SSC GD Constable 2025 Official Paper (Held On: 04 Feb, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​'JAMB' is coded as '5139'

'BALM' is coded as '9521'

Thus, code for 'L' is '2'.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Decoding symbols:

Given: N @ E $ J @ S

N @ E → N is the daughter of E.

E $ J → E is the husband of J.

J @ S → J is the daughter of S.

Thus, J is N's mother.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

The figure which will look like the paper when unfolded is shown below:

Thus, option Figure 3 will look like the paper when unfolded.

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

Option 1) FHJ

Option 2) SUV

Option 3) HJL

Option 4) NPR

Thus, out of all the options, 'SUV' is the odd one out.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given word: GRACEFUL

According to the question, arranged in the English alphabetical order

Thus, none of the letters remain unchanged if each letter in the given word is arranged in the English alphabetical order.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as shown below :

Conclusions:

(I) Some bridges are gabions → Does not follow (As all gabions are walls, all concretes are walls and all bridges are walls. So it is possible but not definite)

(II) Some concretes are bridges → Does not follow (As all concretes are walls and all bridges are walls. So it is possible but not definite)

∴ Here, Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.​

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN is as shown below:

Here, option figure 1 shows the mirror image of the given figure.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

The logic followed here is:

1) In each box one element from the previous box is replaced with new elements.

2. The new elements added are in the order of increasing sequence.

Thus, the final series is:

Hence, "Option 3" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

'CLONE' is written as 'BLUKU'

C - 1 = B; L + 9 = U; O - 4 = K; N + 7 = U; E(5) + 16 = 21(U)

And,

'BOUND' is written as 'AOAKT'

B - 1 = A; O + 0 = O; U - 20 = A; N - 3 = K; D + 16 = 20(T)

Similarly,

'NICHE' is written as 'MIIEU'

N - 1 = M; I + 0 = I; C + 6 = I; H - 3 = E; E(5) + 16 = 21(U)

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

SBCF is related to RADG

And,

NVMO is related to MUNP

Similarly,

GUAX is related as

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

Given: Seven people L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in a straight line facing the north

1) R is sitting to the immediate right of P and the immediate left of L. 

2) N is sitting to the immediate right of L and the immediate left of O.

Case 1)

Case 2)

Case 3)

3) M is sitting to the immediate left of P.

As there is no possible position for M in case-1, therefore is eliminated.

Case 2)

Case 3)

4) O is sitting to the immediate left of Q.

As there is no possible position for Q in case-3, therefore is eliminated.

Case 2)

Thus, according to the final arrangement R is sitting second to the left of N.

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The diagram that best represents the relationship between the given classes is shown below :

Some females can be cardiologist and engineer.

Cardiologist and engineer are two different professions. 

Hence, "Option 1" is the correct answer.

The logic followed here is:

​​

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Alternate Method

The logic followed here is :-

 

As R is common on both the dices, it is clear that L, T, O, and A are adjacent to it, and the remaining i.e. E will be opposite to it.

Opposite pairs:

L → O

T → A

R → E

So, the opposite side of "E" will be side "R".

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

The logic followed here is:

'BSGN' is coded as '5-22-10-17'

And,

'TAUE' is coded as '23-4-24-8'

Similarly,

'PJDQ' is coded as

​

Hence, "Option 4" is the correct answer.

Given: Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing 4 people each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. Thus, each person faces another person from the other row.

In row 1, D, E, O and S are seated and all of them are facing south.

In row 2, F, A, R and M are seated and all of them are facing north.

1) Only D sits to the left of E.

2) Only R sits to the left of A.

3) Only one person sits between A and F.

After positioning F only one position is left in row - 2 which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. M.

4) Only one person sits between D and O.

After positioning O only one position is left in row - 1 which will be occupied by the only person left i.e. S.

Thus, according to the final arrangement E and M face each other.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Given : 50 - 9 ÷ 1 + 63 × 7 = ?

According to the question, after  '+' and '-' are interchanged and '×' and '÷' are interchanged:

50 - 9 ÷ 1 + 63 × 7 = ? ⇒ 50 + 9 × 1 - 63 ÷ 7 = ?

⇒ 50 + 9 × 1 - 63 ÷ 7 = ?

⇒ 50 + 9 × 1 - 9 = ?

⇒ 50 + 9 - 9 = ?

⇒ 59 - 9 = ?

⇒ 50 = ?

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

The correct answer is up to ten lakh rupees.

Key Points

• The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Bill, 2024, aims to curb unfair practices in public examinations.
• The Bill specifies a penalty amount of up to ten lakh rupees for individuals involved in unfair practices during exams.
• This measure is intended to maintain the integrity and fairness of the examination process.
• The Bill includes stringent penalties to deter individuals from engaging in malpractices.

Additional Information

• Unfair Means in Exams: This includes activities such as cheating, impersonation, and use of unauthorized materials.
• Legislation Purpose: The purpose of such legislation is to enforce discipline and credibility in the education system.
• Examination Integrity: Ensuring the integrity of examinations is crucial for maintaining public trust in the education system.
• Implementation: The Bill's provisions will be implemented by examination authorities and law enforcement agencies.
• Precedents: Similar laws exist in various countries to prevent examination malpractices and uphold education standards.

The correct answer is Madurai Shanmukhavadivu Subbulakshmi.

Key Points

• M.S. Subbulakshmi was a renowned Carnatic singer from India, known for her exceptional vocal talent.
• She was the first Indian musician to perform at the United Nations General Assembly in 1966.
• Subbulakshmi sang in various prestigious venues across Europe and North America, promoting Indian classical music worldwide.
• She received numerous awards and honors, including the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in 1998.
• M.S. Subbulakshmi was also known for her philanthropic efforts and contributions to various social causes.

Additional Information

• Carnatic Music: A classical music form that originated in the southern part of India, known for its intricate rhythms and melodic structures.
• Bharat Ratna: The highest civilian award in India, awarded for exceptional service in various fields such as arts, literature, public service, and more.
• United Nations General Assembly: One of the six principal organs of the UN, where all member nations have equal representation and discuss global issues.
• Philanthropy: The act of promoting the welfare of others, typically through generous donations of money, resources, or time to charitable causes.
• Legacy: M.S. Subbulakshmi's influence on Indian classical music continues to be celebrated, and she remains an iconic figure in the world of music.

The correct answer is Northern Black Polished Ware.

Key Points

• Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) is an important category of Iron Age pottery in the Indian subcontinent.
• It is characterized by its glossy, shiny black surface.
• NBPW pottery is often associated with the period from around the 6th century BCE to the 2nd century BCE.
• It was widely used in northern India and has been found in significant archaeological sites like Pataliputra, Hastinapur, and Taxila.

Additional Information

• Iron Age
• The Iron Age is the period following the Bronze Age, marked by the prevalent use of iron.
• In India, the Iron Age roughly started around the 12th century BCE.
• Archaeological Sites
• Pataliputra: An ancient city in the Magadha region, which served as a capital for several Indian dynasties.
• Hastinapur: An ancient city mentioned in the Mahabharata, located in modern-day Uttar Pradesh.
• Taxila: An important archaeological site in modern-day Pakistan, associated with ancient Indian history.
• Pottery
• Pottery is one of the most significant sources of information about ancient cultures.
• Different styles of pottery help archaeologists date and understand ancient civilizations.
• Glossy Finish
• The glossy finish of NBPW was achieved through a complex firing process.
• This finish made the pottery more durable and visually appealing.

The correct answer is Hima Kohli.

Key Points

• Hima Kohli was appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India on 31 August 2021.
• She became the first woman Chief Justice of the Telangana High Court on 7 January 2021.
• Hima Kohli is the ninth woman to be elevated to the Supreme Court of India.
• She bid farewell to the Supreme Court in August 2024 after a distinguished career.

Additional Information

• Supreme Court of India: The highest judicial court in India and the final court of appeal under the Constitution of India.
• High Courts: Each state in India has its own High Court, which is the principal civil court of original jurisdiction in the state.
• Elevated to the Supreme Court: Refers to the process of appointing a judge from a lower court to the Supreme Court.
• Judicial Appointments: In India, judges are appointed through a collegium system involving the Chief Justice of India and a forum of four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
• Role of Chief Justice: The Chief Justice heads the judiciary of the state and is responsible for the administration of the court and the appointment of its judges.

The correct answer is War-time expenditure and resource allocation.

Key Points

• The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-1966) aimed to establish a self-reliant and self-generating economy in India.
• The major economic challenge addressed in the plan was the war-time expenditure and resource allocation due to the Indo-China War of 1962 and the Indo-Pak War of 1965.
• The plan had to be adjusted to accommodate increased defense spending and rehabilitation efforts.
• Despite these challenges, the plan also focused on agriculture, industry, and infrastructure development.
• The target growth rate was 5.6%, but the actual growth rate achieved was around 2.4%, partly due to the disruptions caused by the wars.

Additional Information

• Indo-China War of 1962
• The conflict between India and China took place between October and November 1962.
• It led to significant military expenditures and reallocation of resources in India.
• The war ended with a Chinese ceasefire on November 21, 1962.
• Indo-Pak War of 1965
• The war between India and Pakistan occurred from April to September 1965.
• It led to substantial defense spending and resource diversion from developmental activities.
• The war ended following a United Nations-mandated ceasefire.
• Impact on Agriculture
• The focus on agriculture during the Third Five-Year Plan included the introduction of high-yielding variety seeds.
• Significant investment was made in irrigation and fertilizer production to boost agricultural output.
• Industrial Growth
• The plan emphasized the development of heavy industries and the establishment of new industrial enterprises.
• However, the industrial growth was lower than expected due to resource diversion to defense needs.
• Infrastructure Development
• Efforts were made to expand the transportation and communication networks.
• Investment in infrastructure was crucial for long-term economic growth despite immediate challenges.

The correct answer is Fundamental Rights.

Key Points

• Part III of the Constitution of India deals with Fundamental Rights, which are enshrined from Article 12 to 35.
• These rights are considered essential for the all-around development of individuals and are applicable to all citizens of India.
• Fundamental Rights are justiciable, meaning they are enforceable by the courts, and individuals can approach the courts in case of any violation.
• They include rights such as the Right to Equality, Right to Freedom, Right against Exploitation, Right to Freedom of Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, and Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• These rights act as a safeguard against any arbitrary actions of the state and ensure protection of individual liberties.

Additional Information

• Right to Equality
• It includes equality before the law, prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• It also includes equality of opportunity in matters of public employment and abolition of untouchability and titles.
• Right to Freedom
• It includes the freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and the right to practice any profession or occupation.
• These freedoms are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the state in the interest of sovereignty, integrity, and public order.
• Right against Exploitation
• This right prohibits all forms of forced labor, child labor, and human trafficking.
• It aims to protect individuals from exploitation and abuse.
• Right to Freedom of Religion
• It guarantees religious freedom to all citizens and ensures secularism in the country.
• Individuals are free to profess, practice, and propagate any religion of their choice.
• Right to Constitutional Remedies
• This right allows individuals to approach the Supreme Court or High Courts for enforcement and protection of their Fundamental Rights.
• It acts as a guardian of all other Fundamental Rights.

The correct answer is Agricultural sector.

Key Points

• The Green Revolution refers to a set of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives that occurred between the 1940s and the late 1960s, which increased agricultural production worldwide, particularly in developing countries.
• It involved the introduction of high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, especially for crops like wheat and rice.
• The implementation of the Green Revolution included the use of chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and improved irrigation techniques.
• These advances significantly boosted food production and made countries like India self-sufficient in food grains.
• The Agricultural sector benefited greatly from the Green Revolution, leading to increased crop yields and food security.

Additional Information

• High-Yielding Variety (HYV) Seeds: These seeds are developed to improve the productivity of crops. They are a crucial component of the Green Revolution.
• Chemical Fertilizers: Synthetic substances added to the soil to enhance its fertility and increase crop yields.
• Pesticides: Chemicals used to control pests that can damage crops, ensuring higher crop quality and quantity.
• Irrigation Techniques: Methods used to supply water to crops, which are essential for areas with inconsistent rainfall.
• Food Security: The Green Revolution played a significant role in ensuring that countries could produce enough food to meet their population's needs, reducing dependence on food imports.

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam.

Key Points

• Lakshmi Vishwanathan was an esteemed exponent of Bharatanatyam, a classical dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, India.
• She received the prestigious Natya Kalanidhi Award from the Music Academy for her extensive contributions to Bharatanatyam.
• Known for her exceptional abhinaya (expression) and intricate footwork, she brought a unique style to the traditional form.
• She trained under the legendary Guru K.N. Dandayudapani Pillai, a renowned Bharatanatyam teacher.

Additional Information

• Bharatanatyam
• It is one of the oldest classical dance traditions in India, known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate footwork combined with expressive hand gestures and facial expressions.
• Originating from the temples of Tamil Nadu, it was traditionally performed by female temple dancers called Devadasis.
• The dance form is characterized by three primary elements: Nritta (pure dance), Nritya (expressive dance), and Natyam (dramatic dance).
• Bharatanatyam is accompanied by classical Carnatic music and involves a deep connection between the dancer and the divine.
• Natya Kalanidhi Award
• This prestigious award is presented by the Music Academy in Chennai to individuals who have made significant contributions to the field of dance.
• The award recognizes outstanding performers and teachers who have dedicated their lives to preserving and promoting classical dance forms.
• Guru K.N. Dandayudapani Pillai
• He was a legendary Bharatanatyam teacher and choreographer, known for his innovative compositions and teaching methods.
• His contributions to Bharatanatyam include training several prominent dancers and enriching the repertoire of the dance form.
• Abhinaya
• Abhinaya refers to the art of expression in Indian classical dance, involving facial expressions, hand gestures, and body movements to convey emotions and stories.
• It is an essential aspect of Bharatanatyam, allowing dancers to connect with the audience and communicate complex narratives.

The correct answer is 1831.

Key Points

• Michael Faraday discovered electromagnetic induction in the year 1831.
• This discovery is crucial as it laid the foundation for the development of electric transformers and generators.
• Faraday's experiment involved moving a magnet through a coil, which generated an electric current within the coil, demonstrating the principle of electromagnetic induction.
• His work on electromagnetic induction is considered one of the most significant contributions to the field of electromagnetism and electrical engineering.

Additional Information

• Electromagnetic Induction
• It is the production of voltage or electromotive force due to a change in the magnetic field.
• This phenomenon is the principle behind transformers, inductors, and many types of electrical generators.
• Michael Faraday
• He was an English scientist who contributed significantly to the study of electromagnetism and electrochemistry.
• Faraday's laws of electrolysis and his work on the Faraday effect are also notable contributions.
• Electric Generators
• Devices that convert mechanical energy into electrical energy using the principle of electromagnetic induction.
• Generators are widely used in power plants to produce electricity for homes and industries.
• Transformers
• Electrical devices that transfer electrical energy between two or more circuits through electromagnetic induction.
• They are used to increase (step-up) or decrease (step-down) voltage levels in power transmission and distribution systems.

The correct answer is Only ii and iii.

Key Points

• Agricultural Exports: During the Financial Year 2021-22, India's agricultural exports reached approximately USD 50.2 billion, reflecting a significant growth in the sector.
• Rice Procurement: During the Kharif Marketing Season 2021-22, India procured around 581.7 lakh metric tons of rice, indicating robust procurement policies.
• Growth Rate: The projected growth rate of the Indian agriculture sector for FY 2022-23 was not 5.5%; hence, statement i is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Agricultural Sector in India: The agriculture sector plays a crucial role in India's economy, contributing significantly to employment and GDP.
• Kharif Marketing Season: This season pertains to the agricultural cycle during which crops like rice are harvested, running from June to October.
• Export Growth: India's agricultural export growth is driven by factors like improved logistics, market access, and government support for farmers.
• Procurement Policies: Government procurement ensures stable prices for farmers and adequate food supply for public distribution systems.

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

• Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY) was launched in 2016 by the Government of India.
• The primary objective of the scheme is to promote employment generation by providing incentives to employers for generating new employment.
• Under PMRPY, the government pays the employer's contribution of 8.33% towards the Employees' Pension Scheme (EPS) for new employees for the first three years of their employment.
• This scheme aims to provide social security benefits and encourage employers to hire more workers in the formal sector.
• PMRPY is applicable to all sectors, with special focus on the manufacturing and service sectors.

Additional Information

• Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM)
• Launched in 2019, PM-SYM is a pension scheme for unorganized workers to ensure old age protection.
• It provides a minimum assured pension of ₹3000 per month after the age of 60 years.
• The scheme is available to workers in the age group of 18-40 years with a monthly income of ₹15,000 or less.
• The Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India manages the fund and pension payouts.
• Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)
• Launched in 2015, PMJJBY is a life insurance scheme providing a life cover of ₹2 lakhs for a premium of ₹436 per annum.
• It is available to individuals aged 18-50 years with a bank account.
• The cover is for one year, renewable from year to year.
• Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
• Launched in 2015, PMSBY is an accidental insurance scheme providing a cover of ₹2 lakhs for accidental death and full disability.
• It is available to individuals aged 18-70 years with a bank account for a premium of ₹12 per annum.
• The cover is for one year, renewable from year to year.
• Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)
• Launched in 2018, AB-PMJAY is the world's largest government-funded health assurance scheme.
• It provides health cover of ₹5 lakhs per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.
• The scheme targets more than 10 crore poor and vulnerable families (approximately 50 crore beneficiaries).

The correct answer is Lord Chelmsford and Edwin Montagu.

Key Points

• Lord Chelmsford served as the Viceroy of India from 1916 to 1921.
• Edwin Montagu was the Secretary of State for India from 1917 to 1922.
• The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms were introduced in 1918 and formed the basis of the Government of India Act, 1919.
• The reforms aimed to increase Indian participation in governance by introducing a dual system of administration known as "Dyarchy."
• The Government of India Act, 1919, laid the foundation for further constitutional developments in India.

Additional Information

• Dyarchy
• Dyarchy was a system of double government introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919.
• Under Dyarchy, provincial subjects were divided into "transferred" and "reserved" categories.
• Transferred subjects were administered by Indian ministers, while reserved subjects remained under British officials.
• Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
• The reforms sought to gradually introduce self-governance in India.
• It aimed to increase Indian control over domestic affairs while retaining British control over defense and foreign policy.
• The reforms led to the establishment of legislative councils at the provincial and central levels.
• Government of India Act, 1919
• Enacted to implement the recommendations of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
• Provided for a bicameral legislature at the central level.
• Marked a significant step towards self-governance in British India.
• Impact on Indian National Movement
• Although the reforms were seen as a step forward, they were criticized for not granting full self-governance.
• Led to increased political activity and the formation of various political groups.
• Set the stage for further constitutional reforms leading up to independence.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• The Mamallapuram Dance Festival is an annual event that celebrates Indian classical dance forms.
• It is organized in Mamallapuram, a town in the state of Tamil Nadu, India.
• The festival features performances of various Indian classical dance forms including Bharatanatyam, Kuchipudi, Kathak, Mohiniattam, Odissi, and Kathakali.
• The event usually takes place in the months of December and January, attracting numerous artists and tourists.
• Mamallapuram, also known as Mahabalipuram, is a UNESCO World Heritage site known for its ancient temples and rock-cut sculptures.

Additional Information

• Bharatanatyam is a classical dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate footwork.
• Kuchipudi is a classical Indian dance form from Andhra Pradesh, known for its fast rhythms and fluid movements.
• Kathak is a classical dance form from North India, characterized by intricate footwork and spins.
• Mohiniattam is a graceful dance form from Kerala, performed by women, and characterized by gentle and flowing movements.
• Odissi is a classical dance form from Odisha, known for its lyrical grace and sensuous movements.
• Kathakali is a classical dance-drama from Kerala, known for its elaborate costumes and expressive gestures.

The correct answer is Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.

Key Points

• Cherrapunji and Mawsynram are located in the Indian state of Meghalaya.
• Both places experience heavy rainfall due to the orographic lift of moist air from the Bay of Bengal.
• Mawsynram holds the record for the highest average annual rainfall, which exceeds 1,080 cm.
• Cherrapunji is also known for its record-setting rainfall, often competing with Mawsynram for the title of the wettest place on Earth.

Additional Information

• Orographic Rainfall: This occurs when moist air is forced to rise over a mountain, cooling and condensing to form precipitation.
• Meghalaya: A state in northeastern India, known for its hilly terrain and significant rainfall.
• Monsoon: Seasonal winds that bring heavy rains, especially to the Indian subcontinent, crucial for agriculture but also causing floods.
• Bay of Bengal: A large water body in the northeastern part of the Indian Ocean, contributing to the moisture-laden winds that impact rainfall in Cherrapunji and Mawsynram.

The correct answer is Dadra and Nagar Haveli & Daman and Diu.

Key Points

• According to the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) of India: A Progress Review 2023, Dadra and Nagar Haveli & Daman and Diu has the highest percentage of multidimensionally poor among the union territories.
• The MPI measures poverty based on various deprivations faced by individuals across health, education, and standard of living.
• As per the report, the percentage of population living in multidimensional poverty in Dadra and Nagar Haveli & Daman and Diu is significantly higher compared to other union territories.
• The high poverty rate in this union territory highlights the need for targeted policy interventions to address these deprivations.

Additional Information

• Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)
• The MPI is an international measure of acute poverty developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
• It identifies multiple deprivations at the household level in health, education, and standard of living.
• The index helps in understanding the complexities of poverty and formulating policies to address them.
• Health Indicators in MPI
• The health dimension includes indicators such as nutrition, child mortality, and access to basic health services.
• These indicators highlight the need for improved healthcare infrastructure and services.
• Education Indicators in MPI
• Education indicators comprise years of schooling and school attendance.
• They reflect the educational attainment and access to educational opportunities for individuals.
• Standard of Living Indicators in MPI
• This dimension includes indicators such as electricity, drinking water, sanitation, housing, cooking fuel, and assets.
• These indicators help in assessing the living conditions and quality of life of individuals.
• Policy Implications of MPI
• The MPI provides a comprehensive framework for policymakers to address poverty in a multidimensional manner.
• It helps in identifying the most vulnerable groups and prioritizing areas for intervention.

The correct answer is 153rd.

Key Points

• 2nd October 2022 marked the 153rd birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
• Mahatma Gandhi, born on 2nd October 1869, is widely recognized as the "Father of the Nation" in India.
• Gandhi Jayanti is observed across India to celebrate the life and contributions of Mahatma Gandhi.
• This day is also celebrated globally as the International Day of Non-Violence, as declared by the United Nations in 2007.
• Various events including prayer services, commemorative ceremonies, and cultural programs are organized to honor his legacy.

Additional Information

• Mahatma Gandhi
• Full name: Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi.
• He was a prominent leader in the Indian independence movement against British rule.
• Gandhi is known for his philosophy of non-violence (Ahimsa) and civil disobedience.
• He led several campaigns including the Non-Cooperation Movement, the Salt March, and the Quit India Movement.
• International Day of Non-Violence
• Established by the United Nations General Assembly in 2007.
• It is observed on 2nd October, the birthday of Mahatma Gandhi.
• This day is dedicated to spreading the message of non-violence through education and public awareness.
• Key Events on Gandhi Jayanti
• Prayers and tributes are offered at Raj Ghat, the memorial of Mahatma Gandhi in New Delhi.
• Schools and institutions organize essay competitions, art exhibitions, and plays based on Gandhi’s life and principles.
• Government officials and leaders pay homage to Gandhi by visiting his memorials and participating in commemorative events.
• Gandhi's Influence
• His principles of non-violence influenced global leaders like Martin Luther King Jr. and Nelson Mandela.
• Gandhi's teachings continue to inspire movements for civil rights and social justice around the world.
• His life and message are celebrated in literature, art, and popular culture.

The correct answer is Kabaddi.

Key Points

• Kabaddi was included as a discipline in the 11th Asian Games held in Beijing in 1990.
• This was the first time Kabaddi was featured in the Asian Games, marking its debut on the international stage.
• India has historically been dominant in Kabaddi, winning gold medals in this sport in several editions of the Asian Games.
• The inclusion of Kabaddi in the Asian Games helped in promoting the sport internationally and enhancing its popularity.
• Kabaddi is a traditional Indian sport that involves two teams, where players take turns to raid the opponent's half to score points.

Additional Information

• Asian Games: A continental multi-sport event held every four years among athletes from all over Asia. It is the second largest multi-sport event after the Olympic Games.
• Kabaddi: A contact team sport that originated in India, played between two teams of seven players each, where the objective is to score points by raiding the opponent's half and touching as many defenders as possible.
• Raid: An act of entering the opponent's half to tag defenders and score points, while holding one's breath and chanting "Kabaddi" continuously.
• Defenders: Players from the opposing team who try to tackle and prevent the raider from returning to their half.
• Scoring: Points are scored for each opponent tagged, and the raider must return to their half without being tackled. Additional points are scored for tackling the raider successfully.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

Key Points

• The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi, India in 1951.
• The event took place from March 4 to March 11, 1951.
• New Delhi was chosen as the host city due to its rapidly growing infrastructure and capability to host international events.
• The games were officially opened by the then President of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
• A total of 11 nations participated in the first Asian Games, competing in 57 events across 8 sports.

Additional Information

• Asian Games Federation
• The Asian Games are organized by the Asian Games Federation (AGF), which was later replaced by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).
• The AGF was established to promote sports and cultural interaction among Asian nations.
• Sports in the First Asian Games
• The sports included were Athletics, Aquatics, Basketball, Cycling, Football, Weightlifting, Wrestling, and Tennis.
• Japan topped the medal tally, followed by India.
• Significance of the Asian Games
• The Asian Games are the second largest multi-sport event after the Olympics.
• They serve as a platform for fostering regional cooperation and cultural exchange among Asian countries.
• Evolution of the Asian Games
• Since their inception, the Asian Games have grown significantly in terms of participation and the number of sports.
• The event is held every four years, with the next one scheduled for 2026 in Nagoya, Japan.

The correct answer is Pumpkin plant.

Key Points

• The pumpkin plant is a type of vine that can climb walls and other structures when provided with support.
• Pumpkin plants have tendrils that help them latch onto supports, enabling them to climb vertically.
• Supporting pumpkin plants helps maximize garden space and promotes better air circulation, reducing the risk of fungal diseases.
• Providing vertical support also keeps the pumpkins off the ground, reducing the likelihood of rot and pest damage.

Additional Information

• Types of Supports:
• Trellises: A framework of light wooden or metal bars, chiefly used as a support for fruit trees or climbing plants.
• Cages: Often used for growing tomatoes, these can also support pumpkin vines.
• Arbors: A garden structure providing vertical space for climbing plants.
• Benefits of Vertical Gardening:
• Efficient use of space, particularly in small gardens.
• Improved air circulation, which helps prevent disease.
• Ease of harvesting and maintenance.
• Pumpkin Varieties:
• Small Sugar: Ideal for cooking and baking.
• Jack Be Little: A miniature variety perfect for decorations.
• Atlantic Giant: Known for producing extremely large pumpkins.
• Growing Conditions:
• Sunlight: Requires full sun for optimal growth.
• Soil: Prefers well-drained, fertile soil.
• Watering: Needs consistent moisture, particularly during fruit set.

The correct answer is Articles 315 to 323.

Key Points

• Articles 315 to 323 of the Indian Constitution deal with the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
• Article 315 provides for the establishment of the UPSC and State Public Service Commissions.
• Article 316 outlines the appointment and term of office of members of the UPSC.
• Article 320 specifies the functions of the UPSC, which include conducting examinations for appointments to the services of the Union.
• Article 323 deals with the reports of the UPSC and the action taken on them.

Additional Information

• Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
• The UPSC is India's central recruiting agency responsible for appointments to and examinations for All India services and group A & group B of Central services.
• It is an independent constitutional body established under Article 315 of the Indian Constitution.
• The UPSC conducts various examinations including the Civil Services Examination, Engineering Services Examination, and Combined Defence Services Examination.
• The commission consists of a chairman and other members appointed by the President of India.
• State Public Service Commissions (SPSCs)
• Similar to the UPSC, each state has its own Public Service Commission which conducts exams for state-level civil services.
• SPSCs are established under the provisions of Article 315 of the Indian Constitution.
• The members of SPSCs are also appointed by the respective state's Governor.
• Joint Public Service Commission
• Article 315 also provides for the establishment of a Joint Public Service Commission for two or more states.
• This is established by an act of Parliament.
• The chairman and members of a Joint Public Service Commission are appointed by the President of India.
• UPSC's Role in Recruitment
• The UPSC is responsible for appointing officers to various civil services including IAS, IPS, IFS, and other central services.
• It also advises the government on matters related to recruitment, transfers, and disciplinary actions.
• The commission's examinations are known for their rigorous and comprehensive selection process.

Shortcut Trick

Numbers in continued proportion maintain a constant multiplying ratio between consecutive terms.

Multiplying factor = Second term ÷ First term = 48 ÷ 16 = 3

Third term = Second term × Multiplying factor

Third term = 48 × 3 = 144

∴ The correct answer is 144.

Alternate Method

Given:

First term (a) = 16

Second term (b) = 48

Formula Used:

If c is the third proportional to a and b, then a : b = b : c, which gives c = b² ÷ a.

16 1st Term

× 3

48 2nd Term

× 3

c = 144 3rd Term

16 : 48 = 48 : c

Calculations:

⇒ 16 / 48 = 48 / c

⇒ c = (48 × 48) ÷ 16

⇒ c = 48 × 3

⇒ c = 144

∴ The correct answer is 144.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is given by √(a × b).

Fourth Proportional

For three numbers a, b, and c, the fourth proportional d satisfies a : b = c : d, calculated as d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Continued Proportion

Numbers a, b, c, and d are in continued proportion if a / b = b / c = c / d.

Shortcut Trick

SI for 1 year = 42 ÷ 2 = ₹21

CI − SI difference for 2 years = 51 − 42 = ₹9

Rate % = (Difference ÷ 1st year SI) × 100 = (9 ÷ 21) × 100 = 300/7%

Principal = (1st year SI × 100) ÷ Rate %

Principal = (21 × 100) ÷ (300/7) = 21 × 7/3 = ₹49

∴ The correct answer is ₹49.

Alternate Method

Given:

Simple Interest (SI) for 2 years = ₹42

Compound Interest (CI) for 2 years = ₹51

Formula Used:

SI for 1 year = Total SI ÷ Time

Difference (CI − SI) for 2 years = Interest on first year's SI

Principal (P)

Total SI = ₹42

Year 1 SI ₹21

Year 2 SI ₹21

Int. on Year 1

• ₹9

Total CI = ₹51

Calculations:

⇒ Simple Interest for 1 year = 42 ÷ 2 = ₹21

⇒ Difference between CI and SI = 51 − 42 = ₹9

⇒ The difference of ₹9 is the interest generated on the first year's SI of ₹21.

⇒ Rate of Interest (R) = (9 ÷ 21) × 100 = 300/7%

⇒ Now, SI for 1 year = (P × R × 1) ÷ 100

⇒ 21 = (P × 300/7) ÷ 100

⇒ 21 = P × (3/7)

⇒ P = 21 × 7/3

⇒ P = 7 × 7 = ₹49

∴ The correct answer is ₹49.

Additional Information

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years

For a given principal (P) and rate (R), the direct difference for 2 years can also be calculated using Diff = P × (R/100)².

Difference between CI and SI for 3 years

For a time period of 3 years, the difference formula extends to Diff = P × (R/100)² × (3 + R/100).

Effective Rate of Compound Interest

For 2 years at rate R%, the effective compound interest rate is (2R + R²/100)%, whereas the simple interest rate remains exactly 2R%.

Shortcut Trick

The required number must be perfectly divisible by 15, 25, 40, and 75.

The LCM of 25 and 40 is 200, so any such common multiple must end with two zeros.

Among the given options (9600, 9960, 9975, and 9999), only 9600 ends with two zeros.

Also, 9600 is fully divisible by 15 and 75.

∴ The correct answer is 9600.

Alternate Method

Given:

Numbers: 15, 25, 40, and 75

Concept Used:

To find the largest number of a given number of digits divisible by a set of numbers, subtract the remainder when the largest possible number is divided by their LCM.

Calculation:

⇒ Prime factorization of 15 = 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 25 = 5²

⇒ Prime factorization of 40 = 2³ × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 75 = 3 × 5²

⇒ LCM of (15, 25, 40, 75) = 2³ × 3 × 5²

⇒ LCM = 8 × 3 × 25 = 600

⇒ The largest four-digit number is 9999.

⇒ Now, divide 9999 by the LCM (600):

⇒ 9999 ÷ 600 = 16 with a remainder of 399.

⇒ Required number = Largest 4-digit number − Remainder

⇒ Required number = 9999 − 399 = 9600

∴ The correct answer is 9600.

Additional Information

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

The LCM of two or more numbers is the smallest number which is completely divisible by each of the given numbers without leaving a remainder.

Smallest n-digit Number Divisible by given numbers

To find the smallest n-digit number perfectly divisible by a set of numbers, use the formula: Required = Smallest n-digit Number + (LCM − Remainder).

Divisibility Rule of 25 and 40

A number is divisible by 25 if its last two digits are 00, 25, 50, or 75. A number is divisible by 40 if it is simultaneously divisible by both 5 and 8.

Shortcut Trick

Total weight of all 3 persons = 3 × 46 = 138 kg.

Combined sum of the 2 overlapping pairs = (2 × 40) + (2 × 45) = 80 + 90 = 170 kg.

Akshay is counted twice in the sum of these two pairs.

⇒ Akshay's weight = Combined sum of pairs − Total weight of all 3

⇒ Akshay's weight = 170 − 138 = 32 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 32 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Average weight of Gopal, Akshay, and Atul = 46 kg

Average weight of Gopal and Akshay = 40 kg

Average weight of Akshay and Atul = 45 kg

Total = 138 kg

G + A = 80 kg

Gopal (G)

Akshay (A)

Atul (T)

A + T = 90 kg

Akshay = (80 + 90) − 138 = 32 kg

Calculations:

⇒ Total weight of Gopal + Akshay + Atul = 46 × 3 = 138 kg  ... (i)

⇒ Total weight of Gopal + Akshay = 40 × 2 = 80 kg  ... (ii)

⇒ Total weight of Akshay + Atul = 45 × 2 = 90 kg  ... (iii)

From equation (i) and (ii), we can find the weight of Atul:

⇒ Atul = Total weight − (Gopal + Akshay)

⇒ Atul = 138 − 80 = 58 kg

Substitute Atul's weight in equation (iii):

⇒ Akshay + 58 = 90

⇒ Akshay = 90 − 58 = 32 kg

∴ The correct answer is 32 kg.

Additional Information

Average Formula

Average = Sum of all observations ÷ Total number of observations.

Overlapping Groups

If the sum of parts exceeds the sum of the whole, the overlapping element is the exact difference between the combined parts and the total sum.

Net Deviation Method

The sum of deviations of all given observations from their exact true average is always zero.

Shortcut Trick

Using the weighted average method for percentage over the ratio of the number of papers:

Ratio of papers = 3 (Maths) : 2 (English) : 1 (Science)

Overall Percentage = (3 × 60% + 2 × 70% + 1 × 50%) ÷ (3 + 2 + 1)

⇒ Overall Percentage = (180% + 140% + 50%) ÷ 6 = 370% ÷ 6

⇒ Overall Percentage ≈ 61.67%

∴ The correct answer is 61.67%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of papers: Mathematics = 3, English = 2, Science = 1

Maximum marks for each paper = 100

Maths: 3 (60%) 180 Marks

English: 2 (70%) 140 Marks

Sci: 1 (50%) 50 M

Total Marks: 370 / 600 → 61.67%

Formula Used:

Overall Percentage = (Total Marks Obtained ÷ Total Maximum Marks) × 100

Calculations:

⇒ Total maximum marks = (3 × 100) + (2 × 100) + (1 × 100) = 300 + 200 + 100 = 600

⇒ Marks obtained in Mathematics = 60% of 300 = 180

⇒ Marks obtained in English = 70% of 200 = 140

⇒ Marks obtained in Science = 50% of 100 = 50

⇒ Total marks obtained = 180 + 140 + 50 = 370

⇒ Overall Percentage = (370 ÷ 600) × 100

⇒ Overall Percentage = 370 ÷ 6 ≈ 61.666...

⇒ Overall Percentage rounded to two decimal places = 61.67%

∴ The correct answer is 61.67%.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Method

When different quantities have varying weights or proportions, the weighted average is calculated as (w₁x₁ + w₂x₂ + ... + w_nx_n) ÷ (w₁ + w₂ + ... + w_n).

Percentage Change

To find the net increase or decrease on a base value, Percentage Change = (Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value × 100.

Base Independence in Ratios

If the base value of all items is strictly equal (e.g., 100 marks maximum for each paper), the direct ratio of the counts can be effectively used as their weights without needing the exact maximum values.

Shortcut Trick

Let Total Work = LCM of 32 and 48 = 96 units.

Efficiency of A = 3, Efficiency of B = 2 → Combined = 5 units/day.

Work done by A and B in 8 days = 8 × 5 = 40 units.

Remaining work = 96 − 40 = 56 units.

Time required for B to finish 60% of remaining work = (56 × 60/100) ÷ 2 = 33.6 ÷ 2 = 16.8 days.

∴ The correct answer is 16 ⁴/₅ days.

Alternate Method

Given:

Time taken by A to complete the work = 32 days

Time taken by B to complete the work = 48 days

A and B worked together for 8 days.

Calculations:

⇒ Total combined efficiency of A and B = 3 + 2 = 5 units/day

⇒ Work completed by A and B in 8 days = 8 × 5 = 40 units

⇒ Remaining work = 96 − 40 = 56 units

⇒ 60% of the remaining work = (60 / 100) × 56 = 33.6 units

⇒ Time taken by B to complete this 60% work = Work ÷ Efficiency of B

⇒ Time taken by B = 33.6 ÷ 2 = 16.8 days

⇒ 16.8 days = 16 ⁸/₁₀ days = 16 ⁴/₅ days

∴ The correct answer is 16 ⁴/₅ days.

Additional Information

LCM Method for Time & Work

Assuming the total work as the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the given individual days makes the calculations fraction-free. The efficiency is simply Total Work ÷ Number of Days.

Work & Efficiency Relationship

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time. A highly efficient person will take less time to finish the work. Work done = Efficiency × Time.

Leaving Mid-way Problems

Calculate the total work completed during the combined working period, subtract it from the total assumed work, and assign the remainder entirely to the remaining active workers.

Shortcut Trick

The LCM must be exactly divisible by all the given numbers: 28, 60, 120, and 135.

Since 135 = 27 × 5, the LCM must be a multiple of 5 (ending in 0 or 5) and 9 (sum of digits is a multiple of 9).

From the given options, 7626, 7569, and 7608 do not end in 0 or 5, so they are not divisible by 5.

Only 7560 ends in 0, and its digit sum is 7 + 5 + 6 + 0 = 18, which is divisible by 9.

∴ The correct answer is 7560.

Alternate Method

Given:

The numbers are 28, 60, 120, and 135.

Method Used:

Prime factorization method to find the Least Common Multiple (LCM).

Calculations:

⇒ Prime factorization of 28 = 2² × 7

⇒ Prime factorization of 60 = 2² × 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 120 = 2³ × 3 × 5

⇒ Prime factorization of 135 = 3³ × 5

⇒ The LCM is the product of the highest powers of all prime factors involved.

⇒ LCM = 2³ × 3³ × 5¹ × 7¹

⇒ LCM = 8 × 27 × 5 × 7

⇒ LCM = 40 × 189

⇒ LCM = 7560

∴ The correct answer is 7560.

Additional Information

Prime Factorization Method

To find the LCM, express each number as a product of prime factors and multiply the highest power of each distinct prime factor present.

Divisibility Rule of 9

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 9. This helps eliminate wrong options quickly in LCM and HCF problems.

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two numbers a and b, the product of their HCF and LCM is strictly equal to the product of the numbers themselves: HCF × LCM = a × b.

Shortcut Trick

For a dishonest shopkeeper selling at Cost Price (CP) but using false weights:

Profit % = [Error ÷ (Promised Weight − Error)] × 100

Profit % = [46 ÷ (100 − 46)] × 100

Profit % = (46 ÷ 54) × 100 = 2300 ÷ 27

∴ The correct answer is 85 ⁵/₂₇ %.

Alternate Method

Given:

The shopkeeper promises to sell his goods at cost price.

He uses a weight that is 46% less than the marked weight.

Formula Used:

Profit % = [(SP − CP) ÷ CP] × 100

54% (Given) 46% (Stolen)

Cost Price (CP)

Selling Price (SP) = 100% promised

Calculations:

⇒ Let the true weight be 100 units and the price of 1 unit be &rupee;1.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) of promised 100 units = &rupee;100

⇒ Weight actually given = 100 − 46 = 54 units

⇒ Cost Price (CP) for shopkeeper = Price of 54 units = &rupee;54

⇒ Profit = SP − CP = 100 − 54 = &rupee;46

⇒ Profit % = (Profit ÷ CP) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (46 ÷ 54) × 100

⇒ Profit % = (23 ÷ 27) × 100 = 2300 ÷ 27

⇒ Profit % = 85 ⁵/₂₇ %

∴ The correct answer is 85 ⁵/₂₇ %.

Additional Information

Dishonest Dealer Principle

When a shopkeeper claims to sell goods at the cost price but uses a faulty weight, the profit is generated solely from the weight stolen. The formula is: Profit % = (True Weight − False Weight) ÷ False Weight × 100.

Combined Profit (Markup + False Weight)

If a dealer marks up the price by P% and also uses a false weight that is W% less, the effective profit ratio can be evaluated using: SP / CP = (100 + P) / (100 − W).

Successive Percentage Change

When multiple percentage changes occur sequentially (e.g., markup then discount), the net percentage change is given by: Net change = x + y + (x × y) ÷ 100.

Shortcut Trick

Let the two numbers be in the ratio parts 4x and 9x.

Mean proportional = √(4x × 9x) = √(36x²) = 6x.

Since the mean proportional is 24, we get 6x = 24 ⇒ x = 4.

Positive difference between the numbers = 9x − 4x = 5x.

Difference = 5 × 4 = 20.

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of the two numbers = 4 : 9

Mean proportional between the numbers = 24

Formula Used:

Mean proportional between a and b = √(a × b)

Number 1 = 4x

Number 2 = 9x

Mean Prop = 6x = 24

Difference = 5x = 20

Calculations:

Let the two numbers be 4x and 9x.

⇒ Mean proportional = √(4x × 9x)

⇒ √(36x²) = 24

⇒ 6x = 24

⇒ x = 24 ÷ 6

⇒ x = 4

⇒ First number = 4 × 4 = 16

⇒ Second number = 9 × 4 = 36

⇒ Positive difference = 36 − 16 = 20

∴ The correct answer is 20.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional of two quantities a and b is given by √(a × b). It represents the value x where a : x = x : b.

Third Proportional

The third proportional to numbers a and b is a value c such that a : b = b : c. It is calculated using the formula c = b² ÷ a.

Fourth Proportional

The fourth proportional to numbers a, b, and c is a value d such that a : b = c : d. It is computed as d = (b × c) ÷ a.

Shortcut Trick

Volume of a cone (V) is proportional to r² × h.

Given r₁ : r₂ = 1 : 2 and h₁ : h₂ = 4 : 3.

Ratio of volumes = (1² × 4) : (2² × 3)

V₁ : V₂ = 4 : (4 × 3) = 4 : 12 = 1 : 3.

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 3.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio of heights (h₁ : h₂) = 4 : 3

Given: Ratio of radii (r₁ : r₂) = 1 : 2

Formula: Volume of cone (V) = (1/3) × π × r² × h

h1=4x

r1=1y

h2=3x

r2=2y Cone 1 Cone 2

⇒ V₁ / V₂ = [(1/3) × π × r₁² × h₁] / [(1/3) × π × r₂² × h₂]

⇒ V₁ / V₂ = (r₁ / r₂)² × (h₁ / h₂)

⇒ V₁ / V₂ = (1 / 2)² × (4 / 3)

⇒ V₁ / V₂ = (1 / 4) × (4 / 3)

⇒ V₁ / V₂ = 4 / 12 = 1 / 3

∴ The correct answer is 1 : 3.

Additional Information

Volume of a Cone

The volume is exactly one-third the volume of a cylinder with same base and height: V = (1/3)πr²h.

Slant Height

The slant height (l) is the distance from the apex to any point on the base circle: l = √(r² + h²).

Surface Area

Curved Surface Area = πrl and Total Surface Area = πr(l + r).

Shortcut Trick

Ketan's investment time = 22 − 11 = 11 years, and Tushar's investment time = 22 − 12 = 10 years.

Since they receive equal amounts at age 22, the ratio of their principals is inverse to the ratio of their compounding multipliers.

Tushar's share : Ketan's share = (1 + 8/100)¹¹⁻¹⁰ : 1 = 1.08 : 1 = 108 : 100 = 27 : 25.

Total ratio parts = 27 + 25 = 52 parts, which corresponds to the total wealth of ₹24700.

Tushar's share = (27 ÷ 52) × 24700 = 27 × 475 = ₹12825.

∴ The correct answer is ₹12825.

Alternate Method

Given:

Total initial money with Mandar = ₹24700

Ketan's age = 11 years, Tushar's age = 12 years

Target age for receiving the amount = 22 years

Rate of interest (R) = 8% compounded annually

Investment Timeline & Growth

Ketan (11 yrs) ₹ K

Tushar (12 yrs) ₹ T

Age 22 Amount Equal

Time = 11 Years @ 8%

Time = 10 Years @ 8%

Total Wealth = ₹24700 (K + T)

Formula Used:

Compound Interest Amount = P(1 + R/100)^T

Calculations:

⇒ Time duration for Ketan's investment = 22 − 11 = 11 years.

⇒ Time duration for Tushar's investment = 22 − 12 = 10 years.

⇒ Let Ketan's initial share be K and Tushar's initial share be T.

⇒ According to the problem, amounts received by both at age 22 are equal.

⇒ K(1 + 8/100)¹¹ = T(1 + 8/100)¹⁰

⇒ Dividing both sides by (1 + 8/100)¹⁰:

⇒ K(1 + 8/100)¹ = T

⇒ T / K = (100 + 8) / 100 = 108 / 100 = 27 / 25

⇒ The ratio of Tushar's share to Ketan's share is 27 : 25.

⇒ Sum of ratio parts = 27 + 25 = 52 parts.

⇒ Total value of 52 parts = ₹24700

⇒ Value of 1 part = 24700 ÷ 52 = ₹475

⇒ Amount given to Tushar initially (T) = 27 parts = 27 × 475 = 12825.

∴ The correct answer is ₹12825.

Additional Information

Equal Amount Distribution in CI

If an amount is divided between two individuals such that their shares become equal after t₁ and t₂ years respectively at R% compound interest, the ratio of their initial shares is P₁ : P₂ = (1 + R/100)^{t₂ − t₁}.

Compound Interest Formula

The amount A after time T with principal P and rate R% compounded annually is given by the equation A = P(1 + R/100)^T.

Rule of Present Value

When final future values are equal, the person who has a shorter time period for the money to grow requires a larger initial principal (Present Value) to reach the identical target amount.

Shortcut Trick

When equal distances are covered in both directions at speeds x and y, Average Speed = (2 × x × y) ÷ (x + y)

Here, outward speed x = 9 km/hr and return speed y = 18 km/hr.

⇒ Average Speed = (2 × 9 × 18) ÷ (9 + 18)

⇒ Average Speed = 324 ÷ 27 = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12 km/hr.

Alternate Method

Kolkata Ahmedabad

Distance is same for both trips

Speed = 9 km/hr

Speed = 18 km/hr

Given:

Speed outward = 9 km/hr

Speed return = 18 km/hr

Calculation:

Let the one-way distance be the LCM of speeds 9 and 18, which is 18 km.

⇒ Total distance covered = 18 km + 18 km = 36 km

⇒ Time taken for outward journey = Distance ÷ Speed = 18 ÷ 9 = 2 hours

⇒ Time taken for return journey = Distance ÷ Speed = 18 ÷ 18 = 1 hour

⇒ Total time taken = 2 + 1 = 3 hours

⇒ Average speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

⇒ Average speed = 36 ÷ 3 = 12

∴ The correct answer is 12 km/hr.

Additional Information

Average Speed for Different Distances

If multiple parts of a journey d₁, d₂, ... are covered in times t₁, t₂, ..., then the Average Speed = (d₁ + d₂ + ...) ÷ (t₁ + t₂ + ...).

Average Speed for Three Equal Distances

If three equal distances are covered at speeds x, y, and z, then Average Speed = (3 × x × y × z) ÷ (xy + yz + zx).

Unit Conversion Trick

To convert km/hr to m/s, multiply the speed by 5 ÷ 18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply the speed by 18 ÷ 5.

Shortcut Trick

When the sum of two successive discounts is constant, the effective discount is maximized when their numerical difference is maximum.

The sum of the discounts in all four schemes is exactly 40%.

Difference for each scheme: I = 0%, II = 10%, III = 20%, IV = 30%.

Scheme IV has the maximum difference (35% − 5% = 30%), hence it provides the maximum effective discount.

∴ The correct answer is Scheme IV.

Alternate Method

Given:

Four schemes of successive discounts on a book.

Formula Used:

Effective discount for two successive discounts a% and b% = [a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100]%

Effective Discount Comparison Scheme I

36% Scheme II

36.25% Scheme III

37% Scheme IV

38.25% (Max)

Calculations:

⇒ Effective discount for Scheme I = 20 + 20 − (20 × 20) ÷ 100

⇒ Scheme I = 40 − 4 = 36%

⇒ Effective discount for Scheme II = 25 + 15 − (25 × 15) ÷ 100

⇒ Scheme II = 40 − 3.75 = 36.25%

⇒ Effective discount for Scheme III = 30 + 10 − (30 × 10) ÷ 100

⇒ Scheme III = 40 − 3 = 37%

⇒ Effective discount for Scheme IV = 35 + 5 − (35 × 5) ÷ 100

⇒ Scheme IV = 40 − 1.75 = 38.25%

⇒ Comparing all the calculated effective discounts, 38.25% is the maximum overall discount.

∴ The correct answer is Scheme IV.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When two consecutive discounts of a% and b% are applied on a marked price, the net effective discount is given by the formula: (a + b − a×b÷100)%.

Maximizing Effective Discount

If the sum of multiple successive discounts is constant, the overall discount is highest when the product of the individual discounts is minimized. This occurs when their numerical difference is maximum.

Marked Price & Selling Price

A discount is always calculated over the Marked Price (MP). The Selling Price (SP) after a discount of d% is evaluated as SP = MP × (100 − d)÷100.

Buy X Get Y Free

A widely used alternative discounting model. The effective discount percentage equals (Free items ÷ Total items) × 100.

Given:

\(\left[(48 \div 8) \times\left{\frac{49}{7}+\frac{40}{4} \times(7-3)\right}\right]\)

Calculation:

[(48 ÷ 8) × {(49)/(7) + (40)/(4) × (7-3)}]

⇒ [(48 ÷ 8) × {(49)/(7) + (40)/(4) × (4)}]

⇒ [(48 ÷ 8) × {(49)/(7) + (10) × (4)}]

⇒ [(48 ÷ 8) × [7 + 40]

⇒ [6 × 47]

⇒ 282

∴ The correct answer is option (4).

Shortcut Trick

Relative speed (same direction) = 150 − 80 = 70 km/h = 70 × (5/18) = 175/9 m/s.

Total distance to cross = Sum of lengths = 210 + 140 = 350 m.

Time taken to cross = Distance ÷ Relative speed = 350 ÷ (175/9) = (350 × 9) / 175 = 18 seconds.

Converting seconds to minutes = 18 ÷ 60 = 0.3 minutes.

∴ The correct answer is 0.3 minutes.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the slower train (L₁) = 210 m

Length of the faster train (L₂) = 140 m

Speed of the slower train (S₁) = 80 km/h

Speed of the faster train (S₂) = 150 km/h

Formula Used:

Relative Speed (same direction) = S₂ − S₁

Speed in m/s = Speed in km/h × (5/18)

Total Distance = Sum of the lengths of both trains = L₁ + L₂

Time = Distance ÷ Speed

Slower Train (210 m)

80 km/h

Faster Train (140 m)

150 km/h

Relative distance = 140 m + 210 m = 350 m

Calculations:

⇒ Relative speed = 150 − 80 = 70 km/h

⇒ Converting into m/s = 70 × (5/18) = 175/9 m/s

⇒ Total distance to cross = 210 + 140 = 350 m

⇒ Time taken = 350 ÷ (175/9)

⇒ Time = (350 × 9) / 175

⇒ Time = 2 × 9 = 18 seconds

⇒ Converting to minutes = 18 ÷ 60 = 3/10 = 0.3 minutes

∴ The correct answer is 0.3 minutes.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in the Same Direction

When two objects move in the same direction, their relative speed is calculated by taking the difference between their individual speeds: S_relative = S₁ − S₂.

Relative Speed in the Opposite Direction

When two objects move towards each other (in opposite directions), their relative speed is calculated by adding their individual speeds: S_relative = S₁ + S₂.

Distance Covered During Crossing

To completely cross another train (whether moving or stationary) or a long object like a bridge/platform, the total distance that needs to be covered is always the sum of the lengths of both objects (Distance = L₁ + L₂).

Shortcut Trick

Since the profit is 8%, the Selling Price (SP) is 108% of the Cost Price (CP).

108% → ₹1,566

1% → 1,566 ÷ 108 = 14.5

100% → 14.5 × 100 = 1450

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,450.

Alternate Method

Given:

Selling Price (SP) = ₹1,566

Profit Percentage = 8%

Formula Used:

Cost Price (CP) = (SP × 100) ÷ (100 + Profit %)

+8% Profit

CP (100%) ?

SP (108%) ₹1,566

Calculations:

⇒ CP = (1566 × 100) ÷ (100 + 8)

⇒ CP = (1566 × 100) ÷ 108

⇒ CP = 14.5 × 100

⇒ CP = 1450

∴ The correct answer is ₹1,450.

Additional Information

Loss Percentage

When an article is sold at a loss, the Cost Price is calculated as: CP = (SP × 100) ÷ (100 − Loss %).

Marked Price & Discount

Discount is always given on the Marked Price (MP). The Selling Price is calculated as SP = MP × (100 − Discount %) ÷ 100.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of a% and b% are offered on an item, the equivalent single discount is given by: (a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100)%.

Shortcut Trick

The difference in interest is entirely due to the difference in principal amounts.

Principal difference = ₹9400 − ₹5400 = ₹4000

Interest difference (SI) = (ΔP × R × T) ÷ 100

840 = (4000 × R × 5) ÷ 100

840 = 200 × R ⇒ R = 4.2%

∴ The correct answer is 4.2%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Vipul's Principal (P₁) = ₹5400

Vijay's Principal (P₂) = ₹9400

Time (T) = 5 years

Difference in interest = ₹840

Formula Used:

Simple Interest = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Vipul: ₹5400

Vijay: ₹9400

Diff = ₹4000

Interest on Diff for 5 yrs = ₹840

R = (840 × 100) ÷ (4000 × 5) R = 4.2%

Calculations:

⇒ Vijay's Interest − Vipul's Interest = 840

⇒ [(P₂ × R × T) ÷ 100] − [(P₁ × R × T) ÷ 100] = 840

⇒ [(9400 × R × 5) ÷ 100] − [(5400 × R × 5) ÷ 100] = 840

⇒ 470 × R − 270 × R = 840

⇒ 200 × R = 840

⇒ R = 840 ÷ 200 = 4.2

∴ The correct answer is 4.2%.

Additional Information

Simple Interest (SI)

SI is calculated only on the principal amount, which remains constant throughout the tenure. Formula: SI = (P × R × T) ÷ 100.

Compound Interest (CI)

CI is calculated on the principal as well as the accumulated interest of previous periods. Formula: A = P(1 + R/100)^T.

Difference between CI and SI

For 2 years, the difference between CI and SI is given by: D = P(R/100)². For 3 years: D = P(R/100)² × (3 + R/100).

Shortcut Trick

Let the initial expenditure be 100.

Expenditure corresponding to the new price = 100 + 85 = 185.

Allowed expenditure = 100 + 48 = 148.

Reduction needed in consumption = 185 − 148 = 37.

Percentage reduction = (37 ÷ 185) × 100 = 20%.

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Increase in petrol price = 85%

Maximum allowed increase in expenditure = 48%

Formula Used:

Expenditure = Price × Consumption

Consumption = Expenditure ÷ Price

100 148 185

Initial Desired Exp. Price Base

Price increase +85%

Reduction = 37

Decrease % = (37 ÷ 185) × 100 = 20%

Calculations:

⇒ Let the original price be ₹100 and original consumption be 100 litres.

⇒ Original Expenditure = 100 × 100 = 10000

⇒ New Price = 100 + 85% of 100 = ₹185

⇒ New Expenditure = 10000 + 48% of 10000 = 14800

⇒ New Consumption = New Expenditure ÷ New Price

⇒ New Consumption = 14800 ÷ 185 = 80 litres

⇒ Decrease in consumption = Original − New = 100 − 80 = 20 litres

⇒ Percentage decrease = (20 ÷ 100) × 100 = 20%

∴ The correct answer is 20%.

Additional Information

Price and Consumption Rule

If the price of a commodity increases by x%, the reduction in consumption to keep expenditure constant is given by [x ÷ (100 + x)] × 100%. In cases where expenditure also changes, direct base scaling is preferred.

Successive Percentage Change

Net percentage change when two changes a% and b% are applied successively is calculated as: a + b + (a × b ÷ 100).

Base Change Method

Whenever expenditure changes along with price, shift the base to the new price equivalent (e.g., 185) and calculate the difference with the desired expenditure (e.g., 148) to easily spot the required percentage drop.

Shortcut Trick

Successive percentage change = a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100

Net % change = −15 + 20 + (−15 × 20) ÷ 100

Net % change = 5 − 3 = 2%

This means the final number is 2% more than the original number.

Given 2% of the number = 78

Original number (100%) = 78 ÷ 2 × 100 = 3900

∴ The correct answer is 3900.

Alternate Method

Given:

Initial percentage decrease = 15%

Subsequent percentage increase = 20%

The final number is 78 more than the original number.

100x

85x

102x

−15%

+20%

Net Increase = 2x = 78

Calculations:

⇒ Let the original number be 100x.

⇒ Number after 15% decrease = 100x − (15 ÷ 100 × 100x)

⇒ Number after 15% decrease = 100x − 15x = 85x

⇒ Number after 20% increase = 85x + (20 ÷ 100 × 85x)

⇒ Number after 20% increase = 85x + 17x = 102x

⇒ Final increase in number = 102x − 100x = 2x

⇒ Given that the net increase is 78:

⇒ 2x = 78

⇒ x = 39

⇒ Original number = 100x = 100 × 39 = 3900

∴ The correct answer is 3900.

Additional Information

Successive Percentage Change

When a value is subjected to multiple percentage changes continuously, the net percentage change is given by the formula: Net % = a + b + (a × b) ÷ 100. Always use a positive sign for increment and a negative sign for decrement.

Base Change in Percentage

In successive percentage operations, the base for the second calculation is always the new intermediate value generated after the first step, and not the initial original value.

Multiplying Factor Method

Increasing a quantity by x% is mathematically equivalent to directly multiplying it by (1 + x ÷ 100). Similarly, decreasing a value by x% is equivalent to multiplying it by (1 − x ÷ 100).

Shortcut Trick

Let the numbers be 11x and 11y (where x, y are co-prime).

Sum = 11(x + y) = 132 ⇒ x + y = 12

Valid co-prime pairs for sum 12 are (1, 11) and (5, 7).

For (5, 7), the numbers are 55 and 77 (since both must be > 42).

Difference = 77 − 55 = 22

∴ The correct answer is 22.

Alternate Method

Given:

HCF of the two numbers = 11

Sum of the two numbers = 132

Condition: Both numbers are greater than 42

Formula Used:

Any two numbers can be written as (HCF × a) and (HCF × b), where a and b are co-prime integers.

Sum = 132 | HCF = 11

Number 1

11 × 5 = 55

Number 2

11 × 7 = 77

Diff = 22

Calculations:

⇒ Let the two numbers be 11a and 11b, where a and b are co-prime.

⇒ Sum of the numbers = 11a + 11b = 132

⇒ 11(a + b) = 132

⇒ a + b = 132 ÷ 11 = 12

⇒ The possible integer pairs of (a, b) whose sum is 12 are: (1, 11), (2, 10), (3, 9), (4, 8), (5, 7), and (6, 6).

⇒ Since a and b must be co-prime (having no common factor other than 1), the valid pairs are (1, 11) and (5, 7).

⇒ Case 1: If a = 1 and b = 11 ⇒ The numbers are (11 × 1) = 11 and (11 × 11) = 121. (Rejected because 11 is not greater than 42).

⇒ Case 2: If a = 5 and b = 7 ⇒ The numbers are (11 × 5) = 55 and (11 × 7) = 77. (Accepted because both 55 and 77 are greater than 42).

⇒ The difference between the two numbers = 77 − 55 = 22.

∴ The correct answer is 22.

Additional Information

Co-prime Numbers

Two numbers are said to be co-prime if their Highest Common Factor (HCF) is exactly 1. When dividing two numbers by their HCF, the resulting quotients must always be co-prime.

Relation between HCF and LCM

For any two numbers, the product of their HCF and LCM is strictly equal to the product of the numbers themselves: HCF × LCM = Number₁ × Number₂.

LCM Formula from Ratios

If two numbers are in the ratio a : b (where a and b are co-prime), their Least Common Multiple (LCM) is calculated directly as HCF × a × b.

The correct answer is 'clear'.

 

Key Points

• The word "clear" means easy to understand, free of ambiguity. (स्पष्ट)
• Giving clear instructions ensures that the students understand what is expected of them during the exam.
• The other options: "strong," "great," and "careful" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: The teacher gave the students clear instructions before the exam.

Additional Information

• Strong (मजबूत): means having great physical power.
• Great (महान): means of an extent, amount, or intensity considerably above the normal or average.
• Careful (सावधान): means making sure of avoiding potential danger, mishap, or harm; cautious.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The word "asignment" is a misspelling of the word "assignment".
• ​"Assignment" refers to a task or piece of work allocated to someone as part of a job or course of study. (असाइनमेंट)
• Example: The students had to complete their assignment by the end of the week.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• assignmant (गलत वर्तनी): This is a misspelling of the word "assignment".
• ​asignmant (गलत वर्तनी ): This is a misspelling of the word "assignment".
• ​essignment (गलत वर्तनी): This is a misspelling of the word "assignment".

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "arrogant" means having an exaggerated sense of one's own importance or abilities. (अहंकारी)
• Example: The arrogant manager refused to listen to any suggestions from his team.
• "Humble" refers to having or showing a modest or low estimate of one's own importance. (विनम्र)
• Example: Despite his great achievements, he remained humble and always gave credit to his team.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'arrogant' is 'humble'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Creepy (डरावना): Causing an unpleasant feeling of fear or unease.
• Example: The old house had a creepy atmosphere that scared everyone away.
• Clumsy (अनाड़ी): Awkward in movement or handling things.
• Example: He is so clumsy that he often drops and breaks things.
• Average (औसत): Of the usual or ordinary standard, level, or quantity.
• Example: Her performance was just average, nothing extraordinary.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "Broad" means having an ample distance from side to side; wide. (चौड़ा)
• Example: The road was broad enough to accommodate four lanes of traffic.
• "Wide" refers to having a great extent from side to side. (विस्तृत)
• Example: The river was too wide to cross without a bridge.
• Hence, we can infer that the synonym of 'Broad' is 'Wide'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Particular (विशेष): Specific or distinct.
• Example: She wanted that particular dress for her birthday.
• Exact (सटीक): Precise, correct in all details.
• Example: He gave the exact measurements for the project.
• Small (छोटा): Of a size that is less than normal or usual.
• Example: She lives in a small apartment in the city.

The correct answer is: Option 3 i.e., Hide.

Key Points

• The word "Flaunt" means to display (something) ostentatiously, especially in order to provoke envy or admiration or to show defiance. (दिखावा करना)
• Example: She likes to flaunt her wealth by wearing expensive jewelry.
• "Hide" means to conceal oneself or something from sight; prevent someone from being seen. (छिपाना)
• Example: He would hide his snacks in a drawer to keep them safe from his siblings.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'Flaunt' is 'Hide'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3 i.e., Hide.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Wide (चौड़ा): Having a larger extent from side to side than is usual or expected.
• Example: The river is very wide at this point.
• Parade (परेड ): A public procession, especially one celebrating a special day or event.
• Example: The parade for Independence Day was spectacular.
• Open (खुला): Not closed or fastened.
• Example: The door was left open accidentally.

The correct answer is 'across'.

 

Key Points

• The preposition "across" is used to indicate movement from one side to another side of a place or area.
• In this context, the dog is running from one side of the garden to the other while chasing the cat.
• The other options: "at," "on," and "between" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

Complete Sentence: The dog ran across the garden chasing the cat.

Additional Information

• At: used to indicate a specific location or point.
• On: used to indicate a position above something and in contact with it.
• Between: used to indicate a position in the middle of two points.

The correct answer is 'hair'.

 

Key Points

• The word "hair" refers to the strands growing from the scalp or body. (बाल)
• The sentence implies that having grey hair is not necessarily an indicator of wisdom.
• The other options: "heir," "air," and "hare" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

Complete Sentence: Grey hair is no sure sign of attaining wisdom.

Additional Information

• Heir (उत्तराधिकारी): a person legally entitled to the property or rank of another on that person's death.
• Air (वायु): the invisible gaseous substance surrounding the earth.
• Hare (खरगोश): a fast-running, long-eared mammal resembling a large rabbit.

The correct answer is: Option 3.

Key Points

• The idiom "Man of straw" refers to:
• A person who is disregarded as lacking character or morality. (चरित्र या नैतिकता की कमी के कारण उपेक्षित व्यक्ति)
• Example: He was considered a man of straw because he never stood up for what he believed in.
• The correct word "Man of straw" means:
• A person who is weak and lacks substance, often used to describe someone without real power or influence. (कमजोर और महत्वहीन व्यक्ति)
• Example: Despite his loud claims, everyone knew he was just a man of straw with no real influence.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 3.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 1: A combination of two people that is perfect in every way. (दो लोगों का ऐसा संयोजन जो हर तरह से परिपूर्ण हो)
• Example: They are often seen as the ideal couple, a combination of two people that is perfect in every way.
• Option 2: A child of a celebrity or a famous person. (किसी प्रसिद्ध व्यक्ति का बच्चा)
• Example: Being a child of a celebrity, she was always in the limelight.
• Option 4: A situation like a close contest. (एक करीबी प्रतियोगिता जैसी स्थिति)
• Example: The match was a close contest, with both teams giving their best.

The correct answer is: Option 2.

Key Points

• The word "destruction" means the action or process of causing so much damage to something that it no longer exists or cannot be repaired. (विनाश)
• Example: The hurricane caused widespread destruction in the coastal areas.
• "Creation" refers to the action or process of bringing something into existence. (सृजन)
• Example: The creation of the new park has added a beautiful green space to the city.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'destruction' is 'creation'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 2.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Condition (स्थिति): The state of something with regard to its appearance, quality, or working order.
• Example: The condition of the old house was deteriorating rapidly.
• Choice (विकल्प): An act of selecting or making a decision when faced with two or more possibilities.
• Example: She had to make a difficult choice between her career and her family.
• Contribution (योगदान): A gift or payment to a common fund or collection.
• Example: His contribution to the charity was greatly appreciated.

The correct answer is 'desecrate'.

 

Key Points

• The word "desecrate" means to treat (a sacred place or thing) with violent disrespect; violate. (अपवित्र करना)
• Desecrating places of worship is considered highly offensive and wrong by both religious and societal standards.
• The other options: "upright," "disapprove," and "modest" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: It is a sin against God and humanity to desecrate places of religious worship.

Additional Information

• Upright (ईमानदार): means strictly honorable or honest.
• Disapprove (अस्वीकृत करना): means to have an unfavorable opinion about something.
• Modest (विनम्र): means unassuming or moderate in the estimation of one's abilities or achievements.

The correct answer is: Option 4.

Key Points

• The phrase "think creatively and unconventionally" means to approach problems or tasks in an original and innovative way, often by considering unusual or unconventional solutions. (रचनात्मक और पारंपरिक तरीके से सोचना)
• Example: When it comes to marketing strategies, she always thinks creatively and unconventionally to come up with unique campaigns that stand out.
• "Think outside the box" is an idiom that describes the ability to think creatively, unorthodoxly, or from a new perspective. (नए दृष्टिकोण से सोचना)
• Example: Successful entrepreneurs often think outside the box to develop groundbreaking products and services.
• Hence, we can infer that the most appropriate idiom to substitute the underlined segment is 'think outside the box'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 4.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Outside the wire (तार के बाहर): Typically refers to being beyond a secured or safe area, often used in military contexts.
• Example: The soldiers were instructed not to venture outside the wire after dark.
• Outside the canvas (कैनवास के बाहर): Not a commonly used idiom, could imply thinking beyond the usual artistic boundaries.
• Example: The artist was known for her unique style, always thinking outside the canvas.
• Outside the law (कानून के बाहर): Refers to actions that are illegal or not within the bounds of the law.
• Example: The vigilante operated outside the law, taking justice into his own hands.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the incorrect form of the adjective. The word "clear" should be "clearly" to correctly modify the verb "articulating".
• Adverbs are used to modify verbs, adjectives, or other adverbs, and in this case, "clearly" is the appropriate adverbial form.
• The correct phrase should be "articulating his thoughts clearly," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
• Thus, the error is located in part B of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is B.

 

Correct Sentence: "He spoke passionately about his favourite book, articulating his thoughts clearly and engaging everyone in a lively discussion about its themes."

 

Additional Information

• A: "He spoke passionately about his favourite book," – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• C: "and engaging everyone in a lively discussion" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• D: "about its themes." – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.

The correct answer is 'ourselves'.

 

Key Points

• The word "ourselves" is a reflexive pronoun used to indicate that the subject and the object of the verb are the same group. (हम स्‍वयं)
• The use of "ourselves" emphasizes that the project will be completed by the group without any external help.
• The other options: "oneself," "itself," and "themselves" do not fit the context as appropriately.

​Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

Complete Sentence: We will complete the project ourselves without external help.

Additional Information

• Oneself (स्वयं): refers to a person’s own self and is typically used in a singular context.
• Itself (स्वयं): refers to a thing's own self and is used for non-living things or animals in a singular context.
• Themselves (खुद): is a reflexive pronoun used for referring to a group of people or things previously mentioned as the subject of the clause.

The correct answer is: Option 1.

Key Points

• The word "essey" is incorrectly spelt. It should be "essay", which means a short piece of writing on a particular subject. (निबंध)
• ​"Essay" correctly refers to a short piece of writing on a particular subject. (निबंध)
• Example: She spent the weekend writing an essay for her literature class.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option 1.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Option 2: Scientist (वैज्ञानिक): A person who is studying or has expert knowledge of one or more of the natural or physical sciences.
• Example: The scientist discovered a new species of plant in the rainforest.
• Option 3: Bakery (बेकरी): A place where bread and cakes are made and sometimes sold.
• Example: We bought some fresh bread from the bakery.
• Option 4: Cinematography (छायांकन): The art of making motion pictures.
• Example: The film was praised for its innovative cinematography.

The correct answer is Option 2.

 

Key Points

• The primary issue in the sentence is the tense inconsistency in part 2, where "realises" should be "realized" to maintain past tense consistency.
• The correct phrase should be "until she realized," ensuring grammatical correctness and clarity.
• Thus, the error is located in part 2 of the sentence.

Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

 

Correct Sentence: "Alka had been writing to her boss until she realized that he was not interested in resolving her issues."

 

Additional Information

• 1: "Alka had been writing" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• 3: "that he was not interested in resolving her issues" – This part of the sentence is grammatically correct and does not require any changes.
• 4: "No error" – This would be the correct option if there were no mistakes in the sentence, but there is an error in part 2.

The correct answer is 'pleasant'.

 

Key Points

• The passage describes the experience of being alone in a carriage in positive terms.
• "Pleasant" appropriately describes a positive sense of freedom.
• "Pleasant" fits well with the overall tone of the passage, which conveys a sense of enjoyment and liberty.
• Other options ("tedious", "contemptuous", "baleful") have negative connotations and do not match the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: There is a pleasant sense of freedom about being alone in a carriage that is jolting noisily through the night. It is liberty unrestrained in a very (2) ______ form. You can do anything you like. You can talk to (3) ______ as loud as you please and no one will hear you. You can have that argument out with Jones and roll him triumphantly in the dust (4) ________ fear of a counterstroke. You can stand on your head and no one will see you. You can sing or dance a two-step or practise a golf stroke, (5) ______ play marbles on the floor without let or hindrance.

 

Additional Information

• Tedious: Incorrect as it implies boredom and does not fit the positive tone of the passage.
• Contemptuous: Incorrect as it suggests disdain and is not relevant to the context.
• Baleful: Incorrect as it signifies harm or malice, which is contrary to the positive sentiment conveyed.

The correct answer is 'agreeable'.

 

Key Points

• The passage talks about a sense of freedom while being alone in a carriage.
• The word should suggest that the form of liberty is one that can be enjoyed or is pleasant in its simplicity.
• "Agreeable" means pleasant or enjoyable, aligning with the description of liberty.
• Other options ("detestable", "humour", "miserable") do not fit the context of describing an enjoyable or pleasant form of liberty.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

 

Complete Passage: There is a pleasant sense of freedom about being alone in a carriage that is jolting noisily through the night. It is liberty unrestrained in a very agreeable form. You can do anything you like. You can talk to (3) ______ as loud as you please and no one will hear you. You can have that argument out with Jones and roll him triumphantly in the dust (4) ________ fear of a counterstroke. You can stand on your head and no one will see you. You can sing or dance a two-step or practise a golf stroke, (5) ______ play marbles on the floor without let or hindrance.

 

Additional Information

• Detestable (घिनौना): "Detestable" means deserving intense dislike, which contradicts the sense of freedom being discussed.
• Humour (मज़ाक): "Humour" means the quality of being amusing, which does not convey the intended idea of freedom in form.
• Miserable (दुखी): "Miserable" means very unhappy or uncomfortable, which is the opposite of the pleasant sense of freedom mentioned.

The correct answer is 'yourself'.

 

Key Points

• The passage is narrated in the second person, addressing the reader directly.
• "Yourself" aligns with the second-person perspective used throughout the passage.
• "yourself" is the appropriate pronoun to refer to the reader, fitting naturally in the context.
• Other options ("ourselves", "herself", "himself") do not fit the second-person narrative style.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 4'.

 

Complete Passage: There is a pleasant sense of freedom about being alone in a carriage that is jolting noisily through the night. It is liberty unrestrained in a very agreeable form. You can do anything you like. You can talk to yourself as loud as you please and no one will hear you. You can have that argument out with Jones and roll him triumphantly in the dust (4) ________ fear of a counterstroke. You can stand on your head and no one will see you. You can sing or dance a two-step or practise a golf stroke, (5) ______ play marbles on the floor without let or hindrance.

 

Additional Information

• Ourselves: Not suitable since the passage uses the second-person perspective, addressing "you".
• Herself: Incorrect as it uses the third-person perspective and does not fit the context.
• Himself: Also incorrect as it uses the third-person perspective, inappropriate for this passage.

The correct answer is 'without'.

 

Key Points

• The context of the sentence suggests that you can act freely ("roll him triumphantly in the dust") without worrying about repercussions ("fear of a counterstroke").
• "Without" best conveys the idea of not having to fear any counter-attacks or responses.
• "Without" aligns well with the intended meaning, indicating an absence of fear.
• Other options ("in", "for", "with") do not convey this absence of fear and are grammatically incorrect in the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: There is a pleasant sense of freedom about being alone in a carriage that is jolting noisily through the night. It is liberty unrestrained in a very agreeable form. You can do anything you like. You can talk to yourself as loud as you please and no one will hear you. You can have that argument out with Jones and roll him triumphantly in the dust without fear of a counterstroke. You can stand on your head and no one will see you. You can sing or dance a two-step or practise a golf stroke, (5) ______ play marbles on the floor without let or hindrance.

 

Additional Information

• In: Incorrect as it does not convey the idea of absence of fear in the context.
• For: Incorrect as it changes the intended meaning and is grammatically improper.
• With: Incorrect as it implies having the fear, which is the opposite of what is meant.

The correct answer is 'or'.

 

Key Points

• The passage lists various activities, suggesting a choice between them.
• "Or" is the logical conjunction used to list alternatives and options.
• "Or" connects with the structure of the sentence, enumerating the activities one can do without hindrance.
• Other options ("yet", "but", "because") do not fit the context of listing alternatives and are grammatically incorrect in the context.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Complete Passage: There is a pleasant sense of freedom about being alone in a carriage that is jolting noisily through the night. It is liberty unrestrained in a very agreeable form. You can do anything you like. You can talk to yourself as loud as you please and no one will hear you. You can have that argument out with Jones and roll him triumphantly in the dust without fear of a counterstroke. You can stand on your head and no one will see you. You can sing or dance a two-step or practise a golf stroke, or play marbles on the floor without let or hindrance.

 

Additional Information

• Yet: Incorrect as it suggests a contrast rather than listing alternatives.
• But: Incorrect as it implies a contrast rather than offering another option.
• Because: Incorrect as it introduces a reason rather than listing choices.

वाक्य में 'ग्राह्य' शब्द का विलोम होगा - त्याज्य

Key Points

• 'ग्राह्य' शब्द का विलोम शब्द 'त्याज्य' होगा।
• 'ग्राह्य' शब्द का अर्थ है - ग्रहण करने योग्य।
• 'त्याज्य' शब्द का अर्थ - त्यागने योग्य, जो छोड़ देने योग्य हो।
• विलोम - जो शब्द किसी एक शब्द के विपरीत अर्थ को व्यक्त करते हैं, वे विलोम शब्द कहलाते हैं।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information कुछ अन्य महत्वपूर्ण विलोम शब्द -

उचित मुहावरे का प्रयोग नहीं किया गया है - तुमने मेरा इतना पैसा ले रखा है, लेकिन मुझे देखते ही कनी चाटने लगते हो।

Key Points

• 'कन्नी काटना' का अर्थ - आँख बचाकर निकलना', 'सामने ना पड़ना।
• वाक्य प्रयोग - तुमने मेरा इतना पैसा ले रखा है, लेकिन मुझे देखते ही "कनी काटने लगते हो"।
• मुहावरा - ऐसे वाक्यांश, जो सामान्य अर्थ का बोध न कराकर किसी विलक्षण अर्थ को प्रकट करते है, उसे मुहावरा कहते है।
• उदाहरण के लिए -'कोल्हू का बैल' का अर्थ - बहुत अधिक परिश्रम करने वाला,
• वाक्य प्रयोग - धीरू चौबीस घण्टे काम करता हैं, वह तो "कोल्हू का बैल हैं"।​

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information

शुद्ध वाक्य है- मेरे पास केवल एक घड़ी है।

Key Points

• शुद्ध वाक्य - मेरे पास केवल एक घड़ी है।
• वाक्य में लिंग, वचन, पुरुष, काल, कारक आदि का क्रिया के साथ ठीक-ठीक मेल हो, उसे शुद्ध वाक्य कहते है।

अन्य विकल्प-

Additional Information शब्द पुनरावृत्ति संबंधी अशुद्धियाँ - 

विशेषण युक्त पद नहीं है - उत्तर चढ़ाव

Key Points

• 'उत्तर' व 'चढ़ाव' दोनों विशेष्य शब्द है।
• जिस संज्ञा और सर्वनाम की विशेषता बताई जाती है, उसे विशेष्य कहते हैं।
• जैसे- मोहन परिश्रमी लड़का है। यहाँ 'परिश्रमी' विशेषण हैं तथा 'मोहन' और लड़का' विशेष्य हैं।

अन्य विकल्प -​

Additional Information 

 विशेषण-

• जो शब्द गुण, दोष, भाव, संख्या, परिणाम आदि से संबंधित विशेषता का बोध कराते हैं, उसे विशेषण कहते हैं।
• जैसे- बड़ा, काला, लम्बा, दयालु, भारी, सुंदर, कायर, टेढ़ा-मेढ़ा, एक, दो, वीर पुरुष, गोरा, अच्छा, बुरा, मीठा, खट्टा आदि।
• जैसे- सुनीता सुंदर है।