SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) · Topic Collection

General Awareness PYQs

Current affairs and static general knowledge — history, geography, polity, economy, science, sports, awards, books, and important days as asked in the general awareness section.

7100 Total Questions284 Official PapersYears: 2017–2025Search in General Awareness
Showing questions 141–160 of 7100Page 8 of 100
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 141

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Arrange the following steps in the correct legislative process for the passage of a Money Bill in India:

A) Introduction of Money Bill in Lok Sabha

B) Passage in Lok Sabha

C) Transmission to Rajya Sabha

D) Presentation for President's assent

  1. AOption (a)

    A-B-C-D

  2. BOption (b)

    A-C-B-D

  3. COption (c)

    B-C-A-D

  4. DOption (d)

    C-B-A-D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-B-C-D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1: A-B-C-D.

Key Points

  • In India, a Money Bill is exclusively introduced in the Lok Sabha, as per Article 110 of the Constitution of India.
  • Once introduced, the Money Bill must be passed by the Lok Sabha, where the majority support is required.
  • After passage in the Lok Sabha, the bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations, but the Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the bill; it can only suggest changes within 14 days.
  • Finally, the bill is presented to the President of India for his/her assent, which is mandatory for the bill to become a law.
  • The process ensures that the Lok Sabha, as the house of elected representatives, has the final say in matters related to financial legislation.

Additional Information

  • Important Facts about Money Bills:
  • A bill is considered a Money Bill if it deals with taxation, borrowing of money by the government, appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India, or any matter incidental to these issues.
  • The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the final authority to decide whether a bill is a Money Bill or not.
  • The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a Money Bill but can suggest recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may choose to accept or reject.
  • If the Rajya Sabha does not return the Money Bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 142

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which section of Bharatiya Nagarik suraksha Samhita(BNSS) mandates video-recording of search and seizure operations?

  1. AOption (a)

    Section 50

  2. BOption (b)

    Section 62

  3. COption (c)

    Section 105

  4. DOption (d)

    Section 176

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Section 105

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Section 105.

Key Points

  • Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS) focuses on ensuring transparency and accountability in search and seizure operations conducted by law enforcement agencies.
  • It mandates that all search and seizure operations should be video-recorded to ensure there is a clear record of the proceedings.
  • The provision is aimed at safeguarding the rights of individuals and preventing any misuse of authority during these operations.
  • Video recording serves as evidence in legal proceedings and ensures that the process is conducted fairly and in adherence to the law.
  • This provision aligns with the broader objective of reforming criminal laws in India and enhancing trust between the public and law enforcement agencies.

Additional Information

  • Section 50:
  • Section 50 of BNSS deals with the rights of individuals during search and arrest.
  • It mandates that a person being searched has the right to have the search conducted in the presence of two independent witnesses.
  • This provision aims to ensure transparency and prevent any misconduct by the authorities during the search process.
  • Section 62:
  • Section 62 focuses on the procedural guidelines for the arrest of individuals.
  • It outlines the rights of the arrested person, such as the right to be informed about the reasons for the arrest and the right to legal representation.
  • It ensures that arrests are conducted lawfully and in compliance with the principles of natural justice.
  • Section 176:
  • Section 176 deals with the investigation of custodial deaths and disappearances.
  • It mandates that such cases should be investigated by a judicial magistrate or an executive magistrate to ensure impartiality and accountability.
  • This provision is crucial for addressing concerns related to custodial violence and ensuring justice for victims.
  • Theme of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS):
  • The BNSS is a comprehensive reform of the Indian criminal laws, replacing the colonial-era Indian Penal Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), and Indian Evidence Act.
  • It aims to modernize the criminal justice system, focusing on transparency, accountability, and the protection of citizens' rights.
  • The reforms emphasize the use of technology, such as video recording, to enhance the efficiency and fairness of criminal investigations and trials.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 143

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which department launched 'Dak Karmayogi' ?

  1. AOption (a)

    MoCA

  2. BOption (b)

    DoF

  3. COption (c)

    DoP

  4. DOption (d)

    MoHUA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

DoP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Department of Posts (DoP).

Key Points

  • The Department of Posts (DoP) launched 'Dak Karmayogi,' an e-learning platform for its employees aimed at enhancing their skills and productivity.
  • 'Dak Karmayogi' is a part of the Government of India's Digital India Initiative and aims to upskill the vast workforce of the postal department.
  • This platform provides training in soft skills, technical knowledge, and leadership development to ensure better service delivery by postal employees.
  • It is designed to be user-friendly and accessible, allowing employees to learn and upgrade their competencies at their own pace.
  • With the introduction of 'Dak Karmayogi,' the Department of Posts aims to modernize its workforce and improve citizen-centric services across the country.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA):
  • This Ministry is responsible for the formulation of national policies and programs for the development and regulation of the Civil Aviation sector.
  • It oversees airport infrastructure development, air navigation services, and airline operations across India.
  • Key initiatives under MoCA include the UDAAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) scheme, which aims to enhance regional air connectivity.
  • Department of Fertilizers (DoF):
  • The Department of Fertilizers operates under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, focusing on the production and distribution of fertilizers across India.
  • It ensures the availability of fertilizers to farmers and promotes the balanced use of nutrients to increase agricultural productivity.
  • Key schemes under DoF include the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system for fertilizer subsidies.
  • Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA):
  • This Ministry is responsible for urban development, planning, and housing policies in India.
  • Key initiatives under MoHUA include the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) for affordable housing and the Smart Cities Mission to promote sustainable urban living.
  • It also oversees projects related to urban sanitation, such as the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban).
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 144

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

According to the 2025 Energy Transition Index, which of the following is a key priority for enhancing energy system flexibility and integrating renewables?

  1. AOption (a)

    Expanding fossil fuel subsidies

  2. BOption (b)

    Building more centralized coal-fired plants

  3. COption (c)

    Modernizing and digitalizing power grids and storage systems

  4. DOption (d)

    Increasing oil imports for energy security

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Modernizing and digitalizing power grids and storage systems

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Modernizing and digitalizing power grids and storage systems.

Key Points

  • Modernizing and digitalizing power grids enhances the efficiency and reliability of energy systems by incorporating advanced technologies like smart grids and energy management systems.
  • Digitalization allows for real-time monitoring, predictive maintenance, and dynamic energy optimization, enabling seamless integration of renewable energy sources into the grid.
  • Upgraded storage systems such as battery energy storage solutions (BESS) and pumped hydro storage help balance energy supply and demand fluctuations caused by intermittent renewables like solar and wind power.
  • The modernization of grids supports decentralized energy generation, empowering local communities to produce and consume renewable energy efficiently.
  • Such advancements align with global energy transition goals, promoting the shift toward cleaner and sustainable energy systems to combat climate change.

Additional Information

  • Key findings from the 2025 Energy Transition Index
  • Top Performers: Sweden, Finland, Denmark, Norway, Switzerland.
  • India's Performance: Ranked 71st (down from 63rd in 2024).
  • India's Strengths: Improved energy efficiency, increased investment, better energy access, and emission reductions.
  • India's Challenges: Need for better grid reliability, rural energy access, and reduced reliance on imported energy.
  • Overall Trend: Progress in equity and sustainability has accelerated, but energy security remains a challenge, with slower readiness momentum.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 145

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

The folk dance Dollu Kunitha, performed with large drums, belongs to which region?

  1. AOption (a)

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Telangana

  3. COption (c)

    Karnataka

  4. DOption (d)

    Kerala

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Karnataka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

  • Dollu Kunitha is a traditional folk dance form of Karnataka performed by men using large drums known as "Dollu".
  • The dance is associated with the worship of Lord Beereshwara, a form of Lord Shiva, and is prominently performed during religious and cultural events in Karnataka.
  • The performers wear traditional costumes and synchronize their drum beats with rhythmic movements, creating a vibrant and energetic performance.
  • This dance form is most commonly practiced by the Kuruba community of Karnataka, who have preserved this art form for centuries.
  • The Dollu Kunitha performances are characterized by fast-paced rhythms, synchronized group movements, and captivating choreography, showcasing the cultural heritage of Karnataka.

Additional Information

  • Andhra Pradesh
  • Andhra Pradesh is renowned for its rich cultural heritage, including classical dance forms like Kuchipudi, which originated in the village of the same name.
  • Folk dances like Burrakatha, Dhimsa, and Veeranatyam are popular in the region, reflecting the state's diverse traditions.
  • Burrakatha is a storytelling dance form performed by a trio, narrating mythological and social stories.
  • Telangana
  • Telangana is known for its vibrant folk dances, including Perini Shivatandavam, which is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
  • Lambadi is another popular folk dance performed by the Banjara community, showcasing their colorful attire and unique movements.
  • Bathukamma, a floral festival celebrated by women, involves traditional songs and dances around flower arrangements.
  • Kerala
  • Kerala is famous for its classical dance forms, such as Kathakali and Mohiniyattam, which are integral to its cultural identity.
  • Folk dances like Theyyam and Thiruvathirakali are widely performed, showcasing the state's traditional customs and spirituality.
  • Theyyam is a ritualistic dance form that combines elaborate costumes and energetic performances, often depicting mythological stories.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 146

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What is the main goal of the 'Green Credit Programme' launched in 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Promote fossil fuel use

  2. BOption (b)

    Support monoculture farming

  3. COption (c)

    Encourage eco-restoration through credit incentives

  4. DOption (d)

    Increase mining leases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Encourage eco-restoration through credit incentives

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Encourage eco-restoration through credit incentives.

Key Points

  • The 'Green Credit Programme' launched in 2024 aims to incentivize environmental conservation activities, particularly eco-restoration, through credit-based mechanisms.
  • It enables individuals, communities, and industries to earn credits by actively participating in activities such as afforestation, reforestation, sustainable agriculture, and waste management.
  • The program is designed to promote the restoration of degraded ecosystems and enhance biodiversity while contributing to climate change mitigation.
  • These credits are tradable and can be monetized, creating a financial incentive for the adoption of sustainable and eco-friendly practices.
  • The initiative aligns with India’s commitments to global climate goals and its agenda of achieving sustainable development while combating environmental degradation.

Additional Information

  • Renewable Energy Certificates (REC) Scheme:
  • This scheme is designed to promote renewable energy generation. One REC is equivalent to one MWh of electricity generated from renewable sources and can be traded to help entities meet their renewable purchase obligations (RPO).
  • National Mission for a Green India (GIM):
  • Launched in 2014, this scheme focuses on afforestation activities in degraded forest areas with community participation to increase forest and tree cover and enhance forest quality.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 147

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements about the fertilizer industry in India is/are correct?

  1. India is self-sufficient in potash-based fertilizers.
  2. Urea is the most commonly produced nitrogenous fertilizer.
  3. Fertilizer production increased after the Green Revolution.
  4. Gujarat and Kerala are minor contributors to fertilizer production.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

  • India is not self-sufficient in potash-based fertilizers. The country imports almost its entire requirement of potash since it lacks significant reserves of potassium salts.
  • Urea is the most commonly produced nitrogenous fertilizer in India, accounting for a significant portion of the total fertilizer production. It is widely used due to its affordability and high nitrogen content.
  • Fertilizer production in India saw a significant increase after the Green Revolution in the 1960s, which focused on agricultural enhancement using high-yielding seeds, irrigation, and fertilizers.
  • Gujarat and Kerala are major contributors to fertilizer production in India, contrary to the statement in the question. Gujarat is known for its production of urea and ammonia, while Kerala contributes to phosphate-based fertilizers.

Additional Information

  • Fertilizer Industry in India
  • India’s fertilizer industry plays a crucial role in ensuring food security by enhancing agricultural productivity.
  • The industry consists of three major types of fertilizers: nitrogenous (e.g., urea), phosphatic (e.g., DAP), and potassic (e.g., MOP).
  • The government provides subsidies to make fertilizers affordable for farmers, ensuring widespread adoption in agriculture.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 148

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements regarding carbon markets in India:

  1. Carbon credits can be generated by afforestation and renewable energy projects.
  2. India has launched a domestic voluntary carbon market.
  3. Carbon markets are monitored under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2 are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2 and 3 are correct

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1 and 3 are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 1 and 2 are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Carbon credits are generated through activities like afforestation, renewable energy projects, energy efficiency improvements, and waste management projects.
  • India has established a domestic voluntary carbon market, enabling businesses to trade carbon credits and achieve their emission reduction targets.
  • Carbon markets globally aim to incentivize entities to reduce emissions by allowing them to trade carbon credits within a regulated framework.
  • Carbon markets in India are not monitored under the Income Tax Act, 1961. They are regulated by agencies like the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) and Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  • India’s carbon market initiative aligns with its commitment to achieving net-zero emissions by 2070 under the Paris Agreement.

Additional Information

  • Option 2: India has launched a domestic voluntary carbon market
  • A voluntary carbon market allows entities to trade carbon credits without mandatory compliance obligations.
  • India’s voluntary market includes mechanisms like the Renewable Energy Certificates (RECs) and Perform, Achieve, and Trade (PAT) scheme.
  • These schemes support renewable energy generation and energy efficiency improvements, contributing to India’s emission reduction goals.
  • Option 3: Carbon markets are monitored under the Income Tax Act, 1961
  • Carbon markets are not governed by the Income Tax Act, 1961. Instead, they are regulated by frameworks established by environmental and energy agencies like BEE.
  • The Income Tax Act primarily deals with taxation policies rather than environmental regulation.
  • Theme: Carbon Markets
  • Carbon markets are a mechanism to control greenhouse gas emissions by setting limits and allowing trading of emission allowances.
  • They can be classified into compliance markets (regulated by law) and voluntary markets (participation is optional).
  • India’s carbon market is evolving, aiming to contribute to climate goals through initiatives like the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 149

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

What does the offering of green melons by girls during the Jawa festival symbolise in Jharkhand's tribal tradition?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wealth and long life

  2. BOption (b)

    Rain and crop yield

  3. COption (c)

    Son and fertility

  4. DOption (d)

    Marriage and devotion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Son and fertility

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Son and fertility.

Key Points

  • The offering of green melons during the Jawa festival by tribal girls in Jharkhand symbolizes the aspiration for fertility and the desire for sons, which is deeply rooted in tribal cultural practices.
  • Jawa festival is celebrated during the harvest season and is associated with agricultural fertility and human reproduction.
  • The green melon is considered a sacred object, representing new beginnings, growth, and prosperity in tribal traditions.
  • The ritual of offering melons is performed with prayers and songs, emphasizing the importance of continuity and family lineage.
  • It reflects the tribal community’s spiritual connection with nature and their belief in the cyclic processes of life and fertility.

Additional Information

  • Major Festivals of Jharkhand:
  • Sarhul: The biggest tribal festival, celebrating spring with worship of the Sal tree and village deities (Sarna Maa).
  • Karam: Honors Karam Devta, the god of youth, with rituals involving the Karam tree, seeds (Jawa), dancing, and feasting.
  • Sohrai: A cattle and harvest festival, coinciding with Diwali, honoring livestock like bulls, buffaloes, and goats.
  • Chhath Puja: A significant four-day Hindu festival dedicated to the Sun God (Surya), involving fasting and offerings to the setting and rising sun.
  • Tusu Parab/Makar: A winter harvest festival celebrated on the last day of the Poush month.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 13 Sept, 2025 Shift 3) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 150

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following

Statements:

  1. Inter-State Council is a constitutional body under Article 263.
  2. Its recommendations are binding on the Union and States.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Inter-State Council is a constitutional body established under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution.
  • It was created to facilitate coordination between the Union and State governments on matters of national importance.
  • The council is primarily an advisory body and its recommendations are not binding on the Union or State governments.
  • It consists of the Prime Minister as the Chairman, Chief Ministers of all States, Union Ministers, and other members as decided by the President.
  • The council's primary function is to investigate and discuss subjects where coordination is required between the Union and States.

Additional Information

  • Background of Article 263:
  • Article 263 empowers the President of India to establish an Inter-State Council if it appears necessary for better coordination between the Union and State governments.
  • The primary roles include:
  • Inquiring into disputes between states.
  • Discussing subjects of common interest.
  • Making recommendations for policy formulation and implementation.
  • Historical Development:
  • The Inter-State Council was established in 1990 by a Presidential Order following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission.
  • The Sarkaria Commission emphasized the need for a constitutional mechanism to address Union-State relations more effectively.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 14 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 151

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

**Read the below

Statement:

**

  1. Solicitor General of India is appointed by the president of India.
  2. A candidate contesting for the post of the President of India is required to make a security deposit of ₹15,000.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only statement 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only statement 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both statements 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither statement 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only statement 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only statement 2.

Key Points

  • The security deposit of ₹15,000 is mandatory for candidates contesting the election for the President of India, as per Article 58 of the Constitution of India and the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.
  • The deposit is forfeited if the candidate fails to secure at least one-sixth of the votes cast in the election.
  • The security deposit ensures that only serious candidates participate in the election process.
  • The election of the President of India is conducted by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories.
  • As per the rules, the nomination paper must be supported by at least 50 proposers and 50 seconders to ensure legitimacy.

Additional Information

  • Statement 1: Solicitor General of India is appointed by the president of India
  • The Solicitor General of India is the second-highest law officer in the country after the Attorney General of India.
  • Unlike the Attorney General, the Solicitor General is not appointed directly by the President of India. Instead, the appointment is made by the Union Government, specifically by the Ministry of Law and Justice.
  • The Solicitor General assists the Attorney General in performing legal duties and advises the government on legal matters.
  • Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Concept of Presidential Elections in India:
  • The President is elected by an electoral college through a proportional representation system using a single transferable vote.
  • Every member of the electoral college casts their vote, and the candidate receiving the highest number of votes is elected.
  • The process is governed by the provisions in Articles 52 to 62 of the Constitution.
  • Other Important Facts:
  • The President of India serves a term of five years and can be re-elected.
  • The eligibility criteria for candidates contesting the Presidential elections include being a citizen of India, at least 35 years old, and qualified to be a member of the Lok Sabha.
  • In case of vacancy, the election must be held within six months.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 14 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 152

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Based on the given statements which option is correct:

Statement I: Mathura art produced images for both Indian and non-Indian patrons.

Statement II: Mathura art ignored nature-based themes in its sculptures.

  1. AOption (a)

    Statement I and II both are Correct.

  2. BOption (b)

    Only statement I is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Only Statement II is correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only statement I is correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2: Only Statement I is correct.

Key Points

  • Statement I is correct: Mathura art was a significant school of art during the Kushana period, producing sculptures for both Indian and non-Indian patrons, including images of Buddha, Bodhisattvas, Yakshas, and Jain Tirthankaras.
  • Mathura art is renowned for its syncretic style, blending indigenous Indian artistic traditions with Greco-Roman influences.
  • It catered to diverse religious communities like Buddhists, Jains, and Hindus, reflecting its inclusive nature and wide patronage.
  • Mathura art produced sculptures for Buddhist stupas in India and beyond, including regions such as Central Asia, showcasing its appeal to non-Indian patrons.

Additional Information

  • Statement II is incorrect: Mathura art did not ignore nature-based themes. In fact:
  • It prominently featured nature-inspired motifs such as trees, animals, and floral designs in its sculptures.
  • Yakshas and Yakshinis, celestial beings associated with nature and fertility, were frequently depicted in Mathura sculptures.
  • Nature was often used symbolically in Buddhist and Jain art, such as the Bodhi tree representing Buddha's enlightenment.
  • Key Features of Mathura Art:
  • Mathura art evolved during the Kushana period and served as a major center of artistic activity.
  • It is characterized by red sandstone sculptures with intricate detailing and bold expressions.
  • The art form emphasized realism and depicted human and divine figures with naturalistic features and elaborate ornamentation.
  • Notable examples include the seated Buddha statues and images of Hindu deities like Vishnu and Shiva.
  • Comparison with Gandhara Art:
  • While Mathura art represented indigenous Indian styles, Gandhara art reflected strong Greco-Roman influences.
  • Mathura sculptures were made of red sandstone, whereas Gandhara sculptures predominantly used grey schist stone.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 14 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 153

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which of the following statements about Hola Mohalla festival of Punjab is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is celebrated mainly by women through crafts and songs in Patiala.

  2. BOption (b)

    It showcases martial arts, langars, and Nihang mock battles at Anandpur Sahib.

  3. COption (c)

    It is a harvest festival observed in Punjab just before Diwali.

  4. DOption (d)

    Hola Mohalla is celebrated on the same day as Holi.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It showcases martial arts, langars, and Nihang mock battles at Anandpur Sahib.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It showcases martial arts, langars, and Nihang mock battles at Anandpur Sahib..

Key Points

  • Hola Mohalla is a Sikh festival that was first introduced by Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Sikh Guru, in 1701.
  • The festival is celebrated a day after Holi and is marked by demonstrations of martial arts, mock battles by Nihang warriors, and traditional Sikh customs.
  • The main celebrations are held at Anandpur Sahib, a significant Sikh pilgrimage site in Punjab.
  • It is known for its community kitchens (langars), where free meals are served to all visitors as part of Sikh tradition.
  • The festival also includes religious processions, poetry recitations, and devotional music, making it a vibrant cultural and spiritual event.

Additional Information

  • It seems to be a misrepresentation of certain other cultural festivals in Punjab where women actively participate in folk activities like Giddha and Phulkari.
  • In Punjab, Baisakhi is the prominent harvest festival celebrated in April to mark the wheat harvesting season.
  • Hola Mohalla is celebrated a day after Holi and is distinct in its focus on martial traditions and Sikh spiritual values.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 14 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 154

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Mārgi Sangita in ancient Indian music was rooted in:

  1. AOption (a)

    Folk music

  2. BOption (b)

    Vedic traditions

  3. COption (c)

    Courtly entertainment

  4. DOption (d)

    Western-influence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vedic traditions

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vedic traditions.

Key Points

  • Mārgi Sangita refers to the classical music tradition of ancient India, which is deeply rooted in the Vedic traditions.
  • It was considered divine and sacred, often used in rituals, spiritual practices, and worship.
  • The Samaveda, one of the four Vedas, provides the earliest references to music, including chants and hymns that were rhythmically structured.
  • The concept of Mārgi Sangita was based on spiritual and philosophical ideals, aiming to elevate the human soul and connect it with higher consciousness.
  • It contrasted with Desi Sangita, which referred to regional or folk music traditions and was meant for entertainment rather than spiritual elevation.

Additional Information

  • Classical Music
  • Hindustani (North India): Features instruments like sitar, sarod, and tabla, focusing on improvisation within complex melodic structures (ragas) and rhythmic cycles (talas).
  • Carnatic (South India): Emphasizes vocal compositions, often devotional, using different structures and scales (swaras).
  • Key Figures: Pandit Ravi Shankar (Sitar), Ustad Bismillah Khan (Shehnai), Pandit Bhimsen Joshi (Vocal).
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 14 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 155

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

In freestyle wrestling, which of the following actions can result in a technical point for the wrestler?

  1. AOption (a)

    Running out of the mat deliberately

  2. BOption (b)

    Holding the opponent's singlet

  3. COption (c)

    Performing a successful takedown

  4. DOption (d)

    Using an illegal headlock

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Performing a successful takedown

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Performing a successful takedown.

Key Points

  • A takedown is a critical technique in freestyle wrestling that allows a wrestler to bring their opponent from a standing position to the mat and gain control.
  • Performing a successful takedown awards the wrestler technical points, which depend on the skill level and execution of the move (usually 2 to 5 points).
  • Common types of takedowns include single-leg takedown, double-leg takedown, and throws.
  • In addition to scoring points, a takedown puts the wrestler in an advantageous position to attempt further scoring or pinning.
  • Freestyle wrestling emphasizes both offensive and defensive techniques, with takedowns being one of the primary methods of scoring.

Additional Information

  • Running out of the mat deliberately
  • Running out of the mat is considered a form of passive wrestling or avoiding engagement, which can lead to penalties.
  • Instead of gaining points, wrestlers may receive warnings or penalties for deliberately stepping out of the mat to escape an opponent’s hold or avoid engagement.
  • In some cases, referees may award points to the opponent if this action is deemed intentional.
  • Holding the opponent's singlet
  • Grabbing the opponent's singlet, headgear, or other parts of their uniform is prohibited in freestyle wrestling.
  • This action is considered illegal and results in penalties or warnings against the wrestler committing the foul.
  • The purpose of this rule is to ensure fairness and maintain the integrity of the sport.
  • Using an illegal headlock
  • An illegal headlock occurs when a wrestler applies a headlock without an arm included in the hold.
  • This technique is not allowed as it can cause serious injuries and is against the rules of freestyle wrestling.
  • Wrestlers using illegal holds may face penalties, warnings, or even disqualification in extreme cases.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 14 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 156

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Vijender Singh defeated which player in the quarter-finals to secure India's first Olympic boxing medal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Emilio Correa

  2. BOption (b)

    Carlos Góngora

  3. COption (c)

    Misha Aloyan

  4. DOption (d)

    Vasyl Lomachenko

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Carlos Góngora

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Carlos Góngora.

Key Points

  • Vijender Singh defeated Carlos Góngora, a boxer from Ecuador, in the quarter-finals of the Men's Middleweight category at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
  • This victory secured Vijender Singh a medal in boxing, making him the first Indian boxer to win an Olympic medal.
  • The match was intensely fought, with Vijender showcasing exceptional strategy, precision, and stamina to outclass Carlos Góngora.
  • Vijender's performance at the Beijing Olympics marked a milestone for Indian boxing, elevating the sport's status in the country.
  • He eventually secured the bronze medal in the Men's Middleweight (75 kg) category, creating history for Indian sports.

Additional Information

  • Emilio Correa:
  • Emilio Correa is a Cuban boxer who competed in the Middleweight category at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
  • He won the silver medal in the event, losing to James DeGale of Great Britain in the final.
  • Correa was known for his aggressive fighting style and strong punches in the competition.
  • Misha Aloyan:
  • Misha Aloyan is a Russian boxer who specializes in the Flyweight category.
  • He is a two-time world champion and an Olympic medalist, winning the bronze medal at the 2012 London Olympics.
  • However, Aloyan did not compete in the same weight category or event as Vijender Singh during the 2008 Olympics.
  • Vasyl Lomachenko:
  • Vasyl Lomachenko is a celebrated Ukrainian boxer, widely regarded as one of the greatest amateur boxers of all time.
  • He won gold medals in the Featherweight and Lightweight categories at the 2008 and 2012 Olympics respectively.
  • Despite his legendary status, Lomachenko competed in a different weight category than Vijender Singh during the 2008 Beijing Olympics.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 14 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 157

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which mechanism did India operationalize in 2024 to strengthen regional financial resilience within SAARC?

  1. AOption (a)

    SAARC Development Fund capital increase

  2. BOption (b)

    SAARC Currency Swap Framework (2024-27)

  3. COption (c)

    SAARC Trade Insurance Scheme

  4. DOption (d)

    SAARC Sovereign Credit Pool

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

SAARC Currency Swap Framework (2024-27)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is SAARC Currency Swap Framework (2024-27).

Key Points

  • The SAARC Currency Swap Framework (2024-27) was operationalized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to enhance financial cooperation and stability among SAARC member nations.
  • Under this mechanism, India provides short-term financial assistance in foreign currency to SAARC member countries facing liquidity constraints.
  • The total corpus for the framework is USD 2 billion, with each eligible member country allowed to withdraw up to USD 400 million within specified limits.
  • The framework aims to strengthen regional financial resilience, mitigate balance of payment crises, and promote economic stability within the SAARC region.
  • The currency swap facility is offered in major international currencies (e.g., USD, EUR) or Indian Rupees to support member nations in times of financial distress.

Additional Information

  • SAARC Development Fund (SDF) capital increase:
  • The SAARC Development Fund was established in 2010 to promote regional integration and economic development in SAARC member states.
  • It primarily funds projects under its three windows: Social, Economic, and Infrastructure development.
  • Although increasing the SDF's capital has been proposed, it is not directly linked to the financial resilience mechanisms implemented in 2024.
  • About SAARC:
  • The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established in 1985 to promote economic, social, and cultural cooperation among its eight member states: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
  • SAARC initiatives aim to foster regional integration, address common challenges, and promote sustainable development within South Asia.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 14 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 158

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Fill in the blanks: Established in 1961 within the former Palace of the Maharaja of Patiala, the National Institute of Sports was later renamed as the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports (NSNIS) on ______ .

  1. AOption (a)

    15th August 1975

  2. BOption (b)

    26th January 1972

  3. COption (c)

    23rd January 1973

  4. DOption (d)

    7th May 1961

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

23rd January 1973

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 23rd January 1973.

Key Points

  • The National Institute of Sports (NIS) was established in 1961 within the premises of the historic Palace of the Maharaja of Patiala, Punjab.
  • It was renamed as the Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports (NSNIS) on 23rd January 1973.
  • The renaming was done in honor of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, a prominent leader in India’s freedom struggle, whose birth anniversary falls on January 23rd.
  • NSNIS is widely regarded as the "Mecca" of Indian sports, providing professional training and technical education in various sports disciplines.
  • It functions under the aegis of the Sports Authority of India (SAI) and plays a pivotal role in nurturing and developing athletes and sports coaches in the country.

Additional Information

  • National Institute of Sports (NIS) and its importance:
  • The institute offers advanced training programs for athletes and coaches in a range of disciplines, including athletics, hockey, football, boxing, and wrestling.
  • It also conducts diploma and certification courses in sports coaching, equipping individuals with the skills to train athletes effectively.
  • NSNIS has played a key role in producing several Olympians and international-level athletes for India.
  • It continues to be a hub for sports research and the development of modern training methodologies.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 14 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 159

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Consider the following statements about "The Vine of Desire" by Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni:

  1. Explores cultural conflicts in an Indian immigrant family across generations.

  2. A historical account of India's freedom struggle and politics.

  3. A science fiction tale about identity and technology in future India.

Which of the following is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only statement 1 is correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only statement 2 is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Statements 2 and 3 both are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 all are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only statement 1 is correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • "The Vine of Desire" by Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni is a novel exploring the complexities of relationships, cultural conflicts, and identity within the context of Indian immigrant families.
  • The book delves into themes of love, betrayal, reconciliation, and the challenges faced by immigrants in adapting to a new culture while holding onto traditional values.
  • It primarily focuses on the lives of two cousins, Anju and Sudha, and their struggles to navigate personal and cultural dilemmas in the United States.
  • The novel is known for its emotional depth and vivid portrayal of Indian-American immigrant life.
  • Statement 1 is correct as it captures the essence of the book, which revolves around the cultural conflicts and generational challenges within an Indian immigrant family.

Additional Information

  • Other notable works:
  • The Mistress of Spices (1997): A bestseller about a woman who runs a spice shop and uses spices for magical, life-altering purposes.
  • Sister of My Heart (1999): A story of two cousins and best friends in India, exploring deep bonds and fate.
  • The Palace of Illusions (2008): A retelling of the Mahabharata from the perspective of the heroine, Panchaali (Draupadi).
  • The Forest of Enchantments (2019) & The Last Queen (2021): Companion novels to The Palace of Illusions, continuing the epic mythological saga from other key female characters' viewpoints.
  • Independence (2023): A powerful novel exploring the 1947 Partition of India through three generations of women.
SSC CGL 2025 (Held On: 14 Sept, 2025 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Awareness
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Question 160

SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 2025• General Awareness• General Awareness

Which statements accurately describe water bodies in the Indian Desert?

  1. Streams are perennial and flow year-round.
  2. Most streams disappear into the sand.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 both are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2 are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2: Only 2.

Key Points

  • The Indian Desert, also known as the Thar Desert, is one of the most arid regions in India, and water scarcity is a defining feature of this landscape.
  • Most streams in the Indian Desert are ephemeral in nature, meaning they flow only during the monsoon season and disappear into the sand due to high porosity and evaporation rates.
  • Perennial streams are rare in the Thar Desert as the region receives an average annual rainfall of only 100-500 mm, which is insufficient to sustain year-round water flow.
  • One notable exception is the Luni River, which is the largest river in the Thar Desert but even it becomes saline after flowing through the desert region, limiting its usability.
  • The hydrological characteristic of the Thar Desert is such that most of the water from surface streams infiltrates into the sandy terrain or evaporates quickly due to the high temperatures.

Additional Information

  • The Indian Desert:
  • The Thar Desert covers approximately 200,000 square kilometers, making it the world's 17th largest desert.
  • The region is characterized by sand dunes, rocky outcrops, and sparse vegetation.
  • Oases in the Thar Desert, such as those in Jaisalmer, provide limited water resources for the local population.
  • The region supports unique flora and fauna adapted to the arid environment, such as desert foxes and thorny shrubs.

How should I prepare for General Awareness in SSC Combined Graduate Level (CGL)?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.