SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

7100 Total Questions284 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 1741–1760 of 7100Page 88 of 100
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1741

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

The Permanent Settlement came into operation in which of the following years?

  1. AOption (a)

    1890

  2. BOption (b)

    1790

  3. COption (c)

    1789

  4. DOption (d)

    1793

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1793

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1793.

Key Points

  • The Permanent Settlement was introduced by the East India Company during the tenure of Lord Cornwallis in 1793.
  • It was an agreement between the East India Company and Bengali landlords to fix revenues to be raised from land.
  • This system was primarily implemented in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.
  • Under this system, the Zamindars were recognized as the owners of the land and were responsible for collecting and paying the fixed revenue to the Company.

Additional Information

  • Permanent Settlement
  • The Permanent Settlement was also known as the Zamindari System.
  • The Zamindars were required to pay a fixed amount of revenue to the East India Company, irrespective of the agricultural yield.
  • This system aimed to ensure a stable revenue for the Company and incentivize Zamindars to improve agricultural practices.
  • However, it led to the exploitation of peasants and did not significantly improve agricultural productivity.
  • Lord Cornwallis
  • He was the Governor-General of India from 1786 to 1793.
  • He introduced several reforms in the administration, judiciary, and revenue systems of India.
  • The Cornwallis Code, introduced in 1793, aimed to overhaul the administrative structure in British India.
  • He is credited with laying the foundation of a structured administration in India.
  • Impact of Permanent Settlement
  • The system led to the emergence of a new class of landlords who were loyal to the British.
  • It created a stark divide between the Zamindars and the peasants, leading to widespread poverty and indebtedness among the latter.
  • The rigidity of the revenue demand often led to the transfer of land ownership and distress sales.
  • The system was criticized for its failure to promote agricultural development and for exacerbating social inequalities.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1742

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements related to the Online Dispute Resolution (ODR) handbook.

1.It will be launched by the Ministry of Science and Technology.

2.ODR is the resolution for cases outside courts using digital technology and techniques of Alternative Dispute Resolution

(ADR), such as negotiation, mediation and arbitration.

3.The development of ICT and increased use of internet has played a major role for ODR.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 2 and 3.

Key Points

  • Statement 2 is correct because ODR refers to resolving disputes outside the courts using digital technology and techniques such as negotiation, mediation, and arbitration.
  • Statement 3 is correct because the development of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) and increased use of the internet have significantly contributed to the growth and implementation of ODR.
  • Statement 1 is incorrect because the ODR handbook is not launched by the Ministry of Science and Technology. It is typically associated with the Ministry of Law and Justice or other relevant legal bodies.
  • Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Additional Information

  • Online Dispute Resolution (ODR)
  • ODR is a mechanism for resolving disputes via the internet and other digital means, bypassing the need for physical presence in a courtroom.
  • ODR often involves the use of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) techniques such as negotiation, mediation, and arbitration.
  • It aims to make the dispute resolution process more efficient, accessible, and cost-effective.
  • ODR can be particularly beneficial for cross-border disputes, where parties are located in different countries.
  • Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)
  • ADR encompasses various methods for resolving disputes outside traditional judicial processes.
  • Common ADR techniques include negotiation, mediation, arbitration, and conciliation.
  • ADR is favored for its ability to provide more flexible, speedy, and amicable solutions compared to court litigation.
  • It is often less formal, less expensive, and can be tailored to the specific needs of the parties involved.
  • Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
  • ICT refers to technologies that provide access to information through telecommunications.
  • It includes the internet, wireless networks, cell phones, and other communication mediums.
  • ICT has revolutionized how information is accessed, shared, and utilized, significantly impacting various sectors, including dispute resolution.
  • The growth of ICT has enabled the development of platforms and tools that facilitate ODR.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1743

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is mentioned in Article 1 of the Indian constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    India that is Bharat as federation of states

  2. BOption (b)

    India that is Bharat as parliamentary democracy

  3. COption (c)

    India that is Bharat shall be a Union of states

  4. DOption (d)

    India that is Bharat as presidential form of democracy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

India that is Bharat shall be a Union of states

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India that is Bharat shall be a Union of states.

Key Points

  • Article 1 of the Indian Constitution states that "India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States."
  • This signifies that India is a single entity with a union of states rather than a federation of states.
  • The term "Union of States" implies that states have no right to secede from the union.
  • It defines India as a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.

Additional Information

  • Union of States
  • The phrase "Union of States" was chosen to indicate that the Indian union is not a result of an agreement among the states like the American federation.
  • It emphasizes the indestructible nature of the Indian Union, where states cannot secede from the union.
  • Sovereign
  • The term "sovereign" means that India is independent and free from any external control.
  • It has the power to legislate on all matters, both internal and external.
  • Socialist
  • Although the word "socialist" was added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, it reflects the commitment to social and economic justice.
  • It aims to reduce income inequality and ensure a fair distribution of wealth.
  • Secular
  • The term "secular" was also added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
  • It means that the state does not have an official religion and treats all religions equally.
  • Democratic Republic
  • "Democratic" indicates that the government is elected by the people, and "Republic" means that the head of the state is elected and not a hereditary monarch.
  • India is committed to the democratic principles of liberty, equality, and fraternity.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1744

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

The Flexible Inflation Targeting Framework (FITF) was introduced in India post the amendment of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 in ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    2014

  2. BOption (b)

    2010

  3. COption (c)

    2016

  4. DOption (d)

    2020

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2016

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2016.

Key Points

  • The Flexible Inflation Targeting Framework (FITF) was introduced in India in 2016.
  • The amendment of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was carried out to implement the FITF.
  • Under FITF, the primary objective of the RBI is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
  • The inflation target is set by the Government of India, in consultation with the RBI, once every five years.

Additional Information

  • Flexible Inflation Targeting (FIT) Framework:
  • FIT is a monetary policy strategy where the central bank sets an explicit target for the inflation rate and uses interest rate changes to achieve that target.
  • The primary goal of FIT is to anchor inflation expectations, reduce the volatility of inflation and output, and improve economic performance.
  • Under FIT, the central bank is accountable for achieving the inflation target and must explain its actions if it fails to do so.
  • Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934:
  • The RBI Act, 1934, is the legislative foundation for the establishment and operations of the Reserve Bank of India.
  • The Act grants the RBI the authority to regulate the issue of banknotes, maintain reserves to ensure monetary stability, and operate the currency and credit system of India.
  • The 2016 amendment to the RBI Act introduced the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) and the Flexible Inflation Targeting Framework.
  • Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
  • The MPC is a committee constituted by the RBI to determine the policy interest rate (repo rate) required to achieve the inflation target.
  • The MPC consists of six members - three from the RBI and three appointed by the Government of India.
  • The decisions of the MPC are taken by majority vote, with the RBI Governor having a casting vote in case of a tie.
  • Inflation Target:
  • The inflation target is a specific level or range of inflation that the central bank aims to achieve over a certain period.
  • For India, the current inflation target is set at 4% with a tolerance band of +/- 2%, meaning it can range between 2% to 6%.
  • This target is reviewed and decided once every five years by the Government of India in consultation with the RBI.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1745

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

What is the duration of monsoon in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    100-120 days

  2. BOption (b)

    40-60 days

  3. COption (c)

    150-200 days

  4. DOption (d)

    50-80 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

100-120 days

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 100-120 days.

Key Points

  • The monsoon season in India typically lasts for about 100-120 days, usually starting from early June and lasting until late September.
  • This period is characterized by heavy rainfall brought by the Southwest monsoon winds.
  • The monsoon plays a crucial role in India's agriculture, as it provides the necessary water for crops.
  • Regions such as the Western Ghats, the Northeast, and the Himalayan foothills receive the highest rainfall during this season.

Additional Information

  • Southwest Monsoon
  • The Southwest Monsoon is the main rainy season in India, primarily influenced by the Indian Ocean and the Arabian Sea.
  • It typically arrives on the Kerala coast in early June and gradually progresses northward.
  • The monsoon winds are created due to differential heating of the Indian subcontinent and the ocean.
  • These winds bring moisture-laden clouds that result in widespread and heavy rainfall across the country.
  • Northeast Monsoon
  • The Northeast Monsoon, also known as the post-monsoon season, occurs from October to December.
  • It primarily affects the southeastern coast of India, including Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and parts of Karnataka.
  • This monsoon is caused by the retreat of the Southwest Monsoon and the establishment of high pressure over the Indian subcontinent.
  • It brings rainfall to regions that do not receive significant rain during the Southwest Monsoon.
  • Impact on Agriculture
  • The monsoon is critical for India's agriculture, as it provides the necessary water for rain-fed crops such as rice, pulses, and oilseeds.
  • A good monsoon season ensures a bountiful harvest and boosts the rural economy.
  • Poor monsoon rains can lead to droughts, crop failures, and increased dependency on irrigation.
  • India's GDP and food security are closely linked to the performance of the monsoon.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1746

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Articles 52 to 78 in Part V of the Indian Constitution deal with ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Finance Commission of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Union Executive

  3. COption (c)

    Amendment of the Constitution

  4. DOption (d)

    National emergency

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Union Executive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Union Executive.

Key Points

  • Articles 52 to 78 in Part V of the Indian Constitution deal with the Union Executive.
  • The Union Executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, the Prime Minister, the Council of Ministers, and the Attorney General of India.
  • The President of India is the head of the Union Executive and acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
  • Articles 52 to 62 deal with the President, Articles 63 to 71 deal with the Vice-President, Articles 74 and 75 deal with the Council of Ministers, and Articles 76 and 78 deal with the Attorney General of India and the duties of the Prime Minister.

Additional Information

  • Finance Commission of India
  • The Finance Commission is a constitutional body for the purpose of allocation of certain revenue resources between the Union and the State Governments.
  • It was established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Finance Commission is appointed every five years and consists of a chairman and four other members.
  • Amendment of the Constitution
  • The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution is laid down in Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution.
  • It provides for a flexible procedure for the amendment to address the changing needs and circumstances of the country.
  • An amendment can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament and must be passed by a special majority.
  • National Emergency
  • National emergency provisions are contained in Article 352 of the Indian Constitution.
  • A National Emergency can be declared on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
  • During a National Emergency, the federal structure of the country changes to a unitary one, and the central government becomes more powerful.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1747

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Ali Akbar Khan is known for playing the _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ektara

  2. BOption (b)

    Sarangi

  3. COption (c)

    Tanpura

  4. DOption (d)

    Sarod

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sarod

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sarod.

Key Points

  • Ali Akbar Khan was a renowned Indian classical musician known for his mastery of the Sarod.
  • He was one of the first Indian musicians to gain international recognition, spreading the beauty of Indian classical music worldwide.
  • Ali Akbar Khan received numerous awards and honors, including the Padma Bhushan and the Padma Vibhushan, two of India’s highest civilian honors.
  • He was also a distinguished teacher, founding the Ali Akbar College of Music in California to teach the intricacies of Indian classical music.

Additional Information

  • Ektara
  • The Ektara is a one-stringed instrument used in traditional music from Bangladesh, India, Egypt, and Pakistan.
  • It is often used in devotional and folk music.
  • Sarangi
  • The Sarangi is a bowed, short-necked string instrument from the Indian subcontinent.
  • It is an important instrument in Hindustani classical music and is known for its rich, haunting sound.
  • Tanpura
  • The Tanpura is a long-necked plucked string instrument found in various forms of Indian music.
  • It does not play melody but rather supports and sustains the melody by providing a continuous harmonic drone.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1748

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

The northern plain of the Indian subcontinent has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems along with their tributaries. Choose the odd one out of the options given.

  1. AOption (a)

    The Brahmaputra

  2. BOption (b)

    The Indus

  3. COption (c)

    The Ganga

  4. DOption (d)

    The Godavari

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The Godavari

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Godavari.

Key Points

  • The Godavari is one of the longest rivers in India but it does not contribute to the formation of the northern plains.
  • The northern plains of India are primarily formed by the alluvial deposits of the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra river systems.
  • The Godavari river primarily flows through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha, contributing to the Deccan Plateau region.
  • The Godavari is often referred to as the 'Dakshina Ganga' or 'Ganga of the South' due to its large size and significance in southern India.

Additional Information

  • The Brahmaputra
  • The Brahmaputra is one of the major rivers of the Indian subcontinent, flowing through Tibet, India, and Bangladesh.
  • It is known for creating significant alluvial deposits in the Assam Valley, contributing to the formation of the northern plains.
  • The Indus
  • The Indus River is one of the longest rivers in the world, originating in Tibet and flowing through India and Pakistan.
  • It plays a crucial role in forming the fertile plains of Punjab and Sindh, which are part of the northern plains.
  • The Ganga
  • The Ganga is the most significant river of northern India, originating from the Gangotri Glacier in the Himalayas.
  • It contributes heavily to the alluvial deposits that form the vast fertile plains of North India, known as the Gangetic plains.
  • Formation of the Northern Plains
  • The northern plains are formed by the sediment deposits of the three major river systems: the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra.
  • These plains are characterized by fertile alluvial soil, making them one of the most agriculturally productive regions in the world.
  • The plains extend across several states in India, including Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1749

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Name the phenomenon where an opaque object on the path of light becomes very small and where light has a tendency to bend around it and not walk in a straight line.

  1. AOption (a)

    Reflection of light

  2. BOption (b)

    Diffraction of light

  3. COption (c)

    Angle of refraction

  4. DOption (d)

    Angle of incidence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Diffraction of light

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Diffraction of light.

Key Points

  • Diffraction of light is a phenomenon where light waves bend around obstacles or spread out after passing through narrow apertures.
  • It occurs with all types of waves, including sound waves, water waves, and electromagnetic waves like light.
  • Diffraction is significant when the size of the obstacle or aperture is comparable to the wavelength of the light.
  • This bending of light leads to various patterns of light and dark bands, known as diffraction patterns.

Additional Information

  • Reflection of light
  • Reflection is the phenomenon where light bounces back after hitting a reflective surface, such as a mirror.
  • The angle of incidence (the angle at which the incoming light hits the surface) is equal to the angle of reflection (the angle at which the light bounces off).
  • This principle is used in various applications including periscopes, telescopes, and everyday mirrors.
  • Angle of Refraction
  • The angle of refraction is the angle between the refracted ray and the normal (an imaginary line perpendicular to the surface) at the point of refraction.
  • Refraction occurs when light passes from one medium to another, changing its speed and direction.
  • This phenomenon is utilized in lenses, glasses, and optical instruments.
  • Angle of Incidence
  • The angle of incidence is the angle between the incoming light ray and the normal to the surface at the point of incidence.
  • It plays a crucial role in determining how light will reflect or refract when it encounters a surface.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1750

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

i. The first green revolution led to over-exploitation of natural resources.

ii. The second Green Revolution was more focused on Southern India.

iii. The second green revolution ensured in achieving sustainable livelihood security.

  1. AOption (a)

    i. and iii

  2. BOption (b)

    Only ii

  3. COption (c)

    ii. and iii

  4. DOption (d)

    i. and ii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

i. and iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is **Option 1:

i. and iii**.

Key Points

  • The first green revolution, which occurred in the 1960s and 1970s, led to over-exploitation of natural resources, particularly water and soil nutrients, due to the intensive use of high-yielding variety seeds, chemical fertilizers, and irrigation.
  • The second green revolution aimed to address the shortcomings of the first by focusing on sustainable agricultural practices and technologies that would ensure long-term productivity without depleting natural resources.
  • The second green revolution was not just focused on Southern India, it was more holistic, including various regions to ensure sustainable agricultural development.
  • i. The first green revolution led to over-exploitation of natural resources.

iii. The second green revolution ensured in achieving sustainable livelihood security.

Additional Information

  • Green Revolution
  • The Green Revolution refers to a set of research, development, and technology transfer initiatives that occurred between the 1940s and the late 1960s. It increased agricultural production worldwide, particularly in developing countries.
  • The initiatives resulted in the adoption of new high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and advanced irrigation techniques.
  • While the Green Revolution significantly increased food production and alleviated hunger in many parts of the world, it also led to environmental degradation and increased inequality among farmers.
  • Sustainable Agriculture
  • Sustainable agriculture is the practice of farming using principles of ecology, the study of relationships between organisms and their environment.
  • This approach includes methods such as crop rotation, reduced use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides, conservation tillage, and organic farming to maintain soil health and biodiversity.
  • The goal is to meet current food needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
  • Livelihood Security
  • Livelihood security refers to securing adequate and sustainable access to income and resources to meet basic needs, including food, water, health, education, housing, and time for community participation and social integration.
  • Sustainable livelihood security takes into account the long-term capacity to maintain these assets in the face of stresses and shocks.
  • First and Second Green Revolutions
  • The First Green Revolution focused on increasing agricultural productivity through high-yield variety seeds, chemical inputs, and irrigation.
  • The Second Green Revolution emphasizes sustainable practices, biotechnology, and integrated pest management to ensure long-term productivity and environmental health.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1751

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements about the second five-year plan is INCORRECT?

  1. AOption (a)

    The plan stressed the rapid industrialisation of heavy and basic industries.

  2. BOption (b)

    Electricity, Railway, Steel etc. industries were established during the plan.

  3. COption (c)

    The plan was based on the Keynesian Model.

  4. DOption (d)

    The socialist pattern of the society was reflected in the plan.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The plan was based on the Keynesian Model.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The plan was based on the Keynesian Model.

Key Points

  • The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961) focused on the rapid industrialization of heavy and basic industries.
  • During this plan, industries such as electricity, railways, and steel were significantly developed.
  • The plan was based on the Mahalanobis Model, not the Keynesian Model.
  • The plan aimed to establish a socialist pattern of society in India.

Additional Information

  • Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961)
  • The Second Five-Year Plan was launched under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • This plan was designed to build a strong industrial base for India, focusing on heavy industries and public sector enterprises.
  • The Mahalanobis Model, formulated by Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, was used as the basis for this plan. It emphasized the importance of investment in heavy industries and aimed at achieving self-reliance in industrial production.
  • The plan also sought to reduce inequalities in income and wealth and aimed to move towards a more equitable and socialist society.
  • Keynesian Model
  • The Keynesian Model, developed by John Maynard Keynes, focuses on total spending in the economy and its effects on output and inflation.
  • Keynesian economics advocates for increased government expenditures and lower taxes to stimulate demand and pull an economy out of depression.
  • It is often used to justify government intervention in the economy, especially during recessions.
  • This model is more focused on addressing short-term economic fluctuations rather than long-term industrial planning.
  • Socialist Pattern of Society
  • The concept of a socialist pattern of society aims at reducing inequalities in income and wealth and providing equal opportunities for all citizens.
  • It involves the establishment of a mixed economy where both the public and private sectors coexist and contribute to economic development.
  • In the context of India, this meant a significant role for the public sector in key industries and infrastructure, while also allowing space for private enterprise.
  • This approach was intended to ensure that economic growth would benefit all sections of society and lead to a more equitable distribution of resources.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1752

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who among the following was appointed as the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) to the Indian government in 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Venkataramanan Anantha Nageswaran

  2. BOption (b)

    Kaushik Basu

  3. COption (c)

    TV Somanathan

  4. DOption (d)

    Raghuram Rajan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Venkataramanan Anantha Nageswaran

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Venkataramanan Anantha Nageswaran.

Key Points

  • Venkataramanan Anantha Nageswaran was appointed as the Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India in 2022.
  • He succeeded Krishnamurthy Subramanian who served as the CEA from 2018 to 2021.
  • Nageswaran has a strong academic background with a doctoral degree from the University of Massachusetts in Amherst.
  • He has held various important roles in both academia and the financial sector before his appointment as CEA.

Additional Information

  • Chief Economic Advisor (CEA)
  • The Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) is a position in the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
  • The CEA provides important advice on economic issues to the Government of India.
  • The role involves the preparation of economic surveys and reports which are used by the government for policy formulation.
  • CEAs play a crucial role in shaping the economic strategy and policy of the country.
  • Venkataramanan Anantha Nageswaran
  • Prior to his appointment as CEA, Nageswaran has been a writer, author, teacher, and consultant.
  • He has taught at various institutions including the Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Bangalore and the Singapore Management University.
  • He has served as the Dean of the IFMR Graduate School of Business and as a part-time member of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister of India.
  • His work spans a wide range of areas including economic policy, financial markets, and corporate finance.

This source code provides a structured and detailed explanation of the correct option, highlighting key points about Venkataramanan Anantha Nageswaran's appointment as the Chief Economic Advisor in 2022, along with additional information about the role and responsibilities of a CEA and Nageswaran's background.

SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1753

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Name the pension scheme that seeks to ensure old age protection for unorganised workers.

  1. AOption (a)

    Atal Pension Yojna

  2. BOption (b)

    Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojna

  3. COption (c)

    Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bhima Yojna

  4. DOption (d)

    Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana.

Key Points

  • The government of India has introduced a pension scheme for unorganized workers namely Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) to ensure old age protection for Unorganized Workers.
  • PM Narendra Modi, on 5 March 2019, launched the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan (PM-SYM) Yojana at Vastral in Gujarat.
  • The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana was introduced in the Interim Budget 2019-20 presented by the Union Minister for Finance, Corporate Affairs, Railways & Coal, Shri Piyush Goyal in Parliament on 1 February 2019.
  • PM-SYM is meant for old age protection and social security of Unorganized Workers (UW) who are mostly engaged as rickshaw pullers, street vendors, mid-day meal workers, head, brick kiln workers, cobblers, rag pickers, domestic workers, washermen, home-based, agricultural workers, construction workers, beedi workers, handloom workers, leather workers, audio-visual workers or in similar other occupations.
  • There are an estimated 42 crore such unorganized workers in the country. The entry age for the beneficiary is 18-40 years and he/she should not be a member of ESIC/EPFO or an income taxpayer.
  • The schemes are being implemented through the Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India and Common Service Centers. LIC is the Fund Manager and is responsible for pension pay-out.

Additional Information

  • Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)
  • It is a national health insurance scheme spearheaded by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • It is considered to be the world's largest government-financed health assurance initiative.
  • It aims to provide free access to health insurance coverage for India's low-income earners.
  • AB-PMJAY provides a cover of Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year, catering specifically to secondary and tertiary care hospitalization across public and private impanelled hospitals throughout the country.
  • This significant scheme is fully financed by the Indian government, serving as an important stepping stone towards achieving universal healthcare in India.
  • Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
  • ​It is a government-backed accident insurance scheme in India launched on May 9, 2015, by PM Narendra Modi.
  • PMSBY aims to provide a highly affordable insurance scheme for the poor and underprivileged people.
  • It is available to individuals in the age group of 18 to 70 years who own a bank account.
  • At a nominal annual premium of Rs.12, beneficiaries receive a risk coverage of Rs.2 lakh for accidental death and full disability, and Rs.1 lakh for partial disability.
  • This prime ministerial scheme plays a pivotal role in uplifting the vulnerable strata of society and is a step towards protection against unforeseen risks.
  • Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)
  • It was launched on 9th May 2015 by PM Narendra Modi
  • It is a government-backed life insurance scheme in India aimed at increasing the penetration of life insurance coverage among Indians.
  • It is available to individuals aged 18 to 50 years with a bank account.
  • This scheme offers a life cover of Rs. 2 lakhs for a one-year period, which extends from June 1st to May 31st of the next year.
  • The annual premium for this policy is ₹ 436 (US$5.50).
  • The amount will be automatically debited from the subscriber's account annually.
  • The PMJJBY scheme is an important initiative taken by the Indian government to provide affordable life insurance to its citizens.$
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1754

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

What is the gas evolved when zinc reacts with sulphuric acid?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hydrogen

  2. BOption (b)

    Oxygen

  3. COption (c)

    Carbon dioxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Hydrogen sulphide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hydrogen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hydrogen.

Key Points

  • When zinc reacts with sulphuric acid, hydrogen gas is evolved along with the formation of zinc sulphate.
  • The chemical reaction can be represented as: Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂↑
  • This is a single displacement reaction where zinc displaces hydrogen from sulphuric acid.
  • Hydrogen gas is colorless, odorless, and highly flammable, and it can be identified by the 'pop' sound it makes when a burning splint is brought near it.

Additional Information

  • Zinc (Zn)
  • Zinc is a metallic element that is commonly used in various industrial applications.
  • It is known for its ability to resist corrosion and its role in galvanizing iron and steel.
  • Zinc is also an essential trace element for living organisms, playing a crucial role in biological processes.
  • Sulphuric Acid (H₂SO₄)
  • Sulphuric acid is a strong mineral acid with a wide range of industrial applications.
  • It is used in the manufacture of fertilizers, in petroleum refining, and in chemical synthesis.
  • It is highly corrosive and should be handled with care.
  • Single Displacement Reaction
  • A single displacement reaction is a type of chemical reaction where an element reacts with a compound, displacing another element from it.
  • In the reaction between zinc and sulphuric acid, zinc displaces hydrogen from the acid, forming zinc sulphate and releasing hydrogen gas.
  • Properties of Hydrogen Gas
  • Hydrogen is the lightest and most abundant element in the universe.
  • It is highly flammable and burns with a pale blue, almost invisible flame.
  • In its molecular form (H₂), it is used as a fuel and in various industrial processes.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1755

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

In 2022, who has been appointed as new Attorney General of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    KK Venugopal

  2. BOption (b)

    Niren De

  3. COption (c)

    Mukul Rohatgi

  4. DOption (d)

    R Venkataramani

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

R Venkataramani

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is R Venkataramani.

Key Points

  • R Venkataramani was appointed as the Attorney General of India in 2022.
  • He succeeded KK Venugopal, who served as the Attorney General before him.
  • R Venkataramani is a distinguished advocate with vast experience in the legal field.
  • He has been a Senior Advocate in the Supreme Court of India and has contributed to various significant legal matters.

Additional Information

  • Attorney General of India
  • The Attorney General of India is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of India.
  • The Attorney General is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  • The Attorney General must be a person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
  • The duties of the Attorney General include giving advice to the Government of India upon legal matters and performing other legal duties as assigned.
  • Previous Attorneys General
  • KK Venugopal - Served as the Attorney General from 2017 to 2022.
  • Mukul Rohatgi - Served as the Attorney General from 2014 to 2017.
  • Niren De - Served as the Attorney General from 1968 to 1977.
  • Role and Functions
  • The Attorney General appears on behalf of the Government of India in all cases (including suits, appeals, and other proceedings) in the Supreme Court in which the Government of India is concerned.
  • He/she represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
  • The Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in India as well as the right to participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament without the right to vote.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1756

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is NOT a kharif crop?

  1. AOption (a)

    Paddy

  2. BOption (b)

    Soyabean

  3. COption (c)

    Wheat

  4. DOption (d)

    Cotton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Wheat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Wheat.

Key Points

  • Wheat is primarily a rabi crop.
  • Rabi crops are sown in winter and harvested in the spring.
  • Wheat typically requires cooler weather and a moderate amount of water during the growing season.
  • Examples of other rabi crops include barley, mustard, and peas.

Additional Information

  • Kharif Crops
  • Kharif crops, also known as monsoon crops, are sown with the beginning of the first rains in July, during the southwest monsoon season.
  • They require a lot of water and hot weather for their growth.
  • Examples of kharif crops include Paddy, Soyabean, Maize, Cotton, and Groundnut.
  • The harvesting season for kharif crops is typically from September to October.
  • Rabi Crops
  • Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December.
  • They are harvested in the spring from April to June.
  • Rabi crops require a warm climate for germination and a cold climate for growth.
  • Examples of rabi crops include Wheat, Barley, Mustard, and Peas.
  • Difference Between Kharif and Rabi Crops
  • The main difference lies in the timing of their sowing and harvesting seasons.
  • Kharif crops are dependent on the arrival of the monsoon, whereas rabi crops are grown in the winter season when the monsoon has retreated.
  • Kharif crops need a lot of water and hot weather, while rabi crops require cold weather for growth and less water.
  • Important Indian Cropping Seasons
  • India has two main cropping seasons - Rabi and Kharif, and a third, less significant one called Zaid.
  • Zaid crops are grown between March and June, in the intervening period between the rabi and kharif seasons.
  • Examples of zaid crops include watermelon, cucumber, and fodder crops.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1757

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following is another name of vitamin C?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pyridoxine

  2. BOption (b)

    Pyridoxal

  3. COption (c)

    Pyridoxamine

  4. DOption (d)

    Ascorbic acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Ascorbic acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ascorbic acid.

Key Points

  • Ascorbic acid is another name for Vitamin C.
  • Vitamin C is essential for the growth, development, and repair of all body tissues.
  • It is involved in many body functions, including the formation of collagen, absorption of iron, the immune system, wound healing, and the maintenance of cartilage, bones, and teeth.
  • Vitamin C is a powerful antioxidant that can strengthen your body’s natural defenses.

Additional Information

  • Pyridoxine
  • Pyridoxine is a form of Vitamin B6, which is important for normal brain development and for keeping the nervous system and immune system healthy.
  • It is used to treat or prevent vitamin B6 deficiency.
  • Pyridoxal
  • Pyridoxal is one of the three natural forms of vitamin B6, along with Pyridoxamine and Pyridoxine.
  • It plays a crucial role in the metabolism of amino acids and is involved in the biosynthesis of neurotransmitters.
  • Pyridoxamine
  • Pyridoxamine is another form of Vitamin B6.
  • It is involved in various metabolic processes, including the conversion of stored carbohydrates to glucose.
  • Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)
  • Vitamin C, also known as Ascorbic acid, is an essential nutrient for humans.
  • It acts as an antioxidant, helping to protect cells from the damage caused by free radicals.
  • Vitamin C also helps the body make collagen, an important protein for skin, cartilage, tendons, ligaments, and blood vessels.
  • It improves the absorption of iron from plant-based foods and helps the immune system work properly to protect the body from disease.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1758

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Who among the following Indian classical dancers is associated with Kuchipudi?

  1. AOption (a)

    Meenakshi Mehdi

  2. BOption (b)

    Vempati Chinna Satyam

  3. COption (c)

    Sanjukta Panigrahi

  4. DOption (d)

    Malavika Sarkar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vempati Chinna Satyam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vempati Chinna Satyam.

Key Points

  • Vempati Chinna Satyam was a prominent Indian classical dancer known for his expertise in the Kuchipudi dance form.
  • He was instrumental in popularizing Kuchipudi dance and taking it to international stages.
  • Chinna Satyam founded the Kuchipudi Art Academy in Chennai in 1963 to train young dancers in this classical dance form.
  • He was recognized with numerous awards for his contributions to Kuchipudi, including the Padma Bhushan and Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.

Additional Information

  • Kuchipudi
  • Kuchipudi is one of the eight major Indian classical dance forms and originates from Andhra Pradesh.
  • It derives its name from the village of Kuchipudi in Andhra Pradesh where it was born.
  • This dance form is known for its graceful movements, strong narrative, and expressive gestures.
  • Traditionally, Kuchipudi was performed by male dancers in temples, but it has evolved over time and now both men and women perform it on stage.
  • Bharatanatyam
  • Bharatanatyam is a major Indian classical dance form originating from Tamil Nadu.
  • This dance form is known for its fixed upper torso, bent legs, and intricate footwork combined with expressive hand gestures and facial expressions.
  • Bharatanatyam is typically performed by women and has a rich history dating back to the temples of Tamil Nadu.
  • Odissi
  • Odissi is an Indian classical dance form that originates from the state of Odisha.
  • It is known for its fluid, graceful movements and sculpturesque poses.
  • Odissi dance is characterized by its use of the tribhangi posture, which involves three bends in the body.
  • Manipuri
  • Manipuri is an Indian classical dance form originating from the state of Manipur in northeastern India.
  • This dance form is known for its lyrical and graceful movements that depict themes from the Hindu epics.
  • Manipuri dance is often performed during religious festivals and is distinguished by its calm, soft, and flowing movements.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1759

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following Sultans of Delhi primarily adopted a policy of consolidation rather than expansion?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ibrahim Lodi

  2. BOption (b)

    Balban

  3. COption (c)

    Alauddin Khalji

  4. DOption (d)

    Bahlol Lodi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Balban

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Balban.

Key Points

  • Ghiyas ud din Balban was one of the most prominent Sultans of the Slave Dynasty in India.
  • He ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1266 to 1287.
  • Balban primarily focused on consolidating his empire rather than expanding it.
  • He implemented strong administrative policies and maintained a robust military to ensure internal stability and defense against external threats.

Additional Information

  • Ibrahim Lodi
  • Ibrahim Lodi was the last Sultan of the Lodi dynasty, ruling from 1517 to 1526.
  • He attempted to maintain and expand the empire but faced internal revolts and was ultimately defeated by Babur in the First Battle of Panipat.
  • Alauddin Khalji
  • Alauddin Khalji ruled from 1296 to 1316.
  • He is known for his aggressive expansionist policies and successful military campaigns in the Deccan and northern India.
  • He also implemented significant economic and administrative reforms.
  • Bahlol Lodi
  • Bahlol Lodi was the founder of the Lodi dynasty and ruled from 1451 to 1489.
  • He focused on consolidating his power in the region and laid the foundation for the Lodi rule in Delhi.
SSC CGL 2024 Tier-I Official Paper (Held On: 23 Sept, 2024 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 1760

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2024• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following team events is included in the Target Olympic Podium Scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tennis

  2. BOption (b)

    Football

  3. COption (c)

    Cricket

  4. DOption (d)

    Hockey

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hockey

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hockey.

Key Points

  • The Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) is an initiative by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
  • It aims to support Indian athletes who have the potential to win Olympic medals.
  • Hockey is one of the team events included under the TOPS scheme.
  • The scheme provides financial assistance and other support to athletes, including training, coaching, and international competition exposure.

Additional Information

  • Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS)
  • The scheme was launched in 2014 to provide support to India's top athletes in their preparation for the Olympics and other major international events.
  • TOPS aims to identify athletes who have the potential to win medals at the Olympics and provide them with customized training and support.
  • Under the scheme, athletes receive financial assistance for training, equipment, and participation in international competitions.
  • The scheme also focuses on the holistic development of athletes, including aspects such as sports science support, psychological counseling, and nutrition.
  • Hockey in India
  • Hockey is one of the most popular sports in India and has a rich history of success in international competitions.
  • India's men's hockey team has won eight Olympic gold medals, making it one of the most successful teams in the history of the Olympics.
  • The Indian women's hockey team has also made significant progress in recent years, achieving notable performances in international tournaments.
  • The inclusion of hockey in the TOPS scheme aims to further strengthen the performance of Indian hockey teams at the international level.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.