = 92 and 215

Remainders = 7 and 11

Method Used:

Required greatest number = HCF of (Number1 − Remainder1) and (Number2 − Remainder2)

Calculations:

⇒ First exactly divisible number = 92 − 7 = 85

⇒ Second exactly divisible number = 215 − 11 = 204

⇒ Factors of 85 = 17 × 5

⇒ Factors of 204 = 17 × 12

⇒ Common factor = 17

⇒ HCF(85, 204) = 17

∴ The correct answer is 17.

Additional Information

HCF with Same Remainder

If a number divides x, y, and z leaving the same remainder in each case, the greatest such number is the HCF of |x − y|, |y − z|, and |z − x|.

LCM with Same Remainder

The smallest number which when divided by x, y, and z leaves a remainder r in each case is given by LCM(x, y, z) + r.

LCM with Different Remainders

If a number divided by x, y, z leaves remainders a, b, c respectively, such that (x − a) = (y − b) = (z − c) = k, the required smallest number is LCM(x, y, z) − k.

Product of Two Numbers

For any two numbers a and b, the product of the numbers is equal to the product of their HCF and LCM: a × b = HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b).

Shortcut Trick

Total area to paint inside and outside (assuming negligible thickness) = 2 × CSA = 4πr²

Area = 4 × (22/7) × 3.5 × 3.5 = 154 cm²

Cost of painting = Area × (Rate / 10)

Cost = 154 × (15 / 10) = 154 × 1.5 = ₹231

∴ The correct answer is ₹231.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius of the hemispherical bowl (r) = 3.5 cm

Rate of painting = ₹15 per 10 cm²

Formula Used:

Curved Surface Area (CSA) of a hemisphere = 2πr²

Total Area to paint = Inner CSA + Outer CSA = 4πr²

r = 3.5 cm Outer Surface Area = 2πr²

Inner Surface Area = 2πr²

Calculations:

⇒ Total painted area = 4 × (22/7) × (3.5)²

⇒ Total painted area = 4 × (22/7) × 12.25

⇒ Total painted area = 4 × 38.5

⇒ Total painted area = 154 cm²

⇒ Cost of painting 10 cm² = ₹15

⇒ Cost of painting 1 cm² = 15 ÷ 10 = ₹1.5

⇒ Total Cost = 154 × 1.5

⇒ Total Cost = ₹231

∴ The correct answer is ₹231.

Additional Information

Total Surface Area of Solid Hemisphere

For a solid hemisphere, the total surface area includes the curved surface and the flat circular base: TSA = 3πr².

Volume of a Hemisphere

The volume of a hemisphere is exactly half of a full sphere: V = (2/3)πr³.

Area of a Spherical Shell

If a bowl has an external radius R and internal radius r, its total surface area includes the top rim: 2πR² + 2πr² + π(R² − r²).

Shortcut Trick

For two given numbers 'a' and 'b', their third proportional is given directly by the formula: b² ÷ a.

Here, a = 28 and b = 112.

Third proportional = (112 × 112) ÷ 28

Third proportional = 112 × 4 = 448

∴ The correct answer is 448.

Alternate Method

Given:

First number = 28

Second number = 112

Formula Used:

If three numbers a, b, and c are in continued proportion, then a : b :: b : c, which gives c = b² ÷ a.

Continued Proportion (a : b :: b : c)

28

:

112

::

112

:

c

28 × c = 112 × 112

Calculations:

⇒ Let the third proportional be c.

⇒ 28 : 112 :: 112 : c

⇒ 28 ÷ 112 = 112 ÷ c

⇒ c = (112 × 112) ÷ 28

⇒ c = 4 × 112

⇒ c = 448

∴ The correct answer is 448.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is the square root of their product. Formula: √(a × b).

Fourth Proportional

If four numbers are in proportion (a : b :: c : d), then 'd' is the fourth proportional. Formula: d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Compound Ratio

When two or more ratios are multiplied together, it is known as a compound ratio. For a:b and c:d, compound ratio is (a × c) : (b × d).

Shortcut Trick

Days to complete the whole work: Ravi = 15 × 4 = 60, Chavi = 18 × 3 = 54, Dhani = 24 × 2 = 48.

Total Work = LCM(60, 54, 48) = 2160 units.

Combined Efficiency = 2160/60 + 2160/54 + 2160/48 = 36 + 40 + 45 = 121 units/day.

Time required for 3/4 work = (3/4 × 2160) ÷ 121 = 1620/121 = 13 ⁴⁷/₁₂₁ days.

∴ The correct answer is 13 ⁴⁷/₁₂₁ days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ravi completes 1/4 of the work in 15 days.

Chavi completes 1/3 of the work in 18 days.

Dhani completes 1/2 of the work in 24 days.

Calculations:

⇒ Total days taken by Ravi to complete the whole work = 15 × 4 = 60 days

⇒ Total days taken by Chavi to complete the whole work = 18 × 3 = 54 days

⇒ Total days taken by Dhani to complete the whole work = 24 × 2 = 48 days

⇒ Let the total work be the LCM of 60, 54, and 48.

⇒ Total efficiency of Ravi, Chavi, and Dhani = 36 + 40 + 45 = 121 units/day

⇒ Target work to be completed = 3/4 of Total Work = 3/4 × 2160 = 1620 units

⇒ Time required by all three together = 1620 ÷ 121 days

⇒ Time taken = 13 ⁴⁷/₁₂₁ days

∴ The correct answer is 13 ⁴⁷/₁₂₁ days.

Additional Information

Work & Wages

Wages are distributed in proportion to the work done. If people work together for the same number of days, their wages are divided in the ratio of their efficiencies.

Pipes & Cisterns

This concept works identically to Time & Work. Inlet pipes have positive efficiency (fill the tank), while outlet pipes have negative efficiency (empty the tank).

Alternate Days Work

When workers take turns on alternate days, calculate the total work done in a complete block (e.g., 2 days for 2 workers), multiply to get near the total work, and finally add the remaining portion for the last working person.

Shortcut Trick

By using the Alligation method, we can directly find the ratio of yellow to green bikes:

⇒ Ratio of Yellow to Green = (Mean Average − Green Average) : (Yellow Average − Mean Average)

⇒ Ratio = (35 − 30) : (55 − 35) = 5 : 20 = 1 : 4

⇒ Total ratio parts = 1 + 4 = 5 parts (which equals 100 total bikes)

⇒ Number of Green bikes = 4 parts = 4 × (100 ÷ 5) = 80 bikes

∴ The correct answer is 80 bikes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total number of bikes = 100

Average speed of yellow bikes = 55 km/hr

Average speed of green bikes = 30 km/hr

Overall average speed = 35 km/hr

Formula Used:

Weighted Average = (n₁ × A₁ + n₂ × A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂)

Yellow

55

Green

30

Average

35

5

20

Ratio of Yellow to Green = 5 : 20 = 1 : 4

Calculations:

Let the number of green bikes be x.

⇒ The number of yellow bikes will be (100 − x).

⇒ Total Speed = (Average speed of yellow × Yellow bikes) + (Average speed of green × Green bikes)

⇒ 35 × 100 = 55 × (100 − x) + 30 × x

⇒ 3500 = 5500 − 55x + 30x

⇒ 3500 = 5500 − 25x

⇒ 25x = 5500 − 3500

⇒ 25x = 2000

⇒ x = 2000 ÷ 25

⇒ x = 80

∴ The correct answer is 80 bikes.

Additional Information

Alligation Method

It is a quick shortcut used to find the ratio in which two components of different values are mixed to form a specific average. The fundamental rule defines the ratio as (Cheaper Quantity) : (Dearer Quantity) = (Dearer Value − Mean Value) : (Mean Value − Cheaper Value).

Weighted Average

When distinct groups hold different averages, their combined average is calculated by dividing the sum of all individual items by the total number of items, formulated as A_w = (n₁A₁ + n₂A₂) ÷ (n₁ + n₂).

Ratio Division

When a total base quantity Q is split in the ratio a : b, the independent components are calculated by finding the unit part Q ÷ (a + b) and multiplying it by their respective ratio elements.

The correct answer is: Hospitable.

Key Points

• The word "Hostile" means unfriendly, antagonistic, or having an aggressive attitude towards others. (शत्रुतापूर्ण)
• Example: The hostile tone of his voice made it clear that he was upset.
• "Hospitable" refers to being friendly, welcoming, and generous to guests or strangers. (अतिथि सत्कार करनेवाला)
• Example: They were very hospitable and made us feel at home during our stay.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Hostile' is 'Hospitable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Hospitable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Frigid (जमाने वाला ठंडा): Extremely cold or lacking warmth in behavior.
• Example: Her frigid response showed she was not interested in continuing the conversation.
• Antagonistic (विरोधी): Showing opposition or hostility toward someone or something.
• Example: The two teams have always had an antagonistic rivalry.
• Icy (बर्फीला): Covered with ice or very cold in demeanor.
• Example: Her icy stare made him shiver with fear.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. by .

Key Points

• The sentence indicates a deadline for the project.
• The word “by” is commonly used to specify the time limit within which an action must be completed.
• “By” is appropriate as it suggests that the project must be finished before or at the end of the week.
• Other options such as “on,” “at,” and “in” do not convey the correct meaning in the context of a deadline.

Correct sentence: The project must be completed by the end of the week.

Additional Information

• Usage of Prepositions:
• On: Refers to specific days or dates. Example: The meeting is on Friday.
• At: Refers to specific points of time. Example: The train arrives at 5 PM.
• In: Refers to a period of time within which something occurs. Example: He will finish the work in two days.

The correct answer is: Option 1 (touched).

Key Points

• The word "touched" means emotionally affected or moved by something, often in a positive way. (भावनात्मक रूप से प्रभावित या भावुक)
• Example: She was touched by the heartfelt letter her son wrote for her.
• The sentence implies that the person felt a strong positive emotional reaction due to her friend's gesture of kindness, which makes "touched" the most suitable word. (स्पर्शित / भावुक)

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1 (touched).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Alerted (चेतावनी दी): To make someone aware of something or to warn them about a possible danger or issue.
• Example: The security guard alerted the authorities about the suspicious activity.
• Disheartened (निराश): To feel discouraged or lose confidence or hope.
• Example: She was disheartened after failing to secure the job she worked hard for.
• Raised (उठाया): To lift or move something to a higher position, or to bring up an issue.
• Example: He raised his hand to ask a question during the lecture.

The correct answer is: Option 2 (Lackadaisical).

Key Points

• The word "Fastidious" means being very attentive to and concerned about accuracy and detail; excessively particular, critical, or demanding. (अत्यधिक चुस्त)
• Example: She was fastidious about keeping her room impeccably clean and organized.
• The word "Lackadaisical" refers to showing little enthusiasm, carelessness, or a lack of effort. (अलसी या लापरवाह)
• Example: His lackadaisical attitude toward his studies resulted in poor grades.
• By replacing "fastidious" with its antonym "lackadaisical," the meaning of the sentence changes completely from being overly meticulous to being careless or indifferent.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2 (Lackadaisical).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Impeccable (अद्वितीय): Perfect, flawless, or free from fault.
• Example: Her impeccable manners left a lasting impression on everyone at the party.
• Sincere (ईमानदार): Genuine, free from pretense or deceit.
• Example: His sincere apology helped mend their friendship.
• Serious (गंभीर): Earnest or thoughtful; showing a sense of purpose or gravity.
• Example: She was serious about pursuing a career in medicine.

The correct answer is: Refreshment.

Key Points

• The word "Prostration" means a state of extreme physical or mental exhaustion or being completely overcome and helpless. It can also refer to lying stretched out on the ground in submission or adoration. (अत्यधिक थकावट या विनम्रता में झुकना)
• Example: After hours of hard labor in the field, the workers fell into complete prostration.
• "Refreshment" refers to the act of renewing energy or revitalizing oneself, often after exhaustion or fatigue. (ताजगी या ऊर्जा पुनः प्राप्त करना)
• Example: A cold drink provided much-needed refreshment after the long hike.
• Hence, the antonym of 'Prostration' is 'Refreshment'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Refreshment.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Impression (प्रभाव): A lasting effect or mark created by someone or something.
• Example: Her speech left a strong impression on the audience.
• Acridness (तीखापन): Sharp or bitter taste or smell; harshness.
• Example: The acridness of the smoke made it hard to breathe.
• Counterpart (समकक्ष): A person or thing that is similar to another or complements it.
• Example: The CEO met with his counterpart from the rival company to discuss collaboration.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "acommodation" is incorrectly spelled. The correct spelling is "accommodation". The incorrect spelling lacks one "c".
• English Meaning: Accommodation refers to a place where someone can stay, live, or work, such as a room, house, or office. (रहने का स्थान)
• Example: The hotel offers comfortable accommodation for its guests.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Enough (पर्याप्त): Refers to having as much as is needed or required.
• Example: There is enough food for everyone at the party.
• Entire (पूरा): Refers to the whole or complete thing.
• Example: She spent the entire day working on her project.
• Spacious (खुला और बड़ा): Refers to a large area with plenty of space.
• Example: The apartment is spacious enough to accommodate a family of four.

The incorrect part is: '1' i.e. beautifully entered .

Key Points

• The sentence contains an adverbial usage error in the segment "beautifully entered".
• The adverb "beautifully" is used incorrectly here because it does not logically or contextually fit with the verb "entered".
• Adverbs should be used to modify verbs in a manner that is grammatically and contextually appropriate. For example, using an adverb like "confidently" or "gracefully" would make more sense depending on the context.

Correct sentence: Dravid and his team confidently entered the competition.

Additional Information

• Adverb Usage:
• An adverb modifies verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs, describing how, when, where, or to what extent something happens.
• Example: She quickly finished her homework. (Quickly describes how she finished.)
• Common Adverbial Errors:
• Using an adverb that does not suit the verb it modifies.
• Example: Saying "he beautifully ate" is incorrect because "beautifully" does not logically describe the act of eating.

The correct answer is: Option 4 (Determined).

Key Points

• The word "firm" refers to being resolute, unwavering, and steadfast in one's beliefs or actions. (दृढ़)
• Example: He maintained a firm stance on protecting the environment despite criticism.
• "Determined" means having a strong resolve and not being swayed by challenges or obstacles. (दृढ़ निश्चयी)
• Example: She was determined to finish her degree despite all the hardships she faced.
• In the context of the given sentence, "firm" and "determined" are synonyms as they both convey the idea of being resolute and unwavering.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4 (Determined).

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Cautious (सावधान): Being careful and avoiding risks.
• Example: He was cautious while crossing the busy road.
• Confused (भ्रमित): Lacking clarity or being uncertain about something.
• Example: She was confused by the professor's explanation of the complex topic.
• Exhausted (थका हुआ): Extremely tired or drained of energy.
• Example: After a long day at work, he felt completely exhausted.

The correct answer is: Resilience.

Key Points

• The word "Resilience" means the ability to recover quickly from difficulties; toughness or the capacity to withstand adversity and bounce back. (लचीलापन, दृढ़ता)
• Example: Despite facing numerous setbacks, she showed incredible resilience and continued to work towards her goal.
• In the given sentence, "Her ________ in the face of adversity was truly commendable and inspired everyone around her," the word "resilience" perfectly fits because it indicates the admirable ability to stay strong and overcome hardships.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Resilience.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Cowardice (कायरता): Lack of bravery or courage in facing danger, difficulty, or pain.
• Example: His cowardice in not standing up for his friends was disappointing.
• Indifference (उदासीनता): Lack of interest, concern, or sympathy for something or someone.
• Example: Her indifference to the plight of the homeless was shocking.
• Negligence (लापरवाही): Failure to take proper care in doing something, often leading to undesirable outcomes.
• Example: The accident was caused by his negligence in following traffic rules.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The word "Inacuracies" is incorrectly spelt. The correct spelling is "Inaccuracies". The incorrect spelling misses an additional 'c'.
• Inaccuracies means the quality or state of being incorrect or imprecise. (त्रुटियां या अशुद्धियां)
• Example: The report contains several inaccuracies that need to be corrected.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Numerous (अनेक): Existing in large numbers or quantities.
• Example: She has received numerous awards for her contributions to science.
• Critiqued (आलोचना की): Evaluated or analyzed in a detailed and constructive way.
• Example: The professor critiqued the students' essays and provided valuable feedback.
• Inconsistencies (असंगतियां): The quality or condition of being inconsistent, not matching, or lacking harmony.
• Example: The detective noticed inconsistencies in the witness's testimony.

The correct answer is '3' i.e. became aware of .

Key Points

• The sentence discusses a past event, "as the news of the atomic attack reached Einstein," which requires the verb to be in the past tense.
• The phrase "he is becoming" is in the present continuous tense and is grammatically incorrect in this context, as the sentence refers to a completed action in the past.
• The correct substitution is "became aware of," as it aligns the tense with the past narrative of the sentence.
• Using "became aware of" accurately conveys that Einstein realised the gravity of the situation at a specific point in the past.

Correct sentence: As the news of the atomic attack reached Einstein, he became aware of the glaring horror of the abuse of atomic energy.

Additional Information

• Tense Consistency: It is crucial to maintain consistency in tense usage within a sentence to avoid grammatical errors.
• Present Continuous vs. Past Simple: The present continuous ("is becoming") is used for actions happening at the moment of speaking, while the past simple ("became") is used for actions completed in the past.
• Other options explained:
• Option 1: "become the awareness" is grammatically incorrect and does not make sense in the context of the sentence.
• Option 2: "No substitution required" is incorrect because the original phrase "he is becoming aware of" does not fit the past context.
• Option 4: "will be aware of" is in the future tense and does not match the past context of the sentence.

The correct answer is: astonished.

Key Points

• The word "amazed" means filled with great surprise or wonder. It is used to describe a feeling of being impressed or astounded. (आश्चर्यचकित)
• Example: She was amazed by the beauty of the sunset over the mountains.
• "Astonished" refers to being greatly surprised or shocked, often in a positive sense. It is a synonym for amazed but conveys a slightly stronger emotion. (चौंका हुआ)
• Example: He was astonished to find out that he had won the lottery.
• Hence, the more appropriate word to replace "amazed" in this context is "astonished".

Therefore, the correct answer is: astonished.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Worried (चिंतित): Feeling anxious or concerned about something.
• Example: She was worried about her upcoming exams.
• Accurate (सटीक): Free from errors; correct or precise.
• Example: His calculations were accurate and reliable.
• Swamped (व्यस्त): Overwhelmed with too much work or tasks.
• Example: The team was swamped with deadlines and assignments.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The phrase "making wrong choices" means someone is acting incorrectly or choosing a misguided path in a situation. (गलत विकल्प चुनना)
• Example: He kept making wrong choices, which led him to a difficult position in life.
• "Barking up the wrong tree" is an idiomatic expression that means pursuing a mistaken or misguided course of action. (गलत दिशा में प्रयास करना)
• Example: If you're blaming her for the accident, you're barking up the wrong tree—she wasn't even there.
• Hence, the phrase "barking up the wrong tree" is the most appropriate substitution for the underlined words.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

The correct answer is: Joyful.

Key Points

• The word "Blissful" means extremely happy or full of joy; a state of perfect happiness and contentment. (आनंदमय)
• Example: The couple looked blissful as they exchanged vows on their wedding day.
• "Joyful" means feeling, expressing, or causing great happiness. (प्रसन्न)
• Example: The children were joyful during the festival celebrations.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Blissful' is 'Joyful'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Joyful.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Bountiful (भरपूर): Abundant or plentiful in quantity.
• Example: The farmer had a bountiful harvest this year.
• Wishful (इच्छापूर्ण): Having or showing a longing or desire for something.
• Example: She gave a wishful glance at the dress she wanted to buy.
• Frightful (भयावह): Very unpleasant, shocking, or alarming.
• Example: The frightful storm caused extensive damage in the town.

The erroneous part is '2' i.e. is temporary .

Key Points

• The phrase "is temporary" is grammatically incorrect in the given context.
• The correct expression should be "is temporarily" to match the intended meaning.
• The adverb "temporarily" is required here to describe the state of being "out of service" since it qualifies the verb phrase.

Correct sentence: The elevator in the mall is temporarily out of service.

The correct answer is 'affect'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence discusses the influence of climate change on human health and well-being.
• The word should indicate the impact or influence of climate change, not a physical ailment or offense.
• The verb "affect" (असर करना) means to influence or make a difference to something, which fits the context perfectly.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: Climate change will affect every aspect of our health and well-being. But its potential harms go beyond the body's ability to handle extreme heat, important as this is. Extreme weather events, such as floods, droughts, storms and wildfires, are becoming more frequent and severe. These affect our mental health in a multitude of ways. Coping with climate change can be overwhelming. It could increase the likelihood of harmful substance use.

 

Additional Information

• Effect (प्रभाव): Mostly used as a noun; the verb form is "affect."
• Offend (अपमानित करना): Means to insult or hurt someone’s feelings; not contextually relevant.
• Afflict (कष्ट देना): Too narrow in meaning, as it implies suffering rather than general impact or influence.

The correct answer is 'beyond'.

 

Key Points

• The passage explains that the harms of climate change are not limited to one aspect (heat-related health impacts), but extend further.
• The correct preposition must convey the idea of surpassing or extending past a certain limit.
• The word "beyond" (आगे) means ‘on the further side of’ or ‘more than a particular limit,’ which suits the context accurately.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

 

Complete Passage: Climate change will affect every aspect of our health and well-being. But its potential harms go beyond the body's ability to handle extreme heat, important as this is. Extreme weather events, such as floods, droughts, storms and wildfires, are becoming more frequent and severe. These affect our mental health in a multitude of ways. Coping with climate change can be overwhelming. It could increase the likelihood of harmful substance use.

 

Additional Information

• Besides (के अतिरिक्त): Does not convey surpassing a limit, hence contextually weak.
• Between (के बीच): Refers to a position or range separating two items; grammatically incorrect here.
• Before (से पहले): Implies time precedence; does not suit the idea of extent or impact.

The correct answer is 'extreme'.

 

Key Points

• The phrase “the body’s ability to handle ___ heat” clearly implies a need for an adjective describing a high-intensity or dangerous level of heat.
• The adjective "extreme" (चरम) accurately conveys the severity of heat associated with climate change, which can lead to serious health risks.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: Climate change will affect every aspect of our health and well-being. But its potential harms go beyond the body's ability to handle extreme heat, important as this is. Extreme weather events, such as floods, droughts, storms and wildfires, are becoming more frequent and severe. These affect our mental health in a multitude of ways. Coping with climate change can be overwhelming. It could increase the likelihood of harmful substance use.

 

Additional Information

• Strange (अजीब): Unusual or unfamiliar, not contextually fitting for describing heat intensity.
• Calm (शांत): Implies peace or low intensity, which is the opposite of the required meaning.
• Father (पिता): Completely unrelated to the subject of heat or climate.

The correct answer is 'frequent'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence talks about the increasing occurrence and intensity of extreme weather events due to climate change.
• The word "frequent" (अक्सर) correctly conveys the idea of events happening more often, aligning with the context of climate change effects.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: Climate change will affect every aspect of our health and well-being. But its potential harms go beyond the body's ability to handle extreme heat, important as this is. Extreme weather events, such as floods, droughts, storms and wildfires, are becoming more frequent and severe. These affect our mental health in a multitude of ways. Coping with climate change can be overwhelming. It could increase the likelihood of harmful substance use.

 

Additional Information

• Pertinent (उचित): Means relevant or applicable, not related to frequency or severity.
• Selected (चयनित): Implies a choice or preference, not fitting in context of increasing weather events.
• Marginal (सीमांत): Indicates minimal importance or effect, which contradicts the idea of severe, increasing phenomena.

The correct answer is 'risk'.

 

Key Points

• The sentence discusses the possibility of an increase in harmful substance use due to the overwhelming nature of climate change.
• The word "risk" (जोखिम) accurately denotes the chance or likelihood of something undesirable occurring, which suits the context perfectly.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: Climate change will affect every aspect of our health and well-being. But its potential harms go beyond the body's ability to handle extreme heat, important as this is. Extreme weather events, such as floods, droughts, storms and wildfires, are becoming more frequent and severe. These affect our mental health in a multitude of ways. Coping with climate change can be overwhelming. It could increase the risk of harmful substance use.

 

Additional Information

• Track (पथ): Unrelated to expressing probability or danger.
• Task (कार्य): Refers to an assignment or duty; does not fit contextually.
• Plan (योजना): Refers to a method or strategy, not a probability or hazard.

सही उत्तर है - के लिए तत्पर है

Key Points

• अशुद्ध वाक्य - सिंटू बड़ों की सेवा के तत्पर लिए है।
• दिए गये वाक्य में पदक्रम प्रयोग की त्रुटि है,
• ​यहाँ 'के तत्पर लिए' सार्थक शब्द नहीं है और इससे सही अर्थ प्रकट नहीं हो रहा।
• ​अत: सार्थक शब्द 'के लिए तत्पर' होना चाहिए।
• शुद्ध वाक्य - सिंटू बड़ों की सेवा के लिए तत्पर है।

Additional Information 

 पदक्रम संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ -